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Revision Question Chapter 8

The document contains revision questions about air traffic services. It covers topics like the different classes of airspace, services provided in each class, and requirements for flights. The questions test understanding of concepts like controlled aerodromes, flight information services, area control and more.

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Sealtiel1020
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© © All Rights Reserved
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
239 views

Revision Question Chapter 8

The document contains revision questions about air traffic services. It covers topics like the different classes of airspace, services provided in each class, and requirements for flights. The questions test understanding of concepts like controlled aerodromes, flight information services, area control and more.

Uploaded by

Sealtiel1020
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 11

AIR LAW

AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES

REVISION QUESTIONS CHAPTER 8


1.

Which of the following are the three basic Air Traffic Services?
a.
b.
c.
d.

2.

Which of the following is not a service provided by the Air Traffic Control Service?
a.
b.
c.
d.

3.

Flight Information Service


Area Control
Procedural Air Traffic Control
Flight Watch

What defines a Control Area?


a.
b.
c.
d.

5.

Ground Control
Aerodrome Control
Approach Control
Area Control

What is the basic Air Traffic Service provided in an FIR?


a.
b.
c.
d.

4.

ATC; Approach Control, Aerodrome Control


Flight Information Service; Alerting Service; Aerodrome Services
A TC; Flight Information Service; Alerting Service
Aerodrome Control; Approach Control; Area Control

A portion of airspace (between defined altitudes) where it has been determined that an
ATC service will be provided to all IFR traffic and some VFR traffic
The confluence of airways adjacent to one or more aerodromes where ATC is provided
to all air traffic
A defined area of airspace in which all controlled flights are provided with an Air Traffic
Service
Airspace of defined limits in which IFR traffic is separated from other IFR traffic; IFR
from VFR and controlled VFR from other VFR traffic

What defines a Control Zone?


a.
b.
c.
d.

The same as a Control Area but extending to the ground


An area around one or more aerodromes where a common approach control is applied
A zone of defined radius centred upon the longest runway of an aerodrome extending up
to 2000 ft
A danger area, prohibited zone or restricted area

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AIR LAW

6.

What defines a controlled aerodrome?


a.
b.
c.
d.

7.

Yes
No, only IMC is permitted
No, you must have an instrument rating and the aircraft must be instrument equipped
No, IFR is mandatory in class A airspace

Which class of airspace permits IFR and VFR flights but only offers a Flight Information Service
and Alerting Service?
a.
b.
c.
d.

10.

A
B
C
D

Can you fly in VMC in class A airspace?


a.
b.
c.
d.

9.

An aerodrome with a control tower


An aerodrome where arriving and departing traffic is controlled by approach control and
local area traffic is controlled by the aerodrome controller
An aerodrome within a control zone
An aerodrome where Air Traffic Control is provided for aerodrome traffic

What class of airspace permits VFR controlled flights which are separated from all IFR traffic,
and the controlled VFR traffic receives flight information about other (non controlled) VFR
traffic?
a.
b.
c.
d.

8.

AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES

E
F

What is the main difference between class D and class E airspace?


a.
b.
c.
d.

You do not need to file a flight plan to fly in class E airspace


Class E airspace is not controlled airspace
Non radio VFR traffic is permitted in dass E airspace and not in class D
In class E airspace, a Flight Information Service is not available

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AIR LAW

11.

Why is Class F airspace called 'advisory airspace'?


a.
b.
c.
d.

12.

Air Traffic Route number Papa 10


Required Notice Period is 10 minutes before the aerodrome boundary
RoutinelNormal Position accuracy suffix is 10 nm
Required Navigation Performance standard is 10 nm

Are all Flight Information Regions (FIR) required to have a Flight Information Centre (FIC)?
a.
b.
c.
d.

15.

Class B airspace is confined to the Upper Information Region (above FL245)


Air Traffic Routes in class B are not airways (ie no defined limits)
In VMC you do not need to file a flight plan in class B
FL245 exists in class B but not in class A

What does RNPI0 mean?


a.
b.
c.
d.

14.

Because advisory control is provided for both IFR and VFR traffic
Advisory control is provided to participating IFR traffic
Because there is no legal requirement to observe the existence of class F airspace, you
are just 'advised' to call the controller
Class F airspace only exists where normal procedural ATC cannot be applied due to
remoteness or sparse traffic density

What is the difference between Class A airspace and Class B airspace?


a.
b.
c.
d.

13.

AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES

Yes
Not if the services (FIS and Alerting Service) have been assigned to an ATC unit having
adequate facilities
Not necessarily. An FIC is only required if the FIR has airways and control areas/zones
An FIC is not required if there are no aerodromes in an FIR

What are Air Traffic Control Units (ATCUs) required to provide?


a.
h.
c.
d.

ATC within CTAs, CTRs and at controlled aerodromes


Area Control to IFR traffic flying on airways
FIS and Area Control in a controlled FIR
Area, Approach and Aerodrome contrdl

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AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES

AIR LAW

16.

What airspace is included in a Flight Information Region?


a.
b.
c.
d.

17.

Who determines minimum flight altitude?


a.
b.
c.
d.

18.

A7777
A7700
A7000
A7600

What is the International Aeronautical VHF Distress and Calling frequency?


a.
b.
c.
d.

20.

The authority of the state being overflown


The regional ATCU
The FIC for the FIR
The operator

What SSR squawk should be set in an emergency?


a.
b.
c.
d.

19.

Airways and Upper routes; CTAs and CTRs and all non controlled airspace within
geographically defined limits
Airways, CTAs (including Upper CTAs) and CTRs, and all non controlled airspace
within geographically defined limits
All airspace within geographically defined limits
All airspace below FL245

123.450MHz
121.500MHz
243.000MHz
406.000MHz

If you are flying over state A but close to the border of state B and are intercepted by air defence
aircraft of state A, what should you do?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Communicate with ATC and ask the controller to liase with the Air Defence Unit
Ignore the signals from the fighters and squawk 7600
Squawk 7700 and try to evade the fighters
Try calling the fighters on the distress frequency stating that you are a controlled flight
under instructions of the ATCU and cannot comply with the interceptor requirements

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AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES

AIR LAW

21.

It is 1000 hrs British Summer Time (BST) in London. What is the Co-ordinated Universal Time

(UTC)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
22.

0900 UTC
1000 UTC
1100 A
1100 Z

It is 1000 UTC in London (0 0 E/W). What is the time in New York (74 0 W)? Clue: The Earth

rotates through 360 0 in 24 Hours!


a.
b.
c.
d.
23.

If you request a time check from ATC to what accuracy will it be given?
a.
b.
c.
d.

24.

All classes of airspace


Classes A to E only
All classes except class G
Classes A - D and in CTRs in class E

In what classes of airspace is ATC provided to VFR flights?


a.
b.
c.
d.

26.

The nearest minute


The nearest half minute
Accurately on the minute (counting down from 5)
Plus or minus 10 seconds

In what classes of airspace is ATC is provided to IFR flights?


a.
b.
c.
d.

25.

1500 UTC
0500 UTC
1000 UTC
0400 Eastern Standard Time

All classes of airspace


Classes A to D only
B; C and D only
Classes B to E

Can you fly under a Special VFR clearance in Class F airspace?


a.
b.
c.
d.

No, because Class F is advisory control only


Yes, providing adequate terrain clearance can be maintained
No, SVFR is only applicable to Classes A, Band C airspace
No, because there are no class F CTRs

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AIR LAW

27.

You are flying for Commercial Air Transport in a B737. Without a specific need, would you be
permitted to depart airways at BOVVA and land at Stansted under a SVFR clearance?
a.
b.
c.
d.

28.

d.

An area control centre (ACC) or by Approach Control in certain CTRs


The local Flight Information Centre (FIC)
An Oceanic Control Centre
The airways radar controller

Is a dedicated approach controller necessary at an aerodrome?


a.
b.
c.
d.

32.

Outside CAS in Class Band C airspace


Over the Oceans
In areas where military activity and civilian training activity is higher than normal (ie
AIAAs)
At controlled aerodromes

By what/whom is Area Control provided?


a.
b.
c.
d.

31.

Yes. SVFR is defined as "flight .... .in accordance with an ATC clearance ... etc"
No, the idea of SVFR is to avoid the need to get ATC clearance
It depends on where you are flying under SVFR. In CAS - yes, outside CAS - No
Yes, but only where A TC can be provided

Apart from the requirements of certain classes of airspace and SVFR, where else is ATC required
to be provided?
a.
b.
c.

30.

Yes, providing the SVFR requirements are met


No, SVFR is not permitted under an Air Operators Certificate
Not normally. SVFR is not usually granted to alc with a MTM greater than 5700 Kg
flying for Commercial Air Transport
No, Stansted is in controlled airspace and SVFR is not applicable to CAS

Do you require an ATC clearance to fly under SVFR?


a.
b.
c.
d.

29.

AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES

Yes if approach control is required


No, approach control can be provided by an Area Control Centre (ACC)
Yes, but only in meteorological conditions that preclude visual approaches
Yes if the aerodrome is within a CTR

How does ATC provide separation between controlled flights under IFR?
a.
b.
c.
d.

By radar control
By issuing a clearance
By requesting position reports
By requiring all flights to fly along ATS routes (airways)

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AIR LAW

33.

How is separation achieved?


a.
b.
c.
d.

34.

What type of separation is being applied when two aircraft are at the same flight level and are
required to report over specific reporting points along the route?
a.
b.
c.
d.

35.

The time by which the flight (or the portion of the flight) has to have been completed
The latest off blocks time (OBT)
The time at which the flight plan will be cancelled
That clearance will be cancelled if the flight does not commence by that time

Why is it essential that the movement of vehicles and persons on an aerodrome is controlled?
a.
b.
c.
d.

38.

Advice to request onward clearance form other ATCUs


Specific information concerning the limit of the clearance
The flight level allocated if different from that requested
The details of any routing diversions

If a clearance expiry time has been included in a clearance, what does it mean?
a.
b.
c.
d.

37.

Longitudinal
Time related
Distance related
Lateral

If an ATCU cannot issue a complete route clearance ( ie from departure aerodrome to destination)
what must be included in the pre-takeoff ATC clearance?
a.
b.
c.
d.

36.

Vertically, longitudinally and compositely


Vertically, laterally and compositely
Vertically, horizontally and compositely
Vertically, laterally and longitudinally

To prevent injury and damage to property


On the aerodrome responsibility for avoiding collisions between aircraft and vehicles
rests with the air traffic controller
To ensure that the rules of the air are complied with
To avoid hazards to aeroplanes

To which aircraft is a flight information service (FIS) to be provided?


a.
b.
c.
d.

All aircraft flying in a flight information region (FIR)


Only aircraft in receipt of ATC
All controlled flights from engine start to final shut down
All aircraft in receipt of an ATC service or known to ATC which are likely to be affected
by the information

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AIR LAW

39.

AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES

Other than SIGMET and AIRMET, which of the following are included in FIS info?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Volcanic activity
Release of radioactive and toxic material
Unserviceability of radio nav aids
Changes in aerodrome conditions
Unmanned free balloons
a.
b.
c.
d.

40.

When will a flight information service officer (FISO) provide information regarding the operation
of other aircraft in your vicinity?
a.
b.
c.
d.

41.

OFIS, AFIS, ATIS


HF OFIS; VHF OFIS; ATIS
AFIS; Volmet; AFIS
OFIS; AFIS; AFTN

What does the abbreviation ATIS stand for?


a.
b.
c.
d.

43.

When requested to provide separation


To IFR traffic in IMC
When a collision risk exists
Where no ATC facility exists

What are the three types of Operational Flight Information Service (OFIS) Broadcasts?
a.
b.
c.
d.

42.

All the above


All except 1 which is subject of an ASHTAM
All except 5
2,3 and 4 only

Automated Traffic Information System


Aerodrome Traffic Information Service
Active Terminal Information System
Automatic Terminal Information Service

Why is an ATIS system used at an aerodrome?


a.
b.
c.
d.

To cut down VHF chatter


To ensure that essential information is available at all times to pilots
To allow FISOs to give repetitive information on a broadcast basis
To reduce the workload on Air Traffic Controllers

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AIR LAW

44.

On the frequencies of what radio navigation facilities can ATIS be transmitted?


a.
b.
c.
d.

45.

Yes, all aircraft flying in the FIR are to be provided with the service
Yes, but you must have an ATC clearance
Yes if you have filed a flight plan, otherwise no
Yes if you have made your intention to fly known to the A TCC

You are overdue arrival at Oxford on a VFR flight from Carlisle. It is now 1525 and your ETA
(passed via Birmingham ATC at 1430) was 1500. What phase of emergency should have been
declared by Oxford ATC?
a.
b.
c.
d.

48.

Arriving traffic
Departing traffic
Composite (arriving and departing)
Local area

You are flying VFR in the London FIR outside controlled airspace. Is the ATCC required to
provide you with an alerting service?
a.
b.
c.
d.

47.

VOR; NDB, ILS (localiser not glide path)


VORlDVORTAC; NDB
VOR; ILS localiser
VORonly

What type of ATIS information is given on the Oxford ATIS?


a.
b.
c.
d.

46.

AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES

None
INCERFA (uncertainty phase)
ALERFA (alert phase)
DETRESF A (distress phase)

When a state of emergency has been declared by an aeroplane, ATC is required to ensure that all
aircraft known to be in the vicinity are aware of the emergency situation and either assist or
remain clear. What is the one exception to this rule?
a.
b.
c.
d.

When the nature of the emergency is unlawful interference


When the aeroplane in distress is carrying dangerous air cargo
When the aeroplane in distress is outside of controlled airspace
When the aircraft in distress is not flying for commercial air transport

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AIR LAW

49.

ATS routes (airways etc .. ) are given designation codes to allow them to be uniquely identified.
For instance Al (Alfa One). To what type of ATS route would the designator UA1 refer?
a.
b.
c.
d.

50.

The route is an advisory route


The airspace is class D
It is a subdivision of airway W25. ie W25A; W25B; W25C etc ...
It is a temporary route ie weekend only

How would a route that is used exclusively by supersonic transports be designated?


a.
b.
c.
d.

52.

An ATS route (desig AI) in an Upper Information Region


Airway Al 'one way only' ie Unidirectional
The U indicates that the route is Unclassified. ie it does not form part of the regional rote
structure
The portion of a designated route at which the minimum level is Unsafe

If an airway was given the designator W25F what would the F indicate?
a.
b.
c.
d.

51.

AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES

By use of the suffix S


By use of the prefix S
By use of the prefix X
By use of the suffix X

What is the RNP number applicable to routes designated by suffixes Y and Z?


a. 1; b.2; c.5; d. 10

53.

In allocating a basic route designation letter (ie AI), what does the choice of the letter A mean?
a.
b.
c.
d.

A regional ATS route (airway)


A regional area navigation route
A non regional ATS route (airway)
A non regional area navigation route

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AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES

AIR LAW

ANSWERS TO REVISION QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 8

26

51

76

27

52

77

28

53

78

29

54

79

30

55

80

31

56

81

32

57

82

33

58

83

34

59

84

10

35

60

85

11

36

61

86

12

37

62

87

13

38

63

88

14

39

64

89

15

40

65

90

16

41

66

91

17

42

67

92

18

43

68

93

19

44

69

94

20

45

70

95

21

46

71

96

22

47

72

97

23

48

73

98

24

49

74

99

25

50

75

100

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