Schroder-Bernstein Theorm Simplified
Schroder-Bernstein Theorm Simplified
f
1
(1)
= f(a) = 1, f
f
1
(2)
= f(b) = 2, f
f
1
(3)
= f(c) = 3,
f
f
1
(Calvin)
= f(d) = Calvin.
So f
1
really is the inverse of f, and f is a bijection. (For that matter, f
1
is a bijection as well,
because the inverse of f
1
is f.)
Notice that this function is also a bijection from S to T:
h(a) = 3, h(b) = Calvin, h(c) = 2, h(d) = 1.
If there is one bijection from a set to another set, there are many (unless both sets have a single element).
I introduced bijections in order to be able to dene what it means for two sets to have the same number
of elements. The number of elements in a set is called the cardinality of the set.
Denition. Sets S and T have the same cardinality if there is a bijection f from S to T. Ill write |S| = |T|
to mean that S and T have the same cardinality.
A set S is nite if it is empty, or if there is a bijection f : {1, 2, 3, . . . , n} S for some integer n 1.
A set which is not nite is innite.
If S is a nonempty nite set and there is a bijection f : {1, 2, 3, . . . , n} S for some integer n 1, Ill
say that S has cardinality n or that S has n elements. In this case, Ill write |S| = n.
At this point, there is an apparently silly issue that needs to be resolved: Could a nite set be bijective
with both {1, 2, 3} and {1, 2, 3, 4} (say)? Of course, everyday experience says that this is impossible. However,
mathematicians always take the point of view that if something is really obvious, then it ought to be easy
to justify.
Actually, this particular point isnt that simple to justify try to prove it yourself! but its true,
and Ill omit the proof.
Example. Prove that the set of natural numbers N = {1, 2, 3, 4, . . .} has the same cardinality as the set
E = {2, 4, 6, 8, . . .} of positive even integers.
Dene f : N E by
f(n) = 2n.
This function has an inverse f
1
: E N given by
f
1
(m) =
m
2
.
Note that since m E, m is even, so m is divisible by 2 and
m
2
is actually a positive integer.
Heres the proof that f and f
1
are inverses:
f
f
1
(m)
= f
m
2
= 2
m
2
= m for m E,
f
1
(f(n)) = f
1
(2n) =
2n
2
= n for n N.
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This situation looks a little strange. E is contained in N, but Ive just shown that the two sets have the
same number of elements. The only reason this looks funny is that it contradicts your real world experience
which only deals with nite objects. In fact, its characteristic of innite sets that they have the same
number of elements as some of their proper subsets.
Informally, if the elements of an innite set can be listed
a
1
, a
2
, a
3
, . . . ,
then the set has the same cardinality as the natural numbers.
In fact, to dene listable precisely, youd end up saying the set has the same cardinality as the natural
numbers. But this is a good picture to keep in mind. Ill show that the real numbers, for instance, cant be
arranged in a list in this way.
The next part of this discussion points out that the notion of cardinality behaves the way the number
of things in a set ought to behave.
Lemma. Let S, T, and U be sets.
(a) The identity function id : S S given by id(s) = s is a bijection.
(b) The inverse of a bijection is a bijection.
(c) If f : S T and g : T U are bijections, then the composite g f : S U is a bijection.
Proof. (a) The identity function has an inverse, namely itself. Therefore, the identity function is a bijection.
(b) If f : S T is a bijection, then by denition it has an inverse f
1
: T S. To be inverses means that
f
1
(f(s)) = s for all s S and f
f
1
(t)
= t for all t T.
But these equation also say that f is the inverse of f
1
, so it follows that f
1
is a bijection.
(c) Suppose that f : S T and g : T U are bijections. Let f
1
: T S and g
1
: U T be their
respective inverses. Ill prove that f
1
g
1
is the inverse of g f.
f
1
g
1
(g f)
(s) = f
1
g
1
(g (f(s)))
Denition of composite
= f
1
(f(s)) g
1
(g (junk)) = junk
= s f
1
(f (junk)) = junk
(g f)
f
1
g
1
(u) = g
f
1
g
1
(u)
Denition of composite
= g
g
1
(u)
f
1
(junk)
= junk
= u g
1
(g (junk)) = junk
This proves that f
1
g
1
is the inverse of g f, so g f is a bijection.
Corollary. Let S, T, and U be sets.
(a) (Reexivity) |S| = |S|.
(b) (Symmetry) If |S| = |T|, then |T| = |S|.
(c) (Transitivity) If |S| = |T| and |T| = |U|, then |S| = |U|.
Proof. (a) By the lemma, the identity function id : S S is a bijection, so |S| = |S|.
(b) If |S| = |T|, then there is a bijection f : S T. By the lemma, f
1
: T S is a bijection. Therefore,
|T| = |S|.
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(c) If |S| = |T| and |T| = |U|, then there are bijections f : S T and g : T U. By the lemma,
g f : S U is a bijection, so |S| = |U|.
As you know, these three properties mean that having the same cardinality is an equivalence relation.
This actually justies my use of the = when I write |S| = |T|.
Example. Prove that the interval (0, 1) has the same cardinality as R.
(Remember that (0, 1) stands for the open interval {x R | 0 < x < 1}.)
First, notice that the open interval
2
,
2
2
,
2
2
,
2
and R have the same cardinality. Next, Ill show that (0, 1) and
2
,
2
2
,
2
.
1
0
p
p/2 -p/2
p multiply by
p/2 subtract
All together, I dene g : (0, 1)
2
,
2
by
g(x) = x
2
.
First, if 0 < x < 1, then 0 < x < , so
2
< x
2
<
2
. This shows that g takes inputs in (0, 1)
and produces outputs in
2
,
2
.
To show that g is bijective, I have to produce an inverse. The standard swap the xs and ys procedure
works; you get
g
1
(x) =
x +
2
.
Heres the proof that g and g
1
are inverses:
g
g
1
(x)
= g
x +
2
=
x +
2
2
= x +
2
2
= x,
g
1
(g(x)) = g
1
x
2
=
x
2
+
2
=
x
= x.
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Therefore, g is a bijection, so (0, 1) and
2
,
2
f
1
(x)
= f
1
x
=
1
1
x
= x,
f
1
(f(x)) = f
1
1
x
=
1
1
x
= x.
Thus, f is a bijection.
Dene g : (1, ) (0, ) by
g(x) = x 1.
If x > 1, then x 1 > 0. Therefore, g does map (1, ) to (0, ).
I claim that g
1
(x) = x + 1. If x > 0, then x + 1 > 1, so g
1
maps (0, ) to (1, ). Moreover,
g
g
1
(x)
= g(x + 1) = (x + 1) 1 = x,
g
1
(g(x)) = g
1
(x 1) = (x 1) + 1 = x.
Therefore, g is a bijection.
With the bijections f and g, I have |(0, 1)| = |(1, )| = |(0, )|, so (0, 1) and (0, ) have the same
cardinality.
In many situations, its dicult to show that two sets have the same cardinality by actually constructing
a bijection between them. The theorem that follows gives an indirect way to show that two sets have the
same cardinality.
Theorem. (Schr oder-Bernstein) Let S and T be sets. Suppose there are injective functions f : S T and
g : T S. Then S and T have the same cardinality.
The proof of the Schr oder-Bernstein theorem is a little tricky, so I wont do it here.
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The Schr oder-Bernstein theorem says that if S has the same cardinality as a subset of T, and T has the
same cardinality as a subset of S, then S and T must have the same cardinality.
S
S
T
T
It is a powerful tool for showing that sets have the same cardinality. Here are some examples.
Example. Show that the open interval (0, 1) and the closed interval [0, 1] have the same cardinality.
The open interval 0 < x < 1 is a subset of the closed interval 0 x 1. In this situation, there is an
obvious injective function f : (0, 1) [0, 1], namely the function f(x) = x for all x (0, 1). (f is called
an inclusion map.) If f(x
1
) = f(x
2
), then x
1
= x
2
, so f is injective.
Next, Ill construct an injective function g : [0, 1] (0, 1). The idea is to nd a copy of [0, 1] in (0, 1),
then do some scaling and translation to map [0, 1] onto the copy. Ill use the interval [0.25, 0.75] as my target
in (0, 1). The target has length 0.5, so Ill multiply by 0.5 to shrink [0, 1] to [0, 0.5]. Next, Ill add 0.25 to
shift [0, 0.5] to [0.25, 0.75]. All together, I get
g(x) = 0.5x + 0.25 for 0 x 1.
First, if 0 x 1, then 0 0.5x 0.5, so 0.25 0.5x + 0.25 0.75. This proves that g is a function
from [0, 1] to [0.25, 0.75].
Next, I need to show that g is injective. Suppose that g(x
1
) = g(x
2
), I must prove that x
1
= x
2
. Now
g(x
1
) = g(x
2
) means that
0.5x
1
+ 0.25 = 0.5x
2
+ 0.25, so 0.5x
1
= 0.5x
2
, and hence x
1
= x
2
.
Therefore, g is injective. (In fact, g is bijective, and you could prove injectivity by constructing g
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