LSAT

PrepTest 3
Test ID: LL3003

A complete version of PrepTest III has been reproduced with

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Prep Test III 1991 Law School Admission Council, Inc.
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Analytical Reasoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION I

Logical Reasoning. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION II

Reading Comprehension . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION III

Logical Reasoning. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION IV

-2-

SECTION I
Time35 minutes
24 Questions
Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be
useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the
corresponding space on your answer sheet.

Questions 17
Three couplesJohn and Kate, Lewis and Marie, and Nat and
Olive have dinner in a restaurant together. Kate, Marie, and
Olive are women; the other three are men. Each person orders
one and only one of the following kinds of entrees: pork
chops, roast beef, swordfish, tilefish, veal cutlet. The six people
order in a manner consistent with the following conditions:
The two people in each couple do not order the same
kind of entree as each other.
None of the men orders the same kind of entree as
any of the other men.
Marie orders swordfish.
Neither John nor Nat orders a fish entree.
Olive orders roast beef.
1. Which one of the following is a complete and
accurate list of the entrees any one of which Lewis
could order?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

pork chops, roast beef

pork chops, veal cutlet
pork chops, swordfish, veal cutlet
pork chops, roast beef, tilefish, veal cutlet
pork chops, roast beef, swordfish, tilefish, veal
cutlet

2. Which one of the following statements could be true?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

John orders the same kind of entree as Marie

does.
Kate orders the same kind of entree as Nat
does.
Lewis orders the same Kind of entree as Nat
does.
Marie orders the same kind of entree as Olive
does.
Nat orders the same kind of entree as Olive
does.

4. If John orders veal cutlet, then which one of the

following statements must be true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Kate orders roast beef.

Kate orders swordfish.
Lewis orders tilefish.
Lewis orders veal cutlet.
Nat orders pork chops.

5. If none of the six people orders pork chops, then

which one of the following statements must be true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

John orders veal cutlet.

Kate orders tilefish.
Lewis orders tilefish.
One of the men orders swordfish.
One of the women orders tilefish.

6. If Lewis orders pork chops, then which one of the

following is a complete and accurate list of the
entrees any one of which John could order?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

roast beef
veal cutlet
roast beef, veal cutlet
roast beef, swordfish
pork chops, roast beef, swordfish

7. Suppose that the people in each couple both order

the same kind of entree as each other rather than
order different kinds of entrees. If all other
conditions remain the same, and no two women
order the same kind of entree, then which one of the
following statements could be true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

John orders roast beef.

John orders swordfish.
Kate orders roast beef.
Two of the people order pork chops.
Two of the people order tilefish.

3. Which one of the following statements must be true?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

One of the men orders pork chops or veal

cutlet.
One of the men orders swordfish or veal cutlet.
Two of the women order tilefish.
None of the men orders a fish entree.
Exactly one of the women orders a fish entree.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

1
Questions 813
There are exactly seven houses on a street. Each house is
occupied by exactly one of seven families: the Kahns, Lowes,
Muirs, Newmans, Owens, Piatts, Rutans. All the houses are
on the same side of the street, which runs from west to east.
The Rutans do not live in the first or the last house
on the street.
The Kahns live in the fourth house from the west end
of the street.
The Muirs live next to the Kahns.
The Piatts live east of both the Kahns and the Muirs
but west of the Lowes.
8. Which one of the following families could live in the
house that is the farthest east?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

the Kahns
the Muirs
the Newmans
the Piatts
the Rutans

9. Which one of the following families CANNOT live

next to the Kahns?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

the Lowes
the Newmans
the Owens
the Piatts
the Rutans

10. If the Muirs live west of the Kahns, then the Rutans
CANNOT live next to both
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

the Kahns and the Piatts

the Lowes and the Piatts
the Muirs and the Piatts
the Muirs and the Owens
the Muirs and the Newmans

-3-

11. If the Newmans live immediately west of the Kahns,

which one of the following statements must be false?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

The Owens live next to the Newmans.

The Owens live next to the Rutans.
The Piatts live next to the Lowes.
The Piatts live next to the Muirs.
The Rutans live next to the Newmans.

12. If the Owens live east of the Muirs, which one of the
following statements must be true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

The Kahns live east of the Muirs.

The Kahns live west of the Rutans.
The Owens live west of the Lowes.
The Owens live east of the Piatts.
The Owens live west of the Piatts.

13. If the Owens live east of the Kahns, which one of the
following pairs of families must live next to each
other?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

the Kahns and the Piatts

the Lowes and the Owens
the Muirs and the Newmans
the Newmans and the Rutans
the Owens and the Piatts

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

-4-

Questions 1419
At an automobile exhibition, cars are displayed on each
floor of a three-floor building. On each floor the cars are
either all family cars or all sports cars, either all new or all
used, and either all production models or all research
models. The following conditions apply to this exhibition:
If the exhibition includes both family cars and sports
cars, then each family car is displayed on a lower
numbered floor than any sports car.
The exhibition includes no used research models.
The exhibition includes no research models that are
sports cars.
There are new cars on floor 1.
There are used cars on floor 3.
14. If there are sports cars on exactly two floors, then
which one of the following statements could be true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

There are research models on floor 1.

There are sports cars on floor 1.
There are family cars on floor 2.
There are research models on floor 2.
There are family cars on floor 3.

15. Which one of the following statements could be true?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

The exhibition includes new research model

sports cars.
The exhibition includes used research model
family cars.
The exhibition includes used research model
sports cars.
There are research models on exactly one floor.
There are research models on all three floors.

16. Which one of the following statements must be true?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

There are production models on floor 1.

There are research models on floor 1.
There are production models on floor 2.
There are production models on floor 3.
There are research models on floor 3.

17. If there are research models on exactly two floors,

then which one of the following statements can be
false?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

There are family cars on floor 1.

There are research models on floor 1.
There are new cars on floor 2.
There are research models on floor 2.
There are family cars on floor 3.

18. If all the new cars in the exhibition are research

models, then which one of the following statements
must be true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

All the family cars in the exhibition are new.

All the family cars in the exhibition are
research models.
All the family cars in the exhibition are used.
All the new cars in the exhibition are family
cars.
All the production models in the exhibition
are family cars.

19. If all the production models in the exhibition are

used, then which one of the following statements
must be true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

There are family cars on floor 1.

There are new cars on floor 2.
There are research models on floor 2.
There are family cars on floor 3.
There are sports cars on floor 3.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

1
Questions 2024

22. If Cindy and Fran are the only people in one of the
planes, which one of the following must be true?

Planes 1, 2, 3, and 4and no othersare available to fly

in an air show.
Pilots Anna, Bob, and Cindy are all aboard planes
that are flying in the show and they are the only
qualified pilots in the show.
Copilots Dave, Ed, and Fran are all aboard planes
that are flying in the show and they are the only
qualified copilots in the show.
No plane flies in the show without a qualified pilot
aboard.
No one but qualified pilots and qualified copilots
flies in the show.
Anna will only fly in either plane 1 or plane 4.
Dave will only fly in either plane 2 or plane 3.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Bob flies with Anna.

Dave flies with Ed.
Dave and Ed fly with Bob.
Dave flies with Bob.
Ed flies with Anna.

23. If plane 1 is used, its crew could consist of

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Anna, Bob, Cindy, Fran

Anna, Bob, Ed, Fran
Bob, Cindy, Ed, Fran
Bob, Cindy, Dave, Ed
Bob, Dave, Ed, Fran

24. If as many of the pilots and copilots as possible fly in

plane 4, that group will consist of

20. If Anna flies in plane 4 and Dave flies in plane 2,

which one of the following must be true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

-5-

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Cindy flies in either plane 1 or plane 3.

If Cindy flies in plane 3, Bob flies in plane 2.
Bob and one other person fly in plane l.
If Bob is aboard plane 4, Cindy flies in plane 3.
If Cindy is in plane 2, Bob flies in plane 3.

exactly two people

exactly three people
exactly four people
exactly five people
three pilots and two copilots

21. If Bob and Anna fly on the same plane, which one of
the following must be true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Cindy flies with Dave and Ed.

Cindy flies with Ed.
Dave flies with Cindy.
Dave flies with Cindy, Ed, and Fran.
Fran flies with Ed.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

-6-

2
SECTION II
Time35 minutes
25 Questions

Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some
questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that
is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by
commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer,
blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
1. If you have a large amount of money in the bank,
your spending power is great. If your spending power
is great, you are happy. So if you have a large amount
of money in the bank, you are happy.
Which one of the following most closely parallels the
reasoning in the argument above?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

If you have good health, you can earn a lot. If

you can earn a lot, you can buy an expensive
house. So if you have good health, you can
have a comfortable life.
If you drink too much alcohol, you will feel
sick. If you drink too much alcohol, you will
have no money left. So if you have no money
left, you will feel sick.
If you swim energetically, your heart rate
increases. If your heart rate increases, you are
overexcited. So if you swim energetically, you
are overexcited.
If you take a great deal of exercise, you are
physically fit. If you take a great deal of
exercise, you are exhausted. So if you are
physically fit, you are exhausted.
If you have a large amount of money in the
bank, you are confident about the future. If
you are optimistic by nature, you are
confident about the future. So if you have a
large amount of money in the bank, you are
optimistic by nature.

2. For a television program about astrology,

investigators went into the street and found twenty
volunteers born under the sign of Gemini who were
willing to be interviewed on the program and to take
a personality test. The test confirmed the
investigators personal impressions that each of the
volunteers was more sociable and extroverted than
people are on average. This modest investigation thus
supports the claim that ones astrological birth sign
influences ones personality.
Which one of the following, if true, indicates the
most serious flaw in the method used by the
investigators?
(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)
(E)

The personality test was not administered or

scored personally by the investigators.
People born under astrological signs other
than Gemini have been judged by astrologers
to be much less sociable than those born
under Gemini.
The personal impressions the investigators
first formed of other people have tended to be
confirmed by the investigators later
experience of those people.
There is not likely to be a greater proportion of
people born under the sign of Gemini on the
street than in the population as a whole.
People who are not sociable and extroverted
are not likely to agree to participate in such
an investigation.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

2
3. In Europe, schoolchildren devote time during each
school day to calisthenics. North American schools
rarely offer a daily calisthenics program. Tests prove
that North American children are weaker, slower, and
shorter-winded than European children. We must
conclude that North American children can be made
physically fit only if they participate in school
calisthenics on a daily basis.
Which one of the following is assumed in the
passage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

All children can be made physically fit by daily

calisthenics.
All children can be made equally physically fit
by daily calisthenics.
Superior physical fitness produces superior
health.
School calisthenics are an indispensable factor
in European childrens superior physical
fitness.
North American children can learn to eat a
more nutritious diet as well as to exercise
daily.

5. Observatory director: Some say that funding the

megatelescope will benefit only the astronomers
who will work with it. This dangerous point of
view, applied to the work of Maxwell, Newton,
or Einstein, would have stifled their research
and deprived the world of beneficial
applications, such as the development of radio,
that followed from that research.
If the statements above are put forward as an
argument in favor of development of the
megatelescope, which one of the following is the
strongest criticism of that argument?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

4. A work of architecture, if it is to be both inviting and

functional for public use, must be unobtrusive,
taking second place to the total environment.
Modern architects, plagued by egoism, have violated
this precept. They have let their strong personalities
take over their work, producing buildings that are
not functional for public use.
Which one of the statements below follows logically
from the statements in the passage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Unobtrusive architecture is both inviting and

functional.
Modern architects who let their strong
personalities take over their work produce
buildings that are not unobtrusive.
An architect with a strong personality cannot
produce buildings that function well for the
public.
A work of architecture that takes second place
to the environment functions well for public
use.
A work of architecture cannot simultaneously
express its architects personality and be
functional for public use.

-7-

It appeals to the authority of experts who

cannot have known all the issues involved in
construction of the megatelescope.
It does not identify those opposed to
development of the megatelescope.
It launches a personal attack on opponents of
the megatelescope by accusing them of having
a dangerous point of view.
It does not distinguish between the economic
and the intellectual senses of benefit.
It does not show that the proposed
megatelescope research is worthy of
comparison with that of eminent scientists in
its potential for applications.

6. The Transit Authoritys proposal to increase fares by

40 percent must be implemented. Admittedly, this
fare increase will impose a hardship on some bus and
subway riders. But if the fare is not increased, service
will have to be cut severely and that would result in
an unacceptably large loss of ridership.
The passage employs which one of the following
argumentative strategies?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

It offers evidence that the recommended

course of action would have no undesirable
consequences.
It shows that a proponent of any alternative
position would be forced into a contradiction.
It arrives at its conclusion indirectly by
providing reasons for rejecting an alternative
course of action.
It explains why the recommended course of
action would not be subject to the objections
raised against the alternative.
It justifies the conclusion by showing that such
a course of action has proven effective in the
past.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

-8-

7. Those who participate in local politics include people

who are genuinely interested in public service and
people who are selfish opportunists. Everyone who
participates in local politics has an influence on the
communitys values.
If the statements above are true, which one of the
following must also be true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Some selfish opportunists have an influence on

the communitys values.
Some persons who are interested in public
service do not have an influence on the
communitys values.
All those who have an influence on the
communitys values participate in local
politics.
Some of those who influence the communitys
values neither are interested in public service
nor are selfish opportunists.
All those who have an influence on the
communitys values are either interested in
public service or are selfish opportunists.

2
Questions 89
Although nondairy coffee lighteners made with
coconut oil contain 2 grams of saturated fat per
tablespoon, or 7 times more than does whole milk, those
lighteners usually contain no cholesterol. Yet one
tablespoon of such lighteners causes the consumers blood
cholesterol to rise to a higher level than does an identical
amount of whole milk, which contains 2 milligrams of
cholesterol per tablespoon.
8. Which one of the following, if true, contributes most
to an explanation of the apparent discrepancy noted
above?
(A)
(B)
(C)

(D)
(E)

Nutritionists recommend that adults consume

as little saturated fat as possible and no more
than 250 milligrams of cholesterol a day.
One gram of saturated fat in food has roughly
the same effect on blood cholesterol as 25
milligrams of cholesterol in food.
Light cream, a dairy product that contains 5
times more cholesterol than does whole milk,
is often chosen as a lightener by consumers
who normally prefer whole milk.
Certain nondairy coffee lighteners made
without coconut oil contain less saturated fat
and less cholesterol than does whole milk.
The lower the saturated fat content of dairy
products, the less cholesterol they usually
contain.

9. Manufacturers of coffee lighteners based on coconut

oil claim that their products usually cause the typical
consumers blood cholesterol to rise to a lower level
than does the use of whole milk as a lightener. Which
one of the following, if true, provides the most
support for the manufacturers claim?
(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)
(E)

Consumers of lighteners made with coconut

oil who avoid other high-cholesterol foods
and exercise more than average tend to have
lower-than-average blood cholesterol levels.
Coffee is frequently consumed with pastries
and other rich desserts that themselves result
in high blood cholesterol levels.
One popular nondairy coffee lightener that is
not based on coconut oil has reduced its fat
content by 20 percent while keeping its
cholesterol content at zero.
Consumers typically add to their coffee
substantially smaller quantities of coconut
oil-based lighteners than of whole milk.
Most consumers are convinced that whole
dairy products increase blood cholesterol and
that nondairy coffee lighteners do not.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

2
10. People with serious financial problems are so worried
about money that they cannot be happy. Their
misery makes everyone close to themfamily,
friends, colleaguesunhappy as well. Only if their
financial problems are solved can they and those
around them be happy.
Which one of the following statements can be
properly inferred from the passage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Only serious problems make people unhappy.

People who solve their serious financial
problems will be happy.
People who do not have serious financial
problems will be happy.
If people are unhappy, they have serious
financial problems.
If people are happy, they do not have serious
financial problems.

11. It is often said that people should be rewarded for

doing a given job in proportion to the effort it costs
them to do it. However, a little reflection will show
that this is, in fact, a very bad idea, since it would
mean that those people with the least skill or natural
aptitude for a particular task would be the ones given
the most incentive to do it.
Which one of the following argumentative strategies
is used above?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

stating a general principle and then presenting

reasons in favor of adopting it
providing evidence that where the principle
under discussion has been adopted, the
results usually have been undesirable
demonstrating that a consequence that had
been assumed to follow from the principle
under consideration need not follow from it
attempting to undermine a general principle
by arguing that undesirable consequences
would follow from it
showing that, in practice, the principle under
consideration could not be uniformly applied

-9-

12. Photovoltaic power plants produce electricity from

sunlight. As a result of astonishing recent technological
advances, the cost of producing electric power at
photovoltaic power plants, allowing for both
construction and operating costs, is one-tenth of what
it was 20 years ago, whereas the corresponding cost for
traditional plants, which burn fossil fuels, has
increased. Thus, photovoltaic power plants offer a less
expensive approach to meeting demand for electricity
than do traditional power plants.
The conclusion of the argument is properly drawn if
which one of the following is assumed?
(A)
(B)
(C)

(D)

(E)

The cost of producing electric power at

traditional plants has increased over the past
20 years.
Twenty years ago, traditional power plants
were producing 10 times more electric power
than were photovoltaic plants.
None of the recent technological advances in
producing electric power at photovoltaic
plants can be applied to producing power at
traditional plants.
Twenty years ago, the cost of producing
electric power at photovoltaic plants was less
than 10 times the cost of producing power at
traditional plants.
The cost of producing electric power at
photovoltaic plants is expected to decrease
further, while the cost of producing power at
traditional plants is not expected to decrease.

13. If that insect is a bee, it can only sting once. It only

did sting once. So it is a bee.
Which one of the following exhibits a pattern of
reasoning most similar to that in the argument above?
(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Spring is here. It has to be, because when it is

spring, I cannot stop sneezing; and I just
sneezed.
When the sky is clear, the atmospheric
pressure is high. At the moment, it is clearing
up, so the atmospheric pressure is bound to
be high soon.
Old and brittle paintings are always moved
with extreme care. That particular painting is
never moved with extreme care. So it must
not be old and brittle.
Only one more thunderstorm was needed to
ruin that roof. But the roof was still fine a
month later. There must not have been any
thunderstorms over that month.
To survive in the wild requires physical
stamina like Marks. All the same, Marks fear
of spiders would prevent his survival.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

-10-

14. Pamela: Physicians training for a medical specialty

serve as resident staff physicians in
hospitals.They work such long hoursup to
36 consecutive hoursthat fatigue impairs
their ability to make the best medical decisions
during the final portion of their shifts.
Quincy: Thousands of physicians now practicing
have been trained according to the same
regimen, and records show they generally
made good medical decisions during their
training periods. Why should what has worked
in the past be changed now?
Which one of the following, if true, is the most
effective counter Pamela might make to Quincys
argument?
(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

The basic responsibilities of resident staff

physicians in hospitals have not changed
substantially over the past few decades.
Because medical reimbursement policies now
pay for less recuperation time in hospitals,
patients in hospitals are, on the average, more
seriously ill during their stays than in the past.
It is important that emergency-room patients
receive continuity of physician care, insofar as
possible, over the critical period after
admission, generally 24 hours.
The load of work on resident
physicians-in-training varies according to the
medical specialty for which each is being
trained.
The training of physicians should include
observation and recognition of the signs
indicating a hospitalized patients progress or
decline over a period of at least 36 hours.

15. When a group of children who have been watching

television programs that include acts of violence is sent
to play with a group of children who have been
watching programs that do not include acts of violence,
the children who have been watching violent programs
commit a much greater number of violent acts in their
play than do the children who have been watching
nonviolent programs. Therefore, children at play can
be prevented from committing violent acts by not
being allowed to watch violence on television.

16. It is repeatedly claimed that the dumping of nuclear

waste poses no threat to people living nearby. If this
claim could be made with certainty, there would be
no reason for not locating sites in areas of dense
population. But the policy of dumping nuclear waste
only in the more sparsely populated regions
indicates, at the very least, some misgiving about
safety on the part of those responsible for policy.
Which one of the following, if true, would most
seriously weaken the argument?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

(C)
(D)
(E)

Television has a harmful effect on society.

Parents are responsible for the acts of their
children.
Violent actions and passive observation of
violent actions are not related.
There are no other differences between the two
groups of children that might account for the
difference in violent behavior.
Children who are treated violently will
respond with violence.

Evacuation plans in the event of an accident

could not be guaranteed to work perfectly
except where the population is small.
In the event of an accident, it is certain that
fewer people would be harmed in a sparsely
populated than in a densely populated area.
Dumping of nuclear waste poses fewer economic
and bureaucratic problems in sparsely
populated than in densely populated areas.
There are dangers associated with chemical
waste, and it, too, is dumped away from areas
of dense population.
Until there is no shred of doubt that nuclear
dumps are safe, it makes sense to situate them
where they pose the least threat to the public.

17. A societys infant mortality rate is an accepted indicator

of that societys general health status. Even though in
some localities in the United States the rate is higher
than in many developing countries, in the United States
overall the rate has been steadily declining. This decline
does not necessarily indicate, however, that babies in
the United States are now, on the average, healthier at
birth than they were in the past.
Which one of the following reasons, if true, most
strongly supports the claim made above about the
implications of the decline?
(A)
(B)
(C)

The argument in the passage assumes which one of

the following?
(A)
(B)

(D)
(E)

The figure for infant mortality is compiled as

an overall rate and thus masks deficiencies in
particular localities.
Low birth weight is a contributing factor in
more than half of the infant deaths in the
United States.
The United States has been developing and has
achieved extremely sophisticated technology
for saving premature and low-birth-weight
babies, most of whom require extended
hospital stays.
In eleven states of the United States, the infant
mortality rate declined last year.
Babies who do not receive adequate attention
from a caregiver fail to thrive and so they gain
weight slowly.

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2
Questions 1819
Like a number of other articles, Ian Raghnalls article
relied on a recent survey in which over half the couples
applying for divorces listed money as a major problem in
their marriages. Raghnalls conclusion from the survey data
is that financial problems are the major problem in
marriages and an important factor contributing to the high
divorce rate. Yet couples often express other types of marital
frustrations in financial terms. Despite appearances, the
survey data do not establish that financial problems are the
major problem in contemporary marriages.
18. Which one of the following sentences best expresses
the main point of the passage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Financial problems are not an important

factor contributing to the divorce rate.
Marital problems are more easily solved by
marriage counselors than by married couples
on their own.
The conclusion drawn in Raghnalls article is
inadequately justified.
Over half the couples applying for divorces
listed money as a major problem in their
marriages.
Many articles wrongly claim that financial
problems are the major factor contributing to
the divorce rate.

20. In Brazil, side-by-side comparisons of Africanized

honeybees and the native honeybees have shown that
the Africanized bees are far superior honey
producers. Therefore, there is no reason to fear that
domestic commercial honey production will decline
in the United States if local honeybees are displaced
by Africanized honeybees.
Each of the following, if true, would weaken the
argument EXCEPT:
(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

(E)

19. In the passage, the author does which one of the

following?
(A)
(B)
(C)

(D)
(E)

undermines a conclusion drawn from

statistical data by offering a specific
counterexample
undermines a conclusion drawn from
statistical data by offering an alternative
explanation for some of the data
undermines a conclusion drawn from
statistical data by showing that one cannot
prove the presence of an emotion by using
statistical methods
undermines a conclusion drawn from
statistical data by criticizing the survey for
which the data was gathered
undermines a conclusion by showing that
couples cannot accurately describe their own
problems

-11-

The honeybees native to Brazil are not of the

same variety as those most frequently used in
the commercial beekeeping industry in the
United States.
Commercial honey production is far more
complicated and expensive with Africanized
honeybees than it is with the more docile
honeybees common in the United States.
If Africanized honeybees replace local
honeybees, certain types of ornamental trees
will be less effectively pollinated.
In the United States a significant proportion of
the commercial honey supply comes from
hobby beekeepers, many of whom are likely
to abandon beekeeping with the influx of
Africanized bees.
The area of Brazil where the comparative
study was done is far better suited to the
foraging habits of the Africanized honeybees
than are most areas of the United States.

21. The public is well aware that high blood cholesterol

levels raise the risk of stroke caused by blood clots.
But a recent report concludes that people with low
blood cholesterol levels are at increased risk of the
other lethal type of strokecerebral hemorrhage,
caused when a brain artery bursts. The report
suggests that because blood cholesterol plays a vital
role in maintaining cell membranes, low blood
cholesterol weakens artery walls, making them prone
to rupture. The conclusion thus supports a
long-standing contention by Japanese researchers
that Western diets better protect against cerebral
hemorrhage than do non-Western diets.
The argument is based on which one of the following
assumptions?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Western diets are healthier than non-Western

diets.
Western diets result in higher blood
cholesterol levels than do non-Western diets.
High blood cholesterol levels preclude the
weakening of artery walls.
Cerebral hemorrhages are more dangerous
than strokes caused by blood clots.
People who have low blood pressure are at
increased risk of cerebral hemorrhage.

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-12-

22. Public reports by national commissions, governors

conferences, and leadership groups have stressed the
great need for better understanding of international
affairs by the citizenry. If the country is to remain a
leading nation in an era of international
competitiveness, the need is undeniable. If there is
such a need for the citizenry to have a better
understanding of international affairs, then all of our
new teachers must be prepared to teach their subject
matter with an international orientation.

2
23. DNA fingerprinting is a recently-introduced
biochemical procedure that uses a pattern derived
from a persons genetic material to match a suspects
genetic material against that of a specimen from a
crime scene. Proponents have claimed astronomically
high odds against obtaining a match by chance alone.
These odds are based on an assumption that there is
independence between the different characteristics
represented by a single pattern.

If all of the statements in the passage are true, which

one of the following must also be true?

Which one of the following, if true, casts the most

doubt on the claim of the proponents of DNA
fingerprinting?

(A)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

If the country is to remain a leading nation in an

era of international competitiveness, then new
teachers must be prepared to teach their subject
matter with an international orientation.
If new teachers are prepared to teach their
subject matter with an international
orientation, then the country will remain a
leading nation in an era of international
competitiveness.
If there is better understanding of
international affairs by the citizenry, then the
country will remain a leading nation in an era
of international competitiveness.
If the country is to remain a leading nation in
an era of international competitiveness, then
there is no need for the citizenry to have a
better understanding of international affairs.
Public reports from various groups and
commissions have stressed the need for a
more international orientation in the
education of teachers.

(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

The large amount of genetic material that

people share with all other people and with
other animals is not included in the DNA
fingerprinting procedure.
There is a generally accepted theoretical basis
for interpreting the patterns produced by the
procedure.
In the whole population there are various
different subgroups, within each of which
certain sets of genetic characteristics are shared.
The skill required of laboratory technicians
performing the DNA fingerprinting
procedure is not extraordinary.
In the investigation of certain genetic diseases,
the techniques used in DNA fingerprinting
have traced the transmission of the diseases
among the living members of very large
families.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

24. Anthropologists assert that cultures advance only

when independence replaces dependencethat is,
only when imposition by outsiders is replaced by
initiative from within. In other words, the natives of
a culture are the only ones who can move that
culture forward. Non-natives may provide valuable
advice, but any imposition of their views threatens
independence and thus progress. If one looks at
individual schools as separate cultures, therefore, the
key to educational progress is obvious: ____ .

25. The public in the United States has in the past been
conditioned to support a substantial defense budget by
the threat of confrontation with the Eastern bloc. Now
that that threat is dissolving, along with the Eastern
bloc itself, it is doubtful whether the public can be
persuaded to support an adequate defense budget.
Which one of the following indicates a weakness in
the position expressed above?
(A)

Which one of the following best completes the

passage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

(B)

individual schools must be independent of

outside imposition
some schools require more independence than
others, depending on the initiative of their
staffs and students
school system officials must tailor their
initiatives for change to each individual
school in the system
outsiders must be prevented from
participation in schools efforts to advance
the more independent a school is, the more
educational progress it will make

-13-

(C)
(D)
(E)

It presupposes that public opinion can be

manipulated indefinitely, without the publics
becoming aware of that manipulation.
It refers to past and present events that do not
have a causal connection with public support
of the budget.
It assumes as fact what it seeks to establish by
reasoning.
It fails to give any reason for the judgment it
reaches.
It hinges on the term adequate, the precise
meaning of which requires reevaluation in the
new context.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

-14-

SECTION III
Time35 minutes
28 Questions
Directions: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or
implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However,
you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken
the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

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Until recently many astronomers believed that

asteroids travel about the solar system
unaccompanied by satellites. These astronomers
assumed this because they considered asteroidsatellite systems inherently unstable. Theoreticians
could have told them otherwise: even minuscule
bodies in the solar system can theoretically have
satellites, as long as everything is in proper scale. If a
bowling ball were orbiting about the Sun in the
asteroid belt, it could have a pebble orbiting it as far
away as a few hundred radii (or about 50 meters)
without losing the pebble to the Suns gravitational
pull.
Observations now suggest that asteroid satellites
may exist not only in theory but also in reality.
Several astronomers have noticed, while watching
asteroids pass briefly in front of stars, that something
besides the known asteroid sometimes blocks out the
star as well. Is that something a satellite?
The most convincing such report concerns the
asteroid Herculina, which was due to pass in front of
a star in 1978. Astronomers waiting for the predicted
event found not just one occultation, or eclipse, of the
star, but two distinct drops in brightness. One was
the predicted occultation, exactly on time. The other,
lasting about five seconds, preceded the predicted
event by about two minutes. The presence of a
secondary body near Herculina thus seemed strongly
indicated. To cause the secondary occultation, an
unseen satellite would have to be about 45 kilometers
in diameter, a quarter of the size of Herculina, and at
a distance of 990 kilometers from the asteroid at the
time. These values are within theoretical bounds, and
such an asteroid-satellite pair could be stable.
With the Herculina event, apparent secondary
occultations became respectableand more
commonly reported. In fact, so common did reports
of secondary events become that they are now simply
too numerous for all of them to be accurate. Even if
every asteroid has as many satellites as can be fitted
around it without an undue number of collisions, only
one in every hundred primary occultations would be
accompanied by a secondary event (one in every
thousand if asteroidal satellite systems resembled
those of the planets).
Yet even astronomers who find the case for
asteroid satellites unconvincing at present say they
would change their minds if a photoelectric record
were made of a well-behaved secondary event. By
well-behaved they mean that during occultation
the observed brightness must drop sharply as the star

winks out and must rise sharply as it reappears from

behind the obstructing object, but the brightness
during the secondary occultation must drop to that of
(55) the asteroid, no higher and no lower. This would
make it extremely unlikely that an airplane or a
glitch in the instruments was masquerading as an
occulting body.
1. Which one of the following best expresses the main
idea of the passage?
(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

(E)

The observation of Herculina represented the

crucial event that astronomical observers and
theoreticians had been waiting for to establish
a convincing case for the stability of asteroid
satellite systems.
Although astronomers long believed that
observation supports the existence of stable
asteroid-satellite systems, numerous recent
reports have increased skepticism on this
issue in astronomy.
Theoreticians views on the stability of asteroid
satellite systems may be revised in the light of
reports like those about Herculina.
Astronomers continue to consider it
respectable to doubt the stability of
asteroid-satellite systems, but new theoretical
developments may change their views.
The Herculina event suggests that theoreticians
views about asteroid-satellite systems may be
correct, and astronomers agree about the kind
of evidence needed to clearly resolve the issue.

2. Which one of the following is mentioned in the passage

as providing evidence that Herculina has a satellite?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

the diameter of a body directly observed near

Herculina
the distance between Herculina and the planet
nearest to it
the shortest possible time in which satellites of
Herculina, if any, could complete a single orbit
the occultation that occurred shortly before
the predicted occultation by Herculina
the precise extent to which observed brightness
dropped during the occultation by Herculina

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

3
3. According to the passage, the attitude of astronomers
toward asteroid satellites since the Herculina event
can best be described as
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

open-mindedness combined with a concern for

rigorous standards of proof
contempt for and impatience with the position
held by theoreticians
bemusement at a chaotic mix of theory,
inadequate or spurious data, and calls for
scientific rigor
hardheaded skepticism, implying rejection of all
data not recorded automatically by state-ofthe-art instruments
admiration for the methodical process by
which science progresses from initial
hypothesis to incontrovertible proof

5. The information presented in the passage implies

which one of the following about the frequency of
reports of secondary occultations after the Herculina
event?
(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

4. The author implies that which one of the following

was true prior to reports of the Herculina event?
(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)
(E)

Since no good theoretical model existed, all

claims that reports of secondary occultations
were common were disputed.
Some of the reported observations of
secondary occultations were actually
observations of collisions of satellites with
one another.
If there were observations of phenomena
exactly like the phenomena now labeled
secondary occultations, astronomers were less
likely then to have reported such
observations.
The prevailing standards concerning what to
classify as a well-behaved secondary event
were less stringent than they are now.
Astronomers were eager to publish their
observations of occultations of stars by
satellites of asteroids.

-15-

(E)

The percentage of reports of primary

occultations that also included reports of
secondary occultations increased tenfold
compared to the time before the Herculina
event.
Primary occultations by asteroids were
reported to have been accompanied by
secondary occultations in about one out of
every thousand cases.
The absolute number of reports of secondary
occultations increased tenfold compared to
the time before the Herculina event.
Primary occultations by asteroids were
reported to have been accompanied by
secondary occultations in more than one out
of every hundred cases.
In more than one out of every hundred cases,
primary occultations were reported to have
been accompanied by more than one
secondary occultation.

6. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

cast doubt on existing reports of secondary

occultations of stars
describe experimental efforts by astronomers to
separate theoretically believable observations of
satellites of asteroids from spurious ones
review the development of ideas among
astronomers about whether or not satellites
of asteroids exist
bring a theoreticians perspective to bear on an
incomplete discussion of satellites of asteroids
illustrate the limits of reasonable speculation
concerning the occultation of stars

7. The passage suggests that which one of the following

would most help to resolve the question of whether
asteroids have satellites?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

a review of pre-1978 reports of secondary

occultations
an improved theoretical model of stable
satellite systems
a photoelectric record of a well-behaved
secondary occultation
a more stringent definition of what constitutes
a well-behaved secondary occultation
a powerful telescope that would permit a
comparison of ground-based observations
with those made from airplanes

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-16-

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3
Historians attempting to explain how scientific
work was done in the laboratory of the seventeenthcentury chemist and natural philosopher Robert
Boyle must address a fundamental discrepancy
between how such experimentation was actually
performed and the seventeenth-century rhetoric
describing it. Leaders of the new Royal Society of
London in the 1660s insisted that authentic science
depended upon actual experiments performed,
observed, and recorded by the scientists themselves.
Rejecting the traditional contempt for manual
operations, these scientists, all members of the
English upper class, were not to think themselves
demeaned by the mucking about with chemicals,
furnaces, and pumps; rather, the willingness of each
of them to become, as Boyle himself said, a mere
drudge and under-builder in the search for
Gods truth in nature was taken as a sign of their
nobility and Christian piety.
This rhetoric has been so effective that one
modern historian assures us that Boyle himself
actually performed all of the thousand or more
experiments he reported. In fact, due to poor
eyesight, fragile health, and frequent absences from
his laboratory, Boyle turned over much of the labor
of obtaining and recording experimental results to
paid technicians, although published accounts of the
experiments rarely, if ever, acknowledged the
technicians contributions. Nor was Boyle unique in
relying on technicians without publicly crediting
their work.
Why were the contributions of these technicians
not recognized by their employers? One reason is the
historical tendency, which has persisted into the
twentieth century, to view scientific discovery as
resulting from momentary flashes of individual
insight rather than from extended periods of
cooperative work by individuals with varying levels of
knowledge and skill. Moreover, despite the clamor of
seventeenth-century scientific rhetoric commending a
hands-on approach, science was still overwhelmingly
an activity of the English upper class, and the
traditional contempt that genteel society maintained
for manual labor was pervasive and deeply rooted.
Finally, all of Boyles technicians were servants,
which in seventeenth-century usage meant anyone
who worked for pay. To seventeenth-century
sensibilities, the wage relationship was charged with
political significance. Servants, meaning wage
earners, were excluded from the franchise because
they were perceived as ultimately dependent on their
wages and thus controlled by the will of their
employers. Technicians remained invisible in the
political economy of science for the same reasons
that underlay servants general political exclusion.
The technicians contributions, their observations
and judgment, if acknowledged, would not have been
perceived in the larger scientific community as
objective because the technicians were dependent on
the wages paid to them by their employers. Servants
might have made the apparatus work, but their
contributions to the making of scientific knowledge
were largelyand convenientlyignored by their
employers.

3
8. Which one of the following best summarizes the
main idea of the passage?
(A)
(B)
(C)

(D)

(E)

Seventeenth-century scientific experimentation

would have been impossible without the work
of paid laboratory technicians.
Seventeenth-century social conventions
prohibited upper-class laboratory workers
from taking public credit for their work.
Seventeenth-century views of scientific discovery
combined with social class distinctions to
ensure that laboratory technicians scientific
work was never publicly acknowledged.
Seventeenth-century scientists were far more
dependent on their laboratory technicians
than are scientists today, yet far less willing to
acknowledge technicians scientific
contributions.
Seventeenth-century scientists liberated
themselves from the stigma attached to
manual labor by relying heavily on the work
of laboratory technicians.

9. It can be inferred from the passage that the

seventeenth-century rhetoric mentioned in line 6
would have more accurately described the
experimentation performed in Boyles laboratory if
which one of the following were true?
(A)

(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Unlike many seventeenth-century scientists,

Boyle recognized that most scientific
discoveries resulted from the cooperative
efforts of many individuals.
Unlike many seventeenth-century scientists,
Boyle maintained a deeply rooted and
pervasive contempt for manual labor.
Unlike many seventeenth-century scientists,
Boyle was a member of the Royal Society of
London.
Boyle generously acknowledged the
contribution of the technicians who worked
in his laboratory.
Boyle himself performed the actual labor of
obtaining and recording experimental results.

10. According to the author, servants in seventeenthcentury England were excluded from the franchise
because of the belief that
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

their interests were adequately represented by

their employers
their education was inadequate to make
informed political decisions
the independence of their political judgment
would be compromised by their economic
dependence on their employers
their participation in the elections would be a
polarizing influence on the political process
the manual labor that they performed did not
constitute a contribution to the society that
was sufficient to justify their participation in
elections
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3
11. According to the author, the Royal Society of London
insisted that scientists abandon the
(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)
(E)

belief that the primary purpose of scientific

discovery was to reveal the divine truth that
could be found in nature
view that scientific knowledge results largely
from the insights of a few brilliant individuals
rather than from the cooperative efforts of
many workers
seventeenth-century belief that servants
should be denied the right to vote because
they were dependent on wages paid to them
by their employers
traditional disdain for manual labor that was
maintained by most members of the English
upper class during the seventeenth century
idea that the search for scientific truth was a
sign of piety

12. The author implies that which one of the following

beliefs was held in both the seventeenth and the
twentieth centuries?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Individual insights rather than cooperative

endeavors produce most scientific discoveries.
How science is practiced is significantly
influenced by the political beliefs and
assumptions of scientists.
Scientific research undertaken for pay cannot
be considered objective.
Scientific discovery can reveal divine truth in
nature.
Scientific discovery often relies on the
unacknowledged contributions of laboratory
technicians.

3
14. The authors discussion of the political significance
of the wage relationship (line 48) serves to
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(A)
(B)

(C)

(B)

(C)
(D)

(E)

Several alternative answers are presented to a

question posed in the previous paragraph,
and the last is adopted as the most plausible.
A question regarding the cause of the
phenomenon described in the previous
paragraph is posed, two possible explanations
are rejected, and evidence is provided in
support of a third.
A question regarding the phenomenon
described in the previous paragraph is posed,
and several incompatible views are presented.
A question regarding the cause of the
phenomenon described in the previous
paragraph is posed, and several contributing
factors are then discussed.
Several possible answers to a question are
evaluated in light of recent discoveries cited
earlier in the passage.

place the failure of seventeenth-century

scientists to acknowledge the contributions of
their technicians in the larger context of
relations between workers and their
employers in seventeenth-century England
provide evidence in support of the authors
more general thesis regarding the relationship
of scientific discovery to the economic
conditions of societies in which it takes place
provide evidence in support of the authors
explanation of why scientists in
seventeenth-century England were reluctant to
rely on their technicians for the performance of
anything but the most menial tasks
illustrate political and economic changes in the
society of seventeenth-century England that
had a profound impact on how scientific
research was conducted
undermine the view that scientific discovery
results from individual enterprise rather than
from the collective endeavor of many workers

15. It can be inferred from the passage that the clamor

of seventeenth-century scientific rhetoric
(lines 3940) refers to

13. Which one of the following best describes the

organization of the last paragraph?
(A)

-17-

(D)

(E)

the claim that scientific discovery results

largely from the insights of brilliant
individuals working alone
ridicule of scientists who were members of the
English upper class and who were thought to
demean themselves by engaging in the
manual labor required by their experiments
criticism of scientists who publicly
acknowledged the contributions of their
technicians
assertions by members of the Royal Society of
London that scientists themselves should be
responsible for obtaining and recording
experimental results
the claim by Boyle and his colleagues that the
primary reason for scientific research is to
discover evidence of divine truth in the
natural world

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-18-

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3
One type of violation of the antitrust laws is the
abuse of monopoly power. Monopoly power is the
ability of a firm to raise its prices above the
competitive levelthat is, above the level that would
exist naturally if several firms had to
competewithout driving away so many customers
as to make the price increase unprofitable. In order to
show that a firm has abused monopoly power, and
thereby violated the antitrust laws, two essential
facts must be established. First, a firm must be
shown to possess monopoly power, and second, that
power must have been used to exclude competition in
the monopolized market or related markets.
The price a firm may charge for its product is
constrained by the availability of close substitutes for
the product. If a firm attempts to charge a higher
pricea supracompetitive pricecustomers will
turn to other firms able to supply substitute products
at competitive prices. If a firm provides a large
percentage of the products actually or potentially
available, however, customers may find it difficult to
buy from alternative suppliers. Consequently, a firm
with a large share of the relevant market of
substitutable products may be able to raise its price
without losing many customers. For this reason
courts often use market share as a rough indicator of
monopoly power.
Supracompetitive prices are associated with a loss
of consumers welfare because such prices force some
consumers to buy a less attractive mix of products
than they would ordinarily buy. Supracompetitive
prices, however, do not themselves constitute an
abuse of monopoly power. Antitrust laws do not
attempt to counter the mere existence of monopoly
power, or even the use of monopoly power to extract
extraordinarily high profits. For example, a firm
enjoying economies of scalethat is, low unit
production costs due to high volumedoes not
violate the antitrust laws when it obtains a large
market share by charging prices that are profitable
but so low that its smaller rivals cannot survive. If
the antitrust laws posed disincentives to the existence
and growth of such firms, the laws could impair
consumers welfare. Even if the firm, upon acquiring
monopoly power, chose to raise prices in order to
increase profits, it would not be in violation of the
antitrust laws.
The antitrust prohibitions focus instead on abuses
of monopoly power that exclude competition in the
monopolized market or involve leveragethe use of
power in one market to reduce competition in
another. One such forbidden practice is a tying
arrangement, in which a monopolist conditions the
sale of a product in one market on the buyers
purchase of another product in a different market.
For example, a firm enjoying a monopoly in the
communications systems market might not sell its
products to a customer unless that customer also
buys its computer systems, which are competing with
other firms computer systems.

3
The focus on the abuse of monopoly power,
rather than on monopoly itself, follows from the
primary purpose of the antitrust laws: to promote
consumers welfare through assurance of the quality
(65) and quantity of products available to consumers.
16. Which one of the following distinctions between
monopoly power and the abuse of monopoly power
would the author say underlies the antitrust laws
discussed in the passage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Monopoly power is assessed in terms of

market share, whereas abuse of monopoly
power is assessed in terms of market control.
Monopoly power is easy to demonstrate,
whereas abuse of monopoly power is difficult
to demonstrate.
Monopoly power involves only one market,
whereas abuse of monopoly power involves at
least two or more related markets.
Monopoly power is the ability to charge
supracompetitive prices, whereas abuse of
monopoly power is the use of that ability.
Monopoly power does not necessarily hurt
consumer welfare, whereas abuse of
monopoly power does.

17. Would the use of leverage meet the criteria for abuse
of monopoly power outlined in the first paragraph?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

No, because leverage involves a

nonmonopolized market.
No, unless the leverage involves a tying
arrangement.
Yes, because leverage is a characteristic of
monopoly power.
Yes, unless the firm using leverage is charging
competitive prices.
Yes, because leverage is used to eliminate
competition in a related market.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

3
18. What is the main purpose of the third paragraph
(lines 2847)?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

to distinguish between supracompetitive prices

and supracompetitive profits
to describe the positive uses of monopoly power
to introduce the concept of economies of scale
to distinguish what is not covered by the
antitrust laws under discussion from what is
covered
to remind the reader of the issue of consumers
welfare

19. Given only the information in the passage, with

which one of the following statements about
competition would those responsible for the antitrust
laws most likely agree?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Competition is essential to consumers welfare.

There are acceptable and unacceptable ways
for firms to reduce their competition.
The preservation of competition is the
principal aim of the antitrust laws.
Supracompetitive prices lead to reductions in
competition.
Competition is necessary to ensure
high-quality products at low prices.

-19-

20. Which one of the following sentences would best

complete the last paragraph of the passage?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

By limiting consumers choices, abuse of

monopoly power reduces consumers welfare,
but monopoly alone can sometimes actually
operate in the consumers best interests.
What is needed now is a set of related laws to
deal with the negative impacts that monopoly
itself has on consumers ability to purchase
products at reasonable cost.
Over time, the antitrust laws have been very
effective in ensuring competition and,
consequently, consumers welfare in the
volatile communications and computer
systems industries.
By controlling supracompetitive prices and
corresponding supracompetitive profits, the
antitrust laws have, indeed, gone a long way
toward meeting that objective.
As noted above, the necessary restraints on
monopoly itself have been left to the market,
where competitive prices and economies of
scale are rewarded through increased market
share.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

-20-

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(20)

(25)

(30)

(35)

(40)

(45)

(50)

(55)

(60)

3
Amsden has divided Navajo weaving into four
distinct styles. He argues that three of them can be
identified by the type of design used to form
horizontal bands: colored stripes, zigzags, or
diamonds. The fourth, or bordered, style he identifies
by a distinct border surrounding centrally placed,
dominating figures.
Amsden believes that the diamond style appeared
after 1869 when, under Anglo influence and
encouragement, the blanket became a rug with
larger designs and bolder lines. The bordered style
appeared about 1890, and, Amsden argues, it reflects
the greatest number of Anglo influences on the newly
emerging rug business. The Anglo desire that
anything with graphic designs have a top, bottom,
and border is a cultural preference that the Navajo
abhorred, as evidenced, he suggests, by the fact that
in early bordered specimens strips of color
unexpectedly break through the enclosing pattern.
Amsden argues that the bordered rug represents a
radical break with previous styles. He asserts that the
border changed the artistic problem facing weavers:
a blank area suggests the use of isolated figures,
while traditional, banded Navajo designs were
continuous and did not use isolated figures. The old
patterns alternated horizontal decorative zones in a
regular order.
Amsdens view raises several questions. First,
what is involved in altering artistic styles? Some
studies suggest that artisans motor habits and
thought processes must be revised when a style
changes precipitously. In the evolution of Navajo
weaving, however, no radical revisions in the way
articles are produced need be assumed. After all, all
weaving subordinates design to the physical
limitations created by the process of weaving, which
includes creating an edge or border. The habits
required to make decorative borders are, therefore,
latent and easily brought to the surface.
Second, is the relationship between the banded
and bordered styles as simple as Amsden suggests?
He assumes that a break in style is a break in
psychology. But if style results from constant quests
for invention, such stylistic breaks are inevitable.
When a style has exhausted the possibilities inherent
in its principles, artists cast about for new, but not
necessarily alien, principles. Navajo weaving may
have reached this turning point prior to 1890.
Third, is there really a significant stylistic gap?
Two other styles lie between the banded styles and
the bordered style. They suggest that disintegration
of the bands may have altered visual and motor
habits and prepared the way for a border filled with
separate units. In the Chief White Antelope blanket,
dated prior to 1865, ten years before the first Anglo
trading post on the Navajo reservation, whole and
partial diamonds interrupt the flowing design and
become separate forms. Parts of diamonds arranged
vertically at each side may be seen to anticipate the
border.

3
21. The authors central thesis is that
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

the Navajo rejected the stylistic influences of

Anglo culture
Navajo weaving cannot be classified by
Amsdens categories
the Navajo changed their style of weaving
because they sought the challenge of new
artistic problems
original motor habits and thought processes
limit the extent to which a style can be revised
the causal factors leading to the emergence of
the bordered style are not as clear-cut as
Amsden suggests

22. It can be inferred from the passage that Amsden

views the use of strips of color (line 18) in the early
bordered style as
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

a sign of resistance to a change in style

an echo of the diamond style
a feature derived from Anglo culture
an attempt to disintegrate the rigid form of the
banded style
a means of differentiating the top of the
weaving from the bottom

23. The authors view of Navajo weaving suggests which

one of the following?
(A)
(B)

(C)
(D)
(E)

The appearance of the first trading post on the

Navajo reservation coincided with the
appearance of the diamond style.
Traces of thought processes and motor habits
of one culture can generally be found in the
art of another culture occupying the same
period and region.
The bordered style may have developed
gradually from the banded style as a result of
Navajo experiments with design.
The influence of Anglo culture was not the
only non-Native American influence on
Navajo weaving.
Horizontal and vertical rows of diamond
forms were transformed by the Navajos into
solid lines to create the bordered style.

24. According to the passage, Navajo weavings made

prior to 1890 typically were characterized by all of
the following EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

repetition of forms
overall patterns
horizontal bands
isolated figures
use of color

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

25. The author would most probably agree with which

one of the following conclusions about the stylistic
development of Navajo weaving?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(E)

27. The author most probably mentions the Chief White

Antelope blanket in order to
(A)

The styles of Navajo weaving changed in

response to changes in Navajo motor habits
and thought processes.
The zigzag style was the result of stylistic
influences from Anglo culture.
Navajo weaving used isolated figures in the
beginning, but combined naturalistic and
abstract designs in later styles.
Navajo weaving changed gradually from a style
in which the entire surface was covered by
horizontal bands to one in which central
figures dominated the surface.
The styles of Navajo weaving always contained
some type of isolated figure.

(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

conceived as a response to imagined

correspondences between Anglo and Navajo
art
biased by Amsdens feelings about Anglo
culture
a result of Amsdens failing to take into
account certain aspects of Navajo weaving
based on a limited number of specimens of the
styles of Navajo weaving
based on a confusion between the stylistic
features of the zigzag and diamond styles

establish the direct influence of Anglo culture

on the bordered style
cast doubts on the claim that the bordered
style arose primarily from Anglo influence
cite an example of a blanket with a central
design and no border
suggest that the Anglo influence produced
significant changes in the two earliest styles of
Navajo weaving
illustrate how the Navajo had exhausted the
stylistic possibilities of the diamond style

28. The passage is primarily concerned with

26. The author suggests that Amsdens claim that borders

in Navajo weaving were inspired by Anglo culture
could be
(A)

-21-

(E)

comparing and contrasting different styles

questioning a view of how a style came into
being
proposing alternate methods of investigating
the evolution of styles
discussing the influence of one culture on
another
analyzing the effect of the interaction between
two different cultures

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

-22-

SECTION IV
Time35 minutes
24 Questions
Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some
questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that
is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by
commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer,
blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
1. The translator of poetry must realize that
word-for-word equivalents do not exist across
languages, any more than piano sounds exist in the
violin. The violin can, however, play recognizably the
same music as the piano, but only if the violinist is
guided by the nature and possibilities of the violin as
well as by the original composition.
As applied to the act of translating poetry from one
language into another, the analogy above can best be
understood as saying that
(A)
(B)
(C)

(D)

(E)

poetry cannot be effectively translated

because, unlike music, it is composed of
words with specific meanings
some languages are inherently more musical
and more suitable to poetic composition than
others
the translator should be primarily concerned
with reproducing the rhythms and sound
patterns of the original, not with transcribing
its meaning exactly
the translator must observe the spirit of the
original and also the qualities of expression
that characterize the language into which the
original is translated
poetry is easier to translate if it focuses on
philosophical insights or natural descriptions
rather than on subjective impressions

2. Behind the hope that computers can replace teachers

is the idea that the students understanding of the
subject being taught consists in knowing facts and
rules, the job of a teacher being to make the facts and
rules explicit and convey them to the student, either
by practice drills or by coaching. If that were indeed
the way the mind works, the teacher could transfer
facts and rules to the computer, which would replace
the teacher as drillmaster and coach. But since
understanding does not consist merely of knowing
facts and rules, but of the grasp of the general
concepts underlying them, the hope that the
computer will eventually replace the teacher is
fundamentally misguided.
Which one of the following, if true, would most
seriously undermine the authors conclusion that
computers will not eventually be able to replace
teachers?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Computers are as good as teachers at drilling

students on facts and rules.
The job of a teacher is to make students
understand the general concepts underlying
specific facts and rules.
It is possible to program computers so that
they can teach the understanding of general
concepts that underlie specific facts and rules.
Because they are not subject to human error,
computers are better than teachers at
conveying facts and rules.
It is not possible for students to develop an
understanding of the concepts underlying
facts and rules through practice drills and
coaching.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

3. If the city council maintains spending at the same

level as this years, it can be expected to levy a sales
tax of 2 percent next year. Thus, if the council levies a
higher tax, it will be because the council is increasing
its expenditures.
Which one of the following exhibits a pattern of
reasoning most closely similar to that of the
argument above?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

If house-building costs are not now rising,

builders cannot be expected to increase the
prices of houses. Thus, if they decrease the
prices of houses, it will be because that action
will enable them to sell a greater number of
houses.
If shops wish to reduce shoplifting, they
should employ more store detectives. Thus, if
shops do not, they will suffer reduced profits
because of their losses from stolen goods.
If the companies in the state do not increase
their workers wages this year, the prices they
charge for their goods can be expected to be
much the same as they were last year. Thus, if
the companies do increase prices, it will be
because they have increased wages.
If airlines wish to make profits this year that
are similar to last years, they should not
increase their prices this year. Thus, if they
charge more, they should be expected to
improve their services.
If newspaper publishers wish to publish good
papers, they should employ good journalists.
Thus, if they employ poor journalists, it will
not be surprising if their circulation falls as a
result.

4. The mind and the immune system have been shown

to be intimately linked, and scientists are consistently
finding that doing good deeds benefits ones immune
system. The bone marrow and spleen, which produce
the white blood cells needed to fight infection, are
both connected by neural pathways to the brain.
Recent research has shown that the activity of these
white blood cells is stimulated by beneficial
chemicals produced by the brain as a result of
magnanimous behavior.
The statements above, if true, support the view that
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

good deeds must be based on unselfish

motives
lack of magnanimity is the cause of most
serious illnesses
magnanimous behavior can be regulated by
the presence or absence of certain chemicals
in the brain
magnanimity is beneficial to ones own interests
the number of white blood cells will increase
radically if behavior is consistently
magnanimous

-23-

5. The high cost of production is severely limiting

which operas are available to the public. These costs
necessitate reliance on large corporate sponsors, who
in return demand that only the most famous operas
be produced. Determining which operas will be
produced should rest only with ticket purchasers at
the box office, not with large corporate sponsors. If
we reduce production budgets so that operas can be
supported exclusively by box-office receipts and
donations from individuals, then the public will be
able to see less famous operas.
Which one of the following, if true, would weaken
the argument?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

A few opera ticket purchasers go to the opera

for the sake of going to the opera, not to see
specific operatic productions.
The reduction of opera production budgets
would not reduce the desire of large corporate
sponsors to support operas.
Without the support of large corporate
sponsors, opera companies could not afford to
produce any but the most famous of operas.
Large corporate sponsors will stop supporting
opera productions if they are denied control
over which operas will be produced.
The combination of individual donations and
box-office receipts cannot match the amounts
of money obtained through sponsorship by
large corporations.

6. When machines are invented and technologies are

developed, they alter the range of choices open to us.
The clock, for example, made possible the
synchronization of human affairs, which resulted in an
increase in productivity. At the same time that the
clock opened up some avenues, it closed others. It has
become harder and harder to live except by the clock,
so that now people have no choice in the matter at all.
Which one of the following propositions is best
illustrated by the example presented in the passage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

New machines and technologies can enslave as

well as liberate us.
People should make a concerted effort to free
themselves from the clock.
Some new machines and technologies bring no
improvement to our lives.
The increase in productivity was not worth
our dependence on the clock.
Most new machines and technologies make
our lives more synchronized and productive.

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-24-

7. To become an expert on a musical instrument, a

person must practice. If people practice a musical
instrument for three hours each day, they will
eventually become experts on that instrument.
Therefore, if a person is an expert on a musical
instrument, that person must have practiced for at
least three hours each day.
Which one of the following most accurately describes
a flaw in the reasoning above?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
(E)

The conclusion fails to take into account that

people who practice for three hours every day
might not yet have reached a degree of
proficiency that everyone would consider
expert.
The conclusion fails to take into account that
practicing for less than three hours each day
may be enough for some people to become
experts.
The conclusion fails to take into account that if
a person has not practiced for at least three
hours a day, the person has not become an
expert.
The conclusion fails to take into account that
three consecutive hours of daily practice is
not recommended by all music teachers.
The conclusion fails to take into account that
few people have the spare time necessary to
devote three hours daily to practice.

8. On the basis of incontestable proof that car safety seats

will greatly reduce the number of serious injuries
sustained by children in car accidents, laws have been
passed mandating the use of these seats. Unexpectedly,
it has since been found that a large number of children
who are riding in safety seats continue to receive
serious injuries that safety seats were specifically
designed to avoid, and in the prevention of which they
in fact have proven to be effective.
Which one of the following, if true, could by itself
adequately explain the unexpected finding reported
in the passage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Many parents are defying the law by not using

safety seats for their children.
Children are more likely to make automobile
trips now than they were before the
introduction of the safety seat.
The high cost of child safety seats has caused
many parents to delay purchasing them.
The car safety seat was not designed to prevent
all types of injuries, so it is not surprising that
some injuries are sustained.
The protection afforded by child safety seats
depends on their being used properly, which
many parents fail to do.

9. An easy willingness to tell funny stories or jokes about

oneself is the surest mark of supreme self-confidence.
This willingness, often not acquired until late in life, is
even more revealing than is good-natured acquiescence
in having others poke fun at one.
Which one of the following inferences is most
supported by the statements above?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

A person who lacks self-confidence will enjoy

neither telling nor hearing funny stories
about himself or herself.
People with high self-confidence do not tell
funny stories or jokes about others.
Highly self-confident people tell funny stories
and jokes in order to let their audience know
that they are self-confident.
Most people would rather tell a funny story or
a joke than listen to one being told.
Telling funny stories or jokes about people in
their presence is a way of expressing ones
respect for them.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Questions 1011
Nature constantly adjusts the atmospheric carbon
level. An increase in the level causes the atmosphere to
hold more heat, which causes more water to evaporate
from the oceans, which causes increased rain. Rain washes
some carbon from the air into the oceans, where it
eventually becomes part of the seabed. A decrease in
atmospheric carbon causes the atmosphere to hold less
heat, which causes decreased evaporation from the oceans,
which causes less rain, and thus less carbon is washed into
the oceans. Yet some environmentalists worry that burning
fossil fuels may raise atmospheric carbon to a dangerous
level. It is true that a sustained increase would threaten
human life. But the environmentalists should relax
nature will continually adjust the carbon level.
10. Each of the following can be inferred from the
information in the passage EXCEPT:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

A decrease in the level of atmospheric heat

causes a decrease in the amount of carbon
that rain washes into the oceans from the air.
An increase in the level of carbon in the
atmosphere causes increased evaporation of
ocean water.
An increase in the level of atmospheric heat
causes increased rainfall.
A decrease in the level of carbon in the
atmosphere causes decreased evaporation of
ocean water.
A decrease in the level of atmospheric heat
causes a decrease in the level of carbon in the
atmosphere.

11. Which one of the following, if true, would most

weaken the argument in the passage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Plant life cannot survive without atmospheric

carbon.
It is not clear that breathing excess carbon in
the atmosphere will have a negative effect on
human life.
Carbon is part of the chemical blanket that
keeps the Earth warm enough to sustain
human life.
Breathing by animals releases almost 30 times
as much carbon as does the burning of fossil
fuels.
The natural adjustment process, which occurs
over millions of years, allows wide fluctuations
in the carbon level in the short term.

-25-

12. The more television children watch, the less

competent they are in mathematical knowledge.
More than a third of children in the United States
watch television for more than five hours a day; in
South Korea the figure is only 7 percent. But whereas
less than 15 percent of children in the United States
understand advanced measurement and geometric
concepts, 40 percent of South Korean children are
competent in these areas. Therefore, if United States
children are to do well in mathematics, they must
watch less television.
Which one of the following is an assumption upon
which the argument depends?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Children in the United States are less interested

in advanced measurement and geometric
concepts than are South Korean children.
South Korean children are more disciplined
about doing schoolwork than are children in
the United States.
Children who want to do well in advanced
measurement and geometry will watch less
television.
A childs ability in advanced measurement and
geometry increases if he or she watches less
than one hour of television a day.
The instruction in advanced measurement and
geometric concepts available to children in
the United States is not substantially worse
than that available to South Korean children.

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-26-

Questions 1314
The only way that bookstores can profitably sell books
at below-market prices is to get the books at a discount from
publishers. Unless bookstores generate a high sales volume,
however, they cannot get discounts from publishers. To
generate such volume, bookstores must either cater to mass
tastes or have exclusive access to a large specialized market,
such as medical textbooks, or both.
13. Which one of the following can be properly inferred
from the passage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

If a bookstore receives discounts from

publishers, it will profitably sell books at
below-market prices.
A bookstore that caters to mass tastes or has
exclusive access to a large specialized market
will have a high sales volume.
A bookstore that profitably sells books at
below-market prices gets discounts from
publishers.
A bookstore that does not sell books at belowmarket prices does not get discounts from
publishers.
A bookstore that not only caters to mass tastes
but also has exclusive access to a large
specialized market cannot profitably sell
books at below-market prices.

15. Extinction is the way of nature. Scientists estimate that

over half of the species that have ever come into
existence on this planet were already extinct before
humans developed even the most primitive of tools.
This constant natural process of species emergence and
extinction, however, is ignored by those who wish to
trace the blame for more recent extinctions to
humanitys use of technology, with its consequent
effects on the environment. These people must be
made to understand that the species that have become
extinct in modern times would have become extinct by
now even if humans had never acquired technology.
Which one of the following identifies a reasoning
error in the passage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(E)
14. If all the statements in the passage are true and if it is
also true that a bookstore does not cater to mass
tastes, which one of the following CANNOT be true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(E)

The bookstore profitably sells some of its

books at below-market prices.
The bookstore does not profitably sell any of
its books at below-market prices.
Either the bookstore has exclusive access to a
large specialized market or else it does not get
a discount from any publishers.
The bookstore does not have exclusive access
to a large specialized market but profitably
sells some of its books at below-market
prices.
The bookstore does not have exclusive access
to a large specialized market, nor does it get a
discount from any publishers.

The author mistakenly assumes that technology

has not caused any harm to the environment.
The author ignores the fact that some species
that are not yet extinct are in danger of
extinction.
The author fails to consider that there are
probably species in existence that have not yet
been identified and studied by scientists.
The author cites scientists who support the
theory that over half of all species that ever
existed have become extinct, but fails to
mention any scientists who do not support
that theory.
The author provides no specific evidence that
the species that have become extinct in
modern times are the same species that would
have become extinct in the absence of human
technology.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

16. The public is aware of the possibility of biases in the

mass media and distrusts the media as too powerful.
The body of information against which the public
evaluates the plausibility of each new media report
comes, however, from what the public has heard of
through the mass media.
If the view above is correct, it provides a reason for
accepting which one of the following conclusions?
(A)
(B)
(C)

(D)

(E)

If there is a pervasive bias in the presentation

of news by the mass media, it would be hard
for the public to discern that bias.
The mass media tailor their reports to
conform to a specific political agenda.
The biases that news media impose on
reporting tend not to be conscious distortions
but rather part of a sense they share about
what is interesting and believable.
News reporters and their public hold largely
the same views about what is most important
in society, because news reporters come out of
that society.
When a news event occurs that contradicts a
stereotype formerly incorporated into
reporting by the mass media, the public is
predisposed to believe reports of the event.

The conclusion follows logically from the premises if

which one of the following is assumed?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

All projects in a bureaucracy require risk.

Decisive individuals choose not to work in a
bureaucracy.
An individual who has decision-making power
will take risks.
The only risky projects undertaken are those
for which a single individual has
decision-making power.
People sometimes take risks as individuals that
they would not take as part of a group.

-27-

18. Physicalists expect that ultimately all mental

functions will be explainable in neurobiological
terms. Achieving this goal requires knowledge of
neurons and their basic functions, a knowledge of
how neurons interact, and a delineation of the
psychological faculties to be explained. At present,
there is a substantial amount of fundamental
knowledge about the basic functions of neurons, and
the scope and character of such psychological
capacities as visual perception and memory are well
understood. Thus, as the physicalists claim, mental
functions are bound to receive explanations in
neurobiological terms in the near future.
Which one of the following indicates an error in the
reasoning in the passage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

17. In a bureaucracy, all decisions are arrived at by a

process that involves many people. There is no one
person who has the authority to decide whether a
project will proceed or not. As a consequence, in
bureaucracies, risky projects are never undertaken.

The conclusion contradicts the claim of the

physicalists.
The passage fails to describe exactly what is
currently known about the basic functions of
neurons.
The word neurobiological is used as though it
had the same meaning as the word mental.
The argument does not indicate whether it
would be useful to explain mental functions
in neurobiological terms.
The passage does not indicate that any
knowledge has been achieved about how
neurons interact.

19. Because a large disparity in pay between the public and

private sectors has developed in recent years, many
experienced and extremely capable government
administrators have quit their posts and taken
positions in private-sector management. Government
will be able to recapture these capable administrators
by raising salaries to a level comparable to those of the
private sector. In that way, the functioning of public
agencies will be improved.
The position taken above presupposes which one of
the following?
(A)
(B)
(C)

(D)
(E)

Experience gained from private-sector

management will be very valuable in
government administration.
The most important factor determining how
well government agencies function is the
amount of experience the administrators have.
Unless government action is taken, the
disparity in pay between government
administration and private-sector
management will continue to increase.
People who moved from jobs in government
administration to private-sector management
would choose to change careers again.
If the disparity in pay between government
administration and private-sector
management increases, administrators will
move to the public sector in large numbers.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

-28-

20. Politician: Homelessness is a serious social

problem, but further government spending to
provide low-income housing is not the cure for
homelessness. The most cursory glance at the
real-estate section of any major newspaper is
enough to show that there is no lack of
housing units available to rent. So the frequent
claim that people are homeless because of a
lack of available housing is wrong.
That homelessness is a serious social problem figures
in the argument in which one of the following ways?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

It suggests an alternative perspective to the one

adopted in the argument.
It sets out a problem the argument is designed
to resolve.
It is compatible either with accepting the
conclusion or with denying it.
It summarizes a position the argument as a
whole is directed toward discrediting.
It is required in order to establish the
conclusion.

21. Leona: If the average consumption of eggs in the

United States were cut in half, an estimated
5,000 lives might be saved each year.
Thomas: How can that be? That would mean that if
people adopt this single change in diet for ten
years, the population ten years from now will
be greater by 50,000 people than it otherwise
would have been.
Which one of the following is a statement that Leona
could offer Thomas to clarify her own claim and to
address the point he has made?
(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)
(E)

It is possible for the population to grow by

5,000 people for every year if the base year
chosen for purposes of comparison is one
with unusually low population growth.
It is accurate to say that 5,000 lives have been
saved as long as 5,000 people who would have
died in a given year as a result of not
changing their diet, did not do soeven if
they died for some other reason.
If egg consumption were reduced by more
than half, the estimated number of lives saved
each year could be even more than 5,000.
The actual rate of population growth depends
not only on the birth rate, but also on
changes in life expectancy.
For the average consumption of eggs to be cut
by half, many individual consumers would
have to cut their own consumption by much
more than half.

22. The United States Food and Drug Administration

(FDA) regulates the introduction of new therapeutic
agents into the marketplace. Consequently, it plays a
critical role in improving health care in the United
States. While it is those in the academic and
government research communities who engage in the
long process of initial discovery and clinical testing
of new therapeutic agents, it is the FDAs role and
responsibility to facilitate the transfer of new
discoveries from the laboratory to the marketplace.
Only after the transfer can important new therapies
help patients.
Which one of the following statements can be
inferred from the passage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

The FDA is responsible for ensuring that any

therapeutic agent that is marketed is then
regulated.
Before new therapeutic agents reach the
marketplace they do not help patients.
The research community is responsible for the
excessively long testing period for new drugs,
not the FDA.
The FDA should work more closely with
researchers to ensure that the quality of
therapeutic agents is maintained.
If a new medical discovery has been
transferred from the laboratory to the
marketplace, it will help patients.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

23. In a new police program, automobile owners in some

neighborhoods whose cars are not normally driven
between 1 A.M. and 5 A.M. can display a special decal
in the cars windows and authorize police to stop the
cars during those hours to check the drivers licenses.
The theft rate for cars bearing such decals is much
lower than had been usual for cars in those
neighborhoods.

(B)
(C)
(D)

(E)

Which one of the following judgments most closely

conforms to the principle cited above?
(A)

Are owners who are cautious enough to join

the program taking other special measures to
protect their cars against theft?
In how many neighborhoods is the police
program operating?
Are cars in neighborhoods that are actively
participating in the program sometimes
stolen during daylight hours?
Will owners who have placed decals on their
cars windows but who find it necessary to
drive between 1 A.M. and 5 A.M. be harassed
by police?
Are the neighborhoods in which the program
has been put into effect a representative cross
section of neighborhoods with respect to the
types of automobiles owned by residents?

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

-29-

24. It has been claimed that an action is morally good

only if it benefits another person and was performed
with that intention; whereas an action that harms
another person is morally bad either if such harm
was intended or if reasonable forethought would
have shown that the action was likely to cause harm.

If it is concluded from the statements above that

automobile theft has been reduced by the program,
which one of the following would it be most
important to answer in evaluating that conclusion?
(A)

Pamela wrote a letter attempting to cause

trouble between Edward and his friend; this
action of Pamelas was morally bad, even
though the letter, in fact, had an effect directly
opposite from the one intended.
In order to secure a promotion, Jeffrey devoted
his own time to resolving a backlog of
medical benefits claims; Jeffreys action was
morally good since it alone enabled Saras
claim to be processed in time for her to
receive much-needed treatment.
Intending to help her elderly neighbor by
clearing his walkway after a snowstorm,
Teresa inadvertently left ice on his steps;
because of this exposed ice, her neighbor had
a bad fall, thus showing that morally good
actions can have bad consequences.
Marilees, asked by a homeless man for food,
gave the man her own sandwich; however,
because the man tried to talk while he was
eating the sandwich, it caused him to choke,
and thus Marilees unintentionally performed
a morally bad action.
Jonathan agreed to watch his three-year-old
niece while she played but, becoming
engrossed in conversation, did not see her run
into the street where she was hit by a bicycle;
even though he intended no harm, Jonathans
action was morally bad.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet:
From Economic Goals and Remedies of the AT&T Modified Final Judgment by Warren G. Lavey and Dennis W. Carlton. The
Goergetown Law Journal, Volume 71, Notes, 1983. 1983 by the Georgetown Law Journal Association. Used by permission.

-31-

SIGNATURE

/
DATE

LSAT WRITING SAMPLE TOPIC

Springfield, faced with a 15 percent decrease in the city budget, must cut services in one area. Write an argument in favor of making the cuts
in one or the other of the following two areas, keeping in mind two guidelines:
Springfield wants the cuts to defer spending in a way that will have minimal impact on the quality of services delivered.
Springfield wants to avoid any negative publicity that could undermine the city governments reputation for effective management.
One way to cope with the budget cuts is to deny funding for the proposed plan to improve Springfields emergency services. This plan was
created after an article in the local newspaper documented problems caused by outdated equipment and one instance in which slow ambulance
response may have been responsible for a persons death. A new director with a record of successfully improving services in another town was
brought in to take over the emergency services. She designed a plan that calls for hiring three paramedics specially trained with the most
advanced equipment. The centerpiece of the plan is the purchase of a computerized dispatching system to improve response time, and a package
to train existing staff to use the system.
The alternative is to make cuts in the educational budget. One cut would deny teachers their requested salary increases for the coming year. In
recent years, Springfield teacher salaries and benefits have risen to compare with the best in the region. The teachers union has publicly stated
that these gains are responsible for the dramatic improvements in student scores on national achievement tests during the last three years. A
second cut in the education budget would put off construction of an addition to the high school, at a time when serious overcrowding has already
forced the placement of four mobile classroom units behind the existing building. Officials predict that two additional units per year will be needed
until the addition is built.

-32-

DIRECTIONS:

CONVERSION CHART

1. Use the Answer Key on the next page to check your

answers.
2. Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute your
Raw Score.
3. Use the Score Conversion Chart to convert your
Raw Score into the 120-180 scale.

SCORING WORKSHEET
1. Enter the number of questions you answered
correctly in each section
NUMBER
CORRECT

SECTION I. . . . . . . . . . .
SECTION II . . . . . . . . . .
SECTION III . . . . . . . . .
SECTION IV . . . . . . . . .
2. Enter the sum here:

THIS IS YOUR
RAW SCORE.

For Converting Raw Score to the 120-180 LSAT Scaled Score

LSAT Prep Test III
REPORTED
SCORE
180
179
178
177
176
175
174
173
172
171
170
169
168
167
166
165
164
163
162
161
160
159
158
157
156
155
154
153
152
151
150
149
148
147
146
145
144
143
142
141
140
139
138
137
136
135
134
133
132
131
130
129
128
127
126
125
124
123
122
121
120

LOWEST
RAW SCORE
100
99
98
97
96
95
__*
94
93
91
90
89
88
86
85
83
82
80
78
76
75
73
71
69
67
65
63
61
60
58
56
54
52
50
48
47
45
43
41
40
38
36
35
33
32
30
29
28
26
25
24
23
22
21
20
19
18
17
16
__*
0

HIGHEST
RAW SCORE
101
99
98
97
96
95
__*
94
93
92
90
89
88
87
85
84
82
81
79
77
75
74
72
70
68
66
64
62
60
59
57
55
53
51
49
47
46
44
42
40
39
37
35
34
32
31
29
28
27
25
24
23
22
21
20
19
18
17
16
__*
15

*There is no raw score that will produce this scaled score for this test.

-33-

SECTION I
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.

D
B
A
E
C
A
D

8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.

C
A
C
A
A
D
A

15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.

D
D
E
D
A
B
C

22.
23.
24.

D
B
C

D
C
C
C
B
C
B

22.
23.
24.
25.

A
C
A
E

D
E
E
D
B
A
E

22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.

A
C
D
D
C
B
B

E
A
D
E
D
C
B

22.
23.
24.

B
A
E

SECTION II
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.

C
E
D
B
E
C
A

8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.

B
D
E
D
D
A
B

15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
SECTION III

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.

E
D
A
C
D
C
C

8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.

C
E
C
D
A
D
A

15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
SECTION IV

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.

D
C
C
D
C
A
B

8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.

E
A
E
E
E
C
D

15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.

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