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Scholarship Test

The document contains a scholarship test with 20 multiple choice questions covering topics like genetics, grammar, logic, mathematics, and data interpretation. It tests understanding of concepts like chromosomes, insurance claims, syntax, prices, statistics, geometry, and puzzles. The test questions require applying reasoning and problem-solving abilities to select the best answer from the options provided to complete statements or solve problems.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
8K views6 pages

Scholarship Test

The document contains a scholarship test with 20 multiple choice questions covering topics like genetics, grammar, logic, mathematics, and data interpretation. It tests understanding of concepts like chromosomes, insurance claims, syntax, prices, statistics, geometry, and puzzles. The test questions require applying reasoning and problem-solving abilities to select the best answer from the options provided to complete statements or solve problems.

Uploaded by

sushreee
Copyright
© Attribution Non-Commercial (BY-NC)
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as DOC, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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SCHOLARSHIP TEST -2011

Questions 1 to 5 : Each of the following questions has one or more blank spaces
indicating where a word / words has been left out. Following each sentence, four
words or sets of words lettered a to d have been given. You have to select the
appropriate word or set of words to make the sentence most meaningful.

1. The __________, those cellular bodies which contain the __________


particles, the genes, provide us with basic facts of genetic transmission.

(a) protoplasm, microscopic


(b) globules, fat
(c) cytoplasm, minute
(d) chromosomes, hereditary

2. The insurance claim was __________ by the relevant documents


(a) sustained
(b) backed out
(c) backed up
(d) proved

3. I should not have __________ to talk in such a __________ strain especially


when I had not studied the man to whom I was talking.

(a) daring, commanding


(b) try, bold
(c) ventured, peremptory
(d) emboldened, reckless

4. High prices are often the __________ of __________ of goods


(a) accompaniment, dearth
(b) concomitant, scarcity
(c) cause, destitution
(d) result, glut

5. The recent disturbances in the country will __________ and peace will be
restored.
(a) blow past
(b) blow over
(c) pass through
(d) come to pass
Questions 6 to 10: Each pair of CAPITALIZED words given below is followed by
four pairs of words. Choose the pair which does not exhibit the relationship
similar to that expressed in the capitalized pair.

6. RENT : LEASE
(a) interest : borrow
(b) salary : employ
(c) price : buy
(d) tax : govern

7. TEMPERATURE : HEAT
(a) votes : popularity
(b) IQ : intelligence
(c) ohms : resistance
(d) speed : distance

8. PROGRESS : PROGRESSIVE
(a) terror : terrorist
(b) sympathy : sympathizer
(c) revolution : revolutionary
(d) reform : reformist

9. STUBBORN : ADAPTABLE
(a) stupid : bright
(b) moral : amoral
(c) inherent : extraneous
(d) friend : enemy

10. CLIPS : PAPER


(a) thread : beads
(b) cement : bricks
(c) ribbon : hair
(d) bag : vegetables

11. Two oranges three bananas and four apples cost Rs. 15. Three oranges, two
bananas and one apple cost Rs. 10. I bought 3 oranges, 3 bananas and 3
apples. How much did I pay?

(a) Rs. 10
(b) Rs. 8
(c) Rs 15
(d) cannot be determined
12. The rate of increase of the price of sugar is observed to be two percent more
than the inflation rate expressed in percentage. The price of sugar, on January 1,
1994, is Rs. 20 per kg. The inflation rate for the years 1994 and 1995 are
expected to be 8% each. The expected price of sugar on January 1, 1996
would be

(a) 23.60
(b) 24.00
(c) 24.20
(d) 24.60

13. An intelligence agency decides on a code of 2 digits selected from 0, 1, 2, ….


, 9. But the slip on which the code is hand –written allows confusion between top
and bottom, because these are indistinguishable. Thus, for example, the code 91
could be confused with 16. How many codes are there such that there is no
possibility of any confusion?
(a) 25
(b) 75
(c) 80
(d) None of these

14. Suppose one wishes to find distinct positive integers x, y such that (x + y)/ xy
is also a positive integer. Identify the correct alternative.
(a) This is never possible.
(b) This is possible and the pair (x,y) satisfying the stated condition is unique.
(c) This is possible and there exist more than one but a finite number of ways of
choosing the pair (x,y).
(d) This is possible and the pair (x,y) can be chosen in infinite ways.

15. Given odd positive integers x, y and z which of the following is not
necessarily true?
(a) x2 y2 z2 is odd
(b) 3(x2 + y3)z2 is even.
(c) 5x + y + z4 is odd
(d) z2 (x4 + y4)/2 is even

16. 139 persons have signed up for an elimination tournament. All players are to
be paired up for the first round, but because 139 is an odd number one player
gets a bye, which promotes him to the second round, without actually playing in
the first round. The pairing continues on the next round, with a bye to any player
left over. If the schedule is planned so that a minimum number of matches is
required to determine the champion, the number of matches which must be
played is

(a) 136
(b) 137
(c) 138
(d) 139

17. There are ten 50 paise coins placed on a table. Six of these show tails four
show heads. A coin is chosen at random and flipped over (not tossed). This
operation is performed seven times. One of the coins is then covered . Of the
remaining nine
coins, five show tails and four show heads. The covered coin shows

(a) a head
(b) a tail
(c) more likely a head
(d) more likely a tail

18. From each of the two given numbers, half the smaller number is subtracted.
Of the resulting numbers the larger one is three times as large as the smaller.
What is the ratio of the two numbers?
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) None

19. Three identical cones with base radius r are placed on their bases so that
each is touching the other two. The radius of the circle drawn through their
vertices is
(a) smaller than r.
(b) equal to r.
(c) larger than r.
(d) depends on the height of the cones.

20. The line AB is 6 metres in length and is tangent to the inner one of the two
concentric circles at point C. It is known that
the radii of the two circles are integers. The radius of the outer circle is

(a) 5 metres
(b) 4 metres
(c) 6 metres
(d) 3 metres

Directions for questions 21 to 24: Answer the questions based on the following
information.
Mr. Mansingh has five sons – Arun, Mahi, Rohit, Nilesh and Sourav, and three
daughters – Tamanna, Kuntala and Janaki. Three sons of Mr. Mansingh were
born first followed by two daughters. Sourav is the eldest child and Janki is the
youngest. Three of the children are studying at Trinity School and three are
studying at St Stefan. Tamanna and Rohit study at St Stefan school. Kuntala, the
eldest daughter, plays chess. Mansorover school offers cricket only, while Trinity
school offers chess. Beside, these schools offer no other games. The children
who are at mansorover school have been born in succession. Mahi and Nilesh
are cricketers while Arun plays football. Rohit who was born just before Janki,
plays hockey.

21. Arun is the _________________ child of Mr. Mansingh.


(1) 2nd (2) 3rd (3) 6th (4) 5th

22. Sourav is a student of which school?


(1) Trinity (2) St. Stefan (3) Mansorover (4) Cannot be determined

23. What game does Tamanna play?


(1) Cricket (2) Hockey (3) Football (4) Cannot be determined

24. Which of the following pairs was not born in succession (ignore the order)?
(1) Mahi and Nilesh (2) Kuntala and Arun (3) Rohit and Janki (4) Arun and Rohit

Directions for questions 25 to 28: Professor Mukhopadhay works only on


Mondays, Tuesday, Wednesday, Friday and Saturday. She performs four
quizzes, evaluating quizzes, and working on consultancy projects. Each working
day she performs exactly one activity in the morning and exactly one activity in
the afternoon. During each week her work schedule MUST satisfy the following
restrictions: She conducts quizzes on exactly three mornings. If she conducts
quizzes on Monday, she does not conduct a quiz on Tuesday. She lecturer in the
afternoon on exactly two consecutive calendar days. She evaluates quizzes on
exactly one morning and three afternoons. She works on consultancy project on
exactly one morning. On Saturday, she neither lectures nor conducts quizzes.

25. On Wednesdays, the Professors could be scheduled to


(1) Conduct a quiz in the morning and lecturer in the afternoon
(2) Work on a consultancy project in the morning and conduct a quiz in the
afternoon.
(3) Lecturer in the morning and evaluate quizzes in the afternoon
(4) Conduct a quiz in the morning and work on consultancy project in the
afternoon
(5) Evaluate quizzes in the morning and evaluate quizzes in the afternoons.

26. Which one of the following statements must be true?


(1) There is one day on which she evaluates quizzes both in the morning and in
the afternoon.
(2) She works on consultancy project on one of the days ion which lecturers.
(3) She lectures on one of the days on which she conducts quiz.
(4) She works on consultancy project on one of the days on which she evaluates
quizzes.
(5) She lecturers on one of the days on which evaluates quizzes.

27. If the Professor conducts a quiz on Tuesday, then her schedule for evaluating
quizzes could be
(1) Monday morning, Monday afternoons, Friday morning, Friday afternoon.
(2) Monday morning, Friday afternoons, Saturday morning, Saturday afternoon
(3) Monday afternoons, Wednesdays morning, Wednesdays afternoon, Saturday
afternoons
(4) Wednesdays morning, Wednesday afternoon, Friday afternoons, Saturday
afternoon
(5) Wednesday afternoon, Friday afternoons, Saturday morning, Saturday
afternoon

28. Which one of the following must be a day on which Professor lectures?
(1) Monday (2) Wednesday (3) Friday (4) Tuesday (5) Saturda

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