PRACTICE PAPER XII

MATHEMATHICS
Q 1.
The distance of the point (x, y) from y-axis is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

x
y
lxl
lyl

Q 2.
The straight line 3x + y = 9 divides the segment joining the points (1, 3) and (2, 7) in the ratio.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

4:2
3:4
4:5
5:6

Q 3.
If the angles of triangle ABC are in A.P., then
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

c2 = a2 + b2 + ab
a2 + c2 ac = b2
c2 = a2 + b2
none of these

Q 4.
The area of triangle is 80 cm2 and its perimeter is 8 cm. The radius of its inscribed circle is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

10 cm
20 cm
5 cm
none of these

Q 5.
The straight line 3x + 4y = 20 and the circle x2 + y2 = 16
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

touch each other

intersect in the two distinct points
neither touch nor intersect in two points
none of these

Q 6.
Slope of a line is not defined if the line is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

parallel to x-axis
parallel to the line x y = 0
parallel to the line x + y = 0
parallel to y-axis

Q 7.
The number of values of which lie between 0 and 2 and satisfy the equation sin4 - 2 sin2 - 1 = 0 is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1
2
3
none of these

Q 8.
If cos (2 sin-1x) = 1/9, then x =
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2/3
-2/3
2/3
none of these

Q 9.
The image of the point (, ) is the line x + y = 0 is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(-, )
(, )
(-,-)
none of these

Q 10.
tan-1 1/7 + 2 tan-1 1/3 =
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

3/4
/4
/2
none of these

Q 11.
If a = 4, b = 3 and A = 60, then c is a root of the equation
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

x2 3x 7 = 0
x2 + 3x + 7 = 0
x2 3x + 7 = 0
x2 + 3x 7 = 0

Q 12.
The vertex od the parabola y2 = 4a (x + a) is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(0, 0)
(-a, 0)
(a, 0)
(0, a)

Q 13.
Slope of any line parallel to x-axis is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1
-1
0
not defined

Q 14.
bc cos2 A/2 + ca cos2 B/2 + ab cos2, is equal to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(s a)2
(s b)2
(s c)2
s2

Q 15.
If in a ABC, a cosA = bhcos B, then the triangle is a/an
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

equilibrium
right angled
isosceles
either isosceles or right angle

Q 16.
The period of function f(x) = sin2 + tan x is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2
3
none of these

Q 17.
if x = {49 (n 1) : n N} and y = {23n 7n - : n N}, then
(a) x =y
(b) x y
(c) y x
(d) none of these

Q 18.
If P = {n3 + (n + 1)3 + (n + 2)3 : n N}, and Q = {9N : n N}, then
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

P=Q
PCQ
QCP
none of these

Q 19.
If [log4 [log2 (x)}] = 1, then the value of x is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

23
43
234
none of these

Q 20.
Derivative of cos (sin x ) with respect to sin x is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

sin (sin x) cos x

sin (sin x)
sin(sin x)/cos x
none of these

Q 21.
If x sin (a + y) = sin y, then dy/dx is equal to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

sin2 (a + y) /sin a
sin a/sin2 (a + y)
sin (a + y)/sin a
sin a/sin (a + y)

Q 22.
The range of the function f(x) = cos [x], where /2 < x < /2, is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

{-1, 1, 0}
{cos 1, 1 ,cos 2)
{cos 1, - cos 1, 1}
none of these

Q 23.
The domain of the function f (x) = 1/[x] + (2 x) x is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

[0, 2]
[0, 1]
[1, 2]
[1, 2]

Q 24.
Let f(x) = x3, then f(x) has a
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)

local maxima at x = 0
local minima at x = 0
point of inflexion at x = 0
none of these

Q 25.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2
- 2
0
None of these

Q 26.
If I =
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

and J =

, then

I>J
I<J
I=J
None of these

Q 27.

=
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

log (tan x)
tan (log x)
tan {log(log x) }
logllog (tan x) I

Q 28.
If f(x) = 1/3x + 1 , then f( 0) is equal to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Vanishes
is positive
is negative
does not exist

Q 29.
If y = sin-1 x and z = cos-1 1 x2 , then dy/dx is equal to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

cos-1 x
1/1 x2
1 x2
1

Q 30.

px sin q x )2 dx is equal to
(a) 0
(b)
(c)
(d) 2

Q 31.
) dx is equal to

(
(a)
(b)
(c)

(d) None of these

Q 32.
The number of vectors of unit length perpendicular to vectors = + and
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

= + is

One
Three
Two
Infinite

Q 33.
Let = 2 + 2 + 5 and A, B be the points (1, 2, 5) and (- 1, -2, -3) respectively. If B x
, then =
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) -2

Q 34.

=
(a) (

(b) (

(c) (

(d)

=4 +6 2

Q 35.
The area {(x,y) : x2 y x} is equal to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1/6
1/3
2/3
none of these

Q 36.
If

= + 2 3 , = - + 2 + C = 3 + , then t s.t.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

+ t is at right angle to , will be equat to

5
4
6
2

Q 37.
Area of the parallelogram whose adjacent sides are

(a)

x
(c) | |
(b)

| x |

(d)

Q 38.
o

cosec2 x dx is equal to

(a) Tan + c
(b) Cot + c
(c)

tan + c

(d) 2 tan + c

Q 39.
(3

x 2 ). + (3 x 2 ) .
(a) 0
(b) 24 [ ]
(c) 24 [
]
(d) None of these

+ (4 x 3 ).

is equal to

and is

Q 40.
x ( x ) is equal to
(a) ( . ) ( . )
(b) ( . ) - ( . )
(c) ( . ) - ( . )
(d) None of these

Q 41.
If x, y R, xy rational, y irrational and x rational, then
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

x> 0
x< 0
x=o
x0

Q 42.
If and are two distinct complex numbers such that || = || and Re() > 0, lm() < 0, then + /
may be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

zero
purely imaginary
real and positive
real and negative

Q 43.
If a > 0, then the equation ax2 + 1 = 0 has
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

real roots
rational roots
irrational roots
non-real roots

Q 44.
The roots of the equation x2 cos + 1 = 0 are
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

real for all

real when = n, n
none-real for all
real when = (2n + 1)/2 , n l

Q 45.
The number (1 + i)n/(1 i)n -2 is equal is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

4 in-2
2 in-4
2 in-1
none of these

PHYSICS
Q 46.
Magnetic field is measured in
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

weber
hennery
weber(metre)2
weber/(metre)2

Q 47.
the dimensions of Plancks constant are
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

[ML2T-1]
[ML3T-1]
[ML-2T-1]
ML-1T-3]

Q 48.
The speed of boat is 5 km/hr in still water. It crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path
in 15 minutes. Then velocity of river is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

4 km/hr
3 km/hr
2 km/hr
1 km/hr

Q 49.
A bullet is dropped from the same height when another bullet is fired horizontally. They will hit the
ground
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

simultaneously
one after the other
depends on the observer
depends upon mass of bullet

Q 50.
the displacement of a particle moving in a straight line depends on time (t) as: x = t3 + t2 + t + .
The ratio of its initial acceleration to its initial velocity depends
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Only on
Only on and
Only on and
Only on a and

Q 51.
If a cyclist moving with a speed of 4.9 m/s on a level road can take a sharp circular turn of radius 4 m,
then coefficient of friction between the cycle tyres and road is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

0.41
0.51
0.61
0.71

Q 52.
a body of mass 5 kg is moving in a circle of radius 1 m with an angular velocity of 2 radian/sec. The
centripetal force acting on the body is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

10 N
20 N
30 N
40 N

Q 53.
A bullet of mass 25 g moving with a velocity of 200 m/s is stopped within 5 cm of the target. The
average resistance offered by the target is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

10 kN
b) 20 kN
c) 30 kN
40 kN

Q 54.
A machine delivering power movers a body along a straight line. The distance moved by the body in time
is proportional to
a)
b)
c)
d)

t
t
t3/2
t3/4

Q 55.
If the radius of earth is reduced by 1% without changing the mass, then change in the acceleration due to
gravity will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1% decrease
1% increase
2% increase
2% decrease

Q 56.
If the spinning speed of earth is increased, then weight of the body at the equator
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

increases
decreases
doubles
does not change

Q 57.
The ratio of energy required to raise a satellite to a height h above the earths surface to that required to
put it into the orbit is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

h: R
R:h
2h: R
h: 2R

Q 58.
A circular disc is rotating with angular velocity . If a man standing at the edge of the disc walks towards
its centre, then angular velocity of the disc will
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

decrease
increase
be halved
not change

Q 59.
For a gas, if the ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and volume is , then the value of degree of
freedom is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2/ 1
1/2( 1)
1/ + 1
+1/ 1

Q 60.
A lift is ascending with an acceleration equal to g/3. What will be the time-period of a simple pendulum
suspended from its ceiling if its time-period in stationary lift is T?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

T/2
(3/2) T
(3/4) T
T/4

Q 61.
If the equation of a sound wave is given as: y = 0.0015 sin (62. + 316 t), then wavelength of this wave
is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

0.4 unit
0.3 unit
0.2 unit
0.1 unit

Q 62.
A simple pendulum of length I has a maximum angular displacement The maximum kineti ener y
of the bob of mass m is.

(a) mgl
(b) 0.5 mgl
(c) m in
(d) mgl (1 o

Q 63.
A standing wave is represented by: y = a sin(100 t). cos(0.01 x); where t in seconds and x in metres. The
velocity of wave is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

104 m/s
1 m/s
10-4 m/s
10-2 m/s

Q 64.
The amplitude of the vibrating particle due to superposition of two simple harmonic motions of y 1 = sin
(t + /3) and y2 = sin(t) is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1
2
3
2

Q 65.
In a sinusoidal wave, the time required for a particular point to move from maximum displacement is
0.17 sec. The frequency of the wave is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

0.36 Hz
0.73 hz
1.47 Hz
2.94 Hz

Q 66.
When a current flows in a wire, there exists an electric field in the direction of
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

flow of current
opposite to the flow of current
perpendicular to the flow of current
at an angle of 45 to the flow of current

Q 67.
Two identical mercury drops, each of radius r are charged to the same potential V. if the mercury drops
coalesce to form a big drop of radius R, then potential of the combined drop will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(b)3/2
(b)2/3
(c)2/3
(c)1/2

Q 68.
The energy stored in a capacitor is actually stored
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

between the plates

on the positive plate
on the negative plate
on the outer surfaces of the plates

Q 69.
In the given figure, the capacitors C1, C3, C4, C5 have a capacitance of 4 F each. If the capacitor C2 has a
capacitance between A and B is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2 F
4 F
6 F
8 F

Q 70.
A 100 W, 200 V bulb is connected to a 160 volts supply. The actual power consumption would be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

64 W
80 W
100 W
125 W

Q 71.
To convert a galvanometer in a voltmeter. We must connect a
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

low resistance in series

high resistance in series
low resistance in parallel
high resistance in parallel

Q 72.
A galvanometer of 100 resistance gives full scale deflection with 0.01 A current. How much resistance
should be connected to convert it into an ammeter of range 10 A ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

0.2 in series
0.2 in parallel
0.1 in series
0.1 in parallel

Q 73.
The potential difference between two electrodes of a galvanic cell, in an open circuit, is known as
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

current
impedence
potential difference
electromotive force

Q 74.
The magnetic field B due to a current carrying circular loop of radius 12 cm at its centre is 0.50 10 -4 T,
The magnetic field due to this loop at a point on the axis at a distance of 5 cm from the centre is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

3.5 10-9 T
5.3 10-9 T
9.3 10-5 T
3.9 10-5 T

Q 75.
An e.m.f. of 15 volt is applied in a circuit containing 5H inductance and 10 resistance. The ratio of
currents at t = and at t = 1 sec is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

e-1
1e
e1/2/e1/2 1
e2/e2 1

Q 76.
Two magnets of magnetic moments M and 2M are placed in a vibration magnetometer, with identical
poles in the same direction. The time-period of vibration of the combination is T1. If the same magnets are
placed with opposite poles together and vibrate with timeperiod T2, then
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

T 2 = T1
T 2 > T1
T 2 < T1
T2 is infinite

Q 77.
Which of the following waves have the maximum wavelength ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

X-rays
radio waves
UV rays
IR rays

Q 78.
At what angle, a ray of light will be incident on one face of an equilateral prism, so that the emergent ray
may graze the second surface of the ( = 1.5).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

18
28
32
38

Q 79.
A paper, with two marks having separation d, is held normal to the line of right of an observer at distance
of 50 cm. The diameter of the, eyes-lens of the observer is 2 mm. Which of the following is the least
value of d, so that the marks can be seen as separate? (mean wavelength of visible light may be taken
5000 A)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

0.125 cm
1.225 cm
1.525 cm
2.125 cm

Q 80.
How many images will be formed if two mirrors are fitted on adjacent wall and one mirror on roof?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2
5
7
10

Q 81.
An optician prescribes spectacles to a patient with a combination of a convex lens of focal length 40 cm
and concave lens 25 cm. The power of spectacles is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1.5 D
6.5 D
1.5 D
6.5 D

Q 82.
The velocity of an electron in the inner-most orbit of an atom is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

zero
mean
lowest
highest

Q 83.
The hydrogen atom can give spectral lines in the Lyman, Balmer and Paschen series. Which of the
following statement is correct ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Paschen series is in visible region

balmer series is in visible region
lyman series is in infra-red region
Balmer series is in ultra violet-region

Q 84.
A sample of a radioactive substance contains 2828 atoms. If its half-life is 2 days, how many atoms will
be left intact in the sample after one day ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1414
707
2000
1000

Q 85.
In a nuclear reactor, the fast moving neutrons are slowered down by passing them through
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

oil
vacuum
heavy water
kerosene

CHEMISTRY
Q 86.
The unit of rate constant for the first order reaction is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

sec-1
mol. Ltr-1
mol-1. ltr. Sec-1
all of these

Q 87.
the charge of an electron is -1.6 10-19 C. The value of free charge on Li+ ion will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

3.6 10-19 C
2.6 10-19 C
1.6 10-19 C
1 10-19 C

Q 88.
The maximum valency of an element with atomic number 7 is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2
3
4
5

Q 89.
How many grams of CaCO3 will give 56 g of CaO ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

120 g
112 g
100 g
56 g

Q 90.
Which of the following has the same mass as that of an electron ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

photon
proton
positron
neutron

Q 91.
What is the value of carbonate hardness of water sample if 100 ml of it took 5 ml of 0.09 N HCI
solution? (Molecular weight of Na2CO3 = 106)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

4.50 mg-eq/ltr.
477.00 mg-eq/ltr.
0.042 mg-eq/ltr.
1.80 mg-eq/ltr.

Q 92.
The shape of IF7 molecule is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

octahedral
tetrahedral
trigonalbipyramidal
pentagonalbipyramidal

Q 93.
If the rate of diffusion of CH4 is twice of that of a gas X, then what is the molecular mass of the gas X ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

32
64
80
96

Q 94.
The extraction of IA and IIA group metals is done by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

carbon reduction
electrolytic reduction
metal displacement
alumino, thermic process

Q 95.
The element having atomic number 56 belongs to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

actinides
lanthanides
transition series
alkaline earth metals

Q 96.
For l = 3, the corresponding values of magnetic quantum numbers would be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1, -2, -3
o, +1, + 2, + 3
1, 2, 3
o, 1, 2, 3

Q 97.
Which of the following is an alicyclic compound?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

benzene
hexane
cyclohexane
furon

Q 98.
The resonance bybrid of nitrate ion is

Q 99.
The homologue of ethylene is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

C2H2
C3H6
C3H8
C3H4

Q 100.
The maximum number of hydrogen bonds formed by a water molecule in ice is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

4
3
2
1

Q 101. Which of the following shows electrical conduction?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Sodium
graphite
diamond
potassium

Q 102.
The rate of a chemical reaction depends upon
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

time
pressure
concentration
all of these

Q 103.
The interatomic distances in H2 and Cl2 molecules are 74 and 198 pm respectively The bond length of
HCI is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

124 pm
136 pm
272 pm
248 pm

Q 104.
The electronic configuration of Mn2+ ion in its ground state is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

3d54s
3d4s1
3d34s2
3d24s24p2

Q 105.
The shape of ethylene molecule is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

square planar
tetrahedral
pyramidal
linear

Q 106.
An isomer of ethanol is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

ethanol
methanol
diethyl ether
dim ethyl ether

Q 107.
The hybridization of carbons of CC single bond of HC=CCH = CH2 is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

sp3 sp3
sp2 sp3
sp3 sp
sp sp2

Q 108.
The positive charge of an atom is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

spread all over the atom

distributed around the nucleus
concentrated at the nucleus
all of these

Q 109.
During the electrolysis of an electrolyte, the number of ions produced, is directly proportional to the
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

time consumed
mass of electrons
quantity of electricity passed
electro chemical equivalent of electrolyte

Q 110.
In graphite, carbon atoms are joined together due to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

ionic bonding
covalent bonding
metallic bonding
Van der waals forces

Q 111.
Carborundum is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

SiC
AICI3
AI2 (SO4)3
AI2 O3. 2H2O

Q 112.
Which of the following is called laughing gas ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

nitric oxide
nitrous oxide
dinitrogen trioxide
dinitrogenpentoxide

Q 113.
ZnO when heated with BaO at 1100C gives a compound. Identify the compound
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

BaZno2
Ba + ZnO2
BaCdO2
BaO2 + Zn

Q 114.
For a cell, the cell reaction is
Mg(s) + Cu2+(aq) Cu(s) + Mg2+(aq)
If standard reduction potentials of Mg and Cu are 2.37 V and + 0.34 V, then e.m.f. of the cell of
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2.03 V
2.03 V
2.71 V
2.71 V

Q 115.
In the metallurgy of zinc, the zinc dust obtained from roasting contains some zinc oxide. How is this
removed ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

smelting is employed
X-ray method is used
absorbance of UV light
shock coding with a shower of lead

Q 116.
Excess of ethanol when heated with concentrated H2 SO4 at 140C, the compound obtained is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Ethane
Diethyl sulphate
Ethoxy ethane
Ethyl hydrogrensulphate

Q 117.
when metallic copper comes in contact with moisture, a green powdery/pasty coating can be seen over it.
This is chemically known as
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Copper sulphide Copper carbonate

Copper sulphate Copper sulphide
Copper carbonate Copper sulphate
Copper carbonate Copper sulphate

Q 118.
Which of the following is the most stable carbonium ion among the following?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

C6H5CH2
CH3CH2
C6H5-CH2CH2
C6H5 CH C6H5

Q 119.
If Na is heated in presence of air, it forms
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Na2CO3
Na2O2
Na2O
both (b) and (c)

Q 120.
The indicator used in the titration of iodine against sodium thiosulphate is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

starch
potassium
K2CrO4
K3Fe(CN)6

Q 123.
The reaction of an aldehyde with hydroxylamine gives a product which is called
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

aldoxime
hydrazine
semicarbzone
aminohydroxide

Q 124.
According to the nuclear reaction:
4Be

+ 2He4
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

C12 + 0n1, mass no. of (Be) atom is

4
6
7
9

Q 125. The bad smelling substance, formed by the action of alcoholic caustic potash on chloroform and
aniline, is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

nitrobenzene
phenyl cyanide
phenylisocyanide
phenylisocyanate

LOGICAL REASONING
Direction (Q. 126 127). Choose the correct relation.

Q 126.
pigeon: peace ::
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

crown: head
war: liberty
laurels: victory
white flag: surrender

Q 127.
tall: dwarf :: genius:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

shot
long
idiot
intelligence

Direction (Q. 128 129). Solve the following problems.

Q 128.
The number which will come next in the series 2,6,12,20,.., is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

30
32
38
40

Q 129.
0,, 8,27,64,125
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1
2
3
4

Q 130.
Which one set of letters when sequentially placed in the gaps of the given letter series shall complete it?
bab_b_b_ _abb
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

abba
bbba
abab
babb

Q 131.
From the given alternatives, the word which cannot be formed from the letters used in the word
SUPERIMPOSABLE is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

POSSIBLE
REPOSURE
SPIRE
REPTILE

Q 132.
If the code of STEADY is 931785 and that of ENTRY is 12345, then what will be the code of SEDATE?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

814195
954185
614781
918731

Q 133.
4/3 - 3/4 =
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

0
1
1/23
53/7

Q 134.
If 5 + 23/7 + 43 = a + b 3 , then the values of a and b are
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

a = 11, b = 11
a = 11, b = 6
a = 11, b = - 6
a = -11, b = - 6

Q 135.
If the sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 57, then the middle number is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

17
19
21
23

ENGLISH
Directions (Q. 136 138). Choose the correct word to complete the sentences from the given choices.

Q 136.
There is no rose.has a thorn.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

which
but
whom
as

Q 137
. .are your pencils.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

this
their
those
that

Q 138
. is doubtful whether he will come.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

it
that
their
its

Directions (Q. 139 141). In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the
synonym of the given word.

Q 139.
Economic
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

save
reduce
minimize
accumulate

Q 140.
Ascend
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

leap
grow
deviate
mount

Q 141.
Stupid
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

silly
insane
disobedient
incapable

Directions (Q. 142 144). In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the
antonym of the given word.

Q 142.
Accuracy
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

faulty
true
correct
right

Q 143.
Amnesty
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

reward
gift
crowd
punishment

Q 144.
Density
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

thinness
thickness
toughness
kindness

Directions (Q. 145 -147). In each of the following questions, fill in the blanks with the correct word from
the given options.

Q 145.
He..to office daily.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

go
goes
went
going

Q 146.
Distribute these sweetsthe poor students of this school.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

between
among
by
from

Q 147.
Although he is lamehe can walk fast.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

but
as
yet
still

Directions (Q. 148 150). Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Though the US prides itself on being a leader in the world community, a recent report shows that it lags
far behind other industrialised countries in meeting the needs of its youngest and most vulnerable citizens.
The US has a higher infant mortality rate, a higher proportion of low birth weight babies, a smaller
proportion of babies immunised against childhood diseases and a much higher rate of adolescent
pregnancies. These findings, described as a quiet crisis requiring immediate and far-reaching action,
appeared in a report prepared by a task force of educators, doctors, politicians and business people.
According to the report, a fourth of the nations 12 million infants and toddlers live in poverty. As many
as half confront risk factors that could harm their ability to develop intellectually, physically and socially.
Child imunisations are too low, more children are born into poverty, more are in substandard care while
their parents work and more are being raised by single parents. When taken together, these and other risk
factors can lead to educational and health problems that are much harder and more costly to reverse.
The crisis begins in the womb with unplanned parent-hood. Women with unplanned pregnancies 80% of
teenage pregnancies and 56% of all pregnancies are unplanned. The problems continue after birth where
unplanned pregnancies and unstable partnerships often go hand in hand. Since 1950, the number of single
parent families has nearly tripled. More than 25 per cent of all births today are to unmarried mothers. As
the number of single-parent families grows and more women enter the work force, infants and toddlers
are increasingly in the care of people other than their parents. More disturbingly, recent statistics show
that American parents are increasingly neglecting or abusing their children. In only four years from 19871991, the number of children in foster care increased by over 50 per cent. Babies under the age of one are
the fastest growing category of children entering foster care. The crisis affects children under the age of
three most severely, the report says. Yes, it is this period-from infancy through pre-school years that
sets the stage for a childs future.

Q 148.
The number of children born to married mothers in the US is approximately how many times the number
of children born to unwed mothers.?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

3.5 times
3 times
2 times
1.5 times

Q 149.
Children born out of unplanned pregnancies are highly vulnerable because
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

their parents are mostly poor

they are raised by single parents
they are mostly mainourished
they are less likely to receive pre-nantal care

Q 150.
Read the following factors A, B and C and decide which one or two of them is/are responsible for the
physical, intellectual and social under-development of infants in the US?
A. Illiteracy of parents
B. lack of parental care
C. Poverty
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

only A
only B
only C
both B and C