Electricity &

Magnetism c. unchanged
d. quadrupled
1) What do you call a positively charged ion?
a. cathode b. anion c. cation d. domain 13) Positive ions are atoms that have ___.
a. gained a proton c. gained an electron
2) A law stating that the current in a thermionic diode varies directly b. lost a proton d. lost an electron
with the three-halves power of anode voltage and inversely with
the square of the distance between the electrodes, provided the 14) Current will cause a magnetic field in a conductor as follows
operating conditions are such that the current is limited only by a. An ac current causes a fixed polarity magnetic field.
the space charge. b. A dc current causes a fixed polarity magnetic field.
a. Lenzs law c. Childs law c. A dc current causes an alternating magnetic field.
b. Lorentzs law d. Coulombs law d. Both ac and dc currents cause a fixed polarity magnetic field.

3) The difference in energy between the valence and conduction bands 15) Determine the force in newton between 4 mC charges separated by
of a semiconductor is called ___. 0.1 meter in air.
a. band gap c. conductivity a. 1.44 N b. 14.4 N c. 144 N d. 1440 N
b. extrinsic photoeffect d. energy density
16) Using the left-hand rule, if your fingers wrap around a coil in the
4) The force on a point charge due to electromagnetic fields is known direction of its current flow, your thumb will point toward the ___.
as ___. a. positive polarity of the source
a. Lorentzs force c. full force b. south pole of the electromagnet
b. field force d. Coulombs force c. north pole of the electromagnet
d. negative polarity of the source
5) What is the law whereby the force of attraction and repulsion
between poles is inversely propotional to the square of the distance 17) Nonmetallic materials that has ferromagnetic properties.
between them? a. termites b. ferrites c. ferrous d. loadstone
a. Newtons first law c. Newtons second law
b. Nortons law d. Coulombs second law 18) What must be the distance between two point charges Q1 = 7.0 #
10-6 C and Q2 = 5.0 # 10-5 C for the electrostatic force (in the air)
6) It is the production of a voltage difference across an electrical between them to have magnitude 3.0 N?
conductor, transverse to an electrical current in the conductor and a. 1.02 m c. 1.05 m
a magnetic field perpendicular to the current. b. 2.06 m d. Cannot be solved
a. Wiegand effect c. butterfly effect
b. Hall effect d. Oersted rule 19) What is meant by back emf?
a. A voltage that is applied in the reverse direction.
7) It is an equation in electromagnetism that describes the magnetic b. An emf that is due to the flywheel effect.
field B generated by an electric current. The vector field B c. An emf that is generated from the back of an electromagnet.
depends on the magnitude, direction, length, and proximity of d. A voltage that opposes the applied emf.
the electric current, and also on a fundamental constant called
the magnetic constant. 20) Determine which statement is true.
a. Lenzs equation c. Henrys law a. The current carriers in conductors are protons.
b. Biot-Savarts law d. Nortons equation b. The current carriers in conductors are valence electrons.
c. Valence and inner electrons are the carriers in conductors.
8) What do you call the total number of electric lines of force in an d. Valence electrons are not the ones that become free electrons.
electric field?
a. electric field c. electric flux density 21) A substance with high retentivity is best suited for making a(n) ___.
b. electric flux d. electric lines of force a. ac electromagnet c. electrostatic shield
b. dc electromagnet d. permanent magnet
9) A conductor has how many types of flow?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 22) An electric charge produces a total electric field of 6 coulombs. What
is the electric flux density in an area of one square meter (1 m2)?
10) Suppose an intrinsic semiconductor has 1 billion free electrons at a. 1 C/m2 b. 4 C/m2 c. 2 C/m2 d. 6 C/m2
room temperature. If the temperature changes to 75C, how many
holes are there? 23) What does a ferromagnetic material do?
a. fewer than 1 billion c. more than 1 billion a. Concentrates magnetic flux lines within itself.
b. 1 billion d. Impossible to say b. Increases the total magnetomotive force around a wire.
c. Causes an increase in the current in a wire.
11) The contribution to the ionization in an ionization chamber by d. Increases the number of ampere-turns in a wire.
electrons liberated from the walls.
a. ion effect c. wall effect 24) Three charges of +5 C, -6 C and +7 C are placed inside a sphere.
b. Hall effect d. Weigand effect What is the total charge of the sphere in coulomb?
a. +5 C b. +7 C c. -6 C d. +6 C
12) Suppose that an air-core loop of wire consisting of one turn carries
a certain amount of dc. If the number of turns in the loop is doubled 25) What is the charge magnitude Q of a body if it contains 5 more
while the current remains the same, the magnetomotive force is ___. electrons?
a. cut to one-quarter its previous value a. 5 # 10-19 C c. -5 C
b. cut in half b. 8 # 10-19 C d. -8 # 10-19 C
 Electricity & Magnetism
a. Wiegand effect c. Wiedemann effect
26) Find the electric field intensity 10 cm from a charge Q = 5 nC. b. Wertheim effect d. wall effect
a. 450 N/C c. 900 N/C
b. 4.5 # 103 N/C d. 9.0 # 103 N/C 42) In all cases of electromagnetic induction, the current set-up by an
induced voltage tends to create flux whose direction opposes any
27) A 2 nC point charge will produce what potential value at 2 m away? change in the existing flux, describes what law?
a. 4.0 V b. 7.5 V c. 6.0 V d. 9.0 V a. Amperes law c. Coulombs law
b. Lenzs law d. Faradays law
28) Cobalt is an example of a what material?
a. diamagnetic c. ferromagnetic 43) The emission of electrons from hot bodies is termed as ___.
b. paramagnetic d. magnetic a. radiation effect c. Edison effect
b. skin effect d. Hall effect
29) Materials that can be easily magnetized in both directions are ___.
a. diamagnetic c. soft magnetic materials 44) Which type of insulation is normally used for low or medium
b. paramagnetic d. hard magnetic materials range voltage?
a. plastics b. rubber c. asbestos d. paper
30) It is used to maintain strength of magnetic field.
a. storer b. gausser c. energizer d. keeper 45) When considering conventional current versus electron current
flow
31) It is the capacity of a substance to become magnetized and is a. Electron current flow came first.
expressed as a ratio between the magnetization produced in a b. Protons move in conventional current flow.
substance to the magnetizing force producing it. c. Conventional current flow came first.
a. magnetic conductivity c. magnetic susceptibility d. The direction of current is the same in both methods.
b. magnetic resistivity d. magnetic reluctivity
46) What is the ambient temperature of a conductor?
32) When you demagnetize properly by applying an ac field and then a. The normal temperature of a conductor through which current
gradually reduced it to zero, this process is called ___. is flowing.
a. damping c. decaying b. The heat generated by external sources and affecting a conductors
b. degaussing d. gaussing temperature.
c. The maximum heat of a conductor can withstand according to
33) Magnetic flux can always be attributed to what? its current rating.
a. ferromagnetic materials c. motion of charged particles d. The temperature at which the insulation of a conductor begins
b. aligned atoms d. the geomagnetic field to break down.

34) A potentially lethal electric current is on the order of what? 47) Which material is used as the standard for comparison of relative
a. 0.01 mA b. 0.1 mA c. 1 mA d. 0.1 A conductivity?
a. gold c. silver
35) If 550 C of charge pass through a wire in 1.5 minutes, what is the b. aluminum d. copper
current?
a. 6.11 A b. 4.11 A c. 5.11 A d. 7.11 A 48) For a material to be a good insulator, what are the two important
properties?
36) If 0.883 # 1017 electrons flow through a conductor in 239 ms, find a. high dielectric strength and low insulation resistance
the current. b. high dielectric strength and high insulation resistance
a. 59.11 A b. 59.11 mA c. 59.11 mA d. 59.1 kA c. low dielectric strength and high insulation resistance
d. low dielectric strength and low insulation resistance
37) If a conductor with a current of 175 mA converts 45 J of electrical
energy into heat in 25 seconds, find the potential drop across the 49) What is the electric force between 2 up-quarks separated by
conductor. 1.0-16 meters? This is a typical separation inside a proton.
a. 10.3 V b. 9.3 V c. 11.3 V d. 12.3 V a. 10.1 kN b. 10.3 kN c. 10.7 kN d. 10.9 kN

38) If a magnetic flux occurs across 100 turns at a rate 2 Wb/sec, what 50) Charges of -6 and +4 nC are 3 m apart. Determine the electric
was the induced voltage as per Faradays law? field at a point midway between them.
a. 100 V b. 200 V c. 400 V d. 800 V a. 40 N/C towards the positive charge
b. 40 N/C towards the negative charge
39) A magnetic flux of 25,000 maxwell in an area of 5 cm2 results in c. 8 N/C towards the positive charge
flux density of what? d. 8 N/C towards the negative charge
a. 5,000 gauss c. 5,000 tesla
b. 125,000 gauss d. 125,000 tesla 51) The strength of the electric field in the region between two parallel
deflecting plates of a cathode-ray oscilloscope is 25 kN/C. Determine
40) What law states that the magnetic susceptibilities of most paramagnetic the force exerted on an electron passing between these plates.
substances are inversely proportional to their absolute temperatures? a. 4 # 10-15 N c. 6 # 10-15 N
a. Curies law c. Coulombs law b. 5 # 10 N
-15 d. 8 # 10-15 N
b. Childs law d. Curie-Weiss law
52) Five 20 nC charges are located 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 m from a certain point.
41) What effect describes the ability of a mechanically stressed Find the potential at that point.
ferromagnetic wire to recognize rapid switching of magnetization a. 130 V b. 260 V c. 140 V d. 280 V
when subjected to a dc magnetic field?
 Electricity & Magnetism
53) What current density corresponds to a drift velocity of 6.0 # 10-4 m/s
in a silver conductor? s = 61.7 MS/m, me = 0.0056 m2/V-s
a. 6.61 MA/m2 c. 8.67 MA/m2
b. 5.56 MA/m 2 d. 1.01 MA/m2

54) AWG #12 copper conductor has 80.8 mil diameter. A 50-foot
length carries a current of 20 A. Find the voltage drop across the
50-foot length: s = 5.8 # 107 S/m, me = 0.0032 m2/V-s.
a. 3.59 V b. 1.59 V c. 3.78 V d. 4.67 V

55) What is the density of free electrons in a metal for a mobility of

0.0046 m2/V-s and a conductivity of 29.1 MS/m?
a. 5.98 # 1028 electrons/m3 c. 3.10 # 1028 electrons/m3
b. 0.89 # 10 electrons/m
28 3 d. 3.96 # 1028 electrons/m3

56) Determine the reluctance of an air gap in a dc machine where the

apparent area is A = 4.26 # 10-2 m2 and the gap length l = 5.6 mm.
a. 1.05 # 105 H-1 c. 3.05 # 105 H-1
b. 2.05 # 105 H-1 d. Lack of data

57) The permeability of a material having a flux density of 5 Wb/m2

is 10-5 H/m. What is the value of the magnetizing force?
a. 5 # 10-5 N c. 500 # 103 N
b. 13 # 10 N
3 d. 130p # 10-5 N

58) The amount of flux present in a round magnetic bar was measured
at 0.013 Wb. If the material has a diameter of 12 cm, calculate the
flux density.
a. 1.15 T b. 4.67 T c. 3.7 T d. 3.11 T

59) If a 50-turn coil has 2 A of current flowing through it and a core

length of 2 inches, it has ___.
a. 24.8 gilberts c. 24.8 oersted
b. 24.8 gauss d. 24.8 flux
Electrical Components 12) A material with a high dielectric constant ___.
Non-multiple Choices: a. acts to increase capacitance per unit volume
1) What is the resistance of a carbon resistor with a color code of red- b. acts to decrease capacitance per unit volume
yellow-black-gold? c. has no effect on capacitance
2) Determine the maximum resistance of a carbon-film resistor having d. causes a capacitor to become polarized
a color code of brown-black-orange-silver.
13) Which of the following capacitance values is most typical of a
Multiple Choices: paper capacitor?
1) If a material has low resistance, then a. 0.001 pF b. 0.01 mF c. 100 mF d. 3,300 mF
a. It is a good conductor.
b. It is a poor conductor. 14) An ohmmeter is connected across an inductor and the pointer
c. The current flows mainly in the form of holes. indicates zero ohms. The inductor is ___.
d. The current can flow only in one direction. a. good c. shorted
b. open d. partly shorted
2) What kind of device is a resistor?
a. unilateral b. linear c. nonlinear d. bipolar 15) Carbon resistors have which of the following disadvantages?
a. a high cost factor
3) Positive ions are atoms that have ___. b. the resistance value changes with age
a. gained a proton c. gained an electron c. a limited range of resistance values
b. lost a proton d. lost an electron d. an extremely large physical size

4) Carbon composition resistors ___. 16) A fourth band using the color brown represents ___.
a. can handle gigantic levels of power a. 0.1% b. 1% c. 0.01% d. 10%
b. have capacitance or inductance along with resistance
c. have essentially no capacitance or inductance 17) International ohm is defined in terms of resistance of ___.
d. work better for ac than for dc a. a column of mercury wire
b. a cube of carbon d. a cube of silver
5) An advantage of a rheostat over a potentiometer is the fact that c. unit length of platinum
a. A rheostat can handle higher frequencies.
b. A rheostat is more precise. 18) How are inductors classified?
c. A rheostat can handle more current. a. by conductor type
d. A rheostat works better with dc. b. by the direction of the windings on the core
c. by the number of turns
6) A resistor is specified as having a value of 68 V but is measured d. by core type
with an ohmmeter as 63 V. The value is off by which of the
following percentages? 19) What is the reciprocal of capacitance?
a. 7.4% b. 7.9% c. 5% d. 10% a. permittivity c. elastance
b. permeability d. conductance
7) A package of resistors is rated at 56 V ! 10%. You test them with
an ohmmeter. Which of the following values indicates a reject? 20) The advantage of ___ is that they can have high capacitance in a
a. 50.0 V b. 53.0 V c. 59.7 V d. 61.1 V small cage.
a. Mylar c. electrolytic
8) Suppose a carbon composition resistor has the following colored b. dielectric constants d. air dielectric
bands on it: gray, red, yellow. This unit can be expected to have a
value within approximately what range? 21) Which of the following characteristics of a capacitor can be varied
a. 660 kV to 980 kV without altering its capacitance?
b. 740 kV to 900 kV a. material of the dielectric c. thickness of the dielectric
c. 7.4 kV to 9.0 kV b. area of the plates d. thickness of the plates
d. The manufacturer does not make any claim.
22) What is the other name for dielectric strength?
9) An inductor works by ___. a. breakdown voltage c. potential gradient
a. charging a piece of wire b. electric intensity d. dielectric constant
b. storing energy as a magnetic field
c. choking off dc 23) A capacitor opposes change in ___.
d. introducing resistance into a circuit a. voltage c. voltage and current
b. current d. neither voltage nor current
10) Suppose three inductors are connected in series without mutual
inductance. Their values are 4.00 nH, 140 mH, 5.07 H. For practical 24) What is the SI unit of specific resistance or resistivity?
purposes, the net inductance will be very close to ___. a. ohm-circular mil per inch c. ohm-meter
a. 4.00 nH c. 5.07 H b. ohm-circular mil per foot d. ohm-centimeter
b. 140 mH d. None of these
25) What determines the value of the temperature coefficient of resistance
11) At a frequency of 400 Hz, which is in the audio frequency (AF) of a material?
range, the most likely form for an inductor would be ___. a. length c. volume
a. air-core c. toroidal b. cross-sectional area d. nature and temperature
b. solenoidal d. transmission line
 Electrical Components
26) What is the practical unit of electrical energy?
a. watt c. kilowatt-second
b. kilowatt-hour d. megawatt-hour

27) What is used as the dielectric material in high voltage transformers?

a. mica c. porcelain
b. paraffin d. oiled paper

28) Two capacitors of capacitance 9 mF and 18 mF in series will have

a total capacitance of ___.
a. 27 mF b. 162 mF c. 6 mF d. 180 mF

29) When a conductor cuts magnetic flux, an emf is induced in it. This
is known as ___.
a. Coulombs law c. Faradays law
b. Joules law d. Ohms law

30) An electron-volt (eV) is a unit of ___.

a. energy c. charge
b. potential difference d. momentum

31) The unit of electrical energy is ___.

a. joule c. kilowatt-hour
b. watt-second d. All of these

32) How is mutual inductance between two coils decreased?

a. by using a common core
b. by moving the coils closer
c. by moving the coils apart
d. by increasing the number of turns of either coil

33) The conduction of electricity across the surface of a dielectric is

called ___.
a. creepage c. surface effect
b. skin effect d. crosstalk

34) If the length and area of cross-section of a wire are doubled, then
its resistance ___.
a. quadruples c. remains the same
b. becomes sixteen times d. doubles

35) The temperature coefficient of resistance of conductors is ___.

a. positive b. zero c. negative d. infinite

36) The temperature coefficient of resistance of semiconductors is ___.

a. positive b. zero c. negative d. infinite

37) If the bands on resistor are yellow, violet, red, and gold, what is the
resistance value?
a. 470 V ! 5% c. 47,000 V ! 5%
b. 470 V ! 10% d. 4,700 V ! 5%

38) What is the resistivity of gold in ohm-meter?

a. 1.59 # 10-8 c. 10.6 # 10-8
b. 2.24 # 10 -8 d. 1.68 # 10-8

39) Carbon resistors will change their values because of ___.

a. age c. low voltage
b. overheating d. Either a or b

40) If low weight is the major factor, which of the following materials
should be used as a conductor?
a. copper c. gold
b. silver d. aluminum
DC Circuits 15) Loop currents should be assumed to flow in which direction?
a. straight c. clockwise
1) A battery with a rating of 9 V has an internal resistance of 20 V. b. counterclockwise d. Either b or c
What is the expected resistance of the bulb that is connected across
the battery to attain a maximum power transfer? 16) In mesh analysis, we apply ___.
a. 20 V b. 5 V c. 10 V d. 2 V a. Kirchhoffs current law (KCL)
b. source
2) In a series circuit, the resistors 2,200 V and 4,500 V with an c. Kirchhoffs voltage law (KVL)
impressed voltage of 10 V, what is the circuit current in mA? d. Millmans theorem
a. 1.49 b. 4.34 c. 6.67 d. 1.34
17) Which of the following is not a valid expression of Ohms law?
3) The current needed to operate a soldering iron which has a rating a. R = PI b. I = E/R c. E = IR d. R = E/I
of 600 W at 110 V is ___.
a. 5,455 A b. 18,200 A c. 66,000 A d. 0.182 A 18) Using Ohms law, what happens to the circuit current if the applied
voltage increases?
4) The ammeter reads 230 A while the voltmeter is 115 V. What is a. Current doubles. c. Current increases.
the power in kW at the time of reading? b. Current decreases. d. Current remains constant.
a. 264.5 b. 264,500 c. 2,645 d. 26.45
19) Using Ohms law, what happens to the circuit current if the circuit
5) What is the type of circuit whose parameters are constant which resistance increases?
do not change with voltage or current? a. Current doubles. c. Current increases.
a. lumped b. reactive c. tuned d. linear b. Current decreases. d. Current remains constant.

6) What is the resistance of two equal valued resistor series? 20) If the resistance of a circuit is doubled and the applied voltage is
a. twice as one c. the difference of both kept constant, the current will ___.
b. the sum of their reciprocal d. the product of both a. be quadrupled c. remain
b. be cut in half d. be doubled
7) What do you expect when you use two 20 kV, 1-W resistors in
parallel instead of one 10 kV, 1-W? 21) It is an electrical current that flows in one direction only.
a. It provides more power. c. It provides less power. a. normal current c. alternating current
b. It provides lighter current. d. It provides wider tolerance. b. direct current d. Eddy current

8) What is the voltage applied in dc circuit having a power of 36 W 22) The resistance of a conductor does not depend on ___.
and a total resistance of 4 V? a. resistivity c. cross-sectional area
a. 6 V b. 12 V c. 9 V d. 24 V b. length d. mass

9) When the resistors are connected in series, what happens? 23) In Ohms law, what is E/R?
a. The effective resistance is decreased. a. amperage b. resistance c. voltage d. power
b. Nothing.
c. The tolerance does not become wider. 24) A 33-kV resistor is connected in series with a parallel combination
d. The effective resistance is increased. made up of 56-kV and 7.8-kV resistors. What is the total combined
resistance of the three resistors?
10) Find the Thvenins impedance equivalent across R2 of a linear a. 39,846 V b. 63,769 V c. 49,069 V d. 95,000 V
close circuit having 10-V supply in series with the resistors (R1 =
100 V and R2 = 200 V). 25) Which of the following cannot be included in a loop of Kirchhoffs
a. 666 V b. 66.6 V c. 6.66 V d. 6666 V voltage law?
a. current source c. voltage source
11) How much power does electronic equipment consume, assuming b. resistance d. reactance
a 5.5-A current flowing and a 120-V power source?
a. 60 W b. 660 W c. 66 W d. 125.5 W 26) A series connected circuit contains of three loads and consumes
a total power of 50 W. It was reconfigured such that two loads
12) How many nodes are needed to completely analyze a circuit are in parallel and the other load is in series with a combination.
according to Kirchhoffs current law? What is the applied expected powers to be consumed them?
a. one a. 50 W b. 25 W c. 75 W d. 45 W
b. two
c. all nodes in the circuit 27) If the number of valence electrons of an atom is less than 4, the
d. one less than the total number of nodes in the circuit substance is usually ___.
a. a semiconductor c. a conductor
13) A common connection between circuit elements (or conductors) b. an insulator d. None of these
from different branches.
a. node b. ground c. junction d. mesh 28) Electric current in a wire is the flow of ___.
a. free electrons c. bound electrons
14) It is used to denote a common electrical point of zero potential. b. valence electrons d. atom
a. short circuit c. reference point
b. open circuit d. ground 29) Electromotive force (emf) in a circuit is a form of ___.
a. power c. charge
b. energy d. None of these
 DC Circuits

30) The SI unit of specific resistance is ___. 44) The power dissipated in a circuit is not equal to ___.
a. mho b. ohm-m c. ohm-m2 d. ohm-cm a. VI b. I2R c. V2/R d. IR/V

31) The resistance of a material is ___ its area of cross-section. 45) An electric iron draws a current of 15 A when connected to 120-V
a. directly proportional c. independent power source. Its resistance is ___.
b. inversely proportional d. None of these a. 0.125 V b. 8 V c. 16 V d. 1,800 V

32) The value of a (i.e., the temperature coefficient of resistance) 46) The power rating of an electric motor which draws a current of 3 A
depends upon the ___ of the material. when operated at 120 V is ___.
a. length c. cross-sectional area a. 40 W b. 360 W c. 540 W d. 1,080 W
b. volume d. nature and temperature
47) When a 100-W, 240-V light bulb is operated at 200 V, the current
33) The value of a0 of a conductor is 1/236 per C. The value of a18 that flows in it is ___.
will be ___ per C. a. 0.35 A b. 0.42 A c. 0.5 A d. 0.58 A
a. 1/218 b. 1/272 c. 1/254 d. 1/265
48) The equivalent resistance of a network of three 2-V resistors cannot
34) Electrical appliances are not connected in series because be ___.
a. Series circuit is complicated. a. 0.67 V b. 1.5 V c. 3 V d. 6 V
b. Power loss is greater.
c. Appliances have different current rating. 49) A 12-V potential difference is applied across a series combination
d. None of these of four 6-V resistors. The current in each 6-V resistor will be ___.
a. 0.5 A b. 2 A c. 8 A d. 6 A
35) Electrical applicances are connected in parallel because it ___.
a. is a simple circuit 50) A 12-V potential difference is applied across a parallel combination
b. results in reduced power loss of four 6-V resistors. The current in each 6-V resistor will be ___.
c. draws less current a. 0.5 A b. 2 A c. 8 A d. 6 A
d. makes the operation of the applicances independent from each
other 51) The dissipation of energy can cause burns because it produces ___.
a. heat b. fire c. friction d. overload
36) The hot resistance of a 100-W, 250-V incandescent lamp is ___.
a. 2.5 V c. 25 V 52) The rate of expenditure of energy is ___.
b. 625 V d. None of these a. voltage b. power c. current d. resistance

37) When a number of resistances are connected in parallel, the total 53) In a simple dc power line, the wire that carries the current from
resistance is ___. the generator to the load is called ___.
a. less than the smallest resistance a. return wire c. outgoing wire
b. greater than the smallest resistance b. feeder d. conductor
c. between the smallest and greater resistance
d. None of these 54) A circuit in which the resistances are connected in a continuous
run (i.e., end-to-end) is a ___ circuit.
38) If the 18 resistances, each of value 36 ohms are connected in a. series c. series-parallel
parallel, the total resistance is ___. b. parallel d. None of these
a. 2 ohms c. 36 ohms
b. 54 ohms d. None of these 55) A battery is connected to an external circuit. The potential drop
with the battery is proportional to the ___.
39) Two incandescent lamps of 100 W, 200 V are in parallel across a. emf of the battery
the 200 V. The total resistance will be ___. b. current of the circuit
a. 800 V b. 200 V c. 400 V d. 600 V c. equivalent circuit resistance
d. power dissipated in the circuit
40) Three resistors are connected in parallel and draw 1 A, 2.5 A, and
3.5 A, respectively. If the applied voltage is 210 V, what is the 56) Two wires A and B have the same cross-sectional area and are made
total resistance of the circuit? of the same material, RA = 600 V and RB = 100 V. The number
a. 5 V b. 147 V c. 30 V d. 73.5 V of times A is longer than B is ___.
a. 6 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5
41) An ordinary dry cell can deliver about ___ continuously.
a. 3 A c. 1/8 A 57) A coil has a resistance of 100 V at 90C. At 100C, its resistance
b. 2 A d. None of these is 101 V. The temperature coefficient of the wire is ___.
a. 0.01 per C c. 0.0001 per C
42) Four cells of internal resistance 1-V are connected in parallel. b. 0.1 per C d. 0.001 per C
The battery resistance will be ___.
a. 4 V b. 2 V c. 0.25 V d. 1 V 58) A material which has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance
is usually a(n) ___.
43) Of the following combination of units, the one that is not equal a. insulator c. semiconductor
to the watt is ___. b. conductor d. All of these
a. joule/second c. ampere-volt
b. squared ampere-ohm d. ohm/volt 59) Which of the following statements is true both for a series and a
 DC Circuits
parallel dc circuit? 73) Thvenins theorem is ___ form of equivalent circuit.
a. Powers are additive. c. Voltages are additive. a. voltage c. Both a and b
b. Currents are additive. d. All of these b. current d. None of these

60) Two resistors are said to be in series when 74) Nortons theorem is ___ form of an equivalent circuit.
a. Both carry the same value of current. a. voltage c. Both a and b
b. Total current equals the sum of the branch current. b. current d. None of these
c. Sum of IR drops equal to emf.
d. Same current phases through both.

61) According to KCL as applied to a junction in a network of conductors

a. Total sum of currents meeting at the junction is zero.
b. No current can leave the junction without same current.
c. Net current flow at the junction is positive.
d. Algebraic sum of the currents meeting at the junction is zero.

62) KCL is applicable only to ___.

a. closed-loop circuit c. junctions in a network
b. electronic circuits d. electric circuit

63) KVL is concerned with ___.

a. IR drops c. junction voltages
b. battery emfs d. Both a and b

64) According to KVL, the algebraic sum of all IR drops and emfs
in any closed loop of a network is always ___.
a. zero c. positive
b. negative d. determined by battery emf

65) The algebraic sign of an IR drops primarily dependent upon ___.

a. the amount of current flowing through it
b. direction of current
c. the value of the resistance
d. the battery connection

66) Choose the wrong statement. In the node voltage technique of solving
network parameters, the choice of the reference node does not
a. Affect the operation of the circuit.
b. Change the voltage across the element.
c. Alter the potential difference between any pair of nodes.
d. Affect the voltage of various nodes.

67) The nodal analysis is primarily based on the application of ___.

a. KVL c. Ohms law
b. KCL d. Both b and c

68) The superposition theorem can be applied only to circuits having

___ elements.
a. non-linear c. linear bilateral
b. passive d. resistive

69) The superposition theorem is essentially based on the concept of ___.

a. reciprocity c. linearity
b. nonlinearity d. duality

70) What are the electrons in motion called?

a. current variation c. electron velocity
b. electric current d. dynamic electricity

71) An active element in a circuit is one which ___.

a. receives energy c. Either a or b
b. supplies energy d. None of these

72) The superposition theorem is used when the circuit contains ___.
a. a single voltage source c. passive element only
b. a number of voltage source d. None of these
AC Circuits 15) A coil in practically a ___ in ___.
1) It is the length of one complete cycle. a. RC, series c. RL, series
a. frequency c. period b. RC, parallel d. RL, parallel
b. wavelength d. amplitude
16) When the apparent power and the reactive power are numerically
2) What is the wavelength of a carrier wave with a frequency of equal, then the load has ___ power factor.
100 MHz? a. unity b. zero c. lagging d. leading
a. 3.0 m b. 7.5 m c. 1.5 m d. 6.0 m
17) The result capacitance is 6 mF and C2 connected in series is 3 mF.
3) A 240-V, 25-Hz sinusoidal generator is connected to a 20-V Capacitor C2 in mF will be ___.
resistor. Determine the instantaneous current when elapsed time a. 3 b. 4 c. 8 d. 6
is 0.01 second.
a. 15.43 A b. 16.30 A c. 16.97 A d. 12.00 A 18) The ratio of the maximum value to the rms value of an alternating
quantity.
4) Two current sources deliver current to a common load. The first a. form factor c. power factor
source delivers a current whose equation is 25 sin 100pt amperes b. peak factor d. Not a
while the second delivers a current whose equation is 15 cos 100pt
amperes. What is the rms values of the current in the load? 19) Ideal inductor takes a voltage that ___ the current.
a. 29.15 A b. 40 A c. 20.6 A d. 10 A a. lags b. leads c. equal d. less

5) Two sources A and B delivers 100 A and 150 A, respectively to a 20) When the capacitor energy is maximum, the inductor energy is ___
load. If these currents are out of phase by 30, determine the total in an LC circuit.
current drawn by the load. a. minimum
a. 201.5 A b. 250.0 A c. 215.4 A d. 241.8 A b. half between maximum and minimum
c. maximum
6) Across a 230-V, 60-Hz power supply is a 15-V non-inductive d. zero
resistor. What is the equation of the resulting current?
a. 21.68 sin 377t c. 15.33 sin 377t 21) At four time constants, the transient current is how much percent
b. 26.55 sin 377t d. 28.16 sin 377t of its steady-state value?
a. 98.2% b. 86.8% c. 95.0% d. 99.3%
7) A current of 10 A and a power factor of 0.8 lagging is taken from
a single phase 250-V supply. The reactive power of the system 22) The capacitor is considered fully charge for practical circuit at ___.
is ___. a. approximately 100 time constants
a. 1,500 b. 2,000 c. 250 d. 150 b. infinite time
c. approximately 5 time constants
8) The total reactance of an ac circuit is equal to ___ at resonance. d. approximately 6 time constants
a. 90 b. zero c. unity d. infinite
23) Which of the following is a concept whereby a small voltage is
9) In a series ac circuit, if the total current lags the total voltage by generated by a conductor with current in an external magnetic field?
angle A then a. flywheel c. Hall effect
a. The power factor is lagging. b. magnetic effect d. skin effect
b. The load is inductive.
c. The current leads the voltage by 360 - A. 24) What refers to the lowest voltage across any insulator that can
d. All of the above cause current flow?
a. conduction voltage c. breakdown voltage
10) Power factor is equal to ___. b. voltage drop d. voltage minimum
a. real power/apparent power
b. cosine of an angle between E and I 25) A dc voltage is applied across the certain value of resistance. If the
c. resistance/impedance resistance value is halved, by what factor must the voltage be
d. All of the above multiplied if the dissipated power is unchanged?
a. 0.5 b. 0.25 c. 4 d. 0.707
11) In ac, a resistor always takes a current that is ___ with the voltage
across it. 26) The quality factor of a parallel resonant circuit is also called as
a. leading b. lagging c. in-phase d. equal ___ magnification factor.
a. voltage b. power c. current d. load
12) A 25-V resistor connected in series with a coil of 50 V resistance
and 150 mH inductance. What is the power factor of the circuit? 27) Parallel cells have the same voltages as one cell but have ___.
a. 85% b. 80% c. 90% d. 75% a. less current capacity c. fluctuating power output
b. unstable resistance d. different current capacity
13) The form factor of half-wave rectified signal is equal to ___.
a. 1.11 b. 0.79 c. 2.22 d. 1.57 28) What phenomenon is responsible when the voltages across reactance
in series can be greater than the applied voltage?
14) An impedance draws a current i = 10 cos (vt - 30) from a a. stored energy c. electric and magnetic fields
voltage v = 220 sin (vt + 30). What is the impedance? b. non-resonance d. resonance
a. 15.6 - j15.6 c. 19.1 - j11.1
b. 15.6 + j15.6 d. 11.0 + j19.1 29) What is the equivalent work of 166 watt-seconds?
 AC Circuits
a. 166 joules c. 100 joules a. leading b. lagging c. in-phase d. equal
b. 16.6 joules d. 10 joules
45) It is equal to one hertz.
30) The active and reactive powers of an inductive circuit are equal. a. 0.001 kHz c. 60 cycles per minute
The power factor of the circuit is ___. b. 1 cycle per second d. All of the above
a. 0.8 lagging c. 0.6 lagging
b. 0.707 laging d. 0.5 lagging 46) Determine the power angle in the series circuit which consists
of R = 25 V, L = 0.2 H across a power supply of 200 V, 30 Hz.
31) It is the joint effect of combining resistance and reactance in an a. 36.4 b. 52.4 c. 46.4 d. 56.4
ac circuit.
a. admittance c. reactance 47) Most ac supplies are in the form of ___.
b. impedance d. susceptance a. sine wave c. triangular wave
b. square wave d. rectangular wave
32) The rms value of sinusoidal ac current is equal to its value at
angle of ___. 48) The power factor of a series LC circuit is ___.
a. 60 b. 45 c. 30 d. 90 a. 0 b. 0.707 c. 0.75 d. 1.0

33) The power factor of an RC circuit is ___. 49) In series RLC circuit, R = 100 V, XL = 300 V, and XC = 200 V.
a. often zero c. always unity The phase angle u of the circuit is ___.
b. between zero and 1 d. between zero and -1 a. 45 b. 90 c. 180 d. 360

34) The input of an circuit having the power factor of 0.8 lagging is 50) A 220-V, 60-Hz source is driving a series RL circuit. Determine
20 kVA. The power drawn by the circuit is ___ kW. the current in the circuit if R = 100 V and XL = 100 V.
a. 12 b. 20 c. 16 d. 8 a. 1.10 A (lagging) c. 2.20 A (lagging)
b. 1.55 A (lagging) d. 4.40 A (lagging)
35) In an circuit, the ratio of kW/kVA represents ___.
a. power factor c. form factor
b. load factor d. diversity factor

36) The power factor of an ac circuit is equal to ___.

a. cosine of the phase angle c. zero for a resistive circuit
b. sine of the phase angle d. unity for a reactive circuit

37) The power factor of an ordinary electric bulb is ___.

a. zero c. slighty more than zero
b. unity d. slightly less than unity

38) The ratio of W/VA in an ac circuit means ___.

a. power factor c. power quotient
b. quality factor d. load factor

39) At what frequency will an inductor of 5 mH have the same reactance

as a capacitor of 0.1 mF?
a. 7.12 kHz b. 7.12 Hz c. 7.12 MHz d. 7.12 GHz

40) In a series RLC circuit

a. Increasing the frequency decreases the resistance.
b. Increasing the frequency increases the resistance.
c. Both XL and XC change as frequency changes.
d. The frequency at which XL = XC.

41) When the power factor of a circuit is zero

a. Power absorbed is minimum.
b. Power absorbed is maximum.
c. Power absorbed is zero.
d. The impedance is minimum.

42) The power dissipated across the resistance in an ac circuit.

a. power factor c. reactive power
b. true power d. apparent power

43) In ac, an inductor always takes a current that is ___ with the voltage
across it.
a. leading b. lagging c. in-phase d. equal

44) In ac, a capacitor always takes a voltage that is ___ with the current
through it.
Energy Conversion 16% as the speed increased to 1,290 rpm. Determine the counter
emf developed by the unloaded motor?
1) Which country ranks first in geothermal electricity production? a. 99.76 V b. 34.56 V c. 39.56 V d. 67.89 V
a. USA c. Mexico
b. Philippines d. Indonesia 12) A series motor at rated load draws a line current of 12 A from the
supply mains. How much current will it draw if the load torque
2) A wire moving at a speed of 18.6 m/s passes through a magnetic is doubled?
field whose magnetic flux density is 2 T. Find the length of the a. 16.97 A b. 48 A c. 3 A d. 4.67 A
wire if it cuts an average of 2.8 Wb of flux in 0.5 seconds.
a. 15 cm b. 20 cm c. 25 cm d. 30 cm 13) A shunt motor runs at 1,200 rpm on a 420-V circuit and the
current taken by the armature is 30 A. What resistance must be
3) What is the average voltage generated in a single conductor of a place in series with the armature in order that the speed may
four-pole dc generator if the effective flux per pole is 2.8 mWb be reduced to 600 rpm with the current through the armature
and the speed of the armature is 1,800 rpm? remaining the same? Assuming resistance is 3 V.
a. 1.345 V b. 0.336 V c. 0.345 V d. 1.336 V a. 3.5 V b. 5.5 V c. 7.5 V d. 9.5 V

4) The following are the particulars of a given alternator: 14) A 2-hp dc motor draws 21 A from a 100-V dc supply at rated
speed = 750 rpm load. How efficient is this motor?
poles = 8 a. 0% b. 3% c. 71% d. 63%
number of slots = 56
number of conductors per slot = 12 15) An automotive battery supplies 12 V dc and is rated at 60 Ah
flux per pole = 18 mWb when fully charged. If it is charged up and then connected to a
winding = three-phase, star load that has a resistance of 48 V, how long will this battery last
kp, pitch factor = 97% before it needs recharging?
kd, distribution factor = 95% a. 30 hours c. 120 hours
Calculate the voltage between the generator terminals. b. 60 hours d. None of the above
a. 714.3 V ac b. 234.4 V ac c. 5.678 V ac d. 238.9 V ac
16) A cell of 1.5 V supplies 100 mA for seven hours and twenty
5) A three-phase delta-connected alternator supplies 3,000 W of minutes, and then it is replaced. It has supplied of what value?
power to a three-phase load at a line voltage of 250 V with 88% a. 7.33 Ah b. 733 mAh c. 7.33 Wh d. 733 mWh
load power factor. If the alternator coil has a resistance of 0.25 V
per phase, determine the power wasted in the windings. 17) A Weston cell is generally used as ___.
a. 5.5 W b. 20.5 W c. 15.5 W d. 10.5 W a. as a current reference source
b. as a voltage reference source
6) A 5-hp electric generator is driven by a prime mover. At rated c. as a power reference source
load, friction losses were found to be 250 W and iron losses d. as an energy reference source
amount to 195 W. If the brake horsepower of the driving engine
is 6 hp, how much power is wasted in the copper wires? 18) Alkaline cells ___.
a. 301 W b. 125 W c. 234 W d. 143 W a. are cheaper than zinc-carbon cells
b. are generally better in radios than zinc-carbon cells
7) A six-pole, duplex wave-wound armature has 640 conductors. If c. have higher voltages than zinc-carbon cells
the flux per pole is 16 mWb, at what speed must the armature be d. have shorter shelf lives than zinc-carbon cells
driven in order to generate 256 volts?
a. 2,000 rpm b. 4,000 rpm c. 3,000 rpm d. 1,000 rpm 19) The most common type of ac motor is the ___.
a. single-phase induction motor
8) A separately excited generator develops a no-load emf of 180 V b. two-phase induction motor
at an armature speed of 15 rev/sec and a flux per pole of 0.20 Wb. c. three-phase inductor motor
Calculate the generated emf when the speed increases to 25 rev/sec d. two-phase squirrel-cage motor
and the pole flux is decreased to 0.18 Wb?
a. 270 V b. 280 V c. 290 V d. 300 V 20) In a three-phase system, the voltages are separated by ___.
a. 45 b. 90 c. 120 d. 180
9) A shunt generator is connected to a 50-V load which draws a line
current of 5 A. If the armature resistance and shunt field resistance 21) If in a Y-connected ac generator, each phase voltage has a magnitude
of this generator are 0.5 V and 84 V respectively, determine the of 90 V rms, what is the magnitude of each line voltage?
generated emf of this generator. a. 0 V b. 90 V c. 156 V d. 180 V
a. 135 V b. 567 V c. 254 V d. 90 V
22) It is the emf generated in the primary that opposes the flow of
10) Copper conductors were inserted into the slots of the rotor in an current in the primary of a transformer.
electric motor. Each slot has 24 conductors. The average length of a. forward emf c. self-induced emf
the rotor is 40 cm with a mean diameter of 30 cm. If the flux density b. reverse emf d. no-load emf
in the air gap is 2.5 T, what is the equivalent torque exerted by the
wires per slot if each of them carries a current of 10 A? 23) A thermocouple ___.
a. 36 N-m b. 25 N-m c. 44 N-m d. 21 N-m a. gets warm when current flows through it
b. is a thin, straight, special wire
11) An electric motor running at a speed of 1,200 rpm develops a c. generates dc when exposed to light
counter emf of 80 V when driving its mechanical load. When the d. generates ac when heated
load was removed the air gap, the flux was observed to rise by
 Energy Conversion
24) A device that can deliver high voltage ac from a low voltage dc d. nickel-cadmium cell
source.
a. transformer c. converter 36) The chemical energy in a battery or cell ___.
b. inverter d. power supply a. is a form of kinetic energy
b. cannot be replenished once it is gone
25) A fully charged lead-acid battery will read ___ V. c. changes to kinetic energy when the cell is used
a. 1.025-1.075 c. 1.200-1.500 d. is caused by electric current
b. 1.050-1.350 d. 1.280-1.300

26) A device for storing electric charge is called electrophorous. It

replaced the early form of capacitor, the Leyden jar, and was
invented by ___.
a. Luigi Galvani c. Alessandro Volta
b. Charles Coulomb d. Pieter van Musschenbroek

27) Why does in dc motor, brushes are positioned such that they will
be with the direction of the rotation?
a. to reduce sparkling c. to have less loss
b. to last long d. All of the above

28) A 12-V auto battery is rated at 36 Ah. If a 100-W, 12-V dc bulb is

connected across this battery, about how long will the bulb stay
lift, if the battery has been fully charged?
a. 4 hours and 20 minutes c. 3 hours and 36 minutes
b. 432 hours d. 21 minutes and 36 seconds

29) A disadvantage of mercury cells and batteries is that

a. They do not last as long as other types of batteries.
b. They have a flat discharge curve.
c. They pollute the environment.
d. They need to be recharged often.

30) Consider a system described as follows: Surplus energy generated

by this system can be sold to the electric utility company during
times of daylight and low usage. At night, during gloomy daytime
weather, or during times of heavy usage, energy can be bought
from the utility to supplement the output from this system. What
is this system?
a. an electrochemical power system
b. an interactive photovoltaic system
c. a stand-alone photovoltaic system
d. a dc voltage-doubler power system

31) The force created by generator armature current that tends to

oppose normal rotation of the armature.
a. motor reaction c. motor action
b. generator action d. armature action

32) Which of the following is/are considered as armature loss(es)?

a. copper loss c. Eddy current loss
b. hysteresis loss d. All of these

33) A type of motor that can operate on either ac or dc power.

a. series motor c. synchronous motor
b. induction motor d. universal motor

34) Which of the following can be used to produce voltage?

a. friction and pressure
b. heat and light
c. magnetism and chemical action
d. All of these

35) Which cell should never be shorted because of the danger of

explosion?
a. lead-acid cell
b. silver-zinc and silver-cadmium cells
c. mercury cell
Semiconductor Theory a. two b. none c. one d. four

Non-multiple Choices: 16) What type of bias opposes the pn junction barrier?
1) Determine the diode current at 20C for a silicon diode with Is = a. no bias c. reverse-bias
50 nA and an applied voltage of 0.6 V. b. direct bias d. forward-bias
2) Determine the diode current at 20C for a silicon diode with Is =
0.1 mA at a reverse-bias potential of -10 V. 17) A p-type semiconductor has a shortage of which of the following?
3) When a silicon diode is conducting at a temperature of 25C, 0.7 V a. neutrons b. electrons c. holes d. doping
drop exists across its terminals, what is the voltage at 100C?
18) Semiconductors which are doped with either n- or p-types of
Multiple Choices: impurities are called ___.
1) It is a neutral particle that has no electrical charge. a. intrinsic b. extrinsic c. p-type d. n-type
a. proton b. electron c. neutron d. atom
19) Type of impurities in p-type semiconductor like boron and gallium.
2) A substance which can not be reduced to a simpler substance by a. covalent c. bivalent
chemical means. b. pentavalent d. trivalent
a. molecule b. atom c. element d. matter
20) Protons are about ___ heavier than electrons.
3) It is defined as anything that occupies space and has weight. a. 1,800 times c. less than thrice
a. atom b. compound c. matter d. molecule b. less d. twice

4) The lightest kind of atom or element. 21) Term used to describe sudden reverse conduction of an electronic
a. oxygen b. titanium c. hydrogen d. helium component caused by excess reverse voltage across the device.
a. cutoff b. avalanche c. saturation d. reversion
5) In order to have a good conductor material, such material shall
have ___ valence electron(s). 22) Each atom in a silicon crystals has how many valence electrons?
a. more than ten c. five a. 4 b. 6 c. 2 d. 8
b. one d. twenty-one
23) The reverse saturation current will just about double in magnitude
6) What composes all matter whether a liquid, solid or gas? for every what increase in temperature?
a. atoms b. protons c. electrons d. neutrons a. 1C b. 10C c. 100C d. 0.1C

7) What is a physical combination of compounds or elements not 24) Silicon is capable of operating ___.
chemically combined that can separated by physical means? a. from 0C to 350C c. from -176C to 350C
a. molecule b. substance c. atom d. mixture b. from -273C to 350C d. from 176C to 350C

8) ___ has a unit of electron volt. 25) An atom is the smallest possible particle that retains the charac-
a. Charge c. Potential difference teristics of which of the following substances?
b. Energy d. Current a. element b. compound c. mixture d. solution

9) Determine which has the least number of electrons found at the 26) A molecule is the smallest possible particle that retains the char-
outer shell. acteristics of which of the following substances?
a. insulator c. semiconductor a. element b. compound c. mixture d. solution
b. conductor d. semi-insulator
27) Examples of an atom having five valence electrons.
10) What do you call the elements that conduct electricity very readily? a. antimony c. indium
a. insulators c. semiconductors b. silicon d. boron
b. conductors d. dielectric
28) Pn junctions are protected from contamination during the
11) A chemical combination of elements be separated by chemical fabrication process by which of the following materials?
means but not by physical means. It is created by chemically a. oxide c. germanium
combining two or more elements. b. silicon d. photoetch
a. compound b. matter c. molecules d. mixture
29) What is the overall electrical charge of the n-material in a semi-
12) When an atom gains an additional ___, it results to a negative ion. conductor?
a. neutron b. electron c. proton d. atom a. zero
b. some negative value
13) Electric charge of neutron is the same as ___. c. some positive value
a. proton b. current c. electron d. atom d. depending upon the balance of electrons

14) Ion is ___. 30) What criteria determine whether an atom is a good conductor?
a. an atom with unbalanced charges a. The number of free electrons that are available.
b. a free electron b. The number of protons that are available.
c. a proton c. Both the number of protons are electrons.
d. a nucleus with protons d. The number of neutron that are available.

15) How many junctions are there in a semi-conductor diode? 31) What resistance should a good diode have when it is forward-
 Semiconductor Theory
biased? is the approximate rms value of secondary voltage?
a. less than 10 V c. more than 1,000 MV a. 0 V b. 14.4 V c. 28.3 V d. 56.6 V
b. between 120 V and 1.2 kV d. Both b and c are true.
46) With a full-wave rectified voltage across the load resistor, load
32) What resistance should a good diode have when it is reverse- current flows for what part of a cycle?
biased? a. 0 b. 90 c. 180 d. 360
a. less than 10 V c. more than 1,000 MV
b. between 120 V and 1.2 kV d. Both b and c are true. 47) If line frequency is 60 Hz, the output frequency of a half-wave
rectifier is ___.
33) A positive ion has ___. a. 30 Hz b. 60 Hz c. 120 Hz d. 240 Hz
a. lost some of its electrons c. gained extra protons
b. lost neutrons d. gained more electrons 48) If line frequency is 60 Hz, the output frequency of a bridge rectifier
is ___.
34) In its natural state, silicon is found in ordinary beach sand in the a. 30 Hz b. 60 Hz c. 120 Hz d. 240 Hz
form of ___.
a. carbon dioxide c. carbon monoxide 49) The diode in a bridge rectifier each have a maximum dc current
b. silicon monoxide d. silicon dioxide rating of 2 A. This means the dc load current can have a maximum
value of ___.
35) A combination of elements properly chosen to best represent the a. 1 A b. 2 A c. 4 A d. 8 A
actual terminal characteristics of a device, system, or such in a
particular operation region. 50) What is true about the breakdown voltage in a Zener diode?
a. characteristic curve c. equivalent circuit a. It decreases when current increases.
b. circuit properties d. truth table b. It destroys the diode.
c. It equals the current times the resistance.
36) A type of resistance determination which is defined a point on the d. It is approximately constant.
characteristics curve.
a. static resistance c. ac resistance
b. dynamic resistance d. average ac

37) Approximates real diode with a battery, a resistance and an ideal

diode.
a. simplified model c. non-ideal device
b. ideal device d. piecewise-linear model

38) A reverse voltage of 20 V is across a diode. What is the voltage

across the depletion layer?
a. 0 c. 20 V
b. 0.7 V d. None of the above

39) A diode has a surface leakage current of 10 nA when the reverse

voltage is 10 V. What is the surface leakage current if the reverse
voltage is increased to 50 V?
a. 20 nA c. 50 nA
b. 10 nA d. Can not be calculated.

40) A diode is a/an ___.

a. active device c. nonlinear device
b. linear device d. Both a and b

41) Two diodes are in series. The first diode has a voltage of 0.75 V and
the second has a voltage of 0.8 V. If the current through the first
diode is 500 mA, what is the current through the second diode?
a. 1,000 mA b. 0 mA c. 500 mA d. 400 mA

42) With a half-wave rectified voltage across the load resistor, load
current flows for what part of a cycle?
a. 0 b. 90 c. 180 d. 360

43) The voltage of a bridge rectifier is a ___.

a. half-wave signal c. bridge-rectified signal
b. full-wave signal d. sine wave

44) What is the peak load voltage in a full-wave rectifier if the secondary
voltage is 20 V rms?
a. 0 V b. 0.7 V c. 14.1 V d. 28.3 V

45) We want a peak load voltage of 40 V out of a bridge rectifier. What

Diode Application b. forward-bias
c. either reverse- or forward-bias
1) What is the purpose of a pn junction diode? d. neutral bias
a. to convert half-wave current into full-wave current
b. to convert dc into ac 15) What is used to show how diode parameters vary over a full operating
c. to convert pure current into dc range?
d. to convert ac into dc a. a truth table c. a schematic diagram
b. a characteristic curve d. operating point
2) In reference to the schematic symbol for a diode, do electrons
flow toward or away from the arrow? 16) What is meant by diode ratings?
a. away c. sometimes toward a. They are the unlimiting values of operating conditions outside
b. toward d. sometimes away on which operations could cause diode damage.
b. They are the limiting values of operating conditions on which
3) What type of pn diode is formed by using a fine metal wire and a operations could cause diode operate.
section of n-type semiconductor material? c. They are the unlimiting values of operating conditions outside
a. point contact c. double contact on which operations could cause diode operate.
b. double point d. triple point d. They are the limiting values of operating conditions outside
on which operations could cause diode damage.
4) Conduction in which type of semiconductor material is similar to
conduction in a copper wire? 17) What does the letter n indicate in the semiconductor
a. p-type material c. Both a or b identification system?
b. n-type material d. None of the above a. a negative material c. a neutral material
b. a semiconductor d. a conductor
5) What is the name of the area in a pn junction that has a shortage of
electrons and holes? 18) What type of diode has orange, blue, and gray bands?
a. shaded region c. depletion region a. 1N368 b. 2N368 c. 1N258 d. 2N258
b. empty region d. black region
19) What is the greatest threat to a diode?
6) In order to reverse-bias a pn junction, what terminal of a battery a. current b. power c. voltage d. heat
is connected to the p-material?
a. positive b. negative c. Either d. Both 20) When checking a diode with an ohmmeter, what is indicated by too
high resistance measurements?
7) In order to forward-bias a pn junction, what terminal of a battery a. The diode is short or has a high-forward resistance.
is connected to the p-material? b. The diode is open or has a low-forward resistance.
a. positive b. negative c. Either d. Both c. The diode is open or has a high-forward resistance.
d. The diode is short or has a low-forward resistance.
8) In order to reverse-bias a pn junction, what terminal of a battery
is connected to the n-material? 21) The maximum reverse dc voltage that will not cause breakdown.
a. positive b. negative c. Either d. Both a. dc blocking voltage
b. average rectifier forward current
9) In order to forward-bias a pn junction, what terminal of a battery c. average forward voltage
is connected to the n-material? d. peak surge current
a. positive b. negative c. Either d. Both
22) Define average rectifier forward current.
10) What is a load? a. The average rectified forward current at a specified temperature,
a. Any device that draws resistance. usually at 120 Hz with a resistive load.
b. Any device that increases capacitance. b. The average rectified forward current at a specified temperature,
c. Any device that decreases capacitance. usually at 60 Hz with an inductive load.
d. Any device that draws current. c. The average rectified forward current at a specified temperature,
usually at 120 Hz with a capacitive load.
11) What is the output of a half-wave rectifier? d. The average rectified forward current at a specified temperature,
a. a pulsating dc voltage c. a pure dc voltage usually at 60 Hz with a resistive load.
b. a pulsating ac voltage d. a pure ac voltage
23) The peak current specified for a given number of cycles, or portion
12) What type of rectifier is constructed by sandwiching a section of of a cycle.
semiconductor material between two metal plates? a. dc blocking current
a. nonmetallic rectifier c. metallic rectifier b. average rectifier forward current
b. full-wave rectifier d. half-wave rectifier c. average forward voltage
d. peak surge current
13) What type of bias makes a diode act as a closed switch?
a. reverse-bias 24) The small value of direct current that flows when a semiconductor
b. forward-bias diode has reverse-bias.
c. either reverse- or forward-bias a. backward current c. forward current
d. neutral bias b. reverse current d. negative current

14) What type of bias makes a diode act as an open switch? 25) What indicated the maximum reverse-bias voltage that may be
a. reverse-bias applied to a diode without causing junction breakdown?
 Diode Application
a. peak reverse voltage c. saturated voltage at the front-end of a dc power supply circuit to protect against
b. limit voltage d. dummy voltage transients from the 115-V ac input?
a. positive shunt clipper
26) What is the output dc of a full-wave rectifier circuit if the input b. negative shunt clipper
voltage maximum is 100 V? c. variable shunt clipper
a. 31.8 V b. 50 V c. 63.6 V d. 45 V d. symmetrical Zener shunt clipper

27) What useful electrical property is displayed by a varactor? 39) The forward voltage drop of a LED is ___.
a. variable reactance c. variable capacitance a. 3 V b. 1.5 V c. 0.30 V d. 0.7 V
b. variable resistance d. variable inductance
40) A positive clamper clamps which extremity of the output signal
28) The primary use of Zener diode in electronic circuits. to zero volt.
a. rectifier c. current regulator a. most negative c. half negative
b. voltage regulator d. resistance regulator b. half positive d. most positive

29) The anode of a semiconductor diode indicates a ___ charge during 41) The tiny crystal of semiconductor material that glows when an
conduction. electric current passes through it and are used in digital display
a. positive and for indicating that power is on in electronic devices is called
b. Either depending on the design what?
c. neutral a. LCD b. photon c. laser beam d. LED
d. negative
42) In order to simplify the circuit in analysis and computation, the
30) What is the output dc of a half-wave rectifier circuit if the input diode is normally assumed as ___.
voltage maximum is 100 V? a. zero b. imaginary c. ideal d. infinite
a. 31.8 V b. 50 V c. 63.6 V d. 45 V
43) How many diodes will you use in designing a half-wave rectifier
31) What is the output ripple (rms) of a full-wave rectifier output if power supply?
the input voltage maximum is 100 V? a. one b. three c. two d. four
a. 31.8 V b. 38.5 V c. 63.6 V d. 30.8 V
44) What is the output ripple (rms) of a half-wave rectifier output if
32) Which is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode? the input voltage maximum is 100 V?
a. a negative resistance region a. 31.8 V b. 38.5 V c. 63.6 V d. 30.8 V
b. an internal capacitance that varies with applied voltage
c. a constant voltage under conditions of varying current 45) How many junctions are there in a semiconductor diode?
d. a constant current under conditions of varying voltage a. two b. four c. one d. none

33) What is the minimum amount of voltage needed to produce current

flow across a pn junction diode?
a. 0.3 V germanium diode
b. 0.7 V silicon diode
c. Both a and b
d. 0.75 V germanium and silicon diodes

34) If a 115-V rms, 60-Hz input voltage was connected to a half-wave

doubler circuit, what would be the peak output voltage and ripple
frequency?
a. 230 V, 60 Hz c. 230 V, 120 Hz
b. 325.2 V, 60 Hz d. 325.2 V, 120 Hz

35) The ___ clipper contains a diode that is connected end-to-end with
the load, whereas the ___ clipper has a diode that is connected in
parallel with the load.
a. series, biased c. shunt, series
b. series, shunt d. shunt, biased

36) A negative series clipper circuit will pass ___ alternation of the
ac input.
a. the positive c. Both
b. the negative d. None

37) If a 115-V rms, 60-Hz input voltage was connected to a full-wave

doubler circuit, what would be the peak output voltage and ripple
frequency?
a. 230 V, 60 Hz c. 230 V, 120 Hz
b. 325.2 V, 60 Hz d. 325.2 V, 120 Hz

38) Which of the following shunt clipper circuits is generally used

Bipolar Junction
Transistor 13) Transistor uses a small amount of base current to control a large
Non-multiple Choices: amount of ___.
1) The collector current is 1.2 mA when the base current is 24 mA. a. collector current c. emitter current
What is the current gain b of the transistor? b. base current d. All of the above
2) The current gain b of a certain BJT is known to be approximately
180. How much base current is required in order to have 18 mA of 14) The base region of a BJT is extremely thin and very ___.
collector current? a. lightly doped c. Either a or b
3) The collector current for a certain BJT is 9.8 mA when the emitter b. heavily doped d. Niether a nor b
current is 10 mA. What is b?
4) How much emitter current flows in a BJT that has a base current 15) What is the reason why it is possible to force current to flow
of 100 mA and a collector current of 100 mA? between the emitter and collector whenever the base-emitter
5) Suppose you measure the base current for a certain BJT and find it junction is forward-biased?
is 15 mA. The corresponding collector current is 2 mA. What is the a. The base is thin and lightly doped.
dc current gain b of the BJT if it is an npn transistor? If it is a pnp b. The base is thick and heavily doped.
transistor? c. The base is thin and heavily doped.
d. The base is thick and lightly doped.
Multiple Choices:
1) When was the transistor demostrated? 16) Which of the following configurations has low input impedance
a. December 23, 1947 c. December 23, 1948 and high output impedance?
b. January 23, 1947 d. January 23, 1948 a. common collector c. common base
b. common emitter d. All of the above
2) What is the ratio of the width of the base to the total width of the
transistor? 17) There is no phase reversal between the input and output.
a. 0.150 b. 15.0 c. 1.50 d. 150 a. common collector c. common base
b. common emitter d. All of the above
3) Which of the following currents is the largest?
a. IC c. IB 18) In common base configuration, the input signal is introduced into
b. IE d. Cannot be determined the ___.
a. collector c. base
4) What was the first name given to a transistor? b. emitter d. Both a and b
a. point contact c. double contact
b. point-double contact d. double-point contact 19) What is the leakage current in common base configuration?
a. ICBO b. IECO c. ICEO d. ICCO
5) For a pnp transistor, the emitter arrow points ___ the base.
a. away c. Either a or b 20) The condition in which the device no longer conducts.
b. towards d. Niether a nor b a. saturation b. cutoff c. linear d. active

6) A BJT is ___. 21) What region of operation in which the device conducts at normal
a. voltage controlled device c. power controlled device operation?
b. current controlled device d. resistance controlled device a. saturation c. linear/active
b. cutoff d. None of the above
7) Who demostrated the transistor in the year 1948?
a. Walter Brattain c. Both a and b 22) In linear region of operation, the base-emitter junction is ___.
b. John Barden d. None of the above a. reverse-bias c. Both a and b
b. foward-bias d. None of the above
8) For an npn transistor, the arrow is pointing ___.
a. in c. away 23) In cutoff region, the base collector is ___.
b. in and away d. in or away a. reverse-bias c. Both a and b
b. foward-bias d. None of the above
9) Ratio of change in collector current to change in emitter current
with VCB constant. 24) What is the purpose of emitter resistance bias in emitter stabilized
a. a b. b c. m d. u circuit?
a. to bias the circuit c. to normalize the circuit
10) Ratio of change in collector current to change in base current with b. to stabilize the circuit d. None of the above
VCE constant.
a. a b. b c. m d. u 25) Dc bias currents and voltage closes to where they were set by the
circuit even when outside condition is change.
11) The collector current is 130 mA when the base current is 26 mA. a. fixed bias circuit
What is the current gain b of the transistor? b. fixed bias circuit with emitter resistor
a. 5 b. 50 c. 1 d. 10 c. b independent circuit
d. emitter follower
12) The current gain b of a certain BJT is known to be approximately
200. How much base current is required in order to have 18 mA of 26) What region of operation where a transistor is used as an amplifier?
collector current? a. saturation c. linear/active
a. 1 mA c. 0.024 mA b. cutoff d. None of the above
b. 0.05 mA d. None of the above
 Bipolar Junction Transistor
27) Area of current and voltage within the maximum limits for the variations.
particular device. a. sensitivity factor c. Both a and b
a. shaded area c. saturating region b. stability factor d. None of the above
b. operating region d. normal region
44) b increases with ___ in temperatures.
28) In saturation region, the base collector is ___. a. decrease c. Either a or b
a. cutoff c. open b. increase d. Neither a nor b
b. reverse d. forward-bias
45) Networks that are quite stable and relatively insensitive to temperature
29) What are the basic uses of BJT? variation have ___.
a. timing and clocking c. registering and storing a. low stability factor c. infinite stability factor
b. switching and amplifying d. counting and shifting b. high stability factor d. zero stability factor

30) What is the typical input impedance (range) of common emitter 46) Reverse saturation current doubles in value for every what increase
amplifier? in temperature?
a. 5 kV-10 kV c. 10 kV-20 kV a. 10C b. 20C c. 5C d. 15C
b. 25 V-5 kV d. 1 kV-2 kV
47) In BJT, the letter h in h-parameters stand for what?
31) What configuration has 180 phase reversal between the input and a. hole b. high c. hybrid d. host
output signals?
a. common collector c. common base 48) Which of the following parameter is normally rejected in most
b. common emitter d. All of the above practical applications?
a. hi b. hf c. ho and hr d. hi and ho
32) In common emitter, the current is always ___.
a. equals 1 c. greater than 1 49) What h is defined as short circuit input impedance parameter?
b. lesser than 1 d. lesser than 0 a. hi c. ho
b. hf d. All of the above
33) The collector is common to both input and output side of the circuit.
a. common collector c. common base 50) What parameter is defined as open circuit reverse transfer voltage
b. common emitter d. All of the above ratio?
a. hi b. hf c. ho d. hr
34) Which of the following is a basic feature of common collector?
a. very high input impedance c. very high output impedance
b. very low input impedance d. All of the above

35) Leakage current in common emitter.

a. ICBO b. ICEO c. IECO d. ICCO

36) Leakage current in common emitter.

a. ICBO b. ICEO c. IECO d. ICCO

37) In common collector amplifier, the output is taken from the ___.
a. emitter b. collector c. base d. gate

38) In BJT, what is the reason for biasing?

a. to turn the device off c. to stabilize the circuit
b. to turn the device on d. to neutralize the device

39) In Q-point, the Q stands for ___.

a. quiescent b. quiet c. quo d. quota

40) Quiescent means ___.

a. still c. Both a and b
b. unvarying d. None of the above

41) A condition in which the voltage across the device is as small as

possible with the current in the device far reaching a saturating
value.
a. saturation c. linear/active
b. cutoff d. None of the above

42) Which of the following types of biasing is considered as the most

stable?
a. fixed bias circuit c. b independent circuit
b. emitter stabilized circuit d. emitter follower

43) A measure of the stability of the networks due to same parameter

 Field-effect Transistor a. the maximum possible drain current
b. the drain current with the source shorted
Non-multiple choices: c. the drain current at cutoff
1) Determine the drain current of an n-channel JFET having a pinch- d. the midpoint drain current
off voltage VP = -4 V and drain-source saturation current = 12 mA
at VGS = 0 V and VGS = -3 V. 9) Where is the channel of a JFET connected?
2) Calculate the transconductance gm of a JFET with IDSS = 12 mA a. between the drain and source
and VP = -4 V at bias point VGS = -1.5 V. b. between the drain and gate
3) What is the value of IDSS for an n-channel JFET with gm0 = 4.5 mS c. between the source and gate
and VP = -3 V? d. anywhere
4) What is the value of Vp of a p-channel JFET having IDSS = 12 mA
and gm0 = 6,500 mS? 10) Which of the following is true about JFET?
5) Determine the value of gm0 for a p-channel JFET having VP = -3.8 V a. The gate-to-source pn junction is reverse-bias.
and IDSS = 6.8 mA. b. The gate-to-source is forward-bias.
6) A p-channel JFET with Idss = 13.5 mA, Vp = 5 V is operated at ID c. The drain is always connected to the ground.
= 9.5 mA. What is the value of gm at this operating point? d. The gate is grounded.
7) What is the maximum value of transconductance of a JFET (VP =
-4 V) if the transconductance is 4,500 mS when operated at VGS = 11) At cutoff, what is the condition of the JFET channel?
-1 V? a. extremely wide c. reverse-biased
8) A depletion MOSFET with IDSS = 12 mA, VP = -4 V is operated b. forward-biased d. almost closed
at VGS = -0.5 V. What is the value of transconductance at this
operating point? 12) The arrow for a p-channel JFET points ___ source-drain connections.
9) What is the value of threshold voltage for an n-channel enchancement a. away c. toward
MOSFET that operates at ID = 4.8 mA when biased at 7 V? b. diagonally d. cant be determined
10) An enchancement MOSFET having threshold voltage of 3.5 V is
operated at VGS = 5 V. What current results? Use k = 0.3 mA/V. 13) In an n-channel JFET, the source-drain voltage must be connected
11) Determine the value of circuit transconductance for an n-channel so that the positive polarity is applied to what terminal?
enchancement MOSFET having VGS(TH) = 2.8 V when operated a. drain c. source
at 6 V. b. gate d. None of the above
12) An enhancement MOSFET operated at VGS = 7.5V has transconductance
of 2.5 mS. What is the value of a device threshold voltage? 14) In a p-channel JFET, the source-drain voltage must be connected
so that the positive polarity is applied to the ___ terminal of the
Multiple Choices: JFET and the negative polarity is applied to the ___ terminal.
1) JFET is the abbreviation for ___. a. source, drain c. drain, gate
a. Junction Field-effect Transistor b. drain, source d. source, gate
b. Junction Forward Effect Transistor
c. Junction Field-effect Thyristor 15) The charge carries in the channel material of a FET always flow
d. Junction Forward Effect Thyristor from the ___ terminal to the ___ terminal.
a. source, drain c. drain, gate
2) The arrow in the terminals on a JFET are called ___, ___, and ___. b. drain, source d. source, gate
a. gate, emitter, base c. source, drain, gate
b. base, emitter, source d. source, emitter, collector 16) In an n-channel JFET, the gate-source voltage must be connected
so that the positive polarity is applied to the ___ terminal of the
3) The arrow in the symbol for an n-channel JFET points ___ the JFET and the negative polarity is applied to the ___ terminal.
source-drain connections. a. source, drain c. drain, gate
a. away c. diagonally b. drain, source d. source, gate
b. toward d. cant be determined
17) In a p-channel JFET, the gate-source voltage must be connected
4) What is the FETs terminal which is equivalent to the base of the so that the positive polarity is applied to the ___ terminal of the
transistor? JFET and the negative polarity is applied to the ___ terminal.
a. drain c. source a. source, drain c. drain, gate
b. gate d. None of the above b. drain, source d. source, gate

5) The gate terminal in a D-MOSFET is separated from the channel 18) What is the mode of operation of an n-channel D-MOSFET if
material by a thin layer of ___. VGS is positive?
a. SiO b. Si2O c. Si2O2 d. SiO2 a. depletion mode c. enhancement mode
b. cutoff d. saturation
6) What FET configuration has the signal applied to the gate terminal
and taken from the source terminal? 19) A MOSFET differs from a JFET mainly because
a. common source c. common drain a. Of the power rating.
b. common gate d. common base b. The MOSFET has two gates.
c. The JFET has a pn junction.
7) What best describes a JFET? d. MOSFETS do not have a physical channel.
a. a unipolar device c. a bipolar device
b. voltage controlled device d. Both a and b 20) What isolate the gate and the channel in IGFET?
a. thin dielectric barrier c. thick dielectric barrier
8) What is IDSS? b. thin conductor d. thick conductor
 Field-effect Transistor
36) What do you call for the value of the gate to source voltage that
21) No conductive channel exists between the source and the drain. makes the drain current approximately zero?
a. depletion-enhancement mode IGFET a. cutoff c. saturation
b. depletion-mode IGFET b. breakdown d. zeroing
c. enhancement-mode IGFET
d. All of the above 37) The process of removing or depleting the channel of charge carriers
and thus decreasing the channel in a MOSFET.
22) What is the most commonly used IGFET structure? a. enhancement c. charging
a. p-channel enhancement mode device b. depletion d. doping
b. n-channel enhancement mode device
c. p-channel depletion mode device 38) The process of creating a channel or increasing the conductivity
d. n-channel depletion mode device of the channel by the addition charge carriers in a MOSFET.
a. enhancement c. charging
23) What is the typical threshold-voltage ranges for silicon gate b. depletion d. doping
p-channel IGFET?
a. 1.5-2.0 V b. 2.0-3.0 V c. 4.0-5.0 V d. 6.0-6.5 V 39) Which of the following uses an induced electric field to control
current?
24) A depletion MOSFET has IDSS = 10 mA and VP = -4.5 V. a. BJT b. diode c. FET d. thyristor
Calculate the drain current at gate-source voltage of 0 V.
a. 3.8 mA b. -3.8 mA c. -12 mA d. 10 mA 40) Sometimes called IGFET.
a. BJT b. diode c. MOSFET d. JFET
25) The common ___ FET amplifier has the input signal applied to
the source terminal and the signal taken from the drain. 41) A FET amplifier configuration in which the gate is grounded.
a. drain b. gate c. source d. base a. common drain c. common source
b. common gate d. All of the above
26) The common ___ FET amplifier has the signal applied to the gate
terminal and the output signal taken from the drain. 42) Common source in FET is analogous to ____.
a. drain b. gate c. source d. base a. common gate c. common collector
b. common emitter d. All of the above
27) The common ___ FET amplifier has the signal applied to the gate
terminal and the output signal taken from the drain. 43) At pinch-off voltage, the drain current in a FET is ___.
a. drain b. gate c. source d. base a. zero b. constant c. infinite d. negative

28) What is the FETs terminal which is equivalent to the emitter of 44) Which of the following describes the input resistance of a JFET?
the transistor? a. low b. medium c. very low d. high
a. drain c. source
b. gate d. None of the above 45) What happen to the resistance of the JFET when the reverse-bias
is increased?
29) What is the FETs terminal which is equivalent to the collector a. increases c. decreases
of the transistor? b. becomes zero d. remains constant
a. drain c. source
b. gate d. None of the above 46) IDSS is a constant drain current when VGS is what?
a. positive b. negative c. zero d. infinite
30) For a p-channel E-MOSFET, what is the direction of hole flow?
a. The hole flow is from source to drain. 47) Which of the following is stable?
b. The hole flow is from drain to source. a. voltage divider c. Both a and b
c. The hole flow is from source to gate. b. self-biased JFET d. fixed bias
d. The hole flow is from drain to gate.
48) In JFET, the gate and channel is separated by what?
31) An n-channel E-MOSFET uses what type of material for substrate? a. SiO2 c. pn junction
a. n-type b. intrinsic c. p-type d. extrinsic b. conductor d. rubber

32) A p-channel E-MOSFET uses what type of material for substrate? 49) A depletion MOSFET can operate with which of the following?
a. n-type b. intrinsic c. p-type d. extrinsic a. zero gate to source voltage
b. positive gate to source voltage
33) In FET, an inward-pointing arrow signifies ___. c. negative gate to source voltage
a. n-type substrate c. p-type substrate d. All of the above
b. intrinsic substrate d. extrinsic substrate
50) For an n-channel D-MOSFET, negative values of VGS produce
34) In FET, an outward-pointing arrow signifies ___. what mode?
a. n-type substrate c. p-type substrate a. enhancement mode c. depletion mode
b. intrinsic substrate d. extrinsic substrate b. saturation mode d. All of the above

35) For an n-channel enhancement MOSFET with threshold voltage

of 2.5 V, determine the current at gate source voltage of 6 V.
a. 0.675 mA b. 3.675 mA c. 1.675 mA d. 2.675 mA
 Amplifier &
Op-amps c. large closed-loop input impedance
d. large closed-loop output impedance
Non-multiple Choices:
1) Calculate the efficiency of a class B amplifier for a supply voltage 10) The voltage follower has a ___.
of VCC = 24 V with peak output voltages of: a. closed-loop voltage gain of unity
(a) VL(p) = 22 V; b. small open-loop voltage gain
(b) VL(p) = 6 V. c. closed-loop bandwidth of zero
2) Calculate the harmonic distortion components for an output signal d. large closed-loop output impedance
having fundamental amplitude of 2.5 V, second harmonic amplitude
of 0.25 V, third harmonic amplitude of 0.1 V, and fourth harmonic 11) A summing amplifier can have ___.
amplitude of 0.05 V. a. no more than two input signals
3) Calculate the total harmonic distortion from the previous problem. b. two or more input signals
4) For harmonic distortion reading of D2 = 0.1, D3 = 0.02, and D4 = c. a closed-loop input impedance of infinity
0.01, with I1 = 4.5 A and RC = 8 V, calculate the total harmonic d. a small open-loop voltage gain
distortion, fundamental power component, and total power.
5) Determine what maximum dissipation will be allowed for an 12) If b = 200 and re = 150 V, the input impedance of the base is
80-W silicon transistor (rated at 25C) if derating is required approximately ___.
above 25C by a derating factor of 0.5 W/C at a case temperature a. 30 kV b. 600 kV c. 3 kV d. 5 kV
of 125C.
6) A silicon power transistor is operated with a heat sink (uSA = 1.5C/W). 13) The input voltage to an emitter follower is usually ___.
The transistor, rated at 150 W (25C), has uJC = 0.5C/W, and the a. less than the generator voltage
mounting insulation has uCS = 0.6C/W. What maximum power can b. equal to the generator voltage
be dissipated if the ambient temperature is 40C and TJmax = 200C? c. greater than the generator voltage
d. equal to the supply voltage
Multiple Choices:
1) What usually controls the open-loop cutoff frequency of an op- 14) The ac emitter current is closed to
amp? a. VG/re b. vin/re c. VG/re d. vin/re
a. stray-wiring capacitance c. collector-base capacitance
b. base-emitter capacitance d. compensating capacitance 15) The output voltage of an emitter follower is approximately ___.
a. 0 V b. VG c. vin d. VCC
2) If the cutoff frequency is 15 Hz and the midband open-loop voltage
gain is 1,000,000, the unity-gain frequency is ___. 16) The ac load line of an emitter follower is usually ___.
a. 25 Hz b. 1 MHz c. 1.5 MHz d. 15 MHz a. the same as the dc load line
b. more horizontal than the dc load line
3) A 741C cannot work without ___. c. steeper than the dc load line
a. discrete resistors d. vertical
b. passive loading
c. dc return paths on the two bases 17) If the input voltage to an emitter follower is too large, the output
d. a small coupling capacitor voltage will be ___.
a. smaller b. larger c. equal d. clipped
4) The 741C has a unity-gain frequency of ___.
a. 10 Hz b. 20 kHz c. 1 MHz d. 15 MHz 18) If the Q-point is at the middle of the dc load line, clipping will
first occur on the ___.
5) The unity-gain frequency equals the product of closed-loop voltage a. left voltage swing c. positive half cycle of input
gain and the ___. b. upward current swing d. negative half cycle of input
a. compensating capacitance
b. tail current 19) If an emitter follower has VCEQ = 5 V, ICQ = 1 mA, and re = 1 kV,
c. closed-loop cutoff frequency the maximum peak-to-peak unclipped output is ___.
d. load resistance a. 1 V b. 2V c. 5 V d. 10 V

6) If unity is 10 MHz and midband open-loop voltage gain is 1,000,000, 20) If the load resistance of an emitter follower is very large, the external
then the open-loop cutoff frequency of the op-amp is ___. ac emitter resistance equals ___.
a. 10 Hz b. 20 Hz c. 50 Hz d. 100 Hz a. generator resistance c. dc emitter resistance
b. impedance of the base d. dc collector resistance
7) The initial slope of a sine wave increases when
a. Frequency decreases. c. CC increases. 21) If an emitter follower has re = 10 V and re = 90 V, the voltage gain
b. Peak value increases. d. Slew-rate decreases. is approximately ___.
a. 0 b. 0.5 c. 0.9 d. 1
8) If the frequency is greater than the power bandwidth
a. Slew-rate distortion occurs. 22) A square wave out of an emitter follower implies ___.
b. A normal output signal occurs. a. no clipping c. clipping at cutoff
c. Output offset voltage increases. b. clipping at saturation d. clipping on both peaks
d. Distortion may occur.
23) For class B operation, the collector current flows ___.
9) The noninverting amplifier has a ___. a. the whole cycle c. less than half a cycle
a. large closed-loop voltage gain b. half the cycle d. less than a quarter of a cycle
b. small open-loop voltage gain
 Amplifier & Op-amps
24) Push-pull is almost always used with ___.
a. Class A c. Class C
b. Class B d. All of the above

25) The transistor dissipation in class C amplifier decreases when the

___.
a. resonant frequency increases c. load resistance decreases
b. coil Q increases d. capacitance increases

26) The power rating of a transistor can be increased by ___.

a. raising the temperature d. operating with no input
b. using a heat sink signal
c. using a derating curve

27) The ac load line is the same as the dc load line when the ac collector
resistance equals the ___.
a. dc emitter resistance c. dc collector resistance
b. ac emitter resistance d. ac collector resistance

28) In a class A amplifier, the collector current flows for ___.

a. less than half the cycle c. less than the whole cycle
b. half the cycle d. the entire cycle

29) If the load power is 3 mW and the dc power is 150 mW, the efficiency
is ___.
a. 0% b. 2% c. 3% d. 50%

30) With class A, the output signal should be ___.

a. unclipped
b. clipped on positive voltage peak
c. clipped on negative voltage peak
d. clipped on negative current peak
Feedback &
Oscillators
1) To illustrate the stability of the closed-loop gain where the feedback
factor is 0.01, (a) consider that the amplifier gain drops to A = 10,000
and compute the closed-loop gain. (b) Assume that the amplifier gain
increases to A = 40,000 and compute the closed-loop gain.
2) Solve for the voltage gain, input and output impedance, with feedback
for voltage series feedback having A = 200, Ri = 15 kV, Ro = 25 kV
feedback of -0.5.
3) An amplifier without feedback has an internal gain of -500 with a
distortion of 10% and a normal input of 0.57 V. A negative feedback
with b = 0.10 was added. Determine the following:
(a) Gain of the amplifier when the feedback was added.
(b) Percent reduction in distortion when the feedback was added.
(c) The voltage required in the input of the amplifier in order that
the output voltage is the same as the voltage without feedback.
4) An amplifier has an input of 0.25 W. It has an internal gain of -500
with a 10% distortion. If negative feedback is added with b =
0.05, determine the following:
(a) Percent reduction in distortion.
(b) Reduction in output power due to feedback expressed in %.
5) The output of an amplifier is reduced by 2% when a negative
feedback with b = 0.10 is added. The gain of the amplifier is -40.
Determine the percent change in the internal gain of the amplifier.
6) The frequency sensitive arms of the Wien bridge oscillator uses
C1 = C2 = 0.001 mF and R1 = 10 kV while R2 is kept variable.
The frequency is to be varied from 20 kHz to 70 kHz by varying
R2. Find the minimum and maximum values of R2.
7) In Hartley oscillator, calculate L2 if L1 = 15 mH, C = 50 pF, mutual
inductance of 5 mH and the frequency of oscillations is 168 kHz.
8) For a certain UJT relaxation oscillator, the resistance is 10 kV
while the capacitance is 0.1mF. The standoff ratio is 0.6. Calculate
the frequency of oscillations.
 Industrial Electronics a. 12.2 A b. 22.1 A
7) Calculate the average load voltage.
c. 21.2 A d. 20.2 A

Non-mutiple Choices: a. 63 V b. 65 V c. 64 V d. 66 V
1) Given Fig.1: 8) Calculate the average load current.
V = 12 V Fig. 1 A relaxation oscillation using UJT
a. 6.0 A b. 6.2 A c. 6.1 A d. 6.3 A
9) Calculate the rms load current.
R1 a. 10.4 A b. 10.6 A c. 10.5 A d. 10.7 A
50 k RBB = 5 k, = 0.6 10) Calculate the power supplied to the load.
VV = 1 V, IV = 10 mA, IP = 10 A
(RB1 = 100 , during discharging phase) a. 1,904 W b. 9,140 W c. 1,094 W d. 1,940 W
11) Calculate the conduction angle.
C
0.1 pF R2 + a. 90 b. 45 c. 150 d. 35
0.1 k vR2 12) Calculate the ripple frequency.
-
a. 60 Hz b. 240 Hz c. 120 Hz d. 480 Hz
13) Calculate the power factor.
(a) Determine RB1 and RB2 at IE = 0 A. a. 0.70 b. 0.65 c. 0.75 d. 0.69
(b) Calculate VP, the voltage necessary to turn on the UJT. 14) A half-wave controlled rectifier is connected to a 120-V source.
(c) Determine whether R1 is within the permissible rangle of values. Calculate the firing angle necessary to deliver 150 W of power to a
2) If VBB = 12 V, R = 20 kV, C = 1 mF, RK = 100 V, RB1 = 10 kV, load of 10 V.
RB2 = 5 kV, IP = 100 A,VV = 1 V, IV = 5.5 mA, determine: a. 90 c. 150
(a) VP. b. 45 d. None of the above
(b) Rmax and Rmin.
(c) T and frequency of oscillation. Items 15-20
3) A thyristor half-wave controlled converter has a supply voltage A full-wave bridge controlled rectifier is supplied from a 150-V source
of 240 V at 50 Hz and a load resistance of 150 V. What is the with a load resistance of 10 V. The firing angle is 30.
average and rms load current when the firing delay angle is 30? 15) Calculate the average load voltage.
Calculate the power factor. a. 126 A b. 612 A c. 216 A d. 162 A
4) A full-wave half-controlled bridge has a supply voltage of 220 V at 16) Calculate the average load current.
50 Hz. The firing delay angle a = 60 and is connected to a resistive a. 12.6 A b. 61.2 A c. 21.6 A d. 16.2 A
load of 80 V. Determine the rms current and the load power. 17) Calculate the maximum load current.
5) A full-wave fully controlled bridge has a highly inductive load a. 12.2 A b. 31.2 A c. 21.2 A d. 13.2 A
with a resistance of 60 V, and a supply of 110 V at 50 Hz. Calculate 18) Calculate the rms load current.
the values of load power and converter power factor for a firing a. 12.2 A b. 31.2 A c. 14.8 A d. 13.2 A
delay angle of 65. 19) Calculate the power supplied to the load.
6) A three-phase half-controlled thyristor converter has a highly a. 2,182 W b. 8,212 W c. 1,282 W d. 8,128 W
inductive load of 10 V, and a supply of 240 V at 50 Hz. Determine 20) Calculate the ripple frequency.
the rms phase current for firing delay angle of 75. a. 60 Hz b. 240 Hz c. 120 Hz d. 480 Hz
7) Determine the values of load power and converter power factor
for firing delay angle of 30. (Refer to previous problem.) 21) A half-controlled single-phase bridge rectifier is supplying an
8) A dc-to-dc chopper operates from a 50 V battery source into a R-L load. It is operated at a firing angle a and the load current
resistive load of 25 V. The frequency of the chopper is set to 250 Hz. is continuous. The fraction of cycle that the freewheeling diode
Determine the rms voltage and current when the chopper on time conducts is ___.
is 1 ms. a. 1/2 b. 1 - a/p c. a/2p d. a/p

Multiple Choices: 22) The typical ratio of latching current to holding current in a 20-A
Items 1-5 thyristor is ___.
A half-wave controlled rectifier is supplied from a 120-V source. The a. 5.0 b. 2.0 c. 1.0 d. 0.5
load resistance is 10 V.
1) Find the load voltage and power to the load for a 0 delay angle. 23) An SCR is considered to be a semi-controlled device because
a. 45 V, 200 W c. 54 V, 293 W a. It can be turned off but not on with a gate pulse.
b. 35 V, 150 W d. 53 V, 300 W b. It conducts only during one half-cycle of an ac wave.
2) Find the load voltage and power to the load for a 45 delay angle. c. It conducts only during one full-cycle of an ac wave.
a. 45.5 V, 200 W c. 35.1 V, 150 W d. It can be turned on but not off with a gate pulse.
b. 46.2 V, 213 W d. 53.5 V, 300 W
3) Find the load voltage and power to the load for a 90 delay angle. 24) In the single phase diode bridge
a. 27.1 V, 73.2 W c. 54 V, 20.2 W rectifier (Fig.2), the load resistor
b. 35.2 V, 15.0 W d. 53 V, 30.6 W is R = 50 V. The source voltage is
Vs R
4) Find the load voltage and power to the load for a 135 delay angle. Vs = 200 sin vt where v = 2p #
a. 5.31 V, 3.0 W c. 7.72 V, 6.3 W 50 radians per second. The power
b. 3.54 V, 1.5 W d. 5.35 V, 3.0 W dissipated in the load resistor R is
5) Find the load voltage and power to the load for a 180 delay angle. ___. Fig. 2 Problem 24
a. 3 V, 1 W c. 5 V, 3 W
a. 3,200/p W c. 400/p W
b. 3 V, 1.5 W d. 0 V, 0 W
b. 400 W d. 800 W
Items 6-13
Items 25-27
A half-wave controlled rectifier connected to a 150 V, 60 Hz source is
A single-phase 230-V, 50-Hz ac source is feeding a fully controlled
supplying a resistive load of 10 V. The delay angle is 30.
bridge converter (Fig.3). The firing angle is 30.
6) Calculate the maximum load current.
 Industrial Electronics

Th1 Th3

230 V ac load

Th4 Th2

Fig. 3 Problem 25-27

25) The dc output voltage will be ___.
a. 126.8 V b. 96.6 V c. 179.3 V d. 63.4 V
26) If a freewheeling diode is connected across the load, then what is
the value of dc output voltage?
a. 193.2 V b. 136.6 V c. 386.4 V d. 273.2 V
27) When the thyristor Th3 gets open circuited, the value of dc output
current flowing through a load of 10 V is ___.
a. 9.7 A b. 19.3 A c. 13.7 A d. 17.8 A

28) A three-phase, half-wave controlled converter is fed from a 380-V

(line), 50-Hz ac supply and is operating at a firing angle of 45. The
thyristors have a forward voltage-drop of 1.2 V. What will be the
approximate average load voltage?
a. 127 V b. 180.2 V c. 256.3 V d. 103.5 V

29) In the circuit shown, the thyristor is fired at an angle p/4 in every
positive half-cycle of the input ac voltage. The average power
across the load will be ___.
T
A K

Vs = R = 10
220 sin 314t
Fig. 4 Problem 29: a single-phase
half-wave controlled rectifier

a. 2.2 kW b. 4.4 kW c. 1.1 kW d. 8.8 kW

30) A single-phase full controlled bridge rectifier is operated from a

source Vs = 100 sin 314t. The average power drawn by a resistive
load of 10 V at a firing angle a = 45 is ___.
a. 295.5 W b. 267 W c. 500 W d. 454.5 W

31) In a fully controlled converter, the load voltage is controlled by

which of the following quantity?
a. extension angle c. firing angle
b. conduction angle d. None

32) The fully controlled bridge converter (Fig.5) is fed from a single-
phase source. The peak value of input voltage of Vm. What will be
the average output dc voltage Vdc for a firing of 30?

T1 T3 R

Vs
L
Fig. 5 Problem 32: a full-wave fully
T4 T2 controlled bridge with highly
inductive load

a. 0.6Vm c. 0.551Vm
b. 0.77Vm d. 0.424Vm
Computer Fundamentals c. d.

1 1
1) Perform binary subtraction to 6 4 and 4 2 would result to ___. 17) A binary numbers value changes most drastically when the ___ is
a. . b. . c. . d. . changed.
a. duty cycle b. MSB c. frequency d. LSB
2) Convert binary to hexadecimal.
a. 16 b. 16 c. 16 d. 16 18) Which is not a word size?
a. 64 b. 16 c. 28 d. 6
3) Add 8 with .2.
a. 10 c. .8 19) The octal numbering system ___.
b. .2 d. .8 a. simplifies tasks.
b. groups binary numbers in groups of 4
4) Decode the following ASCII message: c. saves times
d. simplifies tasks and saves time

a. c. 20) What is the smallest type of computer in terms of their physical
b. d. size?
a. minicomputer c. mainframe
5) As one hex digit is sometimes referred to as a(n) ___. b. maxicomputer d. microcomputer
a. byte c. nibble
b. grouping d. instruction 21) When using even party, where is the parity bit placed?
a. before the MSB c. in the parity word
6) That part of a computer instruction that defines what type of b. after the LSB d. after the odd parity
operation the computer is to execute on specified data.
a. machine language c. mnemonic 22) Hexadecimal letters through are used for decimal equivalent
b. assembly language d. op code values from ___.
a. through c. through
7) Which of the following is the most widely used alphanumeric b. through d. through
code for computer input and output?
a. Gray b. parity c. ASCII d. EBCDIC 23) Convert the binary number to Gray code.
a. b. c. d.
8) Which of the following is the language used in making an Internet
web page? 24) Determine the decimal equivalent of the signed binary number
a. Highertext Mark-up Language in s complement.
b. Hypertext Mark-up Language a. b. c. - d.
c. Hightech Mark-up Language
d. Hypertext Make-up Language 25) What is the difference between binary coding and binary-coded
decimal?
9) If a typical PC uses a 20-bit address code, how memory can the a. BCD is pure binary.
CPU address? b. Binary coding has a decimal format.
a. 20 MB b. 10 MB c. 580 MB d. 1 MB c. BCD has no decimal format.
d. Binary coding is pure binary.
10) Convert .10 to BCD.
a. c. 26) The 1s complement of is ___.
b. . d. . a. c.
b. d.
11) The most widely used 7-bit alphanumeric code is the ___.
a. ASCII c. EBCDIC 27) Windows 7 is an example of a(n) ___.
b. straight binary code d. Gray code a. application software c. browser
b. operating system d. shareware
12) Convert 16 to binary.
a. c. 28) Express the decimal number - as an 8-bit number in sign-
b. d. magnitude.
a. c.
13) Which is typically the longest: bit, byte, nibble, word? b. d.
a. bit b. byte c. nibble d. word
29) The most powerful type of computer.
14) How many binary digits are required to count to 10? a. mainframe computers c. microcomputers
a. 7 b. 3 c. 4 d. 8 b. minicomputers d. supercomputers

15) The BCD number for decimal is ___. 30) The system component that controls and manipulates data in
a. c. order to produce information is called the ___.
b. d. a. keyboard c. monitor
b. microprocessor d. mouse
16) What is the hex equivalent of an ASCII code which means ?
a. b. 31) Any type of storage that is used for holding information between
steps in its processing is ___.
 Computer Fundamentals
a. primary storage c. intermediate storage 42) Which of the following is not a computer bus?
b. internal storage d. CPU a. data bus c. timer bus
b. control bus d. address bus
32) The binary-coded decimal (BCD) system can be used to represent
each of the 10 decimal digits as a(n) ___. 43) The ___ controls communications for the entire computer system.
a. 8-bit binary code c. ASCII code a. arithmetic logic unit c. semiconductor
b. 4-bit binary code d. 16-bit binary code b. motherboard d. coprocessor

33) The 2s complement of is ___. 44) People who create or improve programs and share those programs
a. c. are ___.
b. d. a. employees c. crackers
b. hackers d. members of organized crime
34) ASCII stands for ___.
a. American Standard Code for Information Interchange 45) The Pentium can address ___.
b. All-purpose Scientific Code for Information Interchange a. 1 MB b. 1 GB c. 2 GB d. 4 GB
c. American Security Code for Information Interchage
d. American Scientific Code for Information Interchange 46) A port can be ___.
a. strictly for input c. multiplexing
35) Select one of the following statements that best describes the b. bidirectional d. bidirectional addressing
parity method of error detection.
a. Parity checking is best suited for detecting single-bit errors in 47) The Pentium microprocessor has a data bus of ___.
transmitted code. a. 16 bits b. 32 bits c. 64 bits d. 128 bits
b. Parity checking is not suitable for detecting single-bit errors
in transmitted codes. 48) The process of jointly establishing communication is called ___.
c. Parity checking is capable of detecting and correcting errors a. DMA c. multiplexing
in transmitted codes. b. handshaking d. bidirectional addressing
d. Parity checking is best suited for detecting double-bit errors
that occur during the transmission of codes from one location 49) A 20-bit address bus can locate ___.
to another. a. 1,048,576 locations c. 2,097,152 locations
b. 4,194,304 locations d. 8,388,608 locations
36) Which of the following is the primary advantage of using the
BCD code instead of straight binary coding? 50) A systems programming language for microcomputers in the Intel
a. Fewer bits are required to represent a decimal number with family is ___.
the BCD code. a. PL/C b. PL/CT c. PLA d. PL/M
b. The relative ease of converting to and from decimal.
c. BCD codes are easily converted to hexadecimal codes. 51) The symbols used in an assembly language are ___.
d. BCD codes are easily converted to straight binary codes. a. codes c. assembler
b. mnemonic d. All of the above
37) How many BCD code bits and how many straight binary bits would
be required to represent the decimal number ? 52) These devices translate data and programs that humans can understand
a. 12 BCD, 12 binary c. 12 BCD, 9 binary into a form that the computer can process ___.
b. 12 BCD, 10 binary d. 16 BCD, 9 binary a. display b. input c. output d. pointer

38) When using the repeated division by 2 method of converting from 53) A DVD is an example of a(n) ___.
decimal to binary, one must write the first remainder as the a. hard disk c. output device
a. MSB. b. optical disc d. solid-state storage device
b. MSB, provided the following sequence of remainders are written
in descending order until the final remainder is achieved. 54) The Internet was launched in 1969 when the United States funded
c. LSB. a project that developed a national computer network called ___.
d. LSB, provided the final remainder is used to replace the original a. Web c. CERN
LSB, which is then moved to the MSB position. b. ISP d. ARPANET

39) Which method bypasses the CPU for certain types of data transfer? 55) Tape is described as using this type of access.
a. software interrupts c. polled I/O a. magneto-optical c. DVD
b. interrept-driven I/O d. DMA b. direct d. sequential

40) Which of the following is not an enhancement to the Pentium 56) Specialized high-capacity secondary storage device designed to
that was unavailable in to 8086/8088? meet organizational demands for data.
a. pipelined architecture a. Blu-ray Disc c. HiDef
b. expansion of cache memory b. mass storage d. floppy disk
c. inclusion of an internal math coprocessor
d. data/address line multiplexing 57) A(n) ___ protects an organizations network from outside attack.
a. fortress b. DNS c. extranet d. firewall
41) Which bus is bidirectional?
a. address bus c. control bus 58) Two basic types of cookies are ___.
b. data bus d. None of the above a. advanced and remedial c. traditional and natural
b. natural and ad network d. ad network and traditional
 Computer Fundamentals
a. track c. table
59) A(n) ___ program provides access to Web sources. b. sector d. segment
a. Web b. ISP c. browser d. URL
74) An attempt to slow down or stop a computer system or network
60) Rules for exchanging data between computers are called ___. by flooding the system with requests for information is called a
a. programs c. protocols ___.
b. procedures d. hyperlinks a. virus c. worm
b. denial-of-service attack d. Trojan horse
61) Programs that automatically submit your search request to several
engines simultaneously are called ___. 75) Secret words or phrases used to gain access to a computer system
a. metasearch engines c. spiders are called ___.
b. inclusive search engines d. hits a. encryption c. codes
b. crackers d. passwords
62) This type of software works with end users, application software,
and computer hardware to handle the majority of technical details. 76) An abbreviation that represents the op code of a computer instruction.
a. application software c. system software a. ASCII c. mnemonic
b. communications software d. Web software b. octets d. instruction

63) The primary purpose of this type of software is to create text- 77) The container that houses most of the electronic components that
based documents. make up a computer system is known as the ___.
a. spreadsheet c. word processing a. ALU c. CPU
b. presentation d. Web development b. RFID d. system unit

64) A(n) ____ is a single program that provides the functionality of a 78) The amount of time required by a storage device to retrieve data
word processor, spreadsheet, database manager, and more. and programs is its ___.
a. specialized application c. basic application a. access speed c. capacity
b. integrated package d. software suite b. memory d. storage

65) Software that allows your computer to interact with the user, 79) Thick, rigid metal platters that are capable of storing and retrieving
applications, and hardware is called ___. information at a high rate of speed are known as ___.
a. application software c. system software a. hard disks c. soft disks
b. word processor d. database software b. flash memory d. SAN

66) GUI stands for ___. 80) The smallest unit in a digital system is a ___.
a. gnutella universal interface c. graphical user interface a. byte b. bit c. word d. character
b. graphic uninstall/install d. general utility interface
81) Computer ___ are guidelines for the morally acceptable use of
67) A(n) ___ boot occurs when a computer is restarted without turning computers in our society.
off the power. a. business demands c. ethics
a. cold b. warm c. direct d. indirect b. laws d. security requirements

68) Equivalent of decimal value of in straight binary code is ___ 82) A program error that violates the rules of the programming language
and in BCD is ___. is a ___ error.
a. , a. modular b. syntax c. logic d. language
b. ,
c. , 83) These provide expansion capability for a computer system.
d. , a. sockets b. slots c. bytes d. bays

69) ___ is the most widely used operating system. 84) The ___ tells the rest of the computer how to carry out a programs
a. Windows b. Mac OS c. UNIX d. Linux instructions.
a. ALU c. control unit
70) All arithmetic operations take place in the ___ of a computer. b. system unit d. motherboard
a. CPU c. ALU
b. microprocessor d. ROM 85) A 32-bit word computer can access ___ bytes at a time.
a. 4 b. 16 c. 8 d. 32
71) This operating system is most popular with graphic designers and
those who work in multimedia. 86) These chips are specifically designed to handle the processing
a. Windows Vista c. Mac OS requirements related to displaying and manipulating 3-D images.
b. Linux d. UNIX a. graphics coprocessors c. control unit processors
b. ALU processors d. CISC chips
72) A computer programming language in which groups of 1s and 0s
are used to represent instructions. It is also the only language a 87) This type of memory improves processing by acting as a temporary
computer actually understood. high-speed holding area between the memory and the CPU.
a. application software c. machine language a. RAM c. ROM
b. high-level language d. programming language b. cache memory d. flash memory

73) A concentric ring on a hard disk is referred to as a ___. 88) A computer assisted method for the recording and analyzing of
 Computer Fundamentals
existing or hypothetical systems is ___. a. database administrators c. programmers
a. data transmission c. data capture b. network managers d. systems analysts
b. data flow d. data processing
104) Which of the following languages is more suited to a structured
89) The brain of any computer system is ___. program?
a. ALU c. memory a. PL/1 c. BASIC
b. CPU d. control unit b. FORTRAN d. PASCAL

90) What difference does the 5th generation computer have from 105) A datum that indicates some important state in the content of
other generation computers? input or output in ___.
a. technological advancement a. sentinel c. SIO
b. scientific code b. sibling d. None of the above
c. object-oriented programming (OOP)
d. All of the above 106) The microcomputer, Intel MCS-80 is based on the widely used
Intel ___.
91) Which of the following computer language is used for artificial a. 8080 microprocessor c. 8085 microprocessor
intelligence? b. 8086 microprocessor d. 8082 microprocessor
a. PL/1 c. BASIC
b. FORTRAN d. PROLOG 107) The average time necessary for the correct sector of a disk to
arrive at the read write head is ___.
92) ___ refers to a computers ability to configure and use a device a. down time c. seek time
without human interaction. b. rotational delay d. access time
a. CPU c. Plug and Play
b. Cache d. ALU 108) How many bit code is used by Murray code for
machines.
93) ___ ports connect special types of music instruments to sound a. 4 b. 5 c. 9 d. 25
cards.
a. BUS b. USB c. CPU d. MIDI 109) Which method is used to connect a remote computer?
a. device c. diagnostic
94) The most important characteristic of a monitor is its ___. b. dial-up d. logic circuit
a. clarity c. dot pitch
b. resolution d. viewable size 110) A single packet on a data link is known as ___.
a. path b. frame c. block d. group
95) RAM is referred to as ___ storage.
a. direct b. secondary c. volatile d. sequential 111) The term referring to evacuating the content of some part of the
machine is known as ___.
96) The data on an optical disc is represented by flat areas called ___ a. down c. enhancement
on the disc surface. b. compiler d. dump
a. surfaces b. lands c. flats d. pits
112) Which type of system puts the user into direct conversation with
97) DVD stands for ___. the computer through a keyboard?
a. digital video data c. direct video disc a. interactive computer c. time sharing
b. digital versatile disc d. direct versatile disc b. batch processing d. None of the above

98) What is the principal register of an ALU? 113) The section of the CPU that selects, interprets and sees to the
a. controller c. buffer execution of program instructions.
b. actuator d. accumulator a. memory c. coroutine
b. register unit d. queue
99) A small image or other HTML code that is hidden within in an e-mail
message is called a ___. 114) A name applied by Intel Corp. to high speed MOS technology
a. virus c. worm is called ___.
b. denial-of-service attack d. Web bug a. HDLC b. LAP c. HMOS d. SDLC

100) C++ is considered a(n) ___. 115) The time for which a piece of equipment operates is called ___.
a. machine language c. assembly language a. seek time c. real time
b. procedural language d. natural language b. access time d. effective time

101) Fourth-generation languages use ___. 116) A register which holds the data being written into or read out of
a. procedural statements c. assemblers the addressed memory location.
b. nonprocedural statements d. symbols a. hold register c. memory address register
b. memory data register d. glitch register
102) These individuals design, test, and research encryption procedures.
a. database administrators c. computer trainers 117) Correcting the faults in a circuit or a system.
b. cryptographers d. technical writers a. buzz-out c. debugging
b. trap d. fault corrector
103) These individuals are responsible for creating, testing, and
troubleshooting computer programs. 118) A register which holds the address of the word currently being
 Computer Fundamentals
accessed.
a. hold register c. memory data register
b. memory address register d. access register

119) A preproduction model of a system built for testing and

debugging.
a. wire list c. maybe (colloquial)
b. prototype d. sample

120) This bus carries lines that control the operating of the memory
from the microprocessor to the memory.
a. data bus c. address bus
b. control bus d. bus lines

121) This type of bus carries the memory address from the computer
to the memory.
a. data bus c. address bus
b. control bus d. parallel bus
Microelectronics c. The digital system is faster.
d. The microprocessor/DSP is faster.
1) Which of the following can be accessed only sequentially?
a. floppy disk c. hard disk 11) FPGA is the acronym for ___.
b. magnetic tape d. ROM a. Flexible Programming (of) Generic Assemblies
b. Field Programmable Generic Array
2) In a microprocessor c. Field Programmable Gate Array
a. All instructions need only one machine cycle. d. Field Programmers Gate Assembly
b. Some instructions need only one machine cycle while some
other instructions need more than one machine cycle. 12) Which of the following is true?
c. All instructions need only fraction of one machine cycle. a. Altera uses PAL architecture and Xilinx uses PLA architecture.
d. Some instructions need less than one machine cycle. b. Altera uses PLA architecture and Xilinx uses PAL architecture.
c. Altera and Xilinx both use PAL architecture.
3) A 256 # 4 EPROM has ___. d. Altera and Xilinx both use PLA architecture.
a. 8 address pins and 4 data pins
b. 8 address pins and 8 data pins 13) What type of device is shown in the given figure, and what input (A3,
c. 4 address pins and 8 data pins A2, A1, A0) are required to produce BCD/DEC
d. 4 address pins and 4 data pins the output levels as shown? 0 1
a. A binary-to-decimal encoder; 1 1
4) The difference between a PLA and a PAL is ,,, 2 1
A0 1 3 1
a. The PLA has a programmable OR plane and a programmable b. A demical-to-binary decoder; A1 2 4 1
AND plane, while the PAL only has a programmable AND plane. ,,, A2 4 5 1
c. A BCD-to-demical decoder; A3 8 6 1
b. The PAL has a programmable OR plane and a programmable 7 0
AND plane, while the PLA only has a programmable AND plane. ,,, 8 1
c. The PAL has more possible product terms than the PLA. d. A decimal-to-BCD encoder; 9 1
d. PALs and PLAs are the same thing. ,,,
Fig. 6 Problem 13
5) ALM is the acronym for ___. 14) The Altera MAX 7000 series
a. Array Logic Matrix ___.
b. Arithmetic Logic Module a. uses an E2PROM process technology
c. Asynchronous Local Modulator b. can have between 2 and 16 LABS and I/O control blocks
d. Adaptive Logic Module c. is available with dc supply voltages between 2.5 V and 5 V
d. All of the above
6) EEPROM permits ___.
a. read operation only 15) ASIC stands for ___.
b. read and byte erase operations a. Advanced Speed Integrated Circuit
c. read, byte erase and byte write operations b. Advanced Standard Integrated Circuit
d. read, byte erase, byte write and chip erase operations c. Application Specific Integrated Circuit
d. Application Speedy Integrated Circuit
7) Which of the following best describes static memory devices?
a. Memory devices that are magnetic in nature and do not require 16) A macrocell basically contains ___.
constant refreshing. a. a programmble AND-OR gate array and some input buffers
b. Memory devices that are magnetic in nature and require constant b. an OR-gate array and some output logic
refreshing. c. an AND-OR gate array and some output logic
c. Semiconductor memory devices in which stored data will not d. licensed programming
be retained with the power applied unless constantly refreshed.
d. Semiconductor memory devices in which stored data is retained 17) Which of the following best describes volatile memory?
as long as power is applied. a. Memory that retains stored information when electrical power
is removed.
8) Each programmable array logic (PAL) gate product is applied b. Memory that loses stored information when electrical power
to an OR gate and if combination logic is desired, the product is is removed.
stored and then ___. c. magnetic memory
a. the polarity is restored d. nonmagnetic
b. sent to an inverter for output
c. sent immediately to an output pin 18) The final step in the device programming sequence is ___.
d. passed to the AND function for output a. compiling c. simulation
b. downloading d. synthesis
9) Which of the following is a computer language?
a. MS Word c. Page Maker 19) What is the major difference between SRAM and DRAM?
b. MS Excel d. LISP a. DRAMs must be periodically refreshed.
b. SRAMs can hold data via a static charge even with power off.
10) What is the defining difference between microprocessor/DSP c. The only difference is the terminal from
systems and other digital systems? which the data is removedfrom the FET drain or source.
a. The digital system follows a programmed sequence of instruc- d. Dynamic RAMs are always active; static RAMs must reset
tions that the designer specified. between data read/write cycles.
b. The microprocessor follows a programmed sequence of instruc-
tions that the designer specified. 20) Suppose that a certain semiconductor memory chip has a capacity
 Microelectronics
of 8k # 8. How many bytes could be stored in this device? 30) To which pin on the RAM chip does the address decoder connect
a. 8,000 b. 65,536 c. 64,000 d. 8,192 in order to signal which memory 15 chip is being accessed?
a. the address input c. the output enable
21) Why have PLDs taken over so much of the market? b. the chip enable d. the data input
a. One PLD does the work of many ICs.
b. The PLDs are cheaper. 31) FPGAs use ___ memory technology which is ___.
c. Less power is required. a. DRAM, nonvolatile c. SRAM, nonvolatile
d. All of the above b. SRAM, volatile d. RAM, volatile

22) Address decoding for dynamic memory chip 32) How can UV erasable PROMs be recognized?
control may also be used for ___. a. There is a small window on the chip.
a. controlling refresh circuits b. They will have a small violet dot next to the #1 pin.
b. read and write control c. Their part number always starts with a U, such as in U12.
c. chip selection and address location d. They are not readily identifiable, since they must always be
d. memory mapping kept under a small cover.

23) Which of the following describes the action of storing a bit of 33) Select the statement that best describes the fusible-link PROM.
data in a mask ROM? a. user-programmable, one-time programmable
a. A is stored in a bipolar cell by opening the base connection to b. manufacturer-programmable, one-time programmable
the address line. c. user-programmable, reprogrammable
b. A is stored in a bipolar cell by shorting the base connection to d. manufacturer-programmable, reprogrammable
the address line.
c. A is stored by connecting the gate of a MOS cell to the address 34) I/O mapped systems identify their input/output devices by giving
line. them a(n) ___.
d. A is stored by connecting the gate of a MOS cell to the address a. 8-bit port number c. 8-bit buffer number
line. b. 16-bit port number d. 8-bit instruction

24) The main advantage of semiconductor RAM is its ability to ___. 35) What type of circuit is used at the interface point of an output port?
a. retain stored data when power is interrupted or turned off a. decoder c. tristate buffer
b. be written to and read from rapidly b. latch d. None of the above
c. be randomly accessed
d. be sequentially accessed 36) What type of circuit is used at the interface point of an input port?
a. decoder c. latch
25) CLB is the acronym for ___. b. tristate buffer d. None of the above
a. Configurable Logic Block c. Critical Logic Buffer
b. Configurable Logic Buffer d. Constant Logic Buffer 37) How many storage locations are available when a memory device
has 12 address lines?
26) Which of the following is one of the basic characteristics of a. 144 b. 512 c. 2,048 d. 4,096
DRAMs?
a. DRAMs must have a constantly changing input. 38) Eight bits of digital data are normally referred to as a ___.
b. DRAMs must be periodically refreshed in order to be able to a. group b. word c. byte d. cell
retain data.
c. DRAMs have a broader dynamic storage range than other 39) What is the principal advantage of using address multiplexing
types of memories. with DRAM memory?
d. DRAMs are simpler devices than other types of memories. a. reduced memory access time
b. reduced requirement for constant refreshing of the memory
27) A circuit that implements a combinational logic function by contents
storing a list of output values that correspond to all possible input c. reduced pin count and decrease in package size
combinations is a(n) ___. d. no requirement for a chip-select input line, thereby reducing
a. output logic macrocell c. parallel logic expander the pin count
b. look-up table d. logic element
40) A slice consists of ___.
28) Describe the timing diagram of a write operation. a. only two logic cells c. up to 16 logic cells
a. First the data is set on the data bus and the address is set, then b. between 2 and 8 logic cells d. a single CLB
the write pulse stores the data.
b. First the address is set, then the data is set on the data bus, and 41) Which statement below best describes the function of a decoder?
finally the read pulse stores the data. a. A decoder will convert a decimal number into the proper binary
c. First the write pulse stores the data, then the address is set, and equivalent.
finally the data is set on the data bus. b. A decoder will convert a binary number into a specific output
d. First the data is set on the data bus, then the write pulse stores representing a particular character or digit.
the data, and finally the address is set. c. Decoders are used to prevent improper operation of digital
systems.
29) What is a major disadvantage of RAM? d. Decoders are special ICs that are used to make it possible for
a. Its access speed is too slow. c. It is volatile. one brand of computer to talk to another.
b. Its matrix size is too big. d. High power consumption.
42) Multiplexing of digital signals is usually required when
a. Moving data internally within a microprocessor.
 Microelectronics
b. Moving data between memory and storage registers in a conflict caused by two ICs writing different data to the same bus.
microprocessor. a. control bus c. address decoder
c. Moving data over long distance transmission lines. b. control instructions d. CPU
d. Moving data internally within a microprocessor or between
memory and storage registers. 55) How many bits are used in the data bus?
a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 16
43) Why does the TTL family use a totem-pole circuit on the output?
a. It provides active pull-up. 56) The items that you can physically touch in a computer system are
b. It provides active pull-down. called ___.
c. It provides active pull-up and active pull-down. a. software c. hardware
d. None of the above b. firmware d. None of the above

44) MICR stands for ___. 57) Single-bit indicators that may be set or cleared to show the results
a. Magnetic Ink Chart Receipt of logical or arithmetic operations are the ___.
b. Magnetic Ink Character Recognition a. flags c. monitors
c. Magnetic Ink Chart Recognition b. registers d. decisions
d. Magnetic Ink Character Receipt
58) Which of the following best describes random-access memory
45) Which of the following computer memories is fastest? (RAM)?
a. cache c. primary a. a type of memory in which access time depends on memory
b. mass storage d. offline backup location
b. a type of memory that can be written to only once but can be
46) If the range of output voltage of a 6-bit DAC is 0 to 15 volts, what read from an infinite number of times
is the step voltage of the output? c. a type of memory in which access time is the same for each
a. 0.117 volts/step c. 0.234 volts/step memory location
b. 2.13 volts/step d. 4.26 volts/step d. mass memory

47) What is the meaning of RAM, and what is its primary role? 59) When referring to instruction words, a mnemonic is ___.
a. Readily Available Memory; it is the first level of memory used a. a short abbreviation for the operand address
by the computer in all of its operations. b. a short abbreviation for the operation to be performed
b. Random Access Memory; it is the memory that can be reached c. a short abbreviation for the data word stored at the operand
by any subsystem within a computer, and at any time. address
c. Random Access Memory; it is the memory used for short- d. a shorthand for machine language
term temporary data storage within the computer.
d. Resettable Automatic Memory; it is the memory that can be 60) The technique of assigning a memory address to each I/O device
used and then automatically reset, or cleared, after being read in the computer system is called ___.
from or written to. a. memory-mapped I/O c. dedicated I/O
b. ported I/O d. wired I/O
48) The storage element for a static RAM is the ___.
a. diode b. capacitor c. resistor d. flip-flop 61) When was the first 8-bit microprocessor introduced?
a. 1969 b. 1974 c. 1979 d. 1985
49) One of the most important specifications on magnetic media is
the ___. 62) The register in the 8085A that is used to keep track of the memory
a. rotation speed c. data transfer rate address of the next op code to be run in the program is the ___.
b. tracks per inch d. polarity reversal rate a. stack pointer c. program counter
b. instruction pointer d. accumulator
50) The devices that provide the means for a computer to communicate
with the user or other computers are referred to as ___. 63) The control bus and memories share a bidirectional bus in a
a. CPU c. I/O typical microprocessor system.
b. ALU d. None of the above a. True
b. False
51) The software used to drive microprocessor-based systems is called
___.
a. assembly language
b. firmware
c. machine language code
d. BASIC interpreter instructions

52) The circuits in the 8085A that provide the arithmetic and logic
functions are called the ___.
a. CPU c. I/O
b. ALU d. None of the above

53) How many buses are connected as part of the 8085A microprocessor?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 8

54) The ___ ensures that only one IC is active at a time to avoid a bus
 Logic Circuits 1 a. NOR b. OR c. NOT d. NAND

Non-multiple Choices: 9) How many gates would be required to implement the following
1) Give the dual of the following functions: Boolean expression before simplification? xy + x(x + z) + y(x + z)
(a) xy; (b) xy + z a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5
2) Simplify the following:
(a) x(x + y) 10) What is the primary motivation for using Boolean algebra to
(b) x + xy simplify logic expressions?
(c) xy + xz + yz a. It may make it easier to understand the overall function of the
(d) (x + y)(x + z)(y + z) circuit.
3) Find the complement of: b. It may reduce the number of gates.
(a) f(x, y, z) = xyz + xyz c. It may reduce the number of inputs required.
(b) f(x, y, z) = + xyz d. All of the above
(c) f(A, B, C, D) = (BC + AD)(AB + CD) and reduce them
to a minimum number of literals. 11) Use Boolean algebra to find the most simplified SOP expression
4) Express the Boolean function f = xy + xy in a product of maxterm for f = ABD + CD + ACD + ABC + ABCD.
form. a. f = ABD + ABC + CD c. f = BC + AB
5) Express f = A + BC in a sum of minterms. b. f = CD + AD d. f = AC + AD
6) Express the following functions in a sum of minterms and a product
of maxterms: 12) The NAND or NOR gates are referred to as universal gates because
(a) f(A, B, C, D) = D(A + B) + BD either ___.
(b) f(x, y, z) = a. can be found in almost all digital circuits
(c) f(A, B, C) = (A + B)(B + C) b. can be used to build all the other types of gates
7) Convert f(x, y, z) = (0, 1, 4) to product of maxterms. c. are used in all countries of the world
8) Convert f(x, y, z) = (1, 4, 7) to sum of minterms. d. were the first gates to be integrated

Multiple Choices: 13) Which statement below best describes a Karnaugh map?
1) How many inputs are required for a 1-of-16 decoder? a. A Karnaugh map can be used to replace Boolean rules.
a. 2 b. 8 c. 4 d. 16 b. The Karnaugh map eliminates the need for using NAND and
NOR gates.
2) Determine the value of A, B, C, and D that make the sum A + B c. Variable complements can be eliminated by using Karnaugh
+ C + D equal to zero. maps.
a. A = , B = , C = , D = c. A = , B = , C = , D = d. Karnaugh maps provide a visual approach to simplifying Boolean
b. A = , B = , C = , D = d. A = , B = , C = , D = expressions.

3) Convert the following SOP expression to an equivalent POS 14) Which of the examples below expresses the distributive law of
expression: Boolean algebra?
ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC + A BC. a. (A + B) + C = A + (B + C) c. A + (B + C) = AB + AC
a. (A + B + C)(A + B + C)(A + B + C) b. A(B + C) = AB + AC d. A(BC) = (AB) + C
b. (A + B + C)(A + B + C)(A + B + C)
c. (A + B + C)(A + B + C)(A + B + C) 15) Which of the following is an important feature of the sum-of-
d. (A + B + C)(A + B + C)(A + B + C) products (SOP) form of expression?
a. All logic circuits are reduced to nothing more than simple
4) Which of the following expressions is in the sum-of-products AND and OR gates.
(SOP) form? b. The delay times are greatly reduced over other forms.
a. (A + B)(C + D) c. AB(CD) c. No signal must pass through more than two gates, not including
b. (A)B(CD) d. AB + CD inverters.
d. The maximum number of gates that any signal must pass through
5) One of DeMorgans theorems states that x + y = xy. Simply is reduced by a factor of two.
stated, this means that logically there is no difference between
___. 16) The expression w(x + yz) can be converted to SOP form by
a. a NOR and an AND gate with inverted inputs applying which law?
b. a NAND and an OR gate with inverted inputs a. associative law c. distributive law
c. an AND and a NOR gate with inverted inputs b. commutative law d. None of the above
d. a NOR and a NAND gate with inverted inputs
17) Which of the following combinations cannot be combined into
6) Applying DeMorgans theorem to the expression ABC, we get K-map groups?
___. a. corners in the same row c. diagonal
a. A + B + C c. A + B + CC b. corners in the same column d. overlapping combinations
b. A + B + C d. A(B + C)
18) The output of an AND gate with three inputs A, B, C is HIGH
7) The systematic reduction of logic circuits is accomplished by ___. when ___.
a. using Boolean algebra c. TTL logic a. A = , B = , C = c. A = , B = , C =
b. symbolic reduction d. using a truth table b. A = , B = , C = d. A = , B = , C =

8) An OR gate with schematic bubbles on its inputs performs the 19) If a 3-input NOR gate has eight input possibilities, how many of
same functions as a(n) ___ gate. those possibilities will result in a HIGH output?
 Logic Circuits 1
a. 1 b. 2 c. 7 d. 8 we get ___.
a. w x y z b. wxy z c. wxyz d. w x y + z
20) If a signal passing through a gate is inhibited by sending a LOW
into one of the inputs, and the output is HIGH, the gate is a(n) ___. 31) Determine the binary values of the variables for which the
a. AND b. NAND c. NOR d. OR following standard POS expression is equal to : (A + B + C)
(A + B + C)
21) A device used to display one or more digital signals so that they can a. ( + + )( + + ) c. ( + + )( + + )
be compared to expected timing diagrams for the signals is a ___. b. ( + + )( + + ) d. ( + + )( + + )
a. DMM c. logic analyzer
b. spectrum analyzer d. frequency counter 32) The commutative law of addition and multiplication indicates that
a. We can group variables in an AND or in an OR any way we want.
22) When used with an IC, what does the term QUAD indicate? b. An expression can be expanded by multiplying term by term
a. 2 circuits b. 4 circuits c. 6 circuits d. 8 circuits just the same as in ordinary algebra.
c. The way we OR or AND two variables is unimportant because
23) How is a J-K flip-flop made to toggle? the result is the same.
a. J = , K = c. J = , K = d. The factoring of Boolean expressions requires the multiplication
b. J = , K = d. J = , K = of product terms that contain like variables

24) Propagation delay time tPLH is measured from the ___. 33) A Karnaugh-map is a systematic way of reducing which type of
a. triggering edge of the clock pulse to the LOW-to-HIGH expression?
transition of the output a. product-of-sums c. sum-of-products
b. triggering edge of the clock pulse to the HIGH-to-LOW b. exclusive NOR d. those with overbars
transition of the output
c. preset input to the LOW-to-HIGH transition of the output 34) Derive the Boolean expression for the logic circuit (Fig.9).
d. clear input to the HIGH-to-LOW transition of the output A
B
25) Derive the Boolean expression for the logic circuit (Fig.7). C
A D
B Fig. 9 Problem 34
C a. CA + CB + CD c. C(A + B) + D
D b. C(A + B)D d. CA + CB + D
E
Fig. 7 Problem 25
35) Mapping the SOP expression: A B C + ABC + ABC + ABC, we
a. C(A + B)DE c. {[C(A + B)D]E} get ___.
b. [C(A + B)D + E] d. ABCDE
C C C C
AB 0 1 AB 0 1 AB 0 1 AB 0 1
26) From the truth table (Fig.8), determine the Inputs Output 00 00 1 00 1 00 1 1
standard SOP expression. A B C X 01 1 1 01 1 1 01 01
a. X = A B C + ABC + ABC 0 0 0 0 11 1 11 1 11 1 1 11 1
0 0 1 1 10 1 10 10 1 1 10 1
b. X = ABC + ABC + ABC
c. X = ABC + ABC + ABC 0 1 0 0 (a) (b) (c) (d)
0 1 1 1
d. X = A BC + ABC + ABC 1 0 0 0
Fig. 10 Problem 35: Which K-map is correctly filled with 1s?
1 0 1 0 a. (a) b. (b) c. (c) d. (d)
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 0
Fig. 8 Problem 26

27) When grouping cells within a K-map, the cells must be combined
in groups of ___.
a. 2s c. 4s
b. 1, 2, 4, 8, etc. d. 3s

28) Occasionally, a particular logic expression will be of no consequence

in the operation of a circuit, such as a BCD-to-decimal converter.
These result in ___ terms in the K-map and can be treated as
either ___ or ___, in order to ___ the resulting term.
a. dont care, 1s, 0s, simplify
b. spurious, ANDs, ORs, eliminate
c. duplicate, 1s, 0s, verify
d. spurious, 1s, 0s, simplify

29) Converting the Boolean expression LM + M(NO + PQ) to SOP

form, we get ___.
a. LM + MNOPQ c. LM + M + NO + MPQ
b. L + MNO + MPQ d. LM + MNO + MPQ

30) Applying DeMorgans theorem to the expression (w + x + y)z,

 Logic Circuits 2 transistors is ___.
a. TTL b. CMOS c. LSI d. NMOS
Non-multiple Choices:
1) A standard TTL NAND gate uses a supply voltage of 5 V and has 11) A classification of ICs with complexities of 12 to 100 equivalent
current drains ICCH = 1 mA and ICCL = 3 mA. What is the average gates on a chip is known as ___.
power dissipation of an IC that has four NAND gates? a. SSI b. MSI c. LSI d. VLSI
2) The delays of a standard TTL gate with a load resistance of 400 V
and a load capacitance of 15 pF are tPHL = 7 ns, tPLH = 11 ns. 12) The output of an exclusive-NOR gate is 1. Which input
What is the average propagation delay of the system if 3 gates combination is correct?
are connected in cascade? a. A = , B = c. A = , B =
3) A certain TTL NAND gate has a noise margin of 0.5 V. What is b. A = , B = d. None of the above
the voltage transition width of the gate if the voltage logic swing
is 0.6 V, VOH = 3.5 V, VIL = 1.5 V? 13) One positive pulse with tw = 75 ms is applied to one of the inputs of
4) A standard TTL NAND has VOH = 2.5 V, VOL = 0.4 V, VIH = 1.8 V, an exclusive-OR circuit. A second positive pulse with tw = 15 ms
VIL = 0.8 V. What is the noise margin of the gate? is applied to the other input beginning 20 ms after the leading
edge of the first pulse. Which statement describes the output in
Multiple Choices: relation to the inputs?
1) A full subtracter circuit requires ___. a. The exclusive-OR output is a 20 ms pulse followed by a 40 ms
a. two inputs and two outputs pulse, with a separation of 15 ms between the pulses.
b. two inputs and three outputs b. The exclusive-OR output is a 20 ms pulse followed by a 15 ms
c. three inputs and one output pulse, with a separation of 40 ms between the pulses.
d. three inputs and two outputs c. The exclusive-OR output is a 15 ms pulse followed by a 40 ms
pulse.
2) A demultiplexer has ___. d. The exclusive-OR output is a 20 ms pulse followed by a 15 ms
a. one data input and a number of selection inputs, and they have pulse, followed by a 40 ms pulse.
several outputs
b. one input and one output 14) What is the function of an enable input on a multiplexer chip?
c. several inputs and several outputs a. to apply VCC c. to active the entire chip
d. several inputs and one output b. to connect ground d. to active one half of the chip

3) A multiplexer has ___. 15) The expansion inputs to a comparator are used for expansion to
a. one input and several outputs a(n) ___.
b. one input and one output a. 4-bit system c. BCD system
c. several inputs and several outputs b. 8-bit system d. counter system
d. several inputs and one output
16) A basic multiplexer principle can be demonstrated through the
4) An encoder converts ___. use of a ___.
a. noncoded information into coded form a. single-pole relay c. rotary switch
b. coded information into noncoded form b. DPDT switch d. linear stepper
c. HIGHs to LOWs
d. LOWs to HIGHs 17) How many inputs will a decimal-to-BCD encoder have?
a. 4 b. 8 c. 10 d. 16
5) What kind of logic device or circuit is used to store
information? 18) A principle regarding most IC decoders is that when the correct
a. counter b. register c. inverter d. buffer input is present, the related output will switch:
a. active-HIGH c. to an open
6) What is the typical invalid voltage for a binary signal? b. to a high impedance d. active-LOW
a. 0.7-2.8 V b. 0.8-3 V c. 0.8-2 V d. 0.7-2.5 V
19) What control signals may be necessary to operate a 1-line-to-16
7) Serial format means digital signals are ___. line decoder?
a. sent over many conductors simultaneously a. flasher circuit control signal
b. sent over one conductor sequentially b. a LOW on all gate enable inputs
c. sent in groups of eight signals c. input from a hexadecimal counter
d. sent in binary coded decimal d. a HIGH on all gate enable circuits

8) Which format can send several bits of information faster? 20) One multiplexer can take the place of ___.
a. parallel c. Both are the same a. several SSI logic gates
b. serial d. Cannot tell b. combinational logic circuits
c. several XNOR gates
9) What has happened to the advances in digital technologies over d. several SSI logic gates or combinational logic circuits
the past three decades?
a. Slowed down considerably. 21) How many inputs are required for a 1-of-10 BCD decoder?
b. Continued to increase, but at a decreasing rate. a. 4 b. 8 c. 10 d. 1
c. Made excellent progress.
d. Nothing short of phenomenal. 22) Most demultiplexers facilitate which of the following?
a. decimal to hexadecimal
10) A type of digital circuit technology that uses bipolar junction b. single input, multiple outputs
 Logic Circuits 2
c. ac to dc
d. odd parity to even parity 35) What is the difference between a 7490 and a 7492?
a. 7490 is a MOD-12, 7492 is a MOD-10.
23) The inputs/outputs of an analog multiplexer/demultiplexer are b. 7490 is a MOD-12, 7492 is a MOD-16.
___. c. 7490 is a MOD-16, 7492 is a MOD-10.
a. bidirectional c. even parity d. 7490 is a MOD-10, 7492 is a MOD-12.
b. unidirectional d. binary-coded decimal
36) When two counters are cascaded, the overall MOD number is
24) One application of a digital multiplexer is to facilitate ___. equal to the ___ of their individual MOD numbers.
a. data generation c. parity checking a. product b. log c. sum d. reciprocal
b. serial-to-parallel conversion d. data selector
37) A MOD-12 and a MOD-10 counter are cascaded. Determine the
25) What is the status of the inputs S0, S1, and S2 of the 74151 eight- output frequency if the input clock frequency is 60 MHz.
line multiplexer in order for the output Y to be a copy of input I5? a. 500 kHz c. 6 MHz
a. S0 = , S1 = , S2 = c. S0 = , S1 = , S2 = b. 1,500 kHz d. 5 MHz
b. S0 = , S1 = , S2 = d. S0 = , S1 = , S2 =
38) Which segments of a seven-segment display would be required to
26) One way to convert BCD to binary using the hardware approach be active to display the decimal digit 2?
is ___. a. a, b, d, e, and g c. a, b, c, d, and g
a. with MSI IC circuits c. with an ALU b. a, c, d, f, and g d. a, b, c, d, e, and f
b. with a keyboard encoder d. UART
39) How many AND gates would be required to completely decode
27) In a BCD-to-seven-segment converter, why must a code converter all the states of a MOD-64 counter, and how many inputs must
be utilized? each AND gate have?
a. to convert the 4-bit BCD into 7-bit code a. 128 gates, 6 inputs to each gate
b. to convert the 4-bit BCD into 10-bit code b. 64 gates, 5 inputs to each gate
c. to convert the 4-bit BCD into Gray code c. 64 gates, 6 inputs to each gate
d. No conversion is necessary. d. 128 gates, 5 inputs to each gate

28) How can the active condition (HIGH or LOW) or the decoder 40) How many flip-flops are required to construct a decade counter?
output be determined from the logic symbol? a. 10 b. 5 c. 8 d. 4
a. A bubble indicates active-HIGH.
b. A bubble indicates active-LOW. 41) The terminal count of a typical modulus-10 binary counter is ___.
c. A square indicates active-HIGH. a. b. c. d.
d. A square indicates active-LOW.
42) To operate correctly, starting a ring shift counter requires ___.
29) How many select lines would be required for an 8-line-to-1-line a. clearing all the flip-flops
multiplexer? b. presetting one flip-flop and clearing all others
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 8 c. clearing one flip-flop and presetting all others
d. presetting all the flip-flops
30) How many flip-flops are required to make a MOD-32 binary counter?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 43) Which of the following is an invalid output state for an 8421
BCD counter?
31) Using four cascaded counters with a total of 16 bits, how many a. b. c. d.
states must be deleted to achieve a modulus of 50,000?
a. 50,000 b. 65,536 c. 25,536 d. 15,536 44) A 5-bit asynchronous binary counter is made up of five flip-flops,
each with a 12 ns propagation delay. The total propagation delay
32) A MOD-16 ripple counter is holding the 2. What will the tp(total) is ___.
count be after 31 clock pulses? a. 12 ns b. 48 ns c. 24 ns d. 60 ns
a. 2 b. 2 c. 2 d. 2
45) Three cascaded modulus-5 counters have an overall modulus of
33) Synchronous counters eliminate the delay problems encountered ___.
with asynchronous counters because the a. 5 b. 125 c. 25 d. 500
a. Input clock pulses are applied only to the first and last stages.
b. Input clock pulses are applied only to the last stage. 46) The final output of a modulus-8 counter occurs one time for
c. Input clock pulses are not used to activate any of the counter every ___.
stages. a. 8 clock pulses c. 24 clock pulses
d. Input clock pulses are applied simultaneously to each stage. b. 16 clock pulses d. 32 clock pulses

34) What is the difference between combinational logic and sequential 47) A 4-bit ripple counter consists of flip-flops, which each have
logic? a propagation delay from clock to Q output of 15 ns. For the
a. Combinational circuits are not triggered by timing pulses, counter to recycle from to , it takes a total of ___.
sequential circuits are triggered by timing pulses. a. 15 ns b. 45 ns c. 30 ns d. 60 ns
b. Combinational and sequential circuits are both triggered by
timing pulses. 48) How many data bits can be stored in the register shown (Fig.11)?
c. Neither circuit is triggered by timing pulses.
d. They are the same.
 Logic Circuits 2
56) A full-adder has a Cin = . What are the sum and the carry Cout
Data in D Q D Q D Q D Q Data out when A = and B = ?
CLK CLK CLK CLK
a. = , Cout = c. = , Cout =
b. = , Cout = d. = , Cout =

57) When adding an even parity bit to the code , the result is
CLK ___.
Fig. 11a A four cascaded a. c.
Data in D flip-flops forming
b. d.
a register

Q0 58) Which of the following combinations of logic gates can decode

binary ?
Q1 a. one 4-input AND gate
b. one 4-input AND gate, one OR gate
Q2 c. one 4-input NAND gate, one inverter
d. one 4-input AND gate, one inverter
Q3 Fig. 11b Different timing diagrams
provided with input and
respective Q outputs 59) How many outputs would two 8-line-to-3-line encoders, expanded
Q4
to a 16-line-to-4-line encoder, have?
a. 5 b. 32 c. 31 d. 4 a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

49) A 22-MHz clock signal is put into a MOD-16 counter. What is 60) What is the indication of a short on the input of a load gate?
the frequency of the Q output of each stage of the counter? a. Only the output of the defective gate is affected.
a. Q1 = 22 MHz, Q2 = 11 MHz, Q3 = 5.5 MHz, Q4 = 2.75 MHz b. There is a signal loss to all gates on the node.
b. Q1 = 11 MHz, Q2 = 5.5 MHz, Q3 = 2.75 MHz, Q4 = 1.375 MHz c. The affected node will be stuck in the LOW state.
c. Q1 = 11 MHz, Q2 = 11 MHz, Q3 = 11 MHz, Q4 = 11 MHz d. There is a signal loss to all gates on the node, and the affected
d. Q1 = 22 MHz, Q2 = 22 MHz, Q3 = 22 MHz, Q4 = 22 MHz node will be stuck in the LOW state.

50) The designation UP/DOWN means that the ___. 61) The binary numbers A = and B = are applied to the
a. up count is active-HIGH, the down count is active-LOW inputs of a comparator. What are the output levels?
b. up count is active-LOW, the down count is active-HIGH a. A > B = , A < B = , A < B =
c. up and down counts are both active-LOW b. A > B = , A < B = , A = B =
d. up and down counts are both active-HIGH c. A > B = , A < B = , A = B =
d. A > B = , A < B = , A = B =
51) A 12 MHz clock frequency is applied to a cascaded counter containing
a modulus-5 counter, a modulus-8 counter, and a modulus-10 counter. 62) What is unique about TTL devices such as the 74SXX?
The lowest output frequency possible is ___. a. These devices use Schottky transistors and diodes to prevent
a. 10 kHz b. 20 kHz c. 30 kHz d. 60 kHz them from going into saturation; this results in faster turn-
on and turn-off times, which translates into higher frequency
52) The carry propagation can be expressed as ___. operation.
a. Cp = AB c. Cp = A + B b. The gate transistors are silicon (S), and the gates therefore
b. Cp = A 5 B d. Cp = A + B have lower values of leakage current.
c. The S denotes the fact that a single gate is present in the IC
53) How many 4-bit parallel adders would be required to add two rather than the usual package of 26 gates.
binary numbers each representing decimal numbers up through d. The S denotes a slow version of the device, which is a
10? consequence of its higher power rating.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
63) Which of the following logic families has the shortest propagation
54) Which statement below best describes a Karnaugh map? delay?
a. A Karnaugh map can be used to replace Boolean rules. a. CMOS b. ECL c. BICMOS d. 74SXX
b. The Karnaugh map eliminates the need for using NAND and
NOR gates. 64) Which of the following logic families has the highest noise margin?
c. Variable complements can be eliminated by using Karnaugh a. TTL b. CMOS c. LS TTL d. HCMOS
maps.
d. Karnaugh maps provide a visual approach to simplifying 65) A floating TTL input may be defined as ___.
Boolean expressions. a. unused input that is tied to VCC through a 1 kV resistor
b. unused input that is tied to used inputs
55) Solve the network in Fig.12 for X. c. unused input that is tied to the ground
A
d. unused input that is not connected
B
X 66) Which of the logic families listed below allows the highest operating
C
D frequency?
Fig. 12 Problem 55 a. 74AS b. HCMOS c. ECL d. 54S
a. A + BC + D c. [(A + B)C] + D
b. D(A + B + C) d. (AC + BC)D 67) Whenever a totem-pole TTL output goes from LOW to HIGH, a
high-amplitude current spike is drawn from the VCC supply. How
 Logic Circuits 2
is this effect corrected to a digital circuit? c. very low cost
a. By connecting a radio-frequency capacitor from VCC to ground. d. very high power
b. By using a switching power supply
c. By connecting a capacitor from Vout to ground 75) What is the range of invalid TTL output voltage?
d. By connecting a large resistor from VCC to Vout a. 0.0 V-0.4 V c. 2.4 V-5.0 V
b. 0.4 V-2.4 V d. 0.0 V-5.0 V
68) Which of the following logic families has the shortest propagation
delay? 76) What is the difference between the 54XX and 74XX series of
a. S-TTL b. HS-TTL c. AS-TTL d. HCMOS TTL logic gates?
a. 54XX is faster.
69) Why is a pull-up resistor needed for an open collector gate? b. 54XX is slower.
a. to provide VCC for the IC c. to provide the HIGH voltage c. 54XX has a wider power supply and expanded temperature range.
b. to provide ground for the IC d. to provide the LOW voltage d. 54XX has a narrower power supply and contracted temperature
range.
70) Refer Fig.12. Which of the following describes the operations of
the circuit? 77) The rise time tr is the time it takes for a pulse to rise from its ___
+VCC point up to its ___ point. The fall time tf is the length of time it
takes to fall from the ___ to the ___ point.
a. 10%, 90%, 90%, 10% c. 20%, 80%, 80%, 20%
R1 R2 R3 b. 90%, 10%, 10%, 90% d. 10%, 70.7%, 70.7%, 10%

Q4 78) Why is the operating frequency for CMOS devices critical for
determining power dissipation?
input Q2
D2 a. At low frequencies, power dissipation increases.
Q1 output b. At high frequencies, the gate will only be able to deliver 70.7%
Q3 of rated power.
D1 c. At high frequencies, charging and discharging the gate capacitance
R4 will draw a heavy current from the power supply and thus increase
power dissipation.
d. At high frequencies, the gate will only be able to deliver 70.7% of
Fig. 12 Problem 70 rated power and charging and discharging the gate capacitance
will draw a heavy current from the power supply and thus increase
a. A LOW input turns Q1 and Q3 on; Q2 and Q4 are off.
power dissipation.
b. A LOW input turns Q1 and Q4 off; Q2 and Q3 are on.
c. A HIGH input turns Q1, Q2, and Q3 off, and Q4 is on.
79) What is the advantage of using low-power Schottky (LS) over
d. A HIGH input turns Q1, Q2, and Q4 on; Q3 is off.
standard TTL logic?
a. more power dissipation c. cost is less
71) Special handling precautions should be taken when working with
b. less power dissipation d. cost is more
MOS devices. Which of the following statements is not one of
these precautions?
80) The most common TTL series ICs are ___.
a. All test equipment should be grounded.
a. E-MOSFET c. 7400
b. MOS devices should have their leads shorted together for
b. quad d. AC00
shipment and storage.
c. Never remove or insert MOS devices with the power on.
81) Fan-out is determined by taking the ___ result(s) of ___.
d. Workers handling MOS devices should not have grounding
a. smaller, IOL/IIL or IOH = VOH/ROH
straps attached to their wrists.
b. smaller, IOL/IIL or IOH/IIH
c. larger, IOL/IIL or IOH/IIH
72) What should be done to unused inputs on TTL gates?
d. average, IOL/IIL or IOH/IIH
a. They should be left disconnected so as not to produce a load
on any of the other circuits and to minimize power loading on
82) Which family of devices has the characteristic of preventing
the voltage source.
saturation during operation?
b. All unused gates should be connected together and tied to VCC
a. TTL b. ECL c. MOS d. IIL
through a 1-kV resistor.
c. All unused inputs should be connected to an unused output;
83) How many 74LS-TTL logic gates can be driven from a 74TTL
this will ensure compatible loading on both the unused inputs
gate?
and unused outputs.
a. 10 b. 200 c. 20 d. 400
d. Unused AND and NAND inputs should be tied to VCC through a
1-kV resistor; unused OR and NOR inputs should be grounded.
84) From the following specifications determine the fan-out for the
logic family: IOH = 20 mA, IOL = 32 mA, IIH = 2.5 mA, IIL = 2 mA.
73) Assume that a particular IC has a supply voltage VCC equal to +5 V
a. HIGH state is 16, LOW state is 8.
and ICCH = 10 mA and ICCL = 23 mA. What is the power dissipation
b. HIGH state is 8, LOW state is 16.
for the chip?
c. HIGH state is 4, LOW state is 8.
a. 50 mW b. 82.5 mW c. 115 mW d. 165 mW
d. HIGH state is 8, LOW state is 4.
74) What is the major advantage of ECL logic?
85) What is the standard TTL noise margin?
a. very high speed
a. 5.0 V b. 0.8 V c. 0.0 V d. 0.4 V
b. wide range of operating voltage
 Logic Circuits 2
86) Logic circuits that are designated as buffers, drivers, or buffer/
drivers are designed to have ___.
a. a greater current/voltage capability than an ordinary logic circuit
b. a greater input current/voltage capability than an ordinary logic
circuit
c. a smaller output current/voltage capability than an ordinary
logic
d. a greater input and output current/voltage capability than an
ordinary logic circuit

87) Which of the following summarizes the important features of

emitter-coupled logic (ECL)?
a. low noise margin, low output voltage swing, negative voltage
operation, fast, and high power consumption
b. good noise immunity, negative logic, high-frequency capability,
low power dissipation, and short propagation time
c. low propagation time, high-frequency response, low power
consumption, and high output voltage swings
d. poor noise immunity, positive supply voltage operation, good
low-frequency operation, and low power

88) What must be done to interface TTL to CMOS?

a. A dropping resistor must be used on the CMOS 12-V supply
to reduce it to 5 V for the TTL.
b. As long as the CMOS supply voltage is 5 V, they can be interfaced;
however, the fan-out of the TTL is limited to five CMOS gates.
c. A 5-V Zener diode must be placed across the inputs of the TTL
gates in order to protect them from the higher output voltages
of the CMOS gates.
d. A pull-up resistor must be used between the TTL output-
CMOS input node and VCC; the value of RP will depend on the
number of CMOS gates connected to the node.

89) What must be done to interface CMOS to TTL?

a. A dropping resistor must be used on the CMOS 12-V supply
to reduce it to 5 V for the TTL.
b. As long as the CMOS supply voltage is 5 V, they can be interfaced;
however, the fan-out of the CMOS is limited to two TTL gates.
c. A 5-V Zener diode must be placed across the inputs of the TTL
gates in order to protect them from the higher output voltages
of the CMOS gates.
d. The two series cannot be interfaced without the use of special
interface buffers designed for that purpose, such as the open-
collector buffers.

90) Which logic family is characterized by a multimitter transistor

on the input?
a. ECL c. CMOS
b. TTL d. None of the above