The Study Place Dental Review - A Garret L.

Robles, DDM Oral Health Services, Training

and Consultancy Program
November 2011 Dentist Licensure Examination Preparation
Evaluation: General Anatomy and Physiology (Set 1)

Source: Furnished upon member request

Disclaimer: While TheStudyPlace has taken every effort to make sure best answers are
supplied, answer key is subject to human encoding error and software limitations.

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers
the question.

1) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the location of 1)

the spleen and stomach:
A) Both of these organs are located in the left upper quadrant.
B) Both of these organs are located in the right upper quadrant.
C) The spleen is located in the left upper quadrant and the stomach
is located in the right upper quadrant.
D) The spleen is located in the right upper quadrant and the stomach
is located in the left upper quadrant.
E) Both of these organs are located medially.

2) Which of the following systems is matched most accurately to the life 2)

function it provides:
A) integumentary system - movement
B) nervous system - excretion
C) muscular system - maintaining boundaries
D) nervous system - responsiveness
E) respiratory system - digestion

3) In describing the relationship between the patellar and femoral 3)

regions:
A) the patellar region is superior to the femoral region
B) the patellar region is proximal to the femoral region
C) the patellar region is distal to the femoral region
D) the patellar region is lateral to the femoral region
E) the patellar region is dorsal to the femoral region

4) The system that regulates water, electrolyte, and acid-base balance of 4)

the blood is the:
A) respiratory system
B) cardiovascular system
C) reproductive system
D) muscular system
E) urinary system

5) Elimination of metabolic wastes from the body is the function of the: 5)

A) nervous system
B) urinary system
C) cardiovascular system
D) endocrine system
E) lymphatic system

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 6) In describing the relationship of the thoracic and spinal cavities: 6)
A) the thoracic cavity is superior to the spinal cavity
B) the thoracic cavity is inferior to the spinal cavity
C) the thoracic cavity is proximal to the spinal cavity
D) the thoracic cavity is medial to the spinal cavity
E) the thoracic cavity is ventral to the spinal cavity

7) Acids are: 7)
A) compounds that release hydrogen ions (protons) when dissolved in
water
B) compounds that release equal numbers of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions
in solution
C) compounds that accept hydrogen ions (protons) when dissolved in
water
D) compounds that are formed when water is a reactant in a chemical
reaction
E) compounds that are formed when water is a product in a chemical
reaction

8) The organic compounds that function in building tissues and acting as 8)

enzymes are the:
A) nucleic acids
B) carbohydrates
C) salts
D) lipids
E) proteins

9) The subatomic particles that are responsible for the chemical behavior 9)
of atoms are the:
A) protons
B) neutrons
C) electrons
D) isotopes
E) ions

10) The chemical symbol for potassium is: 10)

A) P B) Po C) Pt D) Ps E) K

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 11) Isotopes have: 11)
A) the same number of protons and neutrons but they differ in the
number of electrons
B) the same number of protons and electrons but they differ in the
number of neutrons
C) the same number of neutrons and electrons but they differ in the
number of protons
D) the same number of protons but they differ in the number of
neutrons and electrons
E) the same number of neutrons but they differ in the number of
protons and electrons

12) The most abundant element in the human body is: 12)
A) carbon
B) oxygen
C) hydrogen
D) nitrogen
E) calcium

13) The site where ribosomes assemble prior to their migration into the 13)
cytoplasm is the:
A) chromatin
B) chromosomes
C) nucleolus
D) nuclear membrane
E) plasma membrane

14) Which statement regarding transcription/translation is most correct : 14)

A) the nucleotide sequence in an mRNA codon is an exact copy of the
DNA triplet that coded for it
B) the nucleotide sequence in an mRNA codon is an exact copy of the
DNA triplet that coded for it, except that uracil is substituted
for thymine
C) the nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of
the DNA triplet that coded for it
D) the nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of
the DNA triplet that coded for it, except that uracil is
substituted for thymine
E) the nucleotide sequence in rRNA is constantly changing

15) DNA replication: 15)

A) can also be called mitosis
B) is spontaneous, not requiring enzyme action
C) takes place during interphase of the cell cycle
D) occurs only in translationally active areas
E) occurs only when cells are undergoing cell division

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 16) The coded information that dictates the structure of a protein molecule 16)
is a:
A) triplet
B) gene
C) nucleotide
D) ribosome
E) nitrogenous base

17) Which of the following processes require the use of carrier molecules: 17)
A) facilitated diffusion and solute pumping
B) facilitated diffusion and bulk transport
C) bulk transport and osmosis
D) osmosis and filtration
E) filtration and cellular secretion

18) An example of a mucous membrane is: 18)

A) the lining of the respiratory tract
B) the parietal peritoneum
C) the visceral peritoneum
D) the parietal pericardium
E) the visceral pericardium

19) When the body temperature rises, which of the following takes place: 19)
A) eccrine glands become active
B) arrector pili muscles contract
C) Pacinian corpuscles are stimulated
D) blood is prevented from reaching skin capillary beds
E) vitamin D synthesis is blocked

20) Sebaceous glands are important for: 20)

A) production of keratin
B) keeping skin and hair cells soft and flexible
C) production of sweat
D) body heat regulation
E) production of vitamin D

21) The "tanning" effect (darkening of the skin) that occurs when a person 21)
is exposed to the sun is somewhat protective due to:
A) increased production of melanin that helps to block ultraviolet
light
B) an increased concentration of keratin that "toughens" the skin
C) added layers of epidermis that thicken the skin
D) an increased blood supply that carries the heat of the sun away
E) a decreased blood supply that blocks melanocyte activity

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 22) Which of the following is a vital function of the skin: 22)
A) it converts modified epidermal cholesterol to vitamin D
B) it aids in the transport of materials throughout the body
C) the cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy
D) it absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to
diseases
E) it aids in dessication

23) The hyoid bone is unique because: 23)

A) it is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate
with any other bone
B) it has an unusual shape
C) it is covered with mucosa
D) it has no specific function
E) it largely consists of cartilage

24) The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective 24)
tissue called:
A) Volkmann's canals
B) a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage
C) Sharpey's fibers
D) endochondral bone
E) articular cartilage

25) Which of the following categories of bones is generally cube-shaped: 25)

A) compact bone
B) irregular bone
C) flat bone
D) long bone
E) short bone

26) A narrow, slitlike opening on a bone is a: 26)

A) facet B) fossa C) foramen D) fissure E) meatus

27) A compound fracture can be described as when: 27)

A) the bone is crushed
B) the broken bone ends are forced into each other
C) the broken bone is exposed to the outside
D) the bone is broken into many fragments
E) adjacent bones fracture simultaneously

28) Which of the following groups of terms is placed in order from largest 28)
to smallest:
A) myofilament, myofibril, fiber, fascicle
B) fiber, myofibril, myofilament, fascicle
C) fascicle, fiber, myofilament, myofibril
D) fascicle, fiber, myofibril, myofilament
E) fiber, myofibril, fascicle, myofilament

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 29) Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system: 29)
A) producing movement
B) maintaining posture
C) stabilizing joints
D) generating heat
E) hematopoiesis

30) Muscle tissue that is involuntary: 30)

A) cardiac muscle only
B) smooth muscle only
C) skeletal muscle only
D) cardiac muscle and smooth muscle
E) cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle

31) A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also 31)
use for whistling called the:
A) platysma
B) masseter
C) zygomaticus
D) buccinator
E) temporalis

32) The part of the cell (mostly cytoplasm) that is external to the myelin 32)
sheath:
A) Nissl substance
B) axolemma
C) neurilemma
D) white matter
E) gray matter

33) The nerve that contains motor fibers that activate chewing is: 33)
A) cranial nerve III
B) cranial nerve IV
C) cranial nerve V
D) cranial nerve VI
E) cranial nerve VII

34) Which of these effectors is NOT directly controlled by the autonomic 34)
nervous system:
A) smooth muscle
B) cardiac muscle
C) skeletal muscle
D) most glands
E) abdominal organs

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 35) Which statement about aging is most accurate: 35)
A) the brain reaches its maximum weight around the seventh decade of
life
B) synaptic connections are too fixed to permit a great deal of
learning after the age of 35
C) despite some neuronal loss, an unlimited number of neural pathways
are available and ready to be developed; therefore, additional
learning can occur throughout life
D) learning throughout the adult and aging years is supported
primarily by glial proliferation
E) increased efficiency of the sympathetic nervous system enhances
the ability to learn

36) The hearing receptors of the organ of Corti are called: 36)
A) hair cells
B) rod cells
C) cone cells
D) Corti cells
E) ceruminous cells

37) The clear central anterior portion of the sclera is called the: 37)
A) choroid B) cornea C) iris D) pupil E) retina

38) The oily secretions that lubricate the eye are produced by the: 38)
A) ceruminous glands
B) lacrimal glands
C) meibomian glands
D) apocrine glands
E) ciliary glands

39) Receptors stimulated by the movement of fluid or vibration are: 39)

A) chemoreceptors
B) mechanoreceptors
C) thermoreceptors
D) proprioceptors
E) gustatory receptors

40) Estrogens do all of the following except: 40)

A) stimulate the development of secondary sex characteristics in
females
B) stimulate growth of facial hair
C) stimulate menstruation
D) help maintain pregnancy
E) prepare the uterus to receive a fertilized egg

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 41) Aldosterone is a(n): 41)
A) sex hormone
B) glucocorticoid
C) catecholamine
D) mineralocorticoid
E) androgen

42) Insulin is produced by which cells of the pancreatic islets: 42)

A) alpha cells
B) beta cells
C) delta cells
D) gamma cells
E) theta cells

43) Which of the following is NOT an anterior pituitary hormone: 43)

A) prolactin
B) adrenocorticotropic hormone
C) follicle-stimulating hormone
D) antidiuretic hormone
E) interstitial cell-stimulating hormone

44) The type of leukocytes that contain large amounts of histamine are: 44)
A) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) basophils
D) lymphocytes
E) monocytes

45) In a centrifuged blood sample, the buffy coat contains: 45)

A) leukocytes and erythrocytes
B) platelets and erythrocytes
C) leukocytes and platelets
D) eythrocytes only
E) leukocytes only

46) Bleeding disorders often result from lack of which of the following: 46)
A) vitamin B12
B) vitamin A
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin K

47) The tricuspid valve is located between the: 47)

A) right atrium and left atrium
B) right atrium and right ventricle
C) right ventricle and left ventricle
D) left atrium and left ventricle
E) right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk

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 48) A decrease in venous return to the heart causes: 48)
A) a decrease in stroke volume and cardiac output
B) a decrease in stroke volume and an increase in cardiac output
C) an increase in stroke volume and cardiac output
D) an increase in stroke volume and a decrease in cardiac output
E) no change in stroke volume and cardiac output

49) The mitral valve is closed: 49)

A) when the ventricle is in diastole
B) when the ventricle is in systole
C) when the atrium is contracting
D) by the movement of blood from the atrium to the ventricle
E) when the ventricle is contracting

50) With immediate hypersensitivy, the antibody class that binds to mast 50)
cells causing the release of histamine is:
A) IgM B) IgA C) IgD D) IgG E) IgE

51) Cells invaded by viruses release _______________ to protect nearby 51)

cells and hinder further multiplication of the viruses.
A) histamine
B) interferon
C) kinins
D) interleukins
E) pyrogens

52) Immune sera are used for all of the following except: 52)
A) tuberculosis
B) rabies
C) snake bites
D) botulism
E) tetanus

53) An emotionally induced response that is similar to crying is: 53)

A) coughing
B) sneezing
C) laughing
D) hiccupping
E) yawning

54) The superior portion of the pharynx is called the: 54)

A) nasopharynx
B) oropharynx
C) palatopharynx
D) laryngopharynx
E) tracheopharynx

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 55) Which of the following terms does not apply to the nose: 55)
A) external nares
B) nasopharynx
C) nostrils
D) nasal cavity
E) nasal septum

56) Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of urinary tract 56)
infection:
A) dysuria
B) urinary retention
C) urinary urgency
D) urinary frequency
E) cloudy urine

57) Each kidney contains about: 57)

A) 100,000 nephrons
B) 500,000 nephrons
C) 1 million nephrons
D) 2 million nephrons
E) 3 million nephrons

58) The triangular regions of the kidneys that are separated by the renal 58)
columns are the:
A) renal cortex
B) renal medulla
C) medullary pyramids
D) renal pelvis
E) calyces

59) Which of the following is NOT true of the spermatic cord: 59)
A) it is a connective tissue sheath
B) it encloses the ductus deferens
C) it encloses the epididymis
D) it contains nerves
E) it contains blood vessels

60) The layer of the uterus that sloughs off on a monthly basis is the: 60)
A) endometrium
B) myometrium
C) perimetrium
D) epimetrium
E) hypometrium

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 61) The pancreas is part of which of the following two systems: 61)
A) digestive and endocrine systems
B) digestive and respiratory systems
C) reproductive and endocrine systems
D) reproductive and respiratory systems
E) endocrine and respiratory systems

62) Which of the following statements is true regarding the sternal, 62)
axillary, and brachial regions:
A) all of these regions are located on the anterior surface of the
body
B) none of these regions are located on the anterior surface of the
body
C) only the sternal and axillary regions are anterior
D) only the sternal and brachial regions are anterior
E) only the axillary and brachial regions are anterior

63) The joining of nucleotide molecules to form a more complex nucleic acid 63)
is an example of:
A) a decomposition reaction
B) an exchange reaction
C) a synthesis reaction
D) a denaturation reaction
E) a hydrolysis reaction

64) Which of the following is an example of a synthesis reaction: 64)

A) the breakdown of glycogen to form glucose units
B) ATP transfers its terminal phosphate group to glucose to form
glucose phosphate
C) amino acids are joined to form a protein molecule
D) the decomposition of water
E) the reaction between an acid and a base, which forms a salt and
water

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page 11
 65) Place these steps in protein synthesis in the correct order: 65)
(1) as the ribosome moves along the mRNA, a new amino acid is added
to the growing protein chain
(2) mRNA is made on a DNA template
(3) incoming tRNA "recognizes" the complimentary mRNA sequence
(codon), calling for its amino acid by binding to it via its
anticodon
(4) released tRNA reenters the cytoplasm to be recharged with a new
amino acid
(5) mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome, and
translation begins
A) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
B) 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
C) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5
D) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1
E) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

66) Intercalated disks are found in: 66)

A) cardiac muscle tissue only
B) skeletal muscle tissue only
C) smooth muscle tissue only
D) both cardiac and smooth muscle tissue
E) both skeletal and smooth muscle tissue

67) Mrs. J. has an allergy to certain chemicals that cause itching, 67)
redness, and swelling of her skin. Her condition is termed:
A) impetigo
B) alopecia
C) erythema
D) cyanosis
E) contact dermatitis

68) Vernix caseosa is a: 68)

A) substance contributing to acne during adolescence
B) whitish material produced by fetal sebaceous glands
C) coat of fine, downy hair on the heads of balding men
D) cheesy-looking sudoriferous secretion on the skin of newborns
E) downy type of hair that covers the fetus in the fifth and sixth
months

69) The canal that runs through the core of each osteon contains: 69)
A) cartilage and lamellae
B) osteoclasts and osteoblasts
C) yellow marrow and Sharpey's fibers
D) blood vessels and nerve fibers
E) red marrow

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 70) An armlike bar of bone is called a(n): 70)
A) epicondyle
B) line
C) ramus
D) facet
E) condyle

71) A muscle located on the dorsal side of the body is the: 71)
A) pectoralis major
B) rectus femoris
C) rectus abdominis
D) trapezius
E) external intercostals

72) Which of the following are composed of myosin: 72)

A) thick filaments
B) thin filaments
C) all myofilaments
D) Z lines
E) light bands

73) Which of the following is the correct sequence in a typical reflex arc: 73)
A) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron,
receptor
B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron,
effector
C) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron,
receptor
D) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron,
effector
E) receptor, afferent neuron, efferent neuron, integration center,
effector

74) The auditory ossicles are located within the: 74)

A) external ear
B) middle ear
C) inner ear
D) bony labyrinth
E) membranous labyrinth

75) The antagonist to calcitonin is: 75)

A) prolactin
B) melatonin
C) parathormone
D) aldosterone
E) thyroxine

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 76) Blood normally clots in: 76)
A) 1 minute
B) 3 to 6 minutes
C) 5 to 10 minutes
D) 15 minutes
E) 30 minutes

77) When considering the lub-dup heart sounds: 77)

A) the first sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of
the (right) tricuspid valve; the second sound is shorter and
sharper and is caused by closure of the mitral valve
B) the first sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of
the tricuspid valve; the second sound is longer and louder and is
caused by closure of the mitral valve (left bicuspid valve)
C) they are caused by contraction of the ventricles, followed by
contraction of the atria
D) the first sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of
the AV valves; the second sound is shorter and sharper and is
caused by closure of the semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic)
E) the first sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of
the semilunar valves; the second sound is longer and louder and is
caused by closure of the AV valves

78) Which of the following is NOT true of the constant (C) regions of 78)
antibodies:
A) they are the same or nearly the same
B) they form the "stem" of an antibody
C) they determine the type of antibody formed (class)
D) they form an antigen-binding site
E) they determine how the antibody class will carry out its immune
role

79) Which of the following are the most damaging and disabling respiratory 79)
diseases at present:
A) tuberculosis and COPD
B) COPD and lung cancer
C) lung cancer and asthma
D) asthma and tuberculosis
E) tuberculosis and pneumonia

80) The noninvasive treatment for renal calculi is called: 80)

A) lithotripsy
B) lithiasis
C) lithectomy
D) lithotomy
E) lithoscopy

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page 14
 81) Which of the following is NOT one of the secondary sex characteristics 81)
in females:
A) enlargement of the accessory organs of reproduction
B) breast development
C) appearance of axillary and pubic hair
D) decreased fat deposits beneath the skin
E) widening of the pelvis

82) Which of the following orientation and directional terms have the same 82)
meaning (in humans):
A) superior and caudal
B) inferior and cranial
C) inferior and cephalad
D) anterior and ventral
E) anterior and dorsal

83) Which of the following statements about enzymes is true: 83)

A) they are carbohydrates
B) they are stable at high temperatures
C) they are biological catalysts
D) they are not reuseable
E) they are required in large amounts in order to be effective

84) The nucleic acid responsible for bringing the amino acids to the 84)
"factory" site for protein formation is the:
A) rRNA B) mRNA C) tRNA D) DNA E) ATP

85) Which of the following is the correct sequence in layers of the 85)
epidermis going from outermost to innermost layer:
A) stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum, stratum
lucidum, stratum germinativum
B) stratum granulosum, stratum germinativum, stratum lucidum, stratum
spinosum, stratum corneum
C) stratum germinativum, stratum corneum, stratum spinosum, stratum
lucidum, stratum granulosum
D) stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum
spinosum, stratum germinativum
E) stratum corneum, stratum germinativum, stratum lucidum, stratum
granulosum, stratum spinosum

86) Which of the following is an example of a bone that forms from fibrous 86)
membranes:
A) the parietal bone
B) the radius
C) the humerus
D) the femur
E) the tibia

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page 15
 87) Which of the following is the action of the orbicularis oris: 87)
A) closes, purses, and protrudes the lips
B) pulls the lower lip down and back
C) draws the eyebrows together
D) allows blinking, squinting, and various other protective
mechanisms for the eye
E) closes the jaw

88) The groove separating the cerebral hemispheres is the: 88)

A) central sulcus
B) parieto-occipital sulcus
C) longitudinal fissure
D) lateral sulcus
E) anterior commissure

89) The bacterial infection known as "pinkeye" is caused by irritation of 89)

the:
A) choroid
B) conjunctiva
C) cornea
D) retina
E) sclera

90) When blood levels of aldosterone rise, the kidney tubules: 90)
A) reabsorb potassium
B) reabsorb sodium
C) reabsorb calcium
D) reabsorb iodine
E) reabsorb hydrogen

91) Of the formed elements, which is the most numerous: 91)

A) erythrocytes
B) eosinophils
C) platelets
D) basophils
E) lymphocytes

92) The path of blood flow in the vascular system is: 92)
A) arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, venules, veins
B) arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, veins, venules
C) arterioles, arteries, venules, veins, capillary beds
D) arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, veins, venules
E) arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, venules, veins

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page 16
 93) Which of the following is NOT true of macrophages: 93)
A) they are the "big eaters" of the immune system
B) they engulf foreign particles
C) they circulate continuously through the body
D) they act as antigen presenters
E) they secrete monokines

94) Inhalation of food or other foreign substance into the lungs, thus 94)
leading to pneumonia, is called:
A) hemothorax
B) pleurisy
C) aspiration pneumonia
D) pneumothorax
E) pulmonary taponade

95) The bladder is able to expand as urine accumulates due to the presence 95)
of:
A) rugae
B) transitional epithelium
C) segmentation
D) pseudostratified epithelium
E) sphincters

96) For fertilization to occur, sexual intercourse must occur no more than 96)
________ hours before ovulation.
A) 12 B) 24 C) 48 D) 72 E) 90

97) Hematopoeisis is the function of the: 97)

A) integumentary system
B) skeletal system
C) nervous system
D) endocrine system
E) digestive system

98) Water is useful in body processes because: 98)

A) it is a good solvent
B) it acts as an enzyne
C) it has a low heat capacity
D) it is a product in hydrolysis reactions
E) it is chemically inert

99) Microvilli are apt to be found in cells that are specialized for: 99)
A) contraction
B) protection
C) absorption
D) insulation
E) division

Copyright Notice: No part of this test may be reproduced except for members of
thestudyplaceonline.com. Material is NOT for commercial distribution. Software used to
code and prepare this exam is duly licensed for Garret L. Robles. Questions are derived
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infringement beyond intended use and purpose. Copyright 2011.

page 17
 100) The categories of epithelial tissue membranes are: 100)
A) synovial, cutaneous, and mucous membranes
B) synovial, cutaneous, and serous membranes
C) synovial, mucous, and serous membranes
D) synovial, mucous, and cutaneous membranes
E) mucous, cutaneous, and serous membranes

Copyright Notice: No part of this test may be reproduced except for members of
thestudyplaceonline.com. Material is NOT for commercial distribution. Software used to
code and prepare this exam is duly licensed for Garret L. Robles. Questions are derived
from properly referenced sources. End user assumes full responsibilty of copyright
infringement beyond intended use and purpose. Copyright 2011.

page 18
Answer Key
Testname: 2011.1.GENERAL ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY SET 1

1) A
2) D
3) C
4) E
5) B
6) E
7) A
8) E
9) C
10) E
11) B
12) B
13) C
14) D
15) C
16) B
17) A
18) A
19) A
20) B
21) A
22) A
23) A
24) C
25) E
26) D
27) C
28) D
29) E
30) D
31) D
32) C
33) C
34) C
35) C
36) A
37) B
38) C
39) B
40) B
41) D
42) B
43) D
44) C
45) C
46) E
47) B
Copyright Notice: No part of this test may be reproduced except for members of
thestudyplaceonline.com. Material is NOT for commercial distribution. Software used to
code and prepare this exam is duly licensed for Garret L. Robles. Questions are derived
from properly referenced sources. End user assumes full responsibilty of copyright
infringement beyond intended use and purpose. Copyright 2011.

page 19
Answer Key
Testname: 2011.1.GENERAL ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY SET 1

48) A
49) B
50) E
51) B
52) A
53) C
54) A
55) B
56) B
57) C
58) C
59) C
60) A
61) A
62) A
63) C
64) C
65) B
66) A
67) E
68) B
69) D
70) C
71) D
72) A
73) B
74) B
75) C
76) B
77) D
78) D
79) B
80) A
81) D
82) D
83) C
84) C
85) D
86) A
87) A
88) C
89) B
90) B
91) A
92) E
93) C
94) C
Copyright Notice: No part of this test may be reproduced except for members of
thestudyplaceonline.com. Material is NOT for commercial distribution. Software used to
code and prepare this exam is duly licensed for Garret L. Robles. Questions are derived
from properly referenced sources. End user assumes full responsibilty of copyright
infringement beyond intended use and purpose. Copyright 2011.

page 20
Answer Key
Testname: 2011.1.GENERAL ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY SET 1

95) B
96) D
97) B
98) A
99) C
100) E

Copyright Notice: No part of this test may be reproduced except for members of
thestudyplaceonline.com. Material is NOT for commercial distribution. Software used to
code and prepare this exam is duly licensed for Garret L. Robles. Questions are derived
from properly referenced sources. End user assumes full responsibilty of copyright
infringement beyond intended use and purpose. Copyright 2011.

page 21