MOCKBOARD EXAMINATION

CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION, & PREVENTION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.
Mark only one answer for each answer by shading the box to the letter of
your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use
pencil no. 1 only.
MULTIPLE CHOICE:
1. A certain intersection for several reasons has more traffic accidents
than any other in the area. The police unit assigned to the area should.
a. Park near the intersection, in plain view and wait for violators
b. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to caution
motorist
c. Park near the intersection, more or less hidden from view
d. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to the
intersection
2. Every device which is self propelled and every vehicle which is
propelled by electric power obtain from overhead trolley wires, but not
operated upon rails:
a. Skating
b. Tricycle
c. Bicycle
d. Motor vehicles
3. Kind of dismissal whereby the description
vague that identification is difficult
a. Professional criminal
b. Known fugitives
c. Ordinary criminals
d. Unknown fugitives

and

characteristics

maybe

4. Hypothetical:
a. Temporary
b. Provable
c. Exaggerated
d. Assumed
5. A public officer or employee when NOT being authorized by judicial
order, shall enter a dwelling against the will of the owner thereof is
committing:
a. Legal entry
b. Illegal entry
c. Violation of domicile
d. Trespassing
6. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard:
a. Allotment
b. Distillation
c. Combustion
d. Abatement
7. It is the investigators responsibility to insure that every precaution
is exercised to preserve physical evidence in the state in which it was
recovered/obtained until it is released to the evidence custodian:
a. Logging of evidence
b. Preservation of evidence
c. Evaluation of evidence
d. Releasing evidence

8. Trial is allowed only after arraignment and the accused may waive his
right to appear at the trial EXCEPT when his presence is required for
purposed of identification:
a. Substitution
b. Personal appearance
c. Re assignment
d. Bail
9. Is a sworn written statement charging a person with an offense,
subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer or other employer of
the government or government institution in charge of the enforcement or
execution of the law violated:
a. Deposition
b. Complaint
c. Police blotter
d. Information
10. The customary title marks that determined whether a sentence is clear
or has a doubtful meaning:
a. Vocabulary
b. Diction
c. punctuation
d. Articles
11. Evidence is admissible when it is relevant to the issue and is NOT
excluded by these rules:
a. Real evidence
b. Admissibility of evidence
c. Secondary evidence
d. Relevancy of evidence
12. According
to
law
enforcement
authorities,
particularly
Marijuana drug is difficult to control here because of:
a. The plant can be easily cultivated
b. Can easily be smuggled from the outside countries
c. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously
d. The big demand

PDEA,

13. The law that governs the operation of motor vehicles or traffic rules
and regulation in the Philippines is known as:
a. R.A 4126
b. R.A 4136
c. R.A 4156
d. R.A 6506
14. Making trip outside of their regular route provided by law is a
violation of:
a. Rules and regulation on national roads
b. Land transportation and traffic code
c. Bureau of Internal Revenue
d. Rules and regulation of public service law
15.

The police court Traffic Law Enforcement involves five steps EXCEPT:
a. Detection
b. Surveillance and raids
c. Adjudication & penalization
d. Apprehension & penalization

16. Which of the following, DOES NOT belong among the goals of traffic
enforcement:
a. To increase traffic safety level
b. To improve lifestyle of drivers
c. To increase traffic efficiency

d. To insure harmonious & comfortable environment

17. Which of the following consideration act as a deterrent factors to
motorist and pedestrian EXCEPT:
a. Fear of fine and punishment
b. Insurance benefit
c. Loss of driving privilege
d. Possibility of being involved in accident
18.

Which of the following is not a traffic work?

a. Traffic accident investigation
b. Follow up of criminal
c. Traffic law enforcement
d. Traffic direction and control

19. Requesting for drivers license and vehicle registration certificate

requires the following right procedures EXCEPT:
a. Be courteous by using positive statement such as Good Morning Sir
may I see your license and vehicle registration
b. Order the driver to step down his car and hand to you the requested
papers
c. While waiting for the license, ask the driver what is your name
sir?
d. Never accept anything other than the requested papers
20. Which is NOT among the courses of action of the traffic police officer
in the violation of traffic laws:
a. Arrest
b. Inflict physical force
c. Warning
d. Issuance of citation ticket
21.

Methyldioxymethamphetamine is scientific name of:

a. Ecstacy
b. Shabu
c. LSD
d. Marijuana
e. None of the above

22.

Other name for Ecstacy is:

a. MDMA
b. MMDA
c. MDAM
d. DMMA
e. None of the above

23. For short, Ecstasy is a _________related to the drugs mescaline and

amphetamine.
a. Stimulant
b. Depressant
c. Hallucinogen
d. None of the above
24.

Other names for MDMA are the following EXCEPT ONE:

a. Adam
b. XTC
c. Doves
d. Ecstano

25. Term originally applied to all compounds that produce insensibility to

external stimuli through depression of the central nervous system, but
now applied primarily to the drugs known as opiates-compounds extracted
from the opium poppy and their chemical derivatives

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Narcotics
Drugs
Pain killers
Barbiturates
None of the above

26. From the plant called _________, cocaine is a local anesthetic and
central nervous system stimulant. It can be taken by chewing on coca
leaves, smoked, inhaled (snorted) or injected.
a. Erythroxylon coca
b. Erythroxycline cocoa
c. Erythrochlorine coca
d. Erythrocycle coca
e. None of the above
27. A dose of between 25 to 150 mg of cocaine is taken when it is inhaled.
Within a few seconds to a few minutes after it is taken, cocaine can
cause all, EXCEPT one:
a. A feeling of euphoria
b. Excitement
c. Reduced hunger
d. A feeling of strength
e. Appetite for destruction
28. The famous psychotherapist, ____________, in 1884, recommended cocaine
for a variety of illness and for alcohol and morphine addictions.
Unfortunately, many of his patients went on to become addicted to
cocaine.
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Maslow
c. Bentham
d. Jackson
e. None of the above
29.

Marijuana comes from a plant called

a. Cannabis sativa
b. Cannabis satiba
c. Cannavis sativa linn
d. Canabbis sattiba

30.

In
a.
b.
c.
d.

31.

Marijuana contains more than _________different chemicals:

a. 400
b. 500
c. 300
d. 100
e. None at all

32.

Delta 9 tetrahydrocannabinol can be found in what kind of plant?

a. Marijuana
b. Poppy plant
c. Coca plant
d. Catnip plant
e. None of the above

high doses, marijuana can cause EXCEPT one: hallucinations

Delusions
Impaired memory
Disorientation
Double vision

33. It is a substance other than food and water that is intended to be

taken or administered for the purpose of altering, sustaining and
controlling recipients, physical, mental or emotional state.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Drug
Toxins
Poison
Substance

34. Are drugs which were derived from tree plants, like nicotine from
tobacco ad Tetra Hydrocannabinol from marijuana?
a. Natural drug
b. Synthetic drug
c. Ordinary drug
d. Drug addiction drug
35.

Greek word for poppy:

a. Papaver
b. Papaber
c. Papabear
d. Paverum

36. Names a person, place, thing, quality or condition. Briefly it is a

name word.
a. Noun
b. Verb
c. Adverb
d. Pronoun
e. Speech
37. A technique useful in investigation is the instrumental detection of
deception is what test?
a. Ballistic test
b. Fingerprint testing
c. Questioned document test
d. Polygraph testing
e. None of the above
38. The place in Thailand Burma
cultivated and processed is known as:
a. Drug triangle
b. Golden triangle
c. Silver curtain
d. Pyramid of Asia
e. None of the above

Laos

borders

where

opium

is

39. The type of report immediately submitted upon development of facts in

the follow-up investigation is:
a. Advances
b. Progress
c. Spot
d. Closing
40. The report that covers a full-dress treatment in the presentation of
the case is called:
a. Closing
b. Advance
c. Formal
d. Informal
41. The kind of identification record that law enforcement agencies
maintain mainly to assist complaints, eyewitness, and investigators to
recognize the perpetrator by means of the record information concerning
the characteristics of the criminal activity is:
a. Finger print
b. Mugfile
c. Criminal specialty file

d. Correspondence
42.

The heart of any identification system is:

a. Personal files
b. Criminal special file
c. Mugfile
d. Fingerprint

43. The report should be made after the termination of the investigators
preliminary investigation is:
a. Advance
b. Final
c. Progress
d. Investigative
44.

What is the initial investigation process at the crime scene?

a. Interrogation
b. Gathering
c. Evaluation
d. Recording

45. The stage where the investigation will asses his report tries to
interpret same facts if need is under:
a. Organization
b. Evaluation
c. Recording
d. Gathering of facts
46. When a person is compelled to answer series of questions because he is
intimidated, he subjected to :
a. Interview
b. Interrogation
c. Inquiry
d. Cross examination
47. This refers to
written Routinary
different from an
towards in comic
a. Vocabulary
b. Diction
c. Language
d. Jargons

manner or style of expression in words. For daily

communications, this distinct from fiction, slightly
intellectual discourse, and obviously not catering
books.

48. The section that contains a brief statement of when, where of when,
where and by whom the investigation was made citing the authority for
making it is:
a. Facts of the case
b. Matters investigated
c. Authority
d. Discussion
49. The section that represents a concise summary of the results of the
investigation directly consequent from and supported by the fact is:
a. Conclusions
b. Recommendations
c. Discussion
d. Matters investigated
50. This section that contains practical suggestions as to appropriate
action to be taken to make suitable disposition of all phases of the
case is:
a. Conclusions

b. Recommendations
c. Discussion
d. Matters investigated
51. The section of a report that indicates the presumption and inference
from all the circumstances in the case to give the directing authority
the clearest possible picture is:
a. Discussion
b. Conclusion
c. Recommendation
d. Authority
52. The most effective composition writing in police report writing
because it is concern with events with action and with life in action
is:
a. Prose
b. Narrative
c. Descriptive
d. Essay
53. When we write about the concrete examples or situations that bring
ideas to life. We need specific words the reader close to first hand
experience. Words that remain too general keep people and events
colorless and anonymous, thus the police reports must strictly follows
this quality of report which is:
a. Accuracy
b. Up to date
c. Fairness
d. Specificity
54.

Curt reply
a. Sharp
b. Terse
c. Brusque
d. Rough

55.

Rapt response
a. Immediate
b. Casual
c. Happy
d. Mind

56.

Connived with
a. Disagreed
b. Participated
c. Plotted
d. Conferred

57.

Melee
a. A heavy metal
b. A riot
c. A rumble
d. Free for all

58.

Assailed by
a. Attracted
b. Criticized
c. Downgraded
d. Insulted

59.

An alibi
a. An untrue
b. A false claim

c. A statement under oath

d. Sworn statement
60.

Interrogate
a. Investigate
b. Examine
c. Ask
d. Question

61.

Mercenary
a. Work for pay
b. Professional who is paid for
c. Service rendered
d. One who works for free

62.

Caveat
a. Warning
b. Croak
c. Beware
d. Admonition

63.

Certitude
a. Confidence
b. Doubt
c. Denial
d. Trust

64.

Chafe
a. Disturb
b. Annoy
c. Warm
d. Heat

65.

Magnanimous
a. Selfish
b. Venal
c. Self denying
d. Disinterest

66. It is the action taken by the police and the court to compel obedience
to traffic laws and ordinances.
a. Traffic
b. Patrol
c. Traffic law enforcement
d. None of the above
67. The following but one is NOT a kind of enforcement action by traffic
law enforcer
a. Surrender
b. Traffic warning
c. Violation
d. None of the above
68. It refers to a traffic accident in which driver fail to comply with
any of the duties required as stopping, giving and revealing his
identity.
a. Illegal parking
b. Hit and run
c. Obstruction
d. Traffic pursuit
69. It is best to start a conversation with an opening question such as
Dont you know? The statement above is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Telling the truth

False, opening question should be with courteous one
Not derogatory
None of the above

70. It refers to the sign left on the roadway by tires that are sliding or
scrubbing while the wheel is still turning.
a. Sliding marks
b. Scuff marks
c. Skid marks
d. All of the above
71. Upon arrival at the scene of the traffic accident, the first step to
be taken by an investigator/law enforcer is:
a. Make a test skid at the scene
b. Gather clues from the hit and run vehicles
c. Report the incident and immediately secure injure persons
d. Question the driver
72. These refer to the chain of event where the collision of vehicles has
come to the fullest.
a. Perception of hazard
b. Start of evasive action
c. Maximum engagement
d. Disengagement
73. Any motor accident that results in injuries other than fatal to one or
more persons
a. Fatal account
b. Less accident
c. Non fatal accident
d. Property damage
74. It refers to any person using a traffic way for travel, parking or
other purposes as pedestrian or driver, including any vehicle, or animal
which he is using
a. Traffic
b. Road
c. Traffic unit
d. Hazard
e. All of the above
75.

It
a.
b.
c.
d.

refers to any vehicle pioneered by muscular power

Automobile
Cart
Drawn vehicle
Bicycle

76.

When is the vehicle considered parked?

a. If it has stopped along the road
b. If it has been brought to stop on the shoulder of the highway, and
remain inaction on that place or an appreciable period of time
c. When it has been brought to stop to unload its cargo
d. All of the above

77.

The most familiar sign, it is red and white and it is eight sided.
a. Stop sign
b. Yield sign
c. No U Turn sign
d. Danger sign

78. Intended to guide road user while they are traveling or to provide
them with other useful information and it is a rectangular in shape.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Danger warning signs

Regulatory signs
Informative signs
None of the above

79. Intended to warn road user of a danger on the road and to inform of
its nature and these signs have an equilateral Triangular shape with one
side horizontal.
a. Danger warning signs
b. Regulatory signs
c. Informative signs
d. None of the above
80.

Whistle signal that means stop:

a. One long blast
b. Two short snappy blast
c. Three blast
d. One or two long blast

81.

Whistle signal that means go:

a. One long blast
b. Two short snappy blast
c. Three blast
d. One or two long blast

82. The theory which asserts that man exhibits constant variation of life
energy and mood states:
a. Biorhythm
b. Biometry
c. Biology
d. All of the above
83.

Shall mean every any license operator of motor a vehicle:

a. Conductor
b. Passenger
c. Driver
d. Owner

84. The occurrence in a sequence of events

unintended injury, death, or property damage:
a. Accident
b. Fatal accident
c. Motor accident
d. Traffic accident

which

usually

reduces

85.

The following are kind of enforcement action, EXCEPT:

a. Traffic arrest
b. Verbal warning
c. Traffic citation
d. Traffic warning

86.

Colorum means:
a. Any vehicle used for commercial purposes without a franchise or
permits to operate in that capacity
b. A large road vehicle designed to carry passengers
c. A small bus type vehicle usually multi colored and heavily
decorated and modified to carry ten or more passenger
d. Any of the above

87. The component of motor vehicle designed to provide information to the

driver on how fast he is traveling in either kilometers per hour or
miles per hour:
a. Speedometer

b.
c.
d.
e.
88.

Battery
Brakes
Gauge
Meter

Zero forward or back ward speed :

a. Brake
b. Turn turtle
c. Stop
d. Swerve

89. The sudden application of brakes which results in the locked wheel
condition places such a great pressure between the brake shoe and the
brake drum what the frictional force between the tire and the road
surface, when this condition exist the wheels skid.
a. Skid mark
b. Scuff mark
c. Wheel mark
d. Scratch mark
90.

This is the distance traveled before applying the brakes

a. Reaction time
b. Reaction distance
c. Distance
d. Marks
91. Is to ascertain the truth with the used of one sense and reasoning
faculties:
a. Evidence
b. Result
c. Material
d. Facts
92.

The following are factors in handling of physical evidence, EXCEPT:

a. Protection
b. Tagging
c. Collection
d. Mutilation

93.

The sketch prepared by the investigator at the crime scene is called:

a. Detailed sketch
b. Rough sketch
c. Finished sketch
d. Crime sketch

94. Before removing

position should be
a. Marked on the
b. Photographed
c. Preserved
d. Record in the

victims homicide in the crime scene, its original

:
floor or ground
book

95.

In
a.
b.
c.
d.

criminal investigation, the hardest point to determine is the:

Time of the commission of the crime
Motive of the crime
Place of the commission of the crime
All of the above

96.

The following are general rules in sketching, EXCEPT :

a. Make an estimate on distance
b. Decide what is to be sketched
c. Determine compass direction
d. Control all measurements

97.

In
a.
b.
c.
d.

criminal investigation, the subject for interview is usually the:

Informer
Suspect
Witness
Accused

98. Dax is willingly giving information to the detective. Thus, he is

considered as:
a. Informer
b. Informant
c. Respondent
d. Accessory
99. Michael is an alleged thief, he is being accused of stealing a
personal property but he is not yet under the custody of the police.
Therefore he is legally addressed as:
a. Suspect
b. Accused
c. Accomplice
d. Respondent
100. Jasmin is testifying in court to disprove the criminal charged filed
against chica. Thus, she is a:
a. Witness
b. Accused
c. Suspect
d. Lover
e. None of the above
101. Drug addiction can be categorized into three varieties namely:
a. Narcotics, stimulants and sedatives
b. Sedatives, depressant and stimulant
c. Depressant, stimulant and hallucinogens
d. Narcotic, hallucinogens and depressant
102. The following are the characteristics of psychic dependence EXCEPT:
a. Little or no tendency to increase the drug
b. A tendency to increase the dose
c. Absence of abstinence syndrome
d. Sense of improve of well being
103. Regular intake of high doses of cocaine may cause paranoia or may lead
to cocaine psychosis which is known as:
a. Hallucination of touch, sight, taste or smell
b. Suspicious feeling that someone is trying to harm him
c. Saw and felt while on the drug may recur and make him fear
d. Fear of losing his mind
104. The barbiturate form of drug will give an effect of:
a. Hunger, fatigue and produce some degree of exhilaration
b. Appearance of drunkenness without alcoholic breath
c. Dilated pupils, hyperactive and exhilarated
d. Abnormal cheerfulness and unusual increase in activity
105. The definite danger of LSD in areas where LSD is used without close
supervisions are the following EXCEPT:
a. Brains normal filtering and screening out process become blocked
b. Users may grow frightened because he cannot stop drug addiction
c. Users may become increasingly suspicious
d. Gives them notion they can fly or float
106. Marijuana does not cause physical dependence as to heroin and other
narcotics this means that:

a.
b.
c.
d.

The person may increase the dosage of drugs

The body became dependent on continuing use of drugs
There are the presence of the abstinence syndrome
Withdrawal from marijuana cause physical sickness

107. When the person became physically dependent on drugs, the primary
reason why he continues to take drugs is:
a. Experience pleasure
b. Escape from reality
c. Relieve discomfort
d. Afraid of withdrawal
108. The application of drug directly to the body site such as skin and
mucous membrane usually termed as:
a. Topical
b. Iontopheresis
c. Inhalation
d. Sniffing
109. The first objective of all fire prevention units is:
a. Preventing property damage
b. Reducing insure rates
c. Confining fire to an area
d. Safeguarding life against fire
110. Which of the following is to causes of the greatest numbers of fire?
a. Electrical wiring
b. Spontaneous ignition
c. Smoking and matches
d. Lighting
111. In the manufacturer of goods from plastics and pyroxylin materials,
fires are mostly to be caused by:
a. Static sparks
b. Sparks from machine tools
c. Careless use of flammable liquids during processing
d. Explosion of flammable vapors during processing
112. Which of the following is the accepted method of combating fire
involving escaping liquefied petroleum gas?
a. Extinguishment by means of the solid stream method
b. Extinguishment by means fog nozzle method
c. Extinguishment by means dry chemical powder
d. Control fire rather than extinguish it until the flow of gas can be
stopped or the supply has been exhausted
113. Of the following occupancies, the one whose duration of fire produce
by the contents is generally the same order as that for churches is:
a. Schools
b. Assembly halls
c. Libraries
d. Hospital wards
114. When giving first aid to a man overcome by smoke, one should:
a. Bath his face on cold water
b. Give artificial respiration
c. Give him a stimulant
d. Induce vomiting
115. Because no fire are alike, it impossible to lay down genera plan for
fire fighting operations. This view point is unacceptable primarily
because:
a. Variety of techniques and methods available are conductive to
training at all levels of command

b. Proper utilization of forces at the hand are independent of the

variable characteristics of fire situations
c. Elements of similarity are sufficient to establish tactics and
strategy applicable in variety situation
d. None of the above
116. You arrive first at an automobile fire; a short circuit caused a fire
under the hood which had spread to the dash board. When you arrived the
wires are smoldering. Of the following acts, what should performed first
is to:
a. Cool the hood by application of water
b. Apply ashes, sand or earth on the hood
c. Cut the battery terminals connection
d. All of the above
117. The spread of fire from to floor in the same building is usually the
result of:
a. Fires burning through floors
b. Failure to lack of fire doors
c. Open stairways or shaft
d. External exposures through windows
118. Which of the following usually is an indication of the presence of
considerable quantities of carbon monoxide in fires?
a. Almost lack of smoke
b. Must hot and bright fires
c. Presence of winds and streams of dense black smoke
d. Sparkles flying around
119. The special extinguishing agent best adapted to larger surfaces of
flammable liquid is:
a. Stream
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Foam
d. Soda and acid
120. The outstanding fire hazard of boarding and apartment houses is:
a. Misuse of electricity
b. Smoking and matches
c. Incendiary
d. Heating defects
121. The most important factor of the building that should be considered by
fire officer is command in seizing up a fire is the :
a. Construction
b. Height
c. Occupancy
d. Elevator and other shafts
122. Probably one of the most frequent and definite clues to arson or
attempted arson are:
a. Intensity of the flame
b. Difficulty in extinguishing the fire
c. Odor of burning materials
d. Multiple fires
123. Ammonia is generally used by the arsonist to :
a. Caused an explosion in the building
b. Start a fire in several different places at the same time
c. Increase the possibilities of complete combustion
d. Render unnoticeable odor of gasoline
124. Transmission of heat through medium

a.
b.
c.
d.

Radiation
Convection
Conduction
Absorption

125. Which of the following is a necessary element in the crime of arson?

a. The building must be occupied
b. The first must occur at night time
c. Financial gain must be present
d. The burning must be malicious
e. All of the above
126. When heat is transferred in straight line from a source to a receiving
material without heating the intervening medium :
a. Conduction
b. Radiation
c. Convection
d. Insulation
127. Diffusion of heat through fluid by the means of the flow of the hotter
parts of the fluid to cooler part:
a. Radiation
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Absorption
128. Matter made up of very fine solid particle and condensed vapor in air
as a consequence of combustion:
a. Ash
b. Smog
c. Smoke
d. Fog
129. Chemical change in which fuel and oxygen react, releasing exothermic
heat:
a. Decomposition
b. Oxidation
c. Detonation
d. Ignition
130. Three essential ingredients of burning commonly referred to as the
TRIANGLE OF FIRE are all EXCEPT ONE:
a. Oxygen
b. Fuel
c. Heat
d. Light
131. All EXCEPT one are the three ways by which heat can be transferred to
facilitate start or spread of fire:
a. Conduction
b. Radiation
c. Trailer
d. Sealants
132. All EXCEPT one are the three devices that can investigator should look
for in a highly suspected arson case:
a. Igniter
b. Plants
c. Trailer
d. Lighter
133. The two causes of the accidental fire:
a. Smoking and electrical

b. Fluid and lighter

c. Lighter and matches
d. Matches and candle
134. Arson is a crime which is difficult to secure evidence because the:
a. Evidence can easily be remove
b. Crime scene cannot be reconstructed
c. Evidence is usually consumed
d. Investigator does not know what to look for
135. If fire breaks out simultaneously in six different parts of a
building; it is most reasonable to believe that the fire is the result
of:
a. Explosive
b. Spontaneous combustion
c. Carelessness
d. Arson
136. If arson investigator encounters a situation in the line of duty which
is not covered by the rule, he should:
a. Use his own judgment in the matter
b. Confer with other investigators
c. Refer the matter to his superior
d. Confer with a local official or a lawyer
137. Legally, in order to establish a case of arson:
a. The fire must have been started by the suspects own hands
b. The property does not belong to the suspect of crime
c. The evidence of incendiarism must be direct and positive, not
circumstantial
d. The presumption that is accidental in origin must first be overcome
e. All of the above
138. In trying to establish the fact of incendiary origin of a fire by
direct evidence, which of the following would you considered as not
pertinent to that purpose:
a. The arrangement of the furniture
b. The arrangement and position of stock and material
c. The number of separate and distinct fires on the premises at the
same time
d. The size of the insurance policy
139. To establish the fact that a fire was promoted by incendiary motives,
an investigator will, in most cases have to rely on:
a. The possibility of suspects alibi
b. The statement of confession made by the suspect
c. The evidence obtain by other law enforcement agencies
d. Circumstantial and physical evidence
140. It is necessary to determine whether a fire started inside or outside
the building to:
a. Study the techniques of the person who started the fire
b. Provide date for statistical reports on how most fire started
c. Aid in placing responsibility and establishing motives
d. Eliminate part of the suspect
141. Motives for arson can be divided into four broad classifications. Of
the following motives, the one which DOES NOT applies is:
a. Spite
b. Profit
c. Pyromania
d. Duress

142. The vehicle was on fire, caused by a short circuit, you were the first
person to arrive. Which one of the following acts should you perform
first?
a. Cut off the ignition wiring by knife
b. Cool the hood by flushing water
c. Apply ashes or oil on hood
d. Disconnect the battery terminal connections
143. One of the following does not consist as fire hazard.
a. Asbestos
b. Borax
c. Phosphate of ammonia
d. Sulfur
144. You were on your way home late at night where you noticed smoke
pouring out on one of the window in a house in which several families
reside. Your first consideration under these circumstances should be to:
a. Determine the cause of smoke
b. Arouse all the residents in the house
c. Carry out to safety any person overcome by the smoke
d. Summon fire apparatus to the source of the fire
145. Of the following, the one in which is perhaps the most important
element in fire prevention in the residence is:
a. Periodic inspection by the members of the fire department
b. Care in the operation of electrical appliances
c. Proper and regular disposal of combustive waste
d. Radio announcements calling attention to fire board in a house
146. After having extinguished the fire, every effort should be made to
determine how the fire started. The primary person for determining the
fire of origin is to:
a. Reduce the amount of damage cause by the fire
b. Determine how the fire has been fought
c. Eliminate causes of fire in the future
d. Approve salvage operations
147. A partially filled gasoline drum is a more dangerous fire hazard than
a full one. Of the following, the best justification for this statement
is that:
a. A partially filled gasoline drum contains relatively little air
b. Gasoline is difficult to ignite
c. Gasoline vapors are more explosive than gasoline itself
d. Ai r is not combustible
148. Which of the following most constitute fire hazard?
a. Sodium chloride
b. Calcium chloride
c. Chromium
d. Silicon dioxide
149. Exit doors in theaters should swing out in the direction of the street
mainly because:
a. People should walk not run in the nearest exit
b. The doors may not catch fire
c. Exits are more readily seen
d. Audiences can go easier
150. Spontaneous combustion may be the reason for a pile of oily rags
catching fire. Generally speaking, spontaneous is the direct result of:
a. Application of flame
b. Falling sparks
c. Intense sunlight

d. Chemical reaction
151. Which is the larger,
investigative sciences?
a. Forensic Science
b. Criminalistics
c. Ballistics
d. Dactylography

more

inclusive

field

of

study

in

the

152. A crime scene technician would use more inductive logic than a chief
investigator
a. True
b. False
153. Who invented the idea of plainclothes police detectives?
a. Allan Pinkerton
b. Sir Robert Peel
c. J. Edgar Hoover
d. Teddy Roosevelt
154. Trace evidence refers to any substance which may require a microscope
to look at.
a. True
b. False
155. Physical evidence describes any substance where its properties are
known by reaction with another substance.
a. True
b. False
156. Class evidence
manufacturer.
a. True
b. False

is

evidence

that

can

be

traced

back

to

its

157. What was the first scientific method of criminals?

a. Fingerprint cards
b. The line up
c. The Bertillon method
d. The Vucetich Henry system
158. Dactylography is another name for forensic dentistry.
a. True
b. False
159. Forensic entymology involves the study of insects.
a. True
b. False
160. What are the chances of two people having the same DNA fingerprint?
a. 4 million to 1
b. 3 billion to 1
c. 30 billion to 1
d. 60 billion to 1
161. A hair sample should include the root to collect DNA evidence.
a. True
b. False
162. All guns when fired, except
striation pattern on the bullet.
a. True
b. False

Smith

&

Wesson,

leave

clockwise

163. Which of the following is NOT a component of gunpowder residue?

a. Lead
b. Barium
c. Antimony
d. Arsenic
164. Chromotography involves the absorption of light by a substance.
a. True
b. False
165. What are the second most common types of prints?
a. Arches
b. Loops
c. Whorls
d. Accidentals
166. According to the portrait parley
peculiarities are the most important?
a. Age, race, build
b. Nose, hair, complexion
c. Chin, eyes, lips
d. Neck, mouth, ears

of

identification,

which

set

167. What is the standard inner perimeter for roping off an outdoor crime
scene?
a. Ten square feet
b. Twenty square feet
c. Forty square feet
d. Sixty square feet
168. Exterior photographs of the crime scene would be taken in a clockwise
pattern.
a. True
b. False
169. What kind of sketch would generally be used with an outdoor crime
scene?
a. The coordinate method
b. The triangulation method
c. The cross projection method
d. The single spiral method
170. A spiral search pattern is usually requires two officers.
a. True
b. False
171. What kind of search pattern is best if you want to be sure you cover
everything?
a. Zone
b. Strip
c. Spiral
d. Grid
172. The correct order of a crime scene analysis is:
a. Sketch, search, photograph
b. Search, sketch, photograph
c. Photograph, search, sketch
d. Photograph, sketch, search
173. What tells the difference between a rock and bullet hole?
a. A rock leaves both radial and concentric cracks
b. A bullet leaves both radial and concentric cracks

c. A bullet leaves only radial cracks

d. A bullet leaves only concentric cracks
174. A soil sample would most easily be tested by:
a. Chromatography
b. Spectrophotometry
c. A density gradient tube
d. Its refraction index
175. What is the most distinguishing feature of a paint sample?
a. Wetness
b. Color
c. Shine
d. Smoothness
176. The least common man made fiber is:
a. Nylon
b. Polyester
c. Rayon
d. Spandex
177. Fiber evidence is best classified by its:
a. Mass
b. Volume
c. Density
d. Refraction index
178. What does it mean if a person is a secretor?
a. They sweat a lot at crime scenes due to a severe perspiration
problem
b. Their saliva and other non blood fluids can be traced to a blood
type
c. Their bodily fluids are easily found at crime scenes
d. They leave easily fingerprints to lift because of excessive skin
oil
179. What is
a. Type
b. Type
c. Type
d. Type

the least common blood type?

O
A
B
AB

180. Blood spatter analysis is most often found in cases where the
suspected manner of death was accidental.
a. True
b. False
181. You should let laboratory technicians wash a shoeprint impression if
it needs it.
a. True
b. False
182. Which of the following is a good characteristic of interrogation
rooms?
a. A two way mirror should be included
b. A dummy telephone should be included
c. A working telephone should be included
d. The room should be sparsely furnished
183. Guilty suspects will usually scratch what part of their body?
a. Head
b. Neck
c. Arms

d. Legs
184. Guilty people usually like it when you offer rationalization for their
alleged wrong.
a. True
b. False
185. If
a.
b.
c.
d.

a suspects eye movement is to their right & up, they are:

Trying to recall a visual truth
Trying to make up a visual life
Tying to recall an auditory truth
Trying to make up an auditory life

186. The cognitive interview technique works best on suspect with:

a. An alibi
b. Memory problems
c. Good acting ability
d. Psychiatric problems
187. What is the cognitive interviewing technique?
a. Eliciting a non verbal response from the subject
b. Eliciting a verbal, emotional response from the subject
c. Having the subject repeat the story from various starting points in
the story
d. Making the subject feel guilty so they want to confess
188. What method of confronting denial is used on a suspect with a good
acting ability and who gives you non verbal behavior to interpret?
a. Cognitive interviewing
b. Selective interviewing
c. Enticement interviewing
d. The Reid model of confession
189. Innocent people have a larger bubble space than guilty people.
a. True
b. False
190. People guilty of something usually nod their heads along with the
trunk of their body.
a. True
b. False
191. Which of the following is NOT one of the three recognized types of
informants?
a. Volunteer
b. Paid
c. Anonymous
d. Conscientious
192. The instigator informant is used most commonly in what situation?
a. A case with no leads
b. A buy bust operation
c. An organized crime case
d. During an ongoing trial to get witnesses
193. More informants want protection than money.
a. True
b. False
194. One way to motivate an informant to give better information is to
compare them with other informants.
a. True
b. False

195. The politically correct way to refer to informants is as:

a. Snitches
b. Tipsters
c. Junior detectives
d. Special employees
196. Which type of the witnesses should you comes back later to re
interview?
a. The reluctant witness
b. The fearful witness
c. The unaware witness
d. The talkative witness
197. Victims are NOT normally valuable sources of information in property
crimes.
a. True
b. False
198. Which part of a burglary M.O. file is used to distinguish skilled
and unskilled?
a. Type of premise
b. Means of entry
c. Type of loot
d. Trademark
199. A goodbye note is found in what percentage of suicide cases?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 65%
d. 85%
200. A decomposing body is found in a rural area. The size of the largest
maggot found in the body is 6 millimeters long. How many days has the
victim been dead?
a. 4 days
b. 6 days
c. 8 days
d. 10 days
201. A 120 lb. body has just floated to the surface of a lake. How long has
the victim been dead?
a. 4 days
b. 6 days
c. 8 days
d. 10 days
202. Partial rigor mortis (upper body only) has set in. How long has the
victim been dead?
a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 18 hours
d. 36 hours
203. Full rigor mortis (total body stiffness) has set in. Lividity is
present and fixed. The body temperature is 77 degrees. How long they
been dead?
a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 18 hours
d. 36 hours
204. Visual, fixed surveillance is also known as:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Tracer
Tail
Tag
Stakeout

205. A mother cannot testify against a father in a child abuse case.

a. True
b. False
206. Arson, like computer crime, requires the perpetrator to have some
special skills.
a. True
b. False
207. Which of the following is NOT a sign of arson using an accelerant?
a. Less than 22 minutes from ignition to flashpoint
b. Melted copper, aluminum, and other metals
c. Melted glass, mirrors, and other glass materials
d. Deep cracks and crevices in wood
208. Arson fires usually burn quicker and larger than other kinds of fires.
a. True
b. False
209. Searching the arson scene is form the area of most damage to least
damage.
a. True
b. False
210. Motive is a fairly unimportant element in solving an arson case.
a. True
b. False
211. What percentage of all fires are usually arsons?
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 40%
d. 50%