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Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

4. 3. Theoretical Test
General remarks:
This test consists of two parts, A and B. In part A there are 103 multiple
choice questions, each having only one correct answer. In part B there are
46 questions, each of which may have more than one answer.
In order to eliminate the consequence of guessing in the marking of Type
A questions, one point will be deducted for every 5 incorrect answers.
Failing to answer a question will not result in any penalty.
In the marking of Type B questions a percentage of the total mark for that
question will be deducted for each incorrect answer. The minimum mark
for each question with deductions will be zero.
For the multiple choice questions (type A) mark the correct answer with a
cross X in the blank space provided. If you want to change your answer
with a new one in order to cancel it, you may draw a parallel line on your
old mark.

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4.3.1. Theoretical Test - Part A

CELL BIOLOGY
1. In which way are the proteins transported from the site of
synthesis to the cell membrane for secretion?
___A) By cytoplasmic movement
___B) By some signal proteins in the cytosol
___C) By protein-carbohydrate complex carrying signals in the cytosol
___D) By cytoskeleton elements
___E) By vesicles
2. What is the major difference between a vacuole and a vesicle?
___A) The membrane is thick in the vacuole but thin in the vesicle
___B) The vesicle is pinched off only from the cell membrane; the
vacuole is pinched off from the Golgi apparatus
___C) The vacuole membrane is carbohydrate rich; the vesicle membrane
is protein rich
___D) The vacuole is near the nucleus; the vesicle is near the Golgi
apparatus
___E) The vacuole has a comparatively slow movement; the vesicle
moves rapidly
3. Which of the following is not a function of the Golgi apparatus?
___A) Addition of sugars to proteins
___B) Storage of lipids
___C) Package of secretion products
___D) Formation of glycolipids
___E) Synthesis of polysaccharides from simple sugars

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4. Which of the following functions are carried out in the smooth

endoplasmic reticulum?
I)
Addition of carbohydrates to proteins
II)
Synthesis of membrane phospholipids
III) Addition of carbohydrates to lipids
IV) Synthesis of cholesterol
V)
Detoxification of drugs
___A) I, II, IV
___B) II, III, IV
___C) II, IV, V
___D) I, IV, V
___E) I, II, V
5. Deleted
6. Fibroblasts are cells which synthesize proteins of the extracellular
matrix of the connective tissue (collagen fibers), glycoproteins
(fibronectin) and proteoglycans (dermatan sulphate). According to
these features which organelle/organelles has/have the greater
function in these cells?
___A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic reticulum
___B) Golgi apparatus
___C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum and free ribosomes
___D) Golgi and rough endoplasmic reticulum
___E) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

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7. Four structures (I-IV) and some related functional and structural

features (1-7) are given below.
I. Cilia
II.

Basal bodies

III. Centrosome
IV. Flagellum
1- There is a 9+2 arrangement in a ring around a pair of single
microtubules
2- Most of these structures are longer than the cell
3- It is shorter than the cell
4- There are nine groups of three microtubules, fused into triplets
with an empty core
5- These are the main structures for movement
6- They function in the synthesis of spindle fibers
7- They bind cilia and flagella to the cell membrane
Which of the combinations below for structure and function are
correct?
___A) I: 1, 3, 5

II: 3, 4, 5

III: 3, 4, 6

IV: 1, 2, 3

___B) I:1, 4, 5

II: 1, 2, 7

III: 2, 3, 4

IV: 1, 3, 5

___C) I:1, 4, 7

II: 3, 4, 5

III: 2, 3, 6

IV: 2, 3, 4

___D) I:3, 4, 6

II: 2, 4, 7

III: 3, 4, 5

IV: 4, 5, 6

___E) I:2, 4, 6

II: 2, 4, 7

III: 3, 4, 5

IV: 2, 4, 5

8. Which of the following contains a polar head and a non-polar tail

in cell?
___A) Triglycerides

___B) Neutral lipids

___D) Phospholipids

___E) All the above

___C) Wax

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9. Which of the following are the fibers that attach to the the
cytoplasmic face of spot desmosomes?
___A) Collagen fibers
___B) Cytoskeleton fibers
___C) Elastic fibers
___D) Tubulin protein fibers
___E) Reticular fibers
10. Which of the following is the correct description of a microsome?
___A) It consists of vesicles detached from the Golgi apparatus
___B) It consists of vesicles containing waste products digested by the
lysosomes
___C) It consists of various amounts of ribosomes and fragmented
endoplasmic reticulum
___D) It is a vacuole that contains secretions
___E) It is a ribosome dimer
11. In aerobic respiration glucose is converted to pyruvate in the
___A) Inner mitochondrial membrane

___B) Cytoplasm

___C) Outer mitochondrial membrane

___D) Mitochondrial matrix

___E) Mitochondrial membrane interspace (intermembrane space)

12. Which of the following is the correct description for a porin?
___A) It is a protein in the structure of microtubules
___B) It is a protein located on the outer mitochondrial membrane
___C) It is a protein of the nuclear pores
___D) It is a lipid that functions in the addition of carbohydrates to
proteins
___E) It is a protein that forms the cytoskeleton

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13. How are the peroxisomes formed in a cell?

___A) Only by fission
___B) Only by detachment from a big peroxisome
___C) Both by fission and self-replication of a preexisting peroxisome
___D) Only by budding from plasma membrane
___E) Only by self-replication
14. In living cells there are
1. Ribosomes

5. Introns

2. ATP synthesis

6. DNA polymerase

3. Cell membrane

7. Photosynthesis

4. Nuclear envelope

8. Mitochondria

Which of them can exist both in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

___A) 1, 2, 3, 6, 7

___B) 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8

___D) 1, 3, 5, 6

___E) 2, 3, 7, 8

___C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 7

15. Specific inhibitor X" of F0F1ATPase is added to a rat liver cell

carrying out the oxidation of glucose under aerobic conditions.
Which of the following would not occur as a result of this
inhibition?
___A) Mitochondrial ATP formation will stop
___B) The citric acid cycle will slow down because of insufficient NAD +
regeneration
___C) The rate of glucose consumption will decrease
___D) Glycolysis will be accelerated
___E) Oxygen consumption will be halted

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16. Agarose gel electrophoresis was applied to the DNA samples given
below. What will be the order of migration from the well, at the
completion of the electrophoresis?
I- F+ bacterial plasmid
II- F ' bacterial plasmid
III- Hfr E. coli chromosomal DNA
IV- E. coli chromosomal DNA
___A) I, II, III, IV
___B) II, III, I, IV
___D) III, IV, II, I

___C) IV, III, II, I

___E) IV, I, III, II

17. If you observe two DNA samples X and Y (each containing 1200
base pairs) migrating at different rates in an agarose gel, what
would your interpretation be ?
___A) The amount of adenines in sample X is greater
___B) The amount of guanines in sample Y is greater
___C) The percentage of agarose in the gel is greater than 0.8 %
___D) There are intercalating agents in the agarose gel
___E) Samples X and Y have different conformations
18. The enzyme phosphofructokinase;
I- It is the major regulatory enzyme in glycolysis
II- ATP is the substrate for the enzyme
III- ATP is the negative modulator of the enzyme
IV- Citrate activates the enzyme
Which of the following is the correct answer for the above statements
concerning the enzyme phosphofructokinase?
___A) Only IV is correct

___B) Only I and III are correct

___C) Only I, II and III are correct

___D) Only II and IV are correct

___E) I, II, III and IV are correct

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19. If oligomycin and 2,4-dinitrophenol are both added;to a

suspension of mitochondria containing substrates, P i (inorganic
phosphate), Mg++ and ADP;
___A) Both O2 consumption and ADP phosphorylation will cease
___B) The rate of O2 consumption will increase but ADP phosphorylation
will cease
___C) Phosphorylation/O2 consumption ratio will remain the same
___D) Phosphorylation/O2 consumption ratio will increase
___E) O2 consumption will decrease but ADP phosphorylation will
continue
20. In anaerobic glycolysis 2 moles of inorganic phosphate (P i) are
used for one mole of glucose consumed. Which of the following
enzymes catalyzes the reaction in which Pi is directly consumed?
___A) Hexokinase
___B) Phosphofructokinase
___C) Pyruvate kinase
___D) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
___E) Enolase
21. Which of the following cannot use ketone bodies for the
generation of energy?
___A) The brain (in fasting)
___B) The heart muscle
___C) Erythrocytes
___D) The kidney cortex
___E) The skeletal muscle

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22. Inside the choloplast the potential uses for the G3P
(glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate) produced in the Calvin cycle
include the synthesis of:
___A) Fatty acids
___B) Glycerol
___C) Glucose
___D) Amino acids
___E) All of the above
23. The following statements are about the effect of a competitive
inhibitor in a reaction catalyzed by an enzyme.
I- V max is unchanged
II-

The inhibition can be reversed by increasing the

concentration of the substrate

III- Km increases
IV- The inhibitor binds to the enzyme at a different site than the
active site
Which combination of statement(s) is/are true?
___A) I, II and III

___B) Only I and III

___D) Only IV

___E) I, II, III and IV

___C) Only II and IV

24. Which of the following bonds is not present in the structure of

DNA?
___A) 3-5 phosphodiester bond
___B) N-glycosidic bond
___C) H-bonds
___D) Hydrophobic interactions
___E) Disulphide bonds

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25. Consider these two relationships and the four statements about
the aminoacids/proteins and fatty acids/triglycerides
Left

Right

Left

Right

Amino acids:

Proteins

Fatty acids:

Triglycerides

I.

Both molecules on the right consist only of repeated units of

the molecules on the left

II.

In the process of synthesis of both molecules on the right, at

least some electrical charges are neutralized

III. In both relationships, the diversity in the molecules on the

left result in the diversity in the molecules on the right
IV. In the synthesis of both molecules on the right, water is
released
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
___A) I, II, III, and IV

___B) II, III and IV

___D) Only III

___E) Only IV

___C) III and IV

26. Five different cell cultures were treated with different

radioactively labelled compounds as follows:
Compound
Cell Culture
Lactose
Cell culture a
Valine
Cell culture b
Thymidine triphosphate
Cell culture c
Glutamic acid
Cell culture d
Alanine
Cell culture e
After an hour the cells were washed, fixed and autoradiographed. In
order to study nuclear activities in vivo which of the cell cultures is
the best?
___A) Cell culture a
___D) Cell culture d

___B) Cell culture b

___E) Cell culture e

___C) Cell culture c

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27. Which of the molecules is responsible for the autocatalytic

excision of introns and splicing of exons in eukaryotic cells?
___A) RNA polymerase
___B) Ribonuclease
___C) Ribozyme
___D) Reverse transcriptase
___E) Endonuclease
28. The interaction between the anticodon of a tRNA molecule and
the complementary codon of mRNA is achieved by:
___A) The catalysis by peptidyl transferase
___B) ATP energy
___C) The catalysis by amino-acyl-tRNA synthetase
___D) The covalent bonds formed with energy from GTP
___E) H-bonds
29. The lac (lactose) operon is an example of:
___A) Translational control
___B) Posttranslational control
___C) Replication control
___D) Transcriptional control
___E) All of the above

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30. The breakdown of glucose in the cell is controlled by the

activation or inactivation of enzymes present in the specific
stages of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. There are three key
enzymes like this. The conditions that activate or inactivate these
enzymes are given in the table below. Which combination is
correct for the activation of all the three enzymes?
ENZYMES
Phosphofructokinase

___A) High level of ADP+

AMP

Citrate synthase

Isocitrate
dehydrogenase

Low level of
ATP+NADH

Low level of
ATP+NADH

___B)

High level of ATP

High level of
ATP+NADH

Low level of
ATP+NADH

___C)

Low level of ATP

High level of
ATP+NADH

Low level of
ATP+NADH

___D) High level of ADP

High level of
ATP+NADH

High level of
eitherADP or NAD+

Low level of either

ATP or NADH

High level of either

ATP or NAD+

andAMP

___E)

High level of ATP

31. Which of the following statements is false about prokaryotic RNA

polymerase?
___A) The synthesis is in the 5-3 direction
___B) There is only one RNA polymerase enzyme responsible for the
synthesis of rRNA, m-RNA and t-RNA
___C) Its RNA product will hybridize with the DNA template
___D) The transcription starts from the AUG codon in the DNA
___E) The enzyme synthesizes a single transcript that codes for several
polypeptide chains

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32. Which of the following statement about the regulator gene in

bacterial operon model is true?
___A) It codes for repressor protein
___B) It codes for inducer molecules
___C) It is the binding site of RNA polymerase
___D) It is the binding site of inducer molecules
___E) Provides the transcription or inhibition of transcription of the
structural genes
33. Which of the following statements is false regarding to the
procaryotic mRNA?
___A) It is polycistronic
___B) It does not involve introns
___C) It binds to ribosome from the 5end.
___D) It is synthesized in the nucleus
___E) It can form a single transcript that codes for several polypeptides.
34. Which of the following statements is a false description for a
codon?
___A) It consists of three nucleotides
___B) It is the basic unit of the genetic code
___C) There may be more than one codon for the same amino acid
___D) It is located on the t-RNA
___E) It can never code more than one amino acid

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GENETICS AND EVOLUTION

35. A cross was made between two albinos and phenotypically
identical F1 generation was obtained. When F1 was self-crossed,
F2 was observed as 9 normal and 7 albinos. Which of the
following combinations suits this kind of inheritance?
Parents

O f f s p r i n g s(F2)

___A)

AAbb X aaBB 9A-B-

3aaB-

3A-bb

1aabb

___B)

aabb X AAbb

9A-B-

3aaBb

3Aabb

1aabb

___C)

AaBb X AaBb 9A-B-

3aaBb

3Aabb

1aabb

___D)

aaBb X Aabb

9A-B-

3aaB-

3A-bb

1aabb

___E)

AABB X aabb 9A-B-

3aaB-

3Aabb

1aabb

36. In an experimental population, the frequency of the O blood type

is 25%, A is 24%, B is 39% and AB is 12%. Which of the
following is the frequency of the alleles which are responsible for
the blood types A, B and O?
A

___A)

0.3

0.2

0.5

___B)

0.2

0.5

0.3

___C)

0.2

0.3

0.5

___D)

0.5

0.2

0.3

___E)

0.3

0.5

0.2

37. Deleted

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Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

38. Incomplete penetrance, sex-limited traits, sex-influenced traits,

age-influenced traits and temperature-influenced traits are all
examples of
___A) Linkage

___B) Conditional gene expression

___C) Epistasis

___D) Multiple alleles

___E) Partial dominance

39. Deleted
40. The fruit weights of a squash plant vary between 2 and 4 kg. The
fruit weights are a product of pairs of additive polygenic genes.
Which of the following is true for the F2 generation that resulted
from a 2 kg squash being pollinated with a 4 kg one in terms of
the number of individuals of any weight classes and also
regarding the genotypes of the pollinated 2 kg and 4 kg squashes.
4 kg

3.5 kg

3 kg

2.5 kg

2 kg

2 kg
parent

4 kg
parent

___A)

aabb

AABB

___B)

AaBb

aaBB

___C)

AAbb

aaBB

___D)

AABb

AABB

___E)

aabb

AABB

41. Which of the following is not a reason why recessive alleles are
not observed in the phenotypes of heterozygotes?
___A) The recessive allele codes for a nonfunctioning protein
___B) The recessive allele is linked to the dominant allele
___C) The dominant allele produces so much product as to swamp the
product of the recessive allele
___D) The recessive allele is normal, but the product of the dominant
allele inhibits the function of the recessive allele
___E) The alleles product (e.g.an enzyme) is much less functional and
therefore masked by the dominant alleles product

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42.

3
Healthy : Empty

Sick : Dark colored

Carrier : Spotted

On the pedigree (family tree) given above which of the following

would be the genotype of the individuals written as 1, 2 and 3?
1

AA

XX

XY

XY

___B)

Aa

Aa

aa

___C)

aa

XX

XY

XY

___D)

aa

Aa

aa

___E)

Aa

AA

aa

___A)

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43. An individual of the genotype AaBbCcDd was crossed with the

one aabbccdd and the following results were obtained.
aBCD

42

Abcd

43

ABCd

140

abcD

145

aBcD

AbCd

ABcd

305

abCD

310

Which of the following shows the arrangement of the genes and their
distance (in centimorgans)?

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44. Genetic variations are important for populations

___A) So that males and females of parthenogenetic species might be
distinguished
___B) So that evolution is directed
___C) Because they provide the raw material on which selection acts
___D) So that organisms might be classified
___E) To make them more interesting to study
45. When a dominant allele (A) is alone, it causes a brown fur color
but when it is with another allel which has an epistatic effect, the
fur color is white.
According to this, which of the following shows the true genotypes of
the individuals in the family tree given above?
1

Brown

White

Brown

White

White

___A)

Aabb

AaBb

Aabb

AaBb

aabb

___B)

AaBb

aabb

AaBb

aaBb

aabb

___C)

AaBb

aaBb

AaBb

Aabb

Aabb

___D)

AaBb

aabb

AaBb

aaBb

aabb

___E)

aaBb

AaBb

Aabb

aaBb

aabb

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46. Deleted
47.
Phenotypes of the individuals
Genotypes

Female

Male

AA

Aa

aa

An inheritance scheme of any character is given above. Which of

the following is true for the inheritance type of this character?
___A) This character is sex linked
___B) This character is sex limited
___C) This character is sex influenced
___D) Incomplete penetrance is seen in the inheritance of this character
___E) Codominance is seen in the inheritance of this character

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48. In cattle, the polled (hornless) condition is dominant to the horned

condition. Coat colour can be red, white or roan (red with white
patches). Both genes are carried on autosomes and they are not
linked. A cross was carried out between a cow and a bull, both of
which had the roan coat colour and both were heterozygous for
the polled condition. Which of the following statements are true
about the offspring from the cross, assuming that the cross was
carried out several times to produce a lot of offspring?
1. The chance of producing white polled and white horned
offspring is the same.
2. The chance of producing roan polled offspring is three times
that of producing roan horned.
3. There is an equal chance of producing red polled and white
polled offspring.
4. Statistically there should be more roan horned offspring than
any other type.
5. The chance of producing roan polled offspring is twice that of
producing white polled.
___A) 1 & 2
___B) 2 & 3
___C) 3 & 4
___D) 1, 2 & 3
___E) 2, 3 & 5

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Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

49. In guinea-pigs, there are several alleles involved in determining

the animal's coat color. Cb - black; Cc - creamy; Cs - silver and
Cz - albino. Analyze the results of the following crosses and
determine the most suitable order of alleles referring to
dominance-recessiveness relationships of these alleles.

Crosses

Phenotype of
parents
Black

Silver

Creamy

Albino

black x black

22

black x albino

10

creamy x creamy

30

11

silver x creamy

23

11

12

___A) Cb > Cc > Cs > Cz

___B) Cb > Cs > Cc > Cz
___C) Cc > Cz > Cb > Cs
___D) Cb > Cz > Cs > Cc
___E) Cb > Cc > Cz > Cs
50. Deleted

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51. Which of the following is not a proof that eukaryotic cells evolved
by endosymbiosis?
___A) Similarity between spirochetes and flagellum
___B) Similarity between mitochondrial DNA and procaryotic DNA
___C) Similarity between bacterial and chloroplastic ribosomes
___D) Similarity between chloroplast and cyanobacteria
___E) Similarity of the inhibition of the protein synthesis between the
eucaryotic cells and the mitochondria
52. Which of the following has the best evolutionary adaptation
capacity?
___A) Primitive, heterogenous heredity material, high number of
generation, short life span
___B) Highly specific, homogenous heredity material , high number of
generation, long life span
___C) Highly specific feeding regime, living underground, asexual
reproduction
___D) Living on high mountains, nocturnal, feeding on the most common
plants
___E) Highly tolerant to hereditary changes, low offspring success,
specific feeding regime
53. Which of the following is not a biological characteristic of desert
organisms?
___A) No regular reproductive cycle
___B) Seeds germinate immediately after flowering and fruiting
___C) Fewer stoma (in plant)
___D) Specialized kidney capable of reabsorbing water (in animal)
___E) More succulent plants

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54. Deleted
55. Biologists assume that the first heredity material to appear was
RNA. Which of the following may be the main reason for that?
___A) RNA was produced in Millers experiment
___B) RNA is structurally more primitive than DNA
___C) The RNA called ribozyme catalyses some chemical reactions
___D) DNA can not stay stable in hydrophobic medium
___E) RNA appears in all animals
56. Which of the following is not evidence that higher plants are
derived from green algae?
___A) Some green algae have multicellular sporophyte and gametophyte
phases
___B) Both plants and algae have cellulose in their cell walls
___C) Both plants and algae have similar photosynthetic and accessory
pigments
___D) Both plants and algae synthesize starch as a main store product
___E) Green algae and higher plants have the same amount of DNA per
cell
57. The statements below are about various pollination strategies in
plants. Which one could be the most disadvantageous for
evolutionof new species?
___A) The stigma can recognize the origin of pollen grains, and does not
accept those from the same flower
___B) The stigma never emerges from the corolla, and only accepts
pollen grains from the same flower
___C) The corolla forms a long tube, only allowing some specialized
pollinators which carry pollen grains from the same species to
enter
___D) The stamens and pistil mature at different times
___E) The stamens and pistil are located in different flowers

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58. Which of the following triplets is false for the hearing organ?
Structure

Animal

Function

___A)

Columella

Lizard

Transports the sound from the

membrane to the cochlea

___B)

Weber bones

Fish

Transports the sound created by

the vibration of the swim bladder
to the brain

___C)

Tarsal bones

Salamander Transports the vibrations from

the soil to the inner ear

___D)

Some cranial

Whale

___E)

Utricle (saccule) Mole

Transports the sound from water

to the (otic) bones inner ear
Transports the vibrations from
the soil to the inner ear

59. Deleted

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Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

PLANT ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

60. Which of the following can not be stated relating to cyclic
photophosphorylation?
Note: NADPred = NADPH; NADPox = NADP+
___A) It is favored when the cell is more in need of ATP than NADP red
___B) It is favored when NADPox is in short supply
___C) An energized electron is first accepted by ferredoxin
___D) Plastocyanin is the last acceptor of an energized electron before it
reaches the center
___E) In the system, cytochrome f connects ferredoxin to plastoquinone
61. Deleted
62.
I. It is required for activity of some dehydrogenases,
decarboxylases, kinases, oxidases and peroxidases
II.

Under its deficiency, plant tissues become soft and often

flaccid even under low temperature and stress conditions

III. It is required for the photosynthetic reactions involved in the

02 cycle
Which of the following gives the best match of minerals to
thestatements above?
I

II

III

___A) N

Ca

Mg

___B)

Mn

Mg

___C)

Mn

___D) Mn

Ca

Cl

___E)

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63. When the temperature is high and the amount of dissolved oxygen
is higher than that of CO2 in the chloroplasts, in which of the
following plants does growth not slow down?
___A) Wheat
___B) Watermelon
___C) Sunflower
___D) Sugar cane
___E) Rice
64. Deleted
65. Deleted
66. Deleted
67. Deleted
68. Which of the following cannot be referred to as blue-light
responses in higher plants and fungi?
___A) Phototropism in Phycomyces
___B) Carotenoid biosynthesis in Neurospora
___C) Stomatal opening in higher plants
___D) Chloroplast rearrangements
___E) Flavenoid synthesis

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Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

69. Shootytumors are produced in the stem of an X plant

infected by bacteria in which mutations occur in their T-DNA,
while rooty tumors are formed in the stem of a Y plant.
Which of the following is true for the effects mentioned above.
___A) In the X plant, the genes which are responsible for giberellin
(giberellic acid( synthesis are inactivated while in the Y plant,
genes which are responsible for abscisic acid synthesis are
inactivated.
___B) In the X plant, the genes which are responsible for Indol aceticacid synthesis are inactivated while in the Y plant, genes which
are responsible for zeatin synthesis are inactivated.
___C) In the X plant, the genes which are responsible for zeatin
synthesis are inactivated while in the Y plant, genes which are
responsible for ethylene synthesis are inactivated.
___D) In the X plant, the genes which are responsible for abscisic acid
synthesis are inactivated while in the Y plant, genes which are
responsible ethylene synthesis are inactivated.
___E) In the X plant, the genes which are responsible for cytokinins
synthesis are inactivated while in the Y plant, genes which are
responsible for ethylene synthesis are inactivated.

196

Report of the 11th IBO in Antalya

70. In the figure, changes in water potential in the leaves of a plant

over a period of time are shown. Which of the following is true
according to this situation?
Leaf water
potential (mPa)

0
-0.8

-1.6

4
6
Time (Days)

10

___A) The ABA (Abscissic acid) content decreased, and stomata

resistance increased between the 2nd and 6th days; the process was
reversed between the 6th and 8th days
___B) The ABA content did not change and stomata resistance decreased
between the 2nd and 6th days; the process was reversed between
the 6th and 8th days
___C) The ABA content increased and stomata resistance decreased
between the 2nd and 6th days; the process was reversed between
the 6th and 8th days
___D) The ABA content and stomata resistance increased between the
2nd and 6th days; the process was reversed between the 6 th and 8th
days.
___E) The ABA content decreased and stomata conductance increased
between the 2nd and 6th days; the process was reversed between
the 6th and 8th days.

197

Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

71. Which of the following are limiting or near-limiting nutrients

both in aquatic and terrestrial systems?
___A) Nitrogen-potassium

___B) Potassium-magnesium

___C) Phosphorus-nitrogen

___D) Calcium-magnesium

___E) Iodine-magnesium
72. Which of the following is not true for the auxin transport in
plants?
___A) IAA transport usually does not take place in sieve tubes and xylem
___B) IAA transport usually occurs in parenchymatic cells adjacent to
vascular bundles
___C) Auxin moves rather slowly within the plant
___D) IAA moves mainly from the apex to the base (basipetal direction)
___E) Auxin transport does not require energy
73. Light is perceived by all living organisms in one way or the other.
The pigment which is chosen for this process of photoperception
are carotenoids. Which of the following properties make
carotenoids the right pigment for this function.
___A) Their ability to absorb most of the visible and ultraviolet light
___B) Their high capacity to store and transfer light energy as chemical
energy
___C) As saturated organic compounds, their capability to preserve
themselves against environmental factors such as high energy
currents
___D) Their high affinity for proteins which have a role in perception
___E) The efficiency of long structures of alternating double bonds in
their structure to initiate light sensitive stereoisomerism

198

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74. The changes that take place in climacteric fruits when they ripen
(colour, texture and chemical composition) are mainly due to:
___A) The CO2 content in the atmosphere
___B) The temperature variation
___C) The ethylene synthesis in the fruit
___D) The auxin concentration in the fruit
___E) Giberellin concentration in fruit
75. Deleted
76. The data were obtained relating to the rates of oxygen release and
uptake in plants. The plants were placed in the dark for 12 hours
followed by 12 hours in light. The temperature was constant
throughout the experiment. The results are shown in the graph.

Which of the following is the most accurate estimate of the total

volume of oxygen used by the plants for respiration during 24 hours
of the experimental time?
___A) 50 cm3

___B) 600 cm3

___D) 1200 cm3

___E) 1800 cm3

___C) 1000 cm3

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Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

77. In which aspect does C4 photosynthesis differ from Crassulacean

acid metabolism (CAM)?
___A) PEP carboxylase is only used in C4 photosynthesis
___B) CO2 fixation in CAM plants occurs at night while it occurs in C4
plants during the day time
___C) Organic acids with four carbons are only produced in C4
photosynthesis
___D) Only plants with crassulacean acid metabolism can carry out
photosynthesis in arid environments
___E) Only plants with C4 photosynthesis can economize water
78. Which of the following cannot be stated with relation to the shoot
apex?
___A) There is only one apical cell in vascular non-flowering plants
___B) There is more than one apical cell in each cell layer in
gymnosperms
___C) There are different apical cells in more than one tissue layer in
angiosperms
___D) An apical cell is pyramidal shaped in non-flowering plants
___E) A shoot apex with a distinct tunica and corpus is found in
gymnosperms
79. Which of the following cannot be stated for the collenchyma?
___A) It is a living tissue found in developing organs
___B) It is formed in the roots only under the effect of light
___C) Its location in petiols is peripheral
___D) It is located at the periphery of woody stems
___E) It is located at the periphery of lamina

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Report of the 11th IBO in Antalya

80. Which of the following cannot be referred to as a function of the

sporoderm (exine)layer of pollens?
___A) The storage of enzyme proteins for the reactions
___B) Playing a role in the reaction between pollen and stigma
___C) Production of the pollen tube
___D) Protection of pollen against external factors
___E) Realizing pollination
81. Deleted
82. In a flower, flower symmetry is radial, calyx 4 and fused, corolla 4
and is separate, the androecium has 5 stamens and is connected to
the corolla, the gynoecium is compound in 5 parts, superior and
syncarpous. According to the description given above, which of
the formulae in the following is correct?
___A) + K(4) [C4A(5)]G(5)
*

___C) K4 C4A5G5
___E) *K4 [C4A5]G5

___B) + K(4) C4A(5)G(5)

___D) *K(4) [C4A(5)]G(5)

83. Which of the following is true for a C 4 plant in which some leaves
can carry out C3 photosynthesis while others can carry out C4
photosynthesis?
___A) In fact, it is a C3 plant
___B) The leaves which carry out C3 photosynthesis lack Kranz anatomy
___C) PEP (phosphoenolpyruvate) is not synthesized in the leaves which
carry out C4 photosynthesis
___D) It indicates that the C4 pathway was evolved from the C3 pathway
___E) Both C3 and C4 photosynthesis do not occur on the same leaf
84. Deleted

201

Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

BIOSYSTEMATICS
85. Deleted
86.
I.

A small dry single-seeded, indehiscent fruit

II.

A fruit with a single ovary consisting of a single carpel

III. Dehiscent fruit is formed by two carpels with a septum

between the carpels and its length is less than three times of its
width
The above statements describe three different fruit types.

II

III

Which of the following combinations are correct for the fruit types?
___A)
___B)
___C)
___D)
___E)

202

I
Siliqua
Legume
Siliqua
Achene
Achene

II
Legume
Siliqua
Achene
Siliqua
Legume

II
Achene
Achene
Legume
Legume
Siliqua

Report of the 11th IBO in Antalya

87. Deleted
88. Deleted
89. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a
deuterostomian animal ?
___A) Radial cleavage during the embriyonic development
___B) Regulative development during the embriyonic period
___C) Enterocoelom
___D) Pharyngeal slits on the pharynx
___E) Original (evolutionary origin) bilateral symmetry
90. The main reason for echinoderms living only in the sea is because;
___A) They were adapted to be sessile so they do not have a great
distribution
___B) They appear first in the seas
___C) They live in different habitat types in the sea
___D) They have no excretory system
___E) There are safer places in the deep sea
91. Which one of the following structures of earthworms has similar
functions to the liver of vertebrates?
___A) Typhlosolis
___B) Coelomocytes
___C) Chloragogen cells
___D) Cells that line the inner surface of the small intestine
___E) Calcium gland cells

203

Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

92. The metanephridia of annelids and molluscs are functionally and

structurally similar to the vertebrate kidneys. During the
formation of urine, filtration, reabsorption and secretion
processes occur. Where does filtration occur in the nephridium of
mussels?
___A) On the nephrostom in the nephridium
___B) On the cardiac wall and pericardial glands
___C) On the tubules that are connected to the nephrostom
___D) On the wall of the intestine
___E) On the gill capillaries
93. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of molluscs
(Mollusca)?
___A) Mantle
___B) Radula
___C) Trochophore larva
___D) Spiral cleavage
___E) Regulative development
94. Deleted

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ANIMAL ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

95. Deleted
96. Which of the following is an important feature of primitive
aquatic life forms?
___A) Partially oxygenated blood
___B) An open circulation with no small blood vessels or capillaries
___C) Significantly decreased blood pressure
___D) Highly acidic blood
___E) Carriage of most of the O2 in the the plasma
97.
I-

Partial O2 pressure

II-

pH

III- Amount of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate

IV- Partial CO2 pressure
V-

Body temperature

The factors affecting the dissociation of O 2 from hemoglobin in the

human circulatory system are given above. In which of the following
alternatives does this dissociation occur most easily?
___A) I increases

III decreases

IV increases

___B) II increases

V decreases

III increases

___C) I decreases

IV increases

III increases

___D) V increases

IV decreases

I increases

___E) II decreases

III decreases

V decreases

205

Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

98. A nerve-skeletal muscle isolated preparation is placed in a Ca 2+ free medium appropiate for its survival. If the nerve is electrically
stimulated, which of the following events will occur?
___A) The muscle will not be stimulated
___B) The muscle will be stimulated but will not contract
___C) The muscle will be both stimulated and contract
___D) The muscle will not be stimulated, but even if it is, it will not contract
___E) The muscle may be stimulated, and may contract but it will not relax
99. Which of the following is false about the differences between the
vertebrate skeletal muscles and smooth muscles?
___A) Skeletal muscle is more sensitive to electrical stimulation while
smooth muscle is more sensitive to chemical stimulation
___B) Skeletal muscle has a certain length in the resting state; smooth
muscle has not
___C) Smooth muscle contracts more than skeletal muscle after stretching
___D) Skeletal muscle consumes 10% less of the energy than that of
smooth muscle for the same degree of contraction
___E) Without a nerve connection, skeletal muscle cannot function
normally but smooth muscle can

206

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100. The figure shows a feedback system for the control of the output
of blood from the heart (cardiac output). Which of the following
gives the correct description of the parts played by the
components X, Y and Z?
___A)

X
Monitor

Y
Receptor

Z
Effector

___B)

Monitor

Effector

Receptor

___C)

Receptor

Monitor

Effector

___D)

Receptor

Effector

Monitor

___E)

Effector

Monitor

Receptor

207

Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

101.
I-

The magnitude of the impulse is dependent on the size of the

stimulus
II- The number of fibres which are stimulated increases with the
size of the stimulus
III- The speed at which the impulse travels increases with the size
of the stimulus
IV- The speed at which the impulse travels depends on whether or
not the nerve has a myelin sheath
V- The speed of the impulse conduction is directly proportional to
the diameter of the axon
Which of the following is the correct combination of the statements
given above about the nerve conduction?
___A) I, II and III

___B) II, III and IV

___D) III, IV and V

___E) I, III and V

___C) II, IV, and V

102. Deleted
103. The figure shows some parts of a mammalian eye numbered 1-5.
If light suddenly strikes the eye, which of the following will be
the nervous pathway for the evoked unconditional pupil reflex?
(CNS= Central Nervous System)
___A) From 4 to the CNS and then to 3
___B) From 1 to 4 then to the CNS and
then to 2
___C) From 3 to the CNS and back to 3
___D) From 5 to 1 then to 2
___E) From 4 to the CNS and then to 5

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104. When an epinephrine (adrenalin)solution is dropped on the

surface of a frog muscle(M. gastrocnemius) in vitro, the muscle
displays a strong contraction. However,when the epinephrine
solution is injected into the muscle cell, nothing happens. Which
of the following is the reason for this?
___A) Epinephrine induced the antagonistic effect inside the cell
___B) Epinephrine induced the side-effect inside the cell
___C) Epinephrine was not processed by proteolytic enzyme
___D) Epinephrine did not find the receptor inside the cell
___E) Epinephrine was degraded inside the cell
105. Which of the following alternatives constitute the cell groups
that function effectively in the human immune system?
___A) T lymphocyte B lymphocyte Macrophage
___B) T lymphocyte Macrophage Erythrocyte
___C) B lymphocyte Kupffer cell Lipocyte
___D) Dendritic cell Neutrophilic leukocyte Fibroblast
___E) Microglia Histiocyte Megakaryocyte

209

Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

106. The left-hand diagram shows a frog sciatic nerve lying across a
number of electrodes. The electrodes A and B are used for
stimulating and C and D for recording. The right-hand diagram
shows a typical recorded action potential. Based on this
information, which of the following statements is correct?

___A) The duration of the recorded action potential (d) will be

independent of the distance between electrodes C and D
___B) The magnitude of the recorded action potential (m) will be
independent of the distance between electrodes C and D
___C) The first deflection on the recording occurs when electrode C is
negative with respect to D
___D) The duration of the recorded action potential will depend on the
distance between B and C
___E) The recorded action potential can be made monophasic by applying
a local anesthetic at A
107. Deleted
108. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
___A) Bird Discoidal cleavage Erythrocyte with nucleus
___B) Frog Mesonephrose kidney Holoblastic inequal cleavage
___C) Reptile Viviparous organisms Telolecithal egg
___D) Fish Deuterostomia Radial cleavage
___E) Mussel Protostomia Mosaic development

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109. Diagram shows the rates of filtration (F), reabsorption (R) and
excretion (E) of a substance (X) in relation to its plasma
concentration by the kidneys. Which one of the following
statement is incorrect?

___A) The reabsorption of X is dependent on its plasma concentration

___B) The filtration rate of X is directly proportional to its plasma
concentration
___C) When the plasma concentration of X reaches a certain value, its
excretion rate suddenly increases
___D) The concentration of X in the urine is expected to be higher than
its amount filtered in the glomerulus
___E) The filtration rate of X in the glomerulus is fixed
110. Which of the following hormonal conditions of a woman is
suitable in her late pregnancy?
___A) Estrogen increases, progesterone increases
___B) Estrogen decreases, progesterone decreases
___C) Estrogen increases, progesterone decreases
___D) Estrogen decreases, progesterone increases
___E) Luteinizing Hormone increases, Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
increases
111. Deleted

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Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

112. Deleted
113. Deleted
114.

Chromosome number
2N
N

Cell number
Which of the following can be said according to the graph given
above?
I

Gamete formation in human

II-

Gamete formation in phanerogamia

III- Gamete formation in queen honey bee and the development of

the male bee
IV- Spore formation and development in ferns
___A) I and II

___B) III and IV

___D) I, II and IV

___E) I, II and III

___C) II and IV

115. Which one of the following is true about determination

(developmental fate of cells)?
___A) Differentiation occurs before determination
___B) In animals, the cells that appear after the first two division are
determined
___C) A determined cell will keep its features wherever it is transported
in the embryo
___D) When a cell is determined its structure (shape) will begin to change
___E) A determined cell has the same transcription model as a
differentiated one

212

Report of the 11th IBO in Antalya

BEHAVIOUR
116. In the picture, a flying dummy (silhouette) of a bird is
illustrated. If the dummy is moved over hatched chicks of a
pheasant
(Phasianus
colchicus) from left to right
(upper arrow) or from right
to left (ie. moving backward)
(lower arrow), the chicks will
react as follows (mark the
correct answer with an X):

I.

In both cases the chicks will react to the silhouette by

crouching
II. In both cases the chicks will not react at all
III. During the movement of the silhouette from left to right
(upper arrow) the chicks will not react
IV. During the movement of the silhouette from right to left (lower
arrow) the chicks will not react
V. During the movement of the silhouette from right to left (lower
arrow) the chicks will react by crouching
VI. During the movement of the silhouette from left to the right
(upper arrow) the chicks react by crouching
___A) Only I
___B) Only II
___C) III and V
___D) IV and VI

___E) III and VI

213

Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

117. Animal aggression comes out in several cases and aggresion is

also motivated by various conditions such as an external
stimulus.
Which of the following is not an agressive behaviour?
___A) The behaviour of the prey that is under the threat of being killed
___B) Behaviour that does not reflect the normal behaviour and
specifications of a group
___C) The behaviour against intruder in order to protect their territory
___D) Behaviour towards other animals that try to steal their own food
___E) Behaviour of a predator against its prey
118.

The location of the food-supply

Tail-wagging dance
When honeybees find a food-supply, they can show the exact place of
the supply to other individuals of the colony by a tail-wagging
dance. An example of this behaviour is illustrated above
According to this example, for a honeybee that makes the illustrated
tail-wagging dance below, which one of the following shows the
location of the food-supply ?

__A)

___B)

___D)

___E)

214

___C)

Report of the 11th IBO in Antalya

119.

It is known that some grasshopper species may make a sound in

order to court the opposite sex and these sounds are species specific.
It is also observed that these sounds seem very different when a close
relative species live in the same area.
The sonograms of the mating songs of the five different species of
male grasshoppers from the genus Chorthippus is given above. Which
of the species (I-V) are living together in the same area?
___A) I and II
___B) III and IV
___C) III and V
___D) IV and V
___E) III, IV and V

215

Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

120. When a goose notices an egg outside her nest, she rises, extends
her neck, touches the egg with her beak, and then rolls it back in
very gently. She completes the same recovery behavior whether
the objects she sees is a beer bottle or golf ball, even when the
object is removed after she has begun to reach for it.
Which of the following statements is correct according to the
situation above?
___A) The reason why the goose rolls back the objects that do not
structurally look like an egg is her lack of recognition
___B) This behaviour is caused by instinct
___C) In order to fill her nest to provide suitable incubation conditions
___D) This behavior is learnt from the parents.
___E) The goose recognises her own egg shape. For this reason, egg
rolling is a fixed action pattern and continues without another
stimulus

216

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ECOLOGY
121. Deleted
122. Which one of the following environmental conditions affects the
dispersal trend of a population positively?
___A) The conditions that cause high mortality sometimes create empty
habitats
___B) Very frequent disturbances in the habitat conditions
___C) Absence of suitable habitats very close to each other
___D) A low level of natality causing the differences between the habitats
___E) A breakdown at any level of the food chain
123. Deleted
124. According to the population growth curves given below, which
population has reached equilibrium by responding properly to
negative feedback mechanisms with time?
___A) limit K

___D)
limit K

___B) limit K

___E)
limit K

___C) limit K

217

Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

125. Deleted
126. A mosquito species which lives in hot and highly humid
environment generally chooses little isolated aquatic habitats to
reproduce and completes its larval development. This species
gives many generations by reproducing in late May and early
October. To increase its population in a given area which in the
following is the most important limiting factor for this species
which is very sensitive to the chemical changes in the habitat
water .
___A) Increase in the saturation deficit in the air during the reproductive
season
___B) Predation
___C) Competition with another species in the microhabitat
___D) Increase in the shadow factor
___E) Increase in relative humidity
127. Which one of the following explanations cannot be given about
the relationship between the carrying capacity and the
environmental response of populations with a high density?
___A) Competition increases
___B) The natality (birth) rate decreases
___C) The negative feedback mechanism works
___D) The environmental response decreases
___E) The mortality rate increases
128. Deleted
129. Deleted.
130. Deleted

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Report of the 11th IBO in Antalya

131. Which one of the following cannot be said about the distribution
of populations?
132. A park was built in a place that was occupied by a lot of
speciesAtrees. A long time ago they were all cut down no
species A trees remained. Later gardeners planted more
species A trees and also species B trees and species C
trees had species B and C never grew in that region before.
Nobody took care of this garden. After 100 years there were a lot
of new A trees and B trees, but no young C trees . Which
processes refer to the A, B and C trees in that park?
A

___A) Introduced,

Acclimatized,

Reacclimatized

___B)

Acclimatized,

Introduced,

Reacclimatized

___C)

Introduced,

Reacclimatized,

Acclimatized

___D) Reacclimatized,

Acclimatized,

Introduced

___E)

Reacclimatized,

Introduced

Acclimatized,

219

Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

133. The graph represents the changes in the biomass, diversity and
primary production in the ecological succession. Which blocks
on the graph represent the first settler stages and the climax
stage, respectively.
I

II

III

Years
Primary production
Biological diversity
___A) I and II
___B) II and III
___C) I and III
___D) I, II and III
___E) None

220

Biomass

Report of the 11th IBO in Antalya

134. An ecologist wants to investigate if there are any differences in

the vegetation on the north and south facing sides of a valley.
She lays down a rope from the top to the bottom of the slope and
every 2 meters she places a 1 m2 quadrat next to the rope.
Standing above the quadrat she estimates and records the area
occupied by each plant species. This technique involves which of
the following?
1. The use of a point quadrat
2. The recording of % cover
3. The plotting of the results on a kite diagram
4. Random sampling
5. The use of a belt transect
___A) 1 & 2
___B) 2 & 3
___C) 3, 4 & 5
___D) 1, 2 & 3
___E) 2, 3 & 5
135. Deleted

221

Answer Key-Theoretical Test-Part A

4. 4. Answer Key to the Theoretical Test

4.4.1. Part A
1. D
2. E
3. B
4. C
5. Deleted
6. D
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. C
14. A
15. C
16. D
17. E
18. C
19. B
20. D
21. C
22. E
23. A
24. E
25. B
26. C
27. C
28. E
29. D
30. A
31. D
32. A
33. D
34. D

222

35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.

A
C
Deleted
B
Deleted
E
B
A
C
C
A
Deleted
B
E
B
Deleted
E
A
A
Deleted
C
E
B
E
Deleted
E
Deleted
D
D
Deleted
Deleted
Deleted
Deleted
E

69. B
70. C
71. D
72. E
73. E
74. C
75. Deleted
76. D
77. B
78. E
79. D
80. E
81. Deleted
82. D
83. D
84. Deleted
85. Deleted
86. E
87. Deleted
88. Deleted
89. D
90. D
91. C
92. B
93. E
94. Deleted
95. Deleted
96. C
97. C
98. A
99. D
100. C
101. C
102. Deleted

103. A
104. D
105. A
106. A
107. Deleted
108. C
109. E
110. A
111. Deleted
112. Deleted
113. Deleted
114. B
115. C
116. C
117. C
118. A
119. A
120. E
121. Deleted
122. A
123. Deleted
124. C
125. Deleted
126. A
127. D
128. Deleted
129. Deleted
130. Deleted
131. A
132. D
133. A
134. E
135. Deleted

Report of the 11th IBO in Antalya

77