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Set No.1
Code No: R05 410104
IV B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2009
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING-II
(Civil Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE questions
All Questions carry equal marks
********
1. a) What are the various primary air pollutants? List their sources. 8m
b) What are the Ozone depleting substances? What is their contribution in the
formation of Ozone holes? 8m

2. a) What are the operational problems with bag filters? 8m

b) What are the various wet collecting devices? What are the advantages and
disadvantages of wet collection devices? 8m

3. a) What are the various adsorbents that are generally used water treatment? What
is their utility? 8m
b) What are the various applications of Ion Exchange in water and waste water
treatment? 8m

4. Describe the various techniques of Strength Reduction in detail? 16 m

5. a) What are the various sources of Urban Solid Wastes? 8m

b) What is separation? What are the various methods of separation? 8m

6. a) What is Incineration? When is it suitable for solid wastes disposal? 8m

b) What is aerobic composting? Explain the method. 8m

7 a) What are the different ways of disposal of Nuclear Wastes? 8m

b) What are the various methods of handling Biomedical wastes? 8m

8 a) What are the adverse effects of Noise Pollution? 8m

b) What are the salient features of Environment Act-1986? 8m
*******
 Set No.2
Code No: R05 410104
IV B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2009
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING-II
(Civil Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE questions
All Questions carry equal marks
********
1. a) What are the adverse effects of Sulphur Dioxide on human health? 8m
b) What is acid rain? What are the pollutants that contribute to acid rain? 8m

2. a) What are the construction features of Electrostatic Precipitators? 8m

b) Mention the general techniques of Gaseous Emission Control? 8m

3. a) Explain the Ion Exchange Process with the help of chemical reactions. 8m
b) What are major differences between Reverse Osmosis and Ultra-filtration
processes? 8m

4. a) What is Equalisation? How is it going to help in the process of Industrial

waste treatment? 8m
b) What is Nitrification and Denitrification? What is the necessity of these in
Industrial waste treatment? 8m

5 a) What are various solid wastes collection devices? What is their utility? 8m
b) What is the general composition of Indian Urban Solid Wastes? 8m

6. a) How do you tackle the problem of Leachates from Sanitary Landfill? 8m

b) What are the conditions that favour composting of Solid Wastes? 8m

7. a) What is need for proper disposal of Biomedical Wastes? 8m

b) What are the precautions to be taken for disposal of chemical wastes? 8m

8. a) List the various Noise Control methods? 8m

b) What are the salient features of Air Act-1981? 8m
*******
 Set No.3
Code No: R05 410104
IV B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2009
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING-II
(Civil Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE questions
All Questions carry equal marks
********
1. a) What are the various secondary air pollutants and how they are formed? 8 m
b) What are the Ozone depleting substances? What is their contribution in the
formation of Ozone holes? 8m

2. a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of cyclone separators? When are
they useful? 8m
b) What are the various wet collecting devices? What are the advantages and
disadvantages of wet collection devices? 8m

3. a) What are the various techniques of De-fluoridation? 8m

b) What are the various Ion Exchange Resins used in water and waste water
treatment? What are their limitations? 8m

4. Describe the various techniques of Volume Reduction in detail? 16 m

5. a) What is the difference between Rural and Urban Solids Wastes in terms of
composition? 8m
b) What are the various sources of solid wastes? 8m

6. a) What is Incineration? When is it suitable for solid wastes disposal? 8m

b) What is a Sanitary Landfill? How it differs from dumping? 8m

7 a) What are the different ways of disposal of Chemical Wastes? 8m

b) Enumerate the various Hazardous Wastes? 8m

8 a) What is MINAS? Who formulated them? What is applicability? 8m

b) What are the salient features of Water Act -1974? 8m
*********
 Set No.4
Code No: R05 410104
IV B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2009
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING-II
(Civil Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE questions
All Questions carry equal marks
********

1. a) What are the adverse effects of Sulphur Dioxide on human health? 8m

b) What is acid rain? What are the pollutants that contribute to acid rain? 8m

2. a) What are the construction features of Electrostatic Precipitators? 8m

b) Mention the general techniques of Gaseous Emission Control? 8m

3. a) Explain the Ion Exchange Process with the help of chemical reactions. 8m
b) What are major differences between Reverse Osmosis and Ultra-filtration
processes? 8m

4. a) What is Proportioning? How is it going to help in the process of Industrial

waste treatment? 8m
b) What are the various techniques of removal of phosphates? 8m

5 a) What are the general properties of urban solid wastes in India? 8m

b) What are the various methods of handling Indian Urban Solid Wastes? 8m

6. a) What is Sanitary Land Filling? What are the precautions to be taken for Land
Filling? 8m
b) What are the various methods of Composting? When is the suitability of each
of them? 8m

7. a) What are the various disposal methods of Biomedical Wastes? 8m

b) What are the precautions to be taken for disposal of Nuclear wastes? 8m

8. a) List the various Noise Control methods? 8m

b) What are the air emission standards for thermal power plants? 8m
************
Code No: R05410204 Set No. 1
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
POWER SYSTEM OPERATION AND CONTROL
(Electrical & Electronic Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. A constant load of 300 MW is supplied by two 200 MW generators 1 and 2, for

which the respective incremental fuel costs are:
d C1
d PG
= 0.10 PG1 + 20.0
1
d C2
= 0.12 PG2 + 15.0
d PG2
With power PG in MW and costs C in Rs/hr. Determine:

(a) The most economical division of load between the generators.

(b) The saving in Rs./ day there by obtained compared to equal load sharing
between two generators. [16]

2. A power system consists of two 100 MW units whose input cost data are represented
by equations below:
C1 = 0.04 P1 2 + 22 P1 + 800 Rupees/hour
C2 = 0.045 P2 2 + 15 P2 + 1000 Rupees/hour
If total received power PR = 150 Mw. Determine the load sharing between units
for most economic operation. [16]

3. .Discuss optimal power flow procedures with its inequality constraints, and how to
handle dependent variables with penalty function. [16]

4. Briefly explain swing equation with simplified diagram. [16]

5. A single area consists of two generators with the following parameters:

Generator 1 = 1200 MVA; R=6 % (on machine base)
Generator 2 = 1000 MVA; R=4 % (on machine base)
The units are sharing 1800 MW at normal frequency 50 Hz. Unit supplies 1000
MW and unit 2 supplies 800 MW. The load now increased by 200 MW.

(a) Find steady state frequency and generation of each unit if B=0.
(b) Find steady state frequency and generation of each unit if B=1.5. [8+8]

6. (a) What are the advantages of inter connected operation of power systems? Ex-
plain.
(b) Two areas of a power system network are interconnected by a tie-line, whose
capacity is 500 MW, operating at a power angle of 350 . If each area has
a capacity of 5000 MW and the equal speed regulation of 3 Hz/Pu MW,
determine the frequency of oscillation of the power for step change in load.
Assume that both areas have the same inertia constants of H = 4 sec. [8+8]

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Code No: R05410204 Set No. 1
7. Explain the optimal design of load frequency control problem. What are limitations
of optimal control theory in designing the load frequency control problem? [16]

8. Explain clearly what do mean by compensation of a line and discuss briefly different
methods of compensation. [16]

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Code No: R05410204 Set No. 2
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
POWER SYSTEM OPERATION AND CONTROL
(Electrical & Electronic Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. (a) On what factor does the choice of a computation method depend in the De-
termination of optimum distribution of load among the units.
(b) Define the control variables, disturbance variables, state variables. [8+8]

2. 100 MW, 150 MW and 280 MW are the ratings of three units located in a thermal
power station. Their respective incremental costs are given by the following equa-
tions:
dc1/dp1 = Rs(0.15p1 + 12);
dc3/dp3 = Rs(0.21p3 + 13)
dc2/dp2 = Rs(0.05p2 + 14)
Where P1 , P2 and P3 are the loads in MW. Determine the economical load alloca-
tion between the three units, when the total load on the station is 300 MW.
[16]

3. Using dynamic programming method, how do you find the most economical com-
bination of the units to meet a particular load demand? [16]

4. Two generating stations A and B have full load capacities of 200MW and 75MW
respectively. The inter connector connecting the two stations has an induction
motor / synchronous generator (plant C) of full load capacity 25 MW percentage
changes of speeds of A,B and C are 5,4 and 3 respectively. The loads on bus bars
A and B are 75MW and 30MW respectively. Determine the load taken by the sec
C and indicate the direction of power flow. [16]

5. An isolated power station has the following parameters

Generator inertia constant=5 second
Governor time constant τg =0.2 seconds
Turbine time constant τT =0.5 seconds
Governor speed regulation=0.05 per unit
The load varies by 0.8 % for a load 1 % change in frequency, i.e., B=0.8. The
turbine rated output is 250 MW at a nominal frequency of 60 Hz. A sudden load
change of 50 MW occurs in the system. Find the steady frequency deviation in Hz.
[16]

6. Given a block diagram of two interconnected areas shown in figure 6 (consider the
prime-mover output to be constant i.e., a blocked governor):

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Code No: R05410204 Set No. 2

Figure 6

(a) Derive the transfer functions that relating tie-flow, ∆Ptie (s) to ∆PL (s).
(b) Derive the transfer functions that relate ∆ω1 (s) and ∆ω2 (s) to a load change
∆PL (s). [8+8]

7. Discuss various optimum control strategies for load frequency control of two area
systems. [16]

8. The load at receiving end of a three-phase, over head line is 25.5 MW, power factor
0.8 lagging, at a line voltage of 33 kV. A synchronous compensator is situated at
receiving end and the voltage at both the ends of the line is maintained at 33 kV.
The line has a resistance of 4.5 ohms per phase and inductive reactance (line to
neutral) of 20 ohms per phase. Calculate the maximum value of power that can
be transmitted if the thermal rating of the line is not exceeded. Assuming that
without compensation, the line was fully loaded, hence the current under the new
condition is unchanged. [16]

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Code No: R05410204 Set No. 3
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
POWER SYSTEM OPERATION AND CONTROL
(Electrical & Electronic Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. A constant load of 300 MW is supplied by two 200 MW generators 1 and 2, for

which the respective incremental fuel costs are:
d C1
d PG
= 0.10 PG1 + 20.0
1
d C2
= 0.12 PG2 + 15.0
d PG2
With power PG in MW and costs C in Rs/hr. Determine:
(a) The most economical division of load between the generators.
(b) The saving in Rs./ day there by obtained compared to equal load sharing
between two generators. [16]
2. What are the important points for the solution of economic load dispatch problems
when transmission losses are included but not coordinated. [16]
3. A two-plant system having a steam plant near the load centre and a hydro plant
at a remote location is shown in figure 3.

Figure 3
The characteristics of the units are
C1 = 150 + 60 PGT + 0.1 P2GT
ω2 = 0.8 PGH + 0.000333 2GH m3 /sec
Loss co-efficient B22 = 0.001 MW−1 .
Find the generation schedule, daily water used by hydro plant and daily operating
cool of thermal plant for γj Rs. 77.5 / m3 -hr if the load is 700 MW for 14 hr a day
and 500 mw for 10 hrs the same day. Find the generation schedule, daily water
used by hydro plant and daily operating cost of thermal power. [16]
4. Explain in detail general configuration of excitation system? [16]
5. (a) Discuss in detail the importance of a load frequency problem.

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Code No: R05410204 Set No. 3
(b) Find the static frequency drop if the load is suddenly increased by 25 MW on
a system having the following data:
Rated capacity Pr = 500MW, Operating Load PD = 250MW, Frequency f =
50 Hz,
Inertia constant H = 5 sec, Governor regulation R = 2Hz /(pu) MW
Also find the additional generation. [8+8]

6. Two areas are connected via an inter tie line. The load at 50 Hz, is 15000 MW in
area 1 and 35000 in area 2. Area 1 is importing 1500 MW from area 2. The load
damping constant in each area is B=1.0 and the regulation R=6 % for all units.
Area 1 has a spinning reserve of 800 MW spread over 4000 MW of generation
capacity and area 2 has a spinning reserve of 1000 MW spread over 10000 MW
generation. Determine the steady state frequency, generation and load of each area
and tie-line power for

(a) Loss of 1000 MW in area 1, with no supplementary control.

(b) Loss of 1000 MW in area 1, with supplementary controls provided on genera-
tors with reserve. [16]

7. Describe how optimal control can be determined in case of load frequency control
problem. [16]

8. A 3-Φ overhead line has resistance and reactance per phase of 25Ω and 90Ω respec-
tively. The supply voltage is 145 kV while the load end voltage is maintained at
132 kV for all loads by an automatically controlled synchronous phase modifier. If
the kVAr rating of the modifier has the same value for zero loads as for a load of
50 MW, find the rating of the Synchronous Phase modifier. [16]

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Code No: R05410204 Set No. 4
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
POWER SYSTEM OPERATION AND CONTROL
(Electrical & Electronic Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. Incremental fuel costs in rupees per megawatt hour for two units are given by
dF1 dF2
dP1
= 0.1P1 + 20 and dP 2
= 0.12P2 + 10
the maximum and minimum loads on each unit are to 25MW and 120MW, respec-
tively. Determine the incremental fuel cost and the allocation of load between units
for minimum cost when the loads are:

(a) 100MW
(b) 150MW. [16]

2. (a) Explain with diagram the physical interpretation of co-ordination equation.

(b) Give various uses of general loss formula and state the assumptions made for
calculating Bmn coefficients. [7+9]

3. What are the dependant and independent variables in the optimization problem of
hydro thermal system and explain it in detail. [16

4. Two generating stations A and B of capacities 20MW and 10MW and speed reg-
ulation of 2% and 3% respectively. Two stations are connected through are inter
connector and motor generator set. The set is connected to bus bar of A and has
a capacity of 3 MW and full load slip of 4%. Determine the load of the inter con-
nector when there is load of 8MW on bus bar B due to its own consumers but A
has no external load. [16]

5. A single area consists of two generators with the following parameters:

Generator 1 = 1200 MVA; R=6 % (on machine base)
Generator 2 = 1000 MVA; R=4 % (on machine base)
The units are sharing 1800 MW at normal frequency 50 Hz. Unit supplies 1000
MW and unit 2 supplies 800 MW. The load now increased by 200 MW.

(a) Find steady state frequency and generation of each unit if B=0.
(b) Find steady state frequency and generation of each unit if B=1.5. [8+8]

6. Derive the relation between steady state frequency error and tie-line power devia-
tion for a step load disturbances in both the areas. [16]

7. Obtain the steady state response of a two area load frequency controller with inte-
gral control action under controlled case. [16]

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Code No: R05410204 Set No. 4
8. Three supply points A, B and C are connected to a common bus bar D as depicted
in figure 8. Supply point A is maintained at a nominal voltage of 400 kV and is
connected to D through 400/132kV transformer and a 132 kV line of reactance
50 ohms. Supply point B is nominally at 132kV and is connected to D through
a 132 kV line of 50ohms reactance. supply point C is nominally at 400kV and
is connected to D by a 400/132 kV transformer and a 132 kV line of 100ohms
reactance. If at a particular load, the line voltage at D falls below its nominal value
by 5 kV, calculate the value of the reactive volt-ampere injection required at D to
re-establish the original voltage. [16]

Figure 8

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Code No: R05410303 Set No. 1
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
MECHATRONICS
( Common to Mechanical Engineering and Production Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. (a) Explain the functions of PC based graphical user interface system in Robots
used in the manufacturing system.
(b) Discuss the advantages and limitations of PC based control systems over stand
alone control systems. [8+8]

2. (a) What is summing amplifier? Discuss with simple sketch.

(b) Explain with the help of neat sketch, the working of Ramp ADC. [8+8]

3. (a) What is the application of ball screw and nut?

(b) Draw the neat sketch of diaphragm-operated process control valve. Explain
its working principle, advantages and limitations. [4+12]

4. (a) Explain the applications of solenoids in mechatronics systems.

(b) Discuss the working principle of variable speed a.c. motor. [8+8]

5. Compare and contrast between DC servomotor drive with AC servomotor drive.

[16]

6. Perform a trade-off study on the four technologies used for the analog to digital
conversion. Use cost, conversion time, and accuracy as the list of criteria. [16]

7. Discuss the applications of counters in programmable and logic controllers (PLC).

[16]

8. Describe and compare the performance and properties of

(a) Proportional control

(b) Proportional plus integral control
(c) Proportional plus integral control plus derivative control. [5+5+6]

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Code No: R05410303 Set No. 2
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
MECHATRONICS
( Common to Mechanical Engineering and Production Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. (a) Explain with the help of a block diagram, functioning of a mechatronics sys-
tem.
(b) Discuss the application of graphical interface in flexible manufacturing system.
[8+8]
2. (a) Explain briefly the term digital signal processing.
(b) Explain the different signal conditioning methods. [8+8]
3. (a) Draw the block diagram of pneumatic power supply and explain the operation.
(b) Explain the function of poppet valve and shuttle valve. [8+8]
4. (a) Explain the applications of solenoids in mechatronics systems.
(b) Discuss the working principle of variable speed a.c. motor. [8+8]
5. (a) Explain the principle of vector control with the help of phasor diagram.
(b) An ac induction motor is rated at 1175 rpm, 480V, 60 Hz 3-phase. If we reduce
the motor speed by reducing the line frequency to 25 Hz, what should be the
line voltage? [8+8]
6. List out the special function registers (SFRs) associated with the following func-
tions:
(a) Timer/counter
(b) interrupts
(c) Serial communication and
(d) Power saving modes. [16]
7. (a) With the help of timing diagram, explain how an on delay and off delay timer
are different.
(b) Consider a 12 bit analog input with a range of -10V to 10V. If we put in
2.735V, what will the integer value be after the A/D conversion? What is the
error? What voltage can we calculate? [8+8]
8. A robotic arm made from steel has a length of 1.524 m, a breadth of 0.102 m, and
a height of 0.1524 m. The payload is 444.82 kg. The density of steel, ρ, is 7.87 kg
m−3 and its Young’s modulus, E, is 206.85 GPa. Determine the deflection of the
robotic arm due to the payload and the robotic link mass. [16]

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Code No: R05410303 Set No. 3
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
MECHATRONICS
( Common to Mechanical Engineering and Production Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. (a) Define ‘graphical user interface’ and ‘real time control system’. Discuss its
applications and limitations.
(b) Compare and contrast between traditionally designed watch and that of micro-
process based designed watch using mechatronics elements. [8+8]
2. Explain the following:
(a) Analog to Digital Converter
(b) Filters
(c) Digital signal processing. [5+5+6]
3. (a) Explain with the help of neat sketch, the working of pneumatic diaphragm
actuator.
(b) What is the function of bearing? Explain the basic elements of ball bearings.
[8+8]
4. (a) What is TTL circuit? Draw and explain 7402 TTL circuits.
(b) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of a.c. motors over d.c. motors.
[8+8]
5. Discuss the requirements of DC servomotor drive. List out its applications also.
[16]
6. Describe different types of the data transfer instructions in 8051. Explain the
difference between the MOV, MOVC and MOVX instructions. [16]
7. What is a shift register? Explain the operation a shift register with the help of a
ladder diagram. [16]
8. A three-mode controller has KP as 2, KI as 0.1 per sec, KD as 1.0 sec, and a set
point output of 50%. The error starts at zero and changes at 5% per sec for 2
sec before become constant for 3 sec. It then decreases at 2% per sec to zero and
remains at zero. What will the controller output at
(a) 0 sec
(b) 3 sec
(c) 7 sec. [16]

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Code No: R05410303 Set No. 4
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
MECHATRONICS
( Common to Mechanical Engineering and Production Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. (a) Explain with the help of a block diagram, functioning of a mechatronics sys-
tem.
(b) Discuss the application of graphical interface in flexible manufacturing system.
[8+8]

2. (a) Explain the applications of various types of amplifiers.

(b) Discuss the various passive components used in filtering noise signals. [8+8]

3. (a) Draw the neat sketches of valve bodies and show the path of fluid flow.
(b) What are the different types of ball bearing? Discuss the applications of ball
bearings. [8+8]

4. (a) Explain the following two types of MOSFETs.

i. n-channel
ii. p-channel
(b) Discuss the following protection devices used in mechatronics system:
i. thermal dissipation
ii. resetable fuses . [8+8]

5. Explain the operation of induction motor drive with pulse width modulation tech-
nique. [16]

6. Write a program in ‘C’, for switching a motor for on and off control using micro-
controller ports. [16]

7. (a) Describe the procedure for solving a rung of logic.

(b) What are the two steps the PLC must perform during operation? [8+8]

8. A proportional controller has KP of 20 and set point of 50 % output. Its output

is to have a valve which at the set point allows a flow of 2.0 m3 /sec. The valve
changes its output in direct proportion to the controller output. What will be the
controller output and offset error when the flow has to be changed to 2.5 m3 /sec.
[16]

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Code No: R05 410404
IV B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2009 Set No.1
RADAR SYSTEMS
(Electronics and Communications Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE questions
All Questions carry equal marks
********
1. a) Describe the working principle of a pulsed radar system.
b) Describe the range eqation and discuss its limitation.

2.a) Define and explain transmitter power in radar equation and express the radar equation in terms of
the Contained in the transmitted wave form.

b) Discuss the factors of PRF and range ambiguities

3 a) Draw the block diagram of FMCW radar and explain its operation with triangular modulation.
b) Differentiatte CW and FMCW radars.

4.a) explain the effect of Doppler frequency “fd” for the stationary and moving targets.
b) explain the Butterfly effect that is produced by MTI.

5.a) Discuss the necessity of delay line canceller and explain with an example.
b) Explain the operation of filter,which is used to achieve responses suitable for MTI.

6.a) How is the radar target acquired in a typicl radar?

b) What factor determine the range and angular accuracies In a radar.

7.a) Explain the characteristics of a cross – correlation receiver with a block diagram.
b) Write a short notes on matched and non-matched filters.

8.a) Define the noise figure and obtain an expression for the noise figure for 3 networks in cascade.
b) Explain the functioning and characteristics of PPI disply.

***********
Code No: R05 410404
IV B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2009 Set No.2
RADAR SYSTEMS
(Electronics and Communications Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE questions
All Questions carry equal marks
********
1. a) Draw the diagram of a basic radar system and explain the operation of each block in detail.
b) Discuss the range of radar frequencices in electromagnetic spectrum.

2 . a) Obtain the basic radar equation in terms of minimum detectable power gains of transmitting and
receiving antennas etc.,
b) What are the factors effecting the relationship between the radars cross section of a target and its
true cross section.

3 . a) Explain the method of measurement of distance by using multiple frequency CW radar in missible
Guidance systems.
b) Distinguish between CW radar and pulsed radar.

4 . a) Describe the salient features of FMCW radar.

b) What are the applicable of CW radars and FMCW radars.

5. a)Draw the block diagram of non-coherent MTI radar and explain the function of each block.
b) What are the advantage of non-coherent MTI radar.

6. a) Explain the low angle tracking in detail.

b)Briefly explain the four types of radars that provide the tracks of targets.

7. a) Derive the impulse response characteristics for a matched filter.

b) Write a short notes on passive ECM.

8. a) Describe the different types of feeds used for parabolic reflectors?

b) Three network units of 6dB noise figure and 10dB,6dB and 3dB gains respectively are cascaded
Determine the overall noise figure of the system.
*******
Code No: R05 410404
IV B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2009 Set No.3
RADAR SYSTEMS
(Electronics and Communications Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE questions
All Questions carry equal marks
********
1. a) Derive the basic radar equation.
b) What are the problems and limitations in the prediction of signals in noise.
c) Discuss about detection of signals in noise.

2. a) What do you understand by false alarm?What are the design precations to be taken to minimize it?
b) Describe the different noise components present in radar systems.

3. a) With a block diagram explain the principle of operation of CW Doppler radar with non-zero IF
Receiver.
b) Discuss the limitations of simple CW radar with zero IF.

4. a) What is principle of operation of FMCW radar?What are its applications.

b) Explain the FM-CW altimeter with the help of a block diagram.

5. a) What is the principle of MTI radar?

b) How does a MTI principle of MTI radar differ from CW radar?

6. a)Compare the various tracking radar techniques in detail.

b)Explain the sequential lobing technique.

7. a) Explain the characteristics of cross-correlation receiver with a block diagram.

b) Explain and distinguish between different ECCM options.

8. a) What do you mean by feed illumination angle , feed support and f/d ratio with reference to radar
Antennas.
b) Discuss and compare the characteristics of A-scope and P-scope displays.
*********
Code No: R05 410404
IV B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2009 Set No.4
RADAR SYSTEMS
(Electronics and Communications Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE questions
All Questions carry equal marks
********
1 a) Derive the maximum range for a radarsystem for first ptinciples.
b) Apulsed radar operating at 10 Ghz has an antenna with a gain of 28dB and a transmitter power of
2kw.If it is defined to detect a target with a cross section of 12 sqm and a minimum detectable
Signal is Pmin =90dBm. What is the maximum range of the radar.

2 a) Explain the significance of probability of false alarm and probability of miss.

b) Explain about the integration of radar pulses.

3 a) With a neat block diagram explain how a CW radar is used for the determination of the relative
velocity of a target.
b) What is Doppler effect? What are its radar applications.

4 a)What is the need of delay line canceller?

b) Draw the filter characteristrics of delay line canceller with the applications.
c) What are the applications of CW radar?

5 a) Draw and explain frequency – response characteristics of an MTI using range gates and filters/
b)What is the difference between MTI radar using range gates and MTI with a single – delay – line
canceler?

6 a) Give the basic reasons for poor tracking at low angle .

b) With a block diagram explain the conical scanning method of tracking an acquired target.

7 a) Explain the different types of feeds and their radiation characteristics, suitable to radar dish
antennas.
b) Explain the principle and process of correlation detection.

8 a) Explain the principle and characteristics of a matched filter. Derive the expression for its frequency
response function.
***********
Code No: R05410504 Set No. 1
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT
( Common to Computer Science & Engineering and Information
Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. Describe the long standing debates among developers and vendors for software cost
estimation models and tools? [16]

2. Discuss the primary quality mechanisms and indicators which should be emphasized
in the management process? [16]

3. Describe the primary objectives, essential activities and primary evaluation criteria
of the transition phase? [16]

4. Explain an organized and abstracted view of the architecture into the design models.
[16]

5. If you have access to project planning software, investigate the extent to which it
offers support for earned value analysis. If it does not do so directly, investigate
ways in which it would help you to generate a baseline budget(BCWS) and track
the earned value(BCWP). [16]

6. (a) What are the typical components of the organizational infrastructure?

(b) What are project environment artifacts? Explain.
(c) What are the four important environment disciplines? [6+6+4]

7. (a) Define earned value system. Explain.

(b) What are the two primary dimensions of process variability?
(c) Explain process maturity. [8+4+4]

8. (a) Explain denouement.

(b) Explain DOD-STD-2167A artifacts. [8+8]

⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1 of 1
Code No: R05410504 Set No. 2
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT
( Common to Computer Science & Engineering and Information
Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. Discuss the improvements that can be applied to the software cost model? [16]

2. Describe the rigorous engineering activities that expose the architectural issues?
[16]

3. Define Work Break Down Structure (WBS) for budgeting and collecting costs?[16]

4. Define a configuration baseline and release histories of a project and a product.[16]

5. (a) What are three types of joint management reviews? Explain.

(b) Discuss about the cost and schedule estimating process. [8+8]

6. (a) What are default roles in a software line-of-business organization? Explain.

(b) What are the primitive components of a software change order? [10+6]

7. (a) What are the steps to leveraging measurements?

(b) Explain with example Software Project Control Panel. [8+8]

8. Discuss about Ada COCOMO. [16]

⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1 of 1
Code No: R05410504 Set No. 3
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT
( Common to Computer Science & Engineering and Information
Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. Describe the methods used in managing the development of large scale software
systems? [16]

2. Summarize the characteristics of a successful object oriented project? [16]

3. Describe the primary objectives, essential activities and primary evaluation criteria
of the inception phase? [16]

4. Explain in detail the four phases (Inception, Eloboration, construction and transi-
tion). [16]

5. (a) What are the steps in identifying project roles? Name any five project roles
and skills needed for them.
(b) What are the benefits of matching people to roles? [10+6]

6. (a) On a large project it is often be the responsibility of a team leader to allocate

tasks to individuals. Why might it be unsatisfactory to leave such allocations
entirely to the discretion of the team leader?
(b) Discuss about processes and project management. [8+8]

7. (a) What are seven core metrics? Explain.

(b) What is a metric? Explain pragmatic software metric. [8+8]

8. (a) Write about results of major milestones in a modern process.

(b) Explain IPDR demonstration results. [8+8]

⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1 of 1
Code No: R05410504 Set No. 4
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT
( Common to Computer Science & Engineering and Information
Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. Describe the various objectives used for the measurement of software size? [16]

2. Elaborate Metaprocess, Macro process and Micro process with an example?

[16]

3. Describe the primary objectives, essential activities and primary evaluation criteria
of the inception phase? [16]

4. Explain an organized and abstracted view of the architecture into the design models.
[16]

5. What are advantages and disadvantages of software reuse? Explain in detail. [16]

6. (a) What are the four component teams in a default project organization and
their responsibility?
(b) How does the emphasis in the four teams evolve over the course of the entire
project? [8+8]

7. How might you measure the effectiveness of a user manual for a software package?
Consider both the measurements that might be applicable and the procedures by
which the measurements be taken. [16]

8. (a) Discuss about culture shifts.

(b) Explain the incremental test process. [8+8]

⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1 of 1
Code No: R05410804 Set No. 1
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
CHEMICAL PROCESS EQUIPMENT DESIGN
(Chemical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. (a) Acetone is synthesized by catalytic hydrogenation of isopropyl vapor in a reac-

tor at 4000 C and 40 psig pressure. For this purpose, liquid isopropyl alcohol
is vaporized, heated and fed to a reactor. The reactor exit gases including
water, unconverted isopropyl alcohol and the products of the reaction are fed
to a condenser in which most of the acetone, water and alcohol are condensed.
The remaining traces of acetone and alcohol are removed in a water scrubber.
The effluent from the scrubber is combined with the condensate and sent to a
distillation column to obtain pure acetone. The bottom product consisting of
water and alcohol is sent to another distillation column. The top product is an
azeotrope from the second distillation column and is recycled to the reactor.
The convertion of alcohol per pass through the reactor is 85 percent. Draw a
preliminary flow sheet of the process.
(b) Write short notes on the following:
i. Time basis for flow sheet preparation
ii. Scaling factor for flow sheet calculations. [10+6]

2. (a) Discuss the features of the storage vessels for the following:
i. Storage of non-volatile liquids
ii. Storage of gases
iii. Storage of volatile liquids.
(b) Explain the design procedure for a horizontal storage tank with saddle sup-
ports. [6+10]

3. A chemical reaction vessel made of plain carbon steel is to be designed at a pressure

15 atm and a temperature of 2900 C. The ellipsoidal bottom is to have ratio of
major axis to minor axis as 2:1. The corrosion allowance is to be 10 percent of
calculated thickness. Design pressure may be taken as 115 percent of operating
pressure. At the operating conditions, the permissible stress has to be taken 85
N/mm2 . Calculate the thickness of the cylindrical portion of the vessel and the
ellipsoidal bottom. The internal diameter of the vessel is 2m and overall height
from the bottom of the ellipsoidal dish in 3m. [16]

4. A horizontal shell and tube heat exchanger is required to heat furnace oil at the
rate of 2500 kg/h from 200 C to 800 C. The oil is to flow inside the tubes and
steam flows on shell side at a temperature of 1300 C. The tubes have an outside
diameter of 2 cm and inside diameter of 1.75cm. In order to limit the pressure
drop, the maximum velocity of oil allowed on tube side is restricted to 5 cm /s.

1 of 3
Code No: R05410804 Set No. 1
Find the number of tubes if length of each tube is 2.5m. The wall temperature may
be assumed to be 1000 c.
DATA:
Properties of oil at average temperature (500 C)
ρ = 900kg/m3 ; µ = 50kg/mh
Cp = 2kJ/kg; k = 0.15W/mk
µ (at 1000 C) = 10kg/mh
Properties of water at film temperature
ρ = 940kg/m3 ; k = 0.74W/mK
Cp = 4.2kJ/kgK; µ = 0.97kg/mh
latent heat of condensation of steam = 2200 kJ/kg
Assume that 10 tubes are placed one over the other in the vertical direction, in a
horizontal tube bank.
Correlations:
For oil side heat transfer coefficient:
hD

   0.14
D 1/3 µ b
k
= 1.86 (NRe ) (Npr ) L µw
L
D
ratio may be taken as 150 in the correlation.
Heat transfer
h coefficient
i for condensation:
kf3 ρ2f gλ 1/4
h = 0.725 N D0 µf (∆T 0)
. [16]

5. Explain the construction of power plant evaporators. [16]

6. A tower, packed with 25-mm Intalox saddles, is to be designed for stripping trichloroethylene,
C2 HCl3 , from a contaminated groundwater stream. A volumetric stream of 0.0436
m3 /s is to be fed to the top of the tower which will operate at 288 K and 1.013 ×
105 Pa. A 0.237 m3 /s air stream, flowing countercurrent to the aqueous stream, is
to reduce the TCE concentration from 50 µg/liter to 5 µg/liter. Under the stated
flow conditions, the overall liquid-capacity coefficient, KL a, will be equal to

2
mole.m
0.016 m2 .s.(mole/m3 )m3 = 0.016s
−1

At 288 K, Henry’s law constant for the TCE air system is 11.7 × 10 - 3 atm
/(mole/m3 ). Determine

(a) the partial pressure of TCE in the exiting air stream;

(b) the height of the packing required for the stripping operation. [16]

7. Esterification of butanol and acetic acid is carried out by using Sulfuric acid, as a
homogeneous catalyst. The product is butyl acetate. The reaction is carried out in
a batch reactor at 100 0 C by using feed 5 moles of butanol per mole of acetic acid.
The catalyst concentration is 0.035% by weight. Esterification is a second order
reaction and has expression, -rA =K C A2 , K= 17.8 × 10 - 3 m3 /kgmol.min.
Mol.wts: Butanol =74, Acetic acid= 60, Butyl acetate =116.
Densities: Butanol =740, Acetic acid = 980, Butyl acetate=800 kg/m3

2 of 3
Code No: R05410804 Set No. 1
Density of reaction mixture= 750kg/m3 .
Calculate size of Batch reactor to produce 100kg/hr of the product with 65% con-
version. Take 20minutes between the batches. [16]

8. Explain the construction and functioning of top suspension, bottom discharge cen-
trifuge with a neat diagram. [16]

⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

3 of 3
Code No: R05410804 Set No. 2
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
CHEMICAL PROCESS EQUIPMENT DESIGN
(Chemical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. (a) Explain the following terms.

i. Yield of a reactor
ii. Plant yield.
(b) Ethanol is produced by hydrolysis of ethylene in a plant and diethyl ether
is produced as a by-product. The feed consists of 60 percent ethylene, 5
percent inerts and 35 percent water. The product composition is 52 percent
ethylene, 5.5 percent ethanol, 0.2 percent ether, 36.8 percent water and 5.5
inerts. Calculate the yield of ethanol and ether based on ethylene and also
the percentage conversion of ethylene. [6+10]

2. (a) Write short notes on the following types of roofs used for storage vessels
i. Vapor - lift roof
ii. Floating roof
iii. Self supported roof.
(b) Derive the equation for the optimum ratio of diameter to height for a cylin-
drical storage vessel based on cost considerations.
Given: (Costs are given in Rs/m2 )
Annual cost of fabricated cylindrical shell = C1
Annual cost of fabricated bottom = C2
Annual cost of fabricated roof = C3
Annual cost of foundation = C4
Annual cost of land chargeable
to the storage tank on the basis of tank bottom area = C5
Assume uniform shell plate thickness. [6+10]

3. (a) A tall and heavy pressure vessel is connected in series with process equipment
in a plant. The vessel is also filed with process liquid. State various stresses
induced in such a vessel and write equations for each of the stresses. How is
the calculation of these stresses used to determine the thickness of the vessel?
(b) A vessel having a diameter of 1.8 m and thickness of 6 mm is to be used as
apressure vessel. The permissible stress of the material used for fabrication is
1100kg / cm2 . Welded joint efficiency is 85 percent. Find the maximum pres-
sure that the vessel can withstand during its use. If a vessel of spherical shape
of the same material is to be designed for withstanding the same pressure,
calculate the thickness of the vessel. [8+8]

1 of 3
Code No: R05410804 Set No. 2
4. (a) Present the comparison of double pipe heat exchangers versus shell and tube
heat exchangers with respect to performance, utility and economy.
(b) A jacketed agitated reactor of diameter 1.6 m is fitted with a dished bottom
and a flat flanged top. The jacket is fitted to the cylindrical section only and
extends to a height of 1 m. The spacing between jacket and the vessel is 80
mm. The jacket is fitted with a propeller blade of diameter 0.65m and rotating
at 130 rpm. The vessel is baffled and is constructed of stainless steel plate of
thickness 12 mm. The reactor contains an aqueous reaction mixture. Flow
rate of water through the jacket is 30,000 kg/h. The water through the jacket
is used to cool the reactor contents using chilled water at 100 C. Calculate the
overall heat transfer coefficient from the following data.

Properties Reaction mixture Chilled water

Density (kg/m3 ) 850 990
Prandtl number 80 500
Thermal conductivity (W/mK) × 103 600 400
Viscosity (mNS/m2 ) 1.14 0.8
Thermal conductivity steel = 19 W/m0 K
Correlations:
For jacket side fluid:
Nu = 0.023 Re0.8 Pr0.33
Use equivalent diameter for diameter in Reynolds number.
For the fluid in vessel
Nu = 0.74 (Re)0.67 Pr1/3
2
Re = N Dµa p
Where N is speed of agitator
Da is Diameter of agitator. [6+10]

5. A solution of organic colloids is to be concentrated from 15 to 50 percent solids in

a vertical-tube evaporator. The solution has a negligible elevation in boiling point
and the specific heat of the feed is 0.92. saturated steam is available at 0.8 atm
abs, and the pressure in the condenser is 102 mm Hg abs. The feed enters at 18 0 C.
The overall coefficient is 2200 W/m2 . 0 C.The evaporator must evaporate 27,000 kg
of water per hour. How many square meters of surface are required and what is
the steam consumption in kilogram per hour. [16]

6. (a) What is distillation? What are the important parameters considered in the
distillation column design?
(b) Show a schematic diagram of a distillation column and explain its anatomy.
[8+8]

7. Derive the performance equation for Recycle reactors. In turn, give the equations
for the extremes of negligible and infinite recycle and name the flow types? [16]

8. For a plate and frame filter press, operated at constant pressure the relation between
the volume of filtrate Vf and the time in operation θf is as fallows:

2 of 3
Code No: R05410804 Set No. 2
Vf2 = 6.25 × 104 (θf + 0.11)
Where Vf is cubic meter of filtrate delivered in filtering time θf hours. The cake
formed in each cycle must be washed with an amount of water equal to one sixteenth
times the volume of filtrate delivered per cycle. The washing rate remains constant
and is equal to one fourth of the filtrate delivery rate at the end of the filtration.
The time required per cycle for dismantling, dumping and reassembling of the
press is 6.0 hours. Under the conditions where the preceding information applies,
determine the total cycle time necessary to permit the maximum output of filtrate
during each 24 hours. [16]

⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

3 of 3
Code No: R05410804 Set No. 3
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
CHEMICAL PROCESS EQUIPMENT DESIGN
(Chemical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. (a) Acetone is synthesized by catalytic hydrogenation of isopropyl vapor in a reac-

tor at 4000 C and 40 psig pressure. For this purpose, liquid isopropyl alcohol
is vaporized, heated and fed to a reactor. The reactor exit gases including
water, unconverted isopropyl alcohol and the products of the reaction are fed
to a condenser in which most of the acetone, water and alcohol are condensed.
The remaining traces of acetone and alcohol are removed in a water scrubber.
The effluent from the scrubber is combined with the condensate and sent to a
distillation column to obtain pure acetone. The bottom product consisting of
water and alcohol is sent to another distillation column. The top product is an
azeotrope from the second distillation column and is recycled to the reactor.
The convertion of alcohol per pass through the reactor is 85 percent. Draw a
preliminary flow sheet of the process.
(b) Write short notes on the following:
i. Time basis for flow sheet preparation
ii. Scaling factor for flow sheet calculations. [10+6]

2. An oil is to be stored in a horizontal circular tank fabricated from mild steel. The
capacity of the tank is to be 25m3 . The tank covers with flat plates. Calculate the
maximum tensile bending stress and direct shear stress from the following data.
[16]
DATA:

Density of oil = 920 kg/m3

Plate thickness = 8mm
Density of steel = 800 kg/m3
Inside Diameter of tank = 3m
Length of the tank = 5m

3. (a) What for nozzles are used in pressure vessels? What are the three types of
nozzles classified on the basis of forming and attachment? Write about the
features of each type of nozzles.
(b) Explain the purpose of providing reinforcement to nozzles. What are the three
methods of designing reinforcement to nozzles? Explain one of the methods
with an example. [8+8]

4. An organic liquid flowing at the rate of 4500kg/h is to be cooled from 500 c to 300
C in counter current flow by chilled water supplied at a temperature of 100 c and

1 of 3
Code No: R05410804 Set No. 3
the maximum temperature rise is to be 50 c.
Design a 1-2 heat exchanger using tubes of 1.5 cm i.d. and 2mm wall thickness of
length 2m. The tubes are to be laid in triangular pitch of 1.25 times the external di-
ameter of tube. The baffle spacing is 20 percent of shell diameter and the clearance
between shell and bundle is also 20 percent of shell diameter. Correction factor for
log mean temperature difference is 0.90As a first estimate, the overall heat transfer
coefficient may be taken as 500 W/m2 K. Estimate the diameter of shell, number
of tubes and the excess area that would be available over initial estimate.
DATA

Property Organic Liquid Water

Specific heat (J/kg k) 2000 4200
2
Viscosity (NS/m m) 0.3× 10 −3
0.8×10−3
Density (kg/m3 ) 700 1000
Thermal conductivity 0.13 0.61
Fouling resistance 0.0003 0.0003
Thermal conductivity of tube metal = 50W/ Mk
Correlations:
Tube side: hikdi = 0.023 (Re)0.8 (Pr)0.33
N t 1/2.2


Bundle diameter = do 0.25 ; d0 ; outside diameter of tube in mm.
Nt = Total number of tubes
Nt is number
h of tube; do is out side diameter of tube
0.55
i
ho de
k
= 0.36 deµGs [Pr ]0.33
de =equivalent diameter of shell. [16]

5. A solution of organic colloids is to be concentrated from 15 to 50 percent solids in

a vertical-tube evaporator. The solution has a negligible elevation in boiling point
and the specific heat of the feed is 0.92. saturated steam is available at 0.8 atm
abs, and the pressure in the condenser is 102 mm Hg abs. The feed enters at 18 0 C.
The overall coefficient is 2200 W/m2 . 0 C.The evaporator must evaporate 27,000 kg
of water per hour. How many square meters of surface are required and what is
the steam consumption in kilogram per hour. [16]

6. Write briefly on the fallowing:

(a) Geometric Similarity

(b) Dynamic Similarity
(c) Kinematic Similarity. [16]

7. The reversible first- order gas reaction A → R is to be carried out in a mixed reactor.
For operations at 300ok the volume of reactor is 100 liters for 60% conversion of A

(a) What should be the volume of rector for the same feed rate and conversion
but with operations at 400 0 K

2 of 3
Code No: R05410804 Set No. 3
(b) State or show that a sketch how to find the temperature of operations which
would minimize the size of mixed reactor needed for this conversion and feed
rate.

Data:
k1 = 103 exp [-4800/RT]
∆ Cp = CPR - CPA = 0
∆ Hr = -8000 cal/mol at 300 0 K.
k= 10 at 300 0 K
Feed consists of pure A
Total pressure stays constant. [8+8]

8. A constant pressure filtration test gave data that can fit an expression, dt/dV =
9.3V + 8.5; (t in seconds, V in liters). If the resistance of the filter medium is
assumed unaffected with pressure drop and the compressibility coefficient of the
filter cake is 0.3, what will be the time taken for the collection of 3.5 liters of
filtrate at a filtration pressure twice that used in the test? [16]

⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

3 of 3
Code No: R05410804 Set No. 4
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
CHEMICAL PROCESS EQUIPMENT DESIGN
(Chemical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. Aniline is produced by the hydrogenation of nitrobenzene. A small amount of

cyclohexyl amine is produced as by product. The reactions are
C6 H5 No2 +3H2 → C6 H5 NH+2H2 O
C6 H5 NO2 +6H2 → C6 H11 NH2 + 2H2
The mole ratio of Nitrobenzene to hydrogen is 3:1.Nitrobenzene is fed as vapor to
the reactor. The percentage of conversion of nitrobenzene is 90 percent and the
yield to aniline 89 percent. The un reacted hydrogen is separated from the reactor
products and recycled to the reactor. A purge is taken from the recycle stream to
maintain the inerts in the recycle stream below 5 percent. The fresh hydrogen feed
is 99 percent pure and the remainder being inerts. Taking 100 moles per hour feed
rate of nitrobenzene as basis calculate

(a) the quantity of fresh hydrogen feed and

(b) the composition of the reactor outlet stream. [16]

2. (a) A plant requires a storage tank to have an inventory of 1600 tons of ethyl
alcohol. It is found from cost considerations that the ratio of height to diam-
eter of the tank is 0.6. Plates having dimensions of 1.2m x 2.4m in different
standard thicknesses are available. Find
i. the maximum and minimum thickness of plates required and
ii. the number of plates required for fabrication. The tank is filled up to 90%
of its capacity.
DATA:
Density of ethyl alcohol = 790 kg/m3
Welded joint efficiency = 0.85
Corrosion allowance = 2mm
Permissible stress of material = 750 kg/cm2 .
(b) A horizontal cylindrical tank with flat ends has a diameter of 2.5m. The
tank contents are filled up to 0.5m. Find the percentage volume of the tank
occupied by the liquid. [12+4]

3. (a) Discuss the parameters to be considered for the design of a pressure vessel.
(b) What do you understand by class B and class C vessels?
(c) A pressure vessel having an outer diameter of 1.5m and a height of 4m is
subjected to an internal pressure of 15 kg /cm2 . It is required to fabricate
the vessel as class B vessel with joint efficiency of 85 percent. Calculate the
thickness of the vessel. Find also the percentage of material saved by welding

1 of 3
Code No: R05410804 Set No. 4
a strip along the longitudinal joint. The welding efficiency may be taken as
100 percent.
Given:
Allowable stress of material = 100 kg /cm2
Corrosion allowance = 1.0mm. [3+3+10]

4. (a) A double pipe heat exchanger is used to heat 1000 kg/h of oil from 30 0 C to
40 0 C using hot water at 90 0 Cin counter current flow. The hot water flows at
a velocity of 2500 m/h through the annulus of the heat exchanger. The outer
diameter of the inner pipe is 2.5cm and the inside diameter of outer pipe in
4.0 cm. The wall thickness of the inner pipe is 2mm. Neglect wall and scale
resistances. Calculate the length of the heat exchanger.
DATA:
Properties Water Oil
Cp (kJ/kgK) 4.2 1.9
K (W/mK) 0.7 0.14
ρ (kg/m3 ) 1000 850
ν (m2 /s) 0.4× 10 - 6 0.7 × 10 - 5
Heat Transfer coefficients may be calculated using the equation appropriately.
N u = 0.023 (N Re )0.8 (Npr )1/3
(b) Explain the salient features of the following heat exchangers with respect to
their construction and limitations.
i. Double pipe heat exchangers
ii. 1-1 Pass shell and tube heat exchanger. [10+6]

5. (a) What are the types of condensers that are used in evaporator installations?
(b) 3.78 kg/sec steam at 13.5 KN/m2 is to be condensed in a jet condenser using
cooling water at 2880k. If the cooling water exit temperature is 3160 K and
the steam is not super heated, what is the cooling water requirement? At 13.5
KN/m2 ,steam temperature =3250 K and latent heat = 2379 KJ/kg. [16]

6. The absorption of water in sulfuric acid is an exothermic process. Describe the effect
this would have on the required height of a mass-transfer column as compared to
the height that is evaluated if isothermal conditions are assumed. [16]

7. If PFR is to be fed 600m3/hr of gas containing 60% Br2 and 30% C2 H5 and 10%
inerts by volume at 6000k and 1.5atm. Compute the volume of reaction vessel
required to obtain 60% of maximum conversion. Gas phase reaction at 600 k is
C2 H4 + Br2 → C2 H4 Br2
Rate constants K1 =500lit/mol-hr, K2 =0.032 hr-1 . [16]

8. A constant pressure filtration test gave data that can fit an expression, dt/dV =
9.3V + 8.5; (t in seconds, V in liters). If the resistance of the filter medium is
assumed unaffected with pressure drop and the compressibility coefficient of the
filter cake is 0.3, what will be the time taken for the collection of 3.5 liters of
filtrate at a filtration pressure twice that used in the test? [16]

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Code No: R05410804 Set No. 4
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Code No: R05411006 Set No. 1
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
ARTIFICIAL NEURAL NETWORKS
( Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering, Bio-Medical
Engineering and Electronics & Telematics)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. (a) Explain the differences between conventional computation and neural network
computation.
(b) Explain the structure of the brain and its organization. [8+8]

2. What are different types of learning schemes used in training of artificial neural
networks?. Explain each of them clearly with suitable examples. [16]

3. (a) Write the training algorithm of multi category single layer perceptron net-
works.
(b) Can single layer Perceptron classify linearly non-separable patterns? If not,
why? [8+8]

4. (a) Explain the architecture and training method of self-organizing map network.
(b) Explain the Grossberg layer training algorithm. [8+8]

5. Consider a Kohonen net with two cluster units and three input units. The weight
vector for the cluster units are (0.9,0.7,0.6) and (0.4,0.3,0.5). Find the winning
cluster for the input vector (0.4,0.2,0.1). Use learning rate of 0.2 . Find new
weights for the winning unit. [16]

6. (a) Explain the concept of “Energy function” in Hopfield networks.

(b) Construct an energy function for a discrete Hopfield neural network of size N
neurons. [8+8]

7. Explain the function of ART network and explain its operation with relevant Equa-
tions. [16]

8. Discuss how ART network can be used for

(a) image processing

(b) Chavadis recognision. [8+8]

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Code No: R05411006 Set No. 2
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
ARTIFICIAL NEURAL NETWORKS
( Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering, Bio-Medical
Engineering and Electronics & Telematics)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. (a) Explain the structure of the brain and its organization.

(b) With suitable diagrams explain the model of artificial neuron and also explain
the important activation functions used in ANN. [8+8]
2. (a) Given are a set of input training vectors and initial weight vector. The learning
constant is assumed to be 0.1. The desired responses for X1 , X2 and X3 are
d1 =-1, d2 =-1 and d3 =1 respectively for a bipolar binary case. X1 =[1, 2 ,0,
1]T , X2 = [0, 1.5, -0.5, -1.0]T and X3 = [-1, 1, 0.5, -1]T . W0 = [1,-1,0, 0.5]T .
With the Perceptron learning rule evaluate weight vector after completion of
one cycle of training.
(b) Explain the memory based learning rule and also explain its limitations.
[8+8]
3. Explain the following :
(i) Task achieving with back propagation network.
(ii) Limitations of backpropagaiton algorithm.
(iii) Extensions of backpropagation. [6+5+5]
4. (a) Explain the architecture and training method of self-organizing map network.
(b) Explain the Grossberg layer training algorithm. [8+8]
5. Discuss Learning Laws:
(a) Winner take all
(b) Grossberg-in-star and
(c) Grossberg out-star. [16]
6. (a) Draw and explain Hardware model of continuous Hopfield network.
(b) Discuss Energy function of continuous Hopfield network. [8+8]
7. Draw the architecture of ART algorithm and explain. Comment on the vigilance
parameter.
[10+6]
8. (a) Discuss “image segmentation” using ANN.
(b) Explain “Texture classification” using ANN. [8+8]

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Code No: R05411006 Set No. 3
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
ARTIFICIAL NEURAL NETWORKS
( Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering, Bio-Medical
Engineering and Electronics & Telematics)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. (a) Explain the classification of artificial neural networks

(b) Explain the characteristics of artificial neural networks.
(c) What are the popular nonlinear functions used in modeling artificial neuron?
Explain each of them. 5+5+6
2. What are the important learning rules of artificial neural networks?. Explain each
of them with an example. [16]
3. (a) Explain how pattern mode and batch mode of training affect the result of
backpropagation learning.
(b) What is the significance of momentum term in the backpropagation learning
(c) Explain the refinements of the backpropagation learning and also the inter-
pretation of the result of the learning [5+5+6]
4. (a) With suitable diagram explain the architecture of the ADALINE and its train-
ing algorithm.
(b) Explain the application of MADALINE in the Adaptive signal processing.
[8+8]
5. Explain about BPA and Full CPN. [16]
6. (a) Describe the Hopfield neural network models.
(b) Explain the concept of stability in neural networks and discuss the stability
of Hopfield networks. [8+8]
7. Use outer products rule to find weight matrix in bipolar form for the BAM Network
based on the following binary input-output vector pairs.
s(1) = (1 0 0 1) t(1) = (0 , 1)
s(2) = (1 0 1 0) t(2) = (0 , 1)
s(3) = (1 1 0 0 ) t(3) = (1 , 0)
s(4 ) = (1 1 1 1 ) t(4) = (1 ,0). [16]
8. Discuss how ART network can be used for
(a) image processing
(b) Chavadis recognision. [8+8]

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Code No: R05411006 Set No. 4
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
ARTIFICIAL NEURAL NETWORKS
( Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering, Bio-Medical
Engineering and Electronics & Telematics)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. Compare the conventional and neural network computation with regards to the
following tasks or performance aspects:
(i) Problem solving
(ii) Knowledge acquisition
(iii) Knowledge retrieval.
(iv) Internal data. [16]

2. What are different types of learning schemes used in training of artificial neural
networks?. Explain each of them clearly with suitable examples. [16]

3. (a) Write the training algorithm of multi category single layer perceptron net-
works.
(b) Can single layer Perceptron classify linearly non-separable patterns? If not,
why? [8+8]

4. Explain the working of Kohonen’s self-organizing map and derive its weight update
relations. [16]

5. Consider a Kohonen net with two cluster units and five input units. The weight
vector for the cluster units are:
W1 = (0.1 0.3 0.5 0.7 0.9) and
W2 = (0.9 0.7 0.5 0.3 0.1)
Using Euclidian distance find the winning cluster unit for the input pattern. [16]

6. (a) Distinguish between static neural networks and dynamic neural networks with
examples.
(b) Explain applications of Hopfield networks and mention its limitations. [8+8]

7. Draw the architecture of a BAM network and discuss in detail the training Algo-
rithm. [16]

8. Explain how multilayer feedforward neural network can be used for character recog-
nition. Use a sample of 7×10 pixel matrix for the recognition of letter ‘A’. [16]

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Code No: R05 411005 Set No.1
IV B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2009
Digital Control Systems
(Electronics and Instrumentation Engineering & E.Con.E)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE questions
All Questions carry equal marks
********

1 . a) With suitable block diagram explain the general sampled data control system.

b) State and explain the theorem required to satisfy to recover the signal e ( t ) from the samples e*( t )

2 a) Explain the theorems of z – transform

b) Write the limitations of z – transform

c)Find the z – transform of the following

(i) f ( t ) = sinωt ( ii ) X ( s ) =

3 a) Find the pulse transfer function of the following transfer function X (s) =

b) Find the response y (k) when the input x (k) is a unit step sequence for the following differential
equations y ( k + 1 ) + 0.5 y ( k ) = x ( k ) and y ( o ) = 0

4. A discrete time system is described by the differential equation y(k+2) +5y(k+1)+6y(k)=4(k),

Y(0) = 1, Y(1) = 1, T = 1 sec

Determine a state model in canonical form. Find the state transition matrix.

5. Investigation the controllability and observability of the following system

X1 ( k +1 ) 1 -2 x1 ( k ) 1 -1 4 (k)

K2 ( k +1 ) 1 -1 x2 ( k ) 0 0

Y1 ( k ) 1 0 x1 ( k )
 Y2( k ) 0 1 x2 ( k )

6. Find the range of K for the system shown in figure to be stable

C(t)
-TS
zoH e
r (A )

T=1sec

7. Consider the system shown in figure, design head compensation Gc (z) in ω – plane for this system
to meet the following specifications.

( I ) damping ratio = 0.7

(ii ) Settling time = 1.4 Sec

(iii) Velocity error constant = 2 Sec-1

ZOH Y
D(z)
R

- T=0.1sec
plant

8.a) Enumerates the design steps for pole placement

b) Explain the full order state observer with block diagram.

************
Code No: R05 411005 Set No.2
IV B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2009
Digital Control Systems
(Electronics and Instrumentation Engineering & E.Con.E)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE questions
All Questions carry equal marks
********
1. a) With help of schematic diagram explain the principle operation of digital to anolog conversion

b)Explain the conditions to be satisfied for reconstruction of sampled signal into contineous
signal .

c)What are the different types sampling operation.

2 a)Explain the properties of Z-transformers (at least five)

b)Find the inverse Z-transform for the following functions

(i) F (z)= 10Z (ii) F(z) = 1

Z2-1 Z(z-0.2)

3 a)Explain the procedure for obtaining the pulse transferfunction of a closed loop transfer function .

b) Find Y(z)/R(z) for the following sample data close loop system in figure.

R(t) e(t) e(kt) jj Gho G1 s(t) s(t) s(kt) g Gho Gp(s) y(t)

(s) (s) (s)

-T

H(s)
4. Find state models for the following difference equations also find its STM

Y(k+z) +3y(k+1)+ 2y(k) =54(k+1)+34(k)

5. a) Explain the concept of controllability and observability of discrete time control system.

b) Examine whether the discrete data system

x (k+1) = A x(k) + B x(k)

C(k)=Dx(k)

Where A= 0 1 B= 1 D= 1 0

2 -2 - 1

i) State controllable ii) Out put controllable iii) Observable

6. a) Explain the mapping between S-plane and Z-plane

b) Using Jury’s stability critesion find the range of K for which the characterstic equation

Z 3 + K Z 2 + 1.5KZ -(K+1) = 0 is closed loop steb

7 Derive the pulse transfer function of digital PID controller. Also explain the design
procedure of PID controller.
8 Consider the multi – input digital control system

x(k+1) =A x (k) + BG (k)

Where A = 0 1 B= 1 0

-1 -2 , 0 1

Determine the feedback matrix G such the state feed back G (k) = -G X( k )

Places the closed loop poles at Z1=0.1 and Z2 = 0.2

************
Code No: R05 411005 Set No.3
IV B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2009
Digital Control Systems
(Electronics and Instrumentation Engineering & E.Con.E)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE questions
All Questions carry equal marks
********

1. a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of digital control system over linear control
system.
b) Explain the sample and Hold operation with neat diagrams
2. a) find the Z-transform of the following
(i) K2 ak-1, K≥1
(ii) eat sin ωt
b) Find the inverse Z-transform of the following
(i) Z-0.4 (ii) 2Z
2
Z +Z+2 (2Z-1)2
3. For the sampled data control system shown in figure, find the output C(k) for r(t)=unit step

T=1sec C(t)
r(t)
e(t) 1
ZOH S+1
e(k)
1
S

4. a) Find the state model for the following difference equation obtain different canonical forms.
Also draw state diagram for each
Y(k+3)+5y(k+2)+7y(k+1)+3y(k)+4(k)
5. a) Derive the necessary condition of the digital control system
x(k+1)=Ax(k) +B4(k)
y(k)=cx(x) to be controllable
b)Examine whether the discrete data system
x(k+1)=Ax(k)+B4(k)
y(k)=C x(k)

1 -2 1 0 1 0
where A= , B= , C= is
1 -1 0 -1 0 1
(i) State controllable
(ii) observable

6. Using Bilinear transformation, determine whether following system is stable

 r(t) C(t)
10
ZOH S(S+3)
T=1sec

7. a) Explain the design of the digital PID and PI controller in the Z-plane
b) What are the advantages of PID controller and PI or PD controller
8. consider the digital process with the state equation described by
x(k+1)= Ax(k)+ B4(k)

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Code No: R05 411005 Set No.4
IV B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, March 2009
Digital Control Systems
(Electronics and Instrumentation Engineering & E.Con.E)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE questions
All Questions carry equal marks
********
1. a) What are the advantage of digital control systems.
b) Draw the block diagram of digital control system and explain its various components
2. a) Obtain the Z-Transform of the following
(i) F(S) = a (ii) F(s) = S
2
S (S + a) S – W2
2

(b) Find the inverse Z-transforms of the following

(i) F(2)= Z-0.4 (ii) F(z)= Z-4
2
Z +Z+2 (Z-1) (Z-2)2
3. For the sampled data system shown in figure, find the response to unit step input
T=1sec
r(t) e(t) e(k) C(t)
1
- ZOH S(S+1)

4. A desecrate system is described by the difference equation

y(k+2)+3y(k+1)+2y(k)=r(k)
y(0) = y(1)=0, T=1 sec
a) Determine a state variable model for the system. Draw the state diagram
b) Find the STM
5. a) Explain the duality between controllability and observability
b) Consider a liner discrete – data control system, whose input-output relation is described by
the difference equation C(k+2)+2C(K+1)+C(k)=4(k+1)+4(k). lest for state controllable and input
controllable.
6. a) state and explain Jury’s stability test
b) Explain the relation between S-Plane and Z-Plane
7. A block diagram of a digital control system is shown in figure. Design a PID controller D(z), to
eliminate the steady state error due to a step input and simultaneously realizing a good
transient response and the ramp error constant K2 should equal 5.

y
R
10
- D(z) ZOH (S+1)(S+2)
T=1sec
plant

8. a) Prove Ackermann’s formula for the determination of the state feedback gain matrix K
b) Consider the digital process with the state equations described by
X(k=1) = Ax(k)+Bu(k)
C(k) = Dx(k)
0 1 0
Where A= , B= , D = 2 0
-1 1 1

Design a full order observes which will observe the states x1(k) and x2(k) from the output
C(k), having dead beat response.
***********
Code No: R05412304 Set No. 1
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
DOWNSTREAM PROCESSING
(Bio-Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. Discuss about the Important steps involved in downstream processing for ethanol
production. [16]

2. Write in detail about recent and future developments in Bioseparations. [16]

3. (a) Derive cell disruption kinetics for high-pressure homogenizer with a neat sketch.
(b) Derive the design equation for Disc bowl centrifuge. [16]

4. (a) Derive the mathematical expression of Retention co-efficient or Rejection co-

efficient for
(b) What are the factors affecting the membrane separation process? Explain
about them? [16]

5. Explain “in situ product removal as a tool for bioprocessing”. [16]

6. Write about various types of 1D-gel electrophoresis and their applications. [16]

7. What is Adsorption chromatography. Write its applications. [16]

8. Write the principle of pervaporation. What are the factors that determine the
efficiency of pervaporation process?
[16]

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Code No: R05412304 Set No. 2
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
DOWNSTREAM PROCESSING
(Bio-Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. Explain the Role and Importance of DSP in Biotechnological processes. [16]

2. What are the major steps involved in the product isolation and purification of citric
acid manufacturer? [16]

3. Explain about the Filtration technique employed for several Bio products? [16]

4. A tubular membrane with a diameter of 2 cm and a water permeability of 250

lit/m2 .h. atm is being used for UF of cheese whey. The whey proteins have an
average diffusivity of 4×10−7 cm2 /sec and the Osmotic pressure in atmospheres is
given by Johnson‘s equation. π= 4.4× 10−3 C 1.7 10−6 C2 + 7.9 10−8 C3 where
C is the protein concentration in grams per liter. Calculate the effect of ?P on
the flux for a clean membrane if the solution velocity is 1.5 m/sec and the protein
concentration is 10, 20 or 40 g/lit. Assume the gel concentration is 400 g/lit and
the rejection is 100 percent.
Data: Density = 1 gm/cm3 , Viscosity =0.01gm/cm.sec Sherwood number =
0.0096(Reynolds number)0.913 , (Schmidt number) 0.346 [16]

5. What is integrated bioprocessing. Explain it with a familiar industrial product as

an example. [16]

6. What is a sequencing gel? How it is useful in the analysis of nucleic acids. [16]

7. Write the principle of separation of compounds by chroamtofocussing. How it

is different from Ion exchange chromatography. Write the column operation in
chromatofocussing. [16]

8. Explain various steps involved in the recovery of recombinant protein in an indus-

trial scale.
[16]

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Code No: R05412304 Set No. 3
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
DOWNSTREAM PROCESSING
(Bio-Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. What are the separation factors has to be considered for various unit operations in
downstream processing? Explain in detail with help of suitable examples. [16]

2. What are the stages involved in the recovery of intra cellular enzymes? Explain
with help of suitable unit operation involved in each stage. [16]

3. What is meant by cell disruption and explain about the functioning of Bead mill?
[16]

4. Discuss about a typical batch Ultra Filtration with a neat sketch and obtain the
relation for time of Ultra filtration for a specific volume of bio fluids. [16]

5. What is integrated bioprocessing. Draw a neat schematic diagram for a known

compound of your interest . What are the likely problems encountered in the
process and the necessary steps to overcome them to upkeep the process efficiency.
[16]

6. Write about various types of preparative gel electrophoresis techniques and their
applications. [16]

7. What is Adsorption chromatography. Write its applications. [16]

8. Write the principle of supercritical extraction and about the solvents that are com-
monly employed for the proess.
[16]

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Code No: R05412304 Set No. 4
IV B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, March 2009
DOWNSTREAM PROCESSING
(Bio-Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
⋆⋆⋆⋆⋆

1. (a) Write about downstream processing in biotechnological processes.

(b) Impact of product recovery steps in Bioprocess Equipment Design. [16]

2. Write in detail about the selecting of various unit operations in relation to their
separation factor and the molecular size of the material to be recovered in DSP.
[16]

3. (a) Describe the basic principles of centrifugation.

(b) What is the capacity in cubic meters per hour of a clarifying centrifuge oper-
ating under the following conditions? [16]
Diameters of bowl 600 mm
Thickness of liquid layer 75 mm
Depth of bowl 400 mm
Speed 1200 r pm
Specific gravity of liquid 1.2
Specific gravity of Solid 1.6
Viscosity of liquid 2 CP
Cut size of particles 30µ m
4. Discuss about the applications of membrane separation process in Biotech industry.
[16]

5. Write the principle and method for precipitation of proteins by salts. What are the
required precautions during the process for different biotechnological products?
[16]

6. Write about eletro osmotic flow and pressure induced flow in capillary electrophore-
sis. [16]

7. What is Adsorption chromatography. Write its applications. [16]

8. Discuss the advantage and disadvantage of foam based separation in the recovery
of products in biotech Industry.
[16]

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