CHAPTER 1 1 The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.

A) Protocol B) Medium C) Signal D) All the above 10 In a _______ connection, more than two devices can share a single link. A) point-to-point B) multipoint C) primary D) secondary

D)

All of the above

19 ________ defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be taken based on that interpretation. A) Semantics B) Syntax C) Timing D) None of the above

2 The information to be communicated in a data communications system is the _______. A) Medium B) Protocol C) Message D) Transmission

11 In _______ transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both communicating devices at all times. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) half-simplex

20 _______ refers to two characteristics: when data should be sent and how fast it can be sent. A) Semantics B) Syntax C) Timing D) none of the above

3 Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are measures of the _______ of a network. A) Performance B) Reliability C) Security D) Feasibility

12 In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected together. A) IMPs B) host computers C) networks D) routers

21 Data flow between two devices can occur in a _______ way. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) all of the above

13 4 An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue. A) Performance B) Reliability C) Security D) All the above

This was the first network. A) CSNET B) NSFNET C) ANSNET D) ARPANET

5 Which topology requires a central controller or hub? A) Mesh B) Star C) Bus D) Ring

14 Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the communications field? A) ITU-T B) IEEE C) FCC D) ISOC

22 In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are connected by a dedicated link. A) multipoint B) point-to-point C) (a) and (b) D) none of the above

6 Which topology requires a multipoint connection? A) Mesh B) Star C) Bus D) Ring

15 _______ are special-interest groups that quickly test, evaluate, and standardize new technologies. A) Forums B) Regulatory agencies C) Standards organizations D) All of the above

23 In a ________ connection, three or more devices share a link. A) multipoint B) point-to-point C) (a) and (b) D) none of the above

24 ______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network. A) Data flow B) Mode of operation C) Topology D) None of the above

7 Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) automatic

16 Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and electronic signaling specifications? A) EIA B) ITU-T C) ANSI D) ISO

25 Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology. A) mesh B) ring C) bus D) all of the above

8 A television broadcast is an example of _______ transmission. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) automatic

17 _______ is the protocol suite for the current Internet. A) TCP/IP B) NCP C) UNIX D) ACM

26 A _______ is a data communication system within a building, plant, or campus, or between nearby buildings. A) MAN B) LAN C) WAN D) none of the above

9 A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two devices. A) point-to-point B) multipoint C) primary D) secondary

18 _______ refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning the order in which they are presented. A) Semantics B) Syntax C) Timing

27 A ______ is a data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world. A) MAN

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B) C) D)

LAN WAN none of the above

A) B) C) D)

Added Removed Rearranged Modified

14 layers.

The OSI model consists of _______ A) B) C) D) three five seven eight

28 ________ is a collection of many separate networks. A) A WAN B) An internet C) a LAN D) None of the above

6 The _______ layer lies between the network layer and the application layer. A) Physical B) Data link C) Transport D) None of the above

29 There are ______________ Internet service providers. A) local B) regional C) national and international D) all of the above

7 Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and the _______ layer. A) Network B) Data link C) Transport D) None of the above

15 In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are _______. A) added B) removed C) rearranged D) modified

30 A ________ is a set of rules that governs data communication. A) forum B) protocol C) standard D) none of the above

8 When data are transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's layer 4 is read by B's _______ layer. A) Physical B) Transport C) Application D) None of the above

16 In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's layer 5 is read by B's _______ layer. A) physical B) transport C) session D) presentation

31 ________ is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an Internet standard. A) RCF B) RFC C) ID D) none of the above

9 The _______ layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals. A) Physical B) Data link C) Transport D) None of the above

17 In the OSI model, what is the main function of the transport layer? A) node-to-node delivery B) process-to-process message delivery C) synchronization D) updating and maintenance of routing tables

CHAPTER 2 10 Which of the following is an application layer service? A) Remote log-in B) File transfer and access C) Mail service D) All the above

1 The Internet model consists of _______ layers. A) Three B) Five C) Seven D) Eight

18 In the OSI model, encryption and decryption are functions of the ________ layer. A) transport B) session C) presentation D) application

11 2 The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the responsibility of the _______ layer. A) Network B) Transport C) Application D) Physical

Why was the OSI model developed? A) Manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite. B) The rate of data transfer was increasing exponentially C) Standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicate D) None of the above

19 When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which address does the router look at? A) port B) logical C) physical D) none of the above

3 The _______ layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium. A) Physical B) Data link C) Network D) Transport

12 The _______ model shows how the network functions of a computer ought to be organized. A) CCITT B) OSI C) ISO D) ANSI

20 To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the _______ address must be consulted. A) port B) IP C) physical D) none of the above

21

4 Mail services are available to network users through the _______ layer. A) Data link B) Physical C) Transport D) Application

13 The physical layer is concerned with the movement of _______ over the physical medium. A) programs B) dialogs C) protocols D) bits

IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses. A) 32 B) 64 C) 128 D) variable

22

5 As the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are _______.

ICMPv6 includes _______. A) IGMP B) ARP C) RARP D) a and b

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23 The ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to the next. A) physical B) data link C) transport D) none of the above

A) B) C) D)

32 48 16 none of the above

24 The ______ layer adds a header to the packet coming from the upper layer that includes the logical addresses of the sender and receiver. A) physical B) data link C) network D) none of the above

32 The ____ created a model called the Open Systems Interconnection, which allows diverse systems to communicate. A) OSI B) ISO C) IEEE D) none of the above

40 The ________ layer is responsible for the process-to-process delivery of the entire message. A) transport B) network C) data link D) physical

25 The_________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one process to another. A) physical B) transport C) network D) none of the above

33 The seven-layer _____ model provides guidelines for the development of universally compatible networking protocols. A) OSI B) ISO C) IEEE D) none of the above

41 The ______ layer establishes, maintains, and synchronizes the interactions between communicating devices. A) transport B) network C) session D) physical

26 The Internetworking Protocol (IP) is a ________ protocol. A) reliable B) connection-oriented C) both a and b D) none of the above

34 The physical, data link, and network layers are the ______ support layers. A) user B) network C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

42 The _______ layer ensures interoperability between communicating devices through transformation of data into a mutually agreed upon format. A) transport B) network C) data link D) presentation

27 _______ is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port addresses, checksum error control, and length information to the data from the upper layer. A) TCP B) UDP C) IP D) none of the above

35 The session, presentation, and application layers are the ____ support layers. A) user B) network C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

43 The _________ layer enables the users to access the network. A) transport B) application C) data link D) physical

36 The _______ layer links the network support layers and the user support layers. A) transport B) network C) data link D) session

44 TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical protocol suite developed ____ the OSI model. A) seven-layer; before B) five-layer; before C) six-layer; before D) five-layer; after

28 __________ provides full transport layer services to applications. A) TCP B) UDP C) ARP D) none of the above

37 The _______ layer coordinates the functions required to transmit a bit stream over a physical medium. A) transport B) network C) data link D) physical

45 The TCP/IP _______ layer is equivalent to the combined session, presentation, and application layers of the OSI model. A) application B) network C) data link D) physical

29 The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN. A) port B) physical C) logical D) none of the above

38 The _______ layer is responsible for delivering data units from one station to the next without errors. A) transport B) network C) data link D) physical

46 The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN. A) physical B) IP C) port D) specific

30 Ethernet uses a ______ physical address that is imprinted on the network interface card (NIC). A) 32-bit B) 64-bit C) 6-byte D) none of the above

39 The ______ layer is responsible for the source-to-destination delivery of a packet across multiple network links. A) transport B) network C) data link D) physical

47 The ____ address uniquely defines a host on the Internet. A) physical B) IP C) port D) specific

31 A port address in TCP/IP is ______ bits long.

48 The_____ address identifies a process on a host. A) physical B) IP

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C) D)

port specific

C) D)

periodic and discrete aperiodic and discrete

D)

none of the above

CHAPTER 3 1 Before data can be transmitted, they must be transformed to ________. A) periodic signals B) electromagnetic signals C) aperiodic signals D) low-frequency sine waves

10 If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is 2 V, the minimum amplitude is ________ V. A) 2 B) 1 C) -2 D) between -2 and 2

18 _______ data have discrete states and take discrete values. A) Analog B) Digital C) (a) or (b) D) None of the above

19 11 A signal is measured at two different points. The power is P1 at the first point and P2 at the second point. The dB is 0. This means ________. A) P2 is zero B) P2 equals P1 C) P2 is much larger than P1 D) P2 is much smaller than P1

2 A periodic signal completes one cycle in 0.001 s. What is the frequency? A) 1 Hz B) 100 Hz C) 1 KHz D) 1 MHz

Signals can be ________. A) analog B) digital C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

3 In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the ________. A) peak amplitude B) frequency C) phase D) slope

20 _____ signals can have an infinite number of values in a range. A) Analog B) Digital C) (a) or (b) D) None of the above

4 In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is a measure of ________. A) signal amplitude B) frequency C) phase D) time

12 ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the resistance of the transmission medium. A) Attenuation B) Distortion C) Noise D) Decibel

21 _______ signals can have only a limited number of values. A) Analog B) Digital C) (a) or (b) D) None of the above

5 If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 KHz and the lowest frequency is 52 KHz, what is the highest frequency? A) 5 KHz B) 10 KHz C) 47 KHz D) 57 KHz

13 ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the different propagation speeds of each frequency that makes up the signal. A) Attenuation B) Distortion C) Noise D) Decibel

22

Frequency and period are ______. A) inverse of each other B) proportional to each other C) the same D) none of the above

6 What is the bandwidth of a signal that ranges from 1 MHz to 4 MHz? A) 4 MHz B) 1 KHz C) 3 MHz D) none of the above

14 ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which an outside source such as crosstalk corrupts a signal. A) Attenuation B) Distortion C) Noise D) Decibel

23 ________is the rate of change with respect to time. A) Amplitude B) Time C) Frequency D) Voltage

7 As frequency increases, the period ________. A) decreases B) increases C) remains the same D) doubles

15 When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation time, we get the ________. A) throughput B) wavelength of the signal C) distortion factor D) distance a signal or bit has traveled

24 _______ describes the position of the waveform relative to time 0. A) Frequency B) Phase C) Amplitude D) Voltage

8 Given two sine waves A and B, if the frequency of A is twice that of B, then the period of B is ________ that of A. A) one-half B) twice C) the same as D) indeterminate from

16

Data can be ________. A) analog B) digital C) (a) or (b) D) none of the above

25 A sine wave in the ______ domain can be represented by one single spike in the _____ domain. A) time; frequency B) frequency; time C) time; phase D) phase; time

A sine wave is ________. A) periodic and continuous B) aperiodic and continuous

17 _______ data are continuous and take continuous values. A) analog B) digital C) (a) or (b)

26 A _________ sine wave is not useful in data communications; we need to send a _______ signal. A) composite; singlefrequency B) single-frequency; composite C) single-frequency; doublefrequency

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D)

none of the above

27 The _____ of a composite signal is the difference between the highest and the lowest frequencies contained in that signal. A) frequency B) period C) bandwidth D) amplitude

A) B) C) D)

line block NRZ Manchester

2 _______ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit. A) RZ B) Manchester C) Differential Manchester D) All the above

10 Block coding can help in _______ at the receiver. A) Synchronization B) Error detection C) Attenuation D) (a) and (b)

28 A(n)_________ signal is a composite analog signal with an infinite bandwidth. A) digital B) analog C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

3 _______ encoding has a transition at the beginning of each 0 bit. A) RZ B) Manchester C) Differential Manchester D) All the above

11 In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted simultaneously, each across its own wire. A) Asynchronous serial B) Synchronous serial C) Parallel D) (a) and (b)

29 Baseband transmission of a digital signal is possible only if we have a ____ channel. A) low-pass B) bandpass C) low rate D) high rate

4 PCM is an example of _______ conversion. A) digital-to-digital B) digital-to-analog C) analog-to-analog D) analog-to-digital

12 In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted over a single wire, one at a time. A) asynchronous serial B) synchronous serial C) parallel D) (a) and (b)

30 If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital signal directly to the channel. A) low-pass B) bandpass C) low rate D) high rate

31 For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the theoretical maximum bit rate. A) noisy B) noiseless C) bandpass D) low-pass

5 If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with the highest frequency at 600 Hz, what should be the sampling rate, according to the Nyquist theorem? A) 200 samples/s B) 500 samples/s C) 1000 samples/s D) 1200 samples/s

13 In _______ transmission, a start bit and a stop bit frame a character byte. A) asynchronous serial B) synchronous serial C) parallel D) (a) and (b)

14 In asynchronous transmission, the gap time between bytes is _______. A) fixed B) variable C) a function of the data rate D) zero

32 For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to find the maximum bit rate. A) noisy B) noiseless C) bandpass D) low-pass

6 The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum sampling rate to be_______. A) equal to the lowest frequency of a signal B) equal to the highest frequency of a signal C) twice the bandwidth of a signal D) twice the highest frequency of a signal

15 ___________ conversion involves three techniques: line coding, block coding, and scrambling. A) Analog-to-digital B) Digital-to-analog C) Analog-to-analog D) Digital-to-digital

33

_________ can impair a signal. A) Attenuation B) Distortion C) Noise D) All of the above

7 Which of the following encoding methods does not provide for synchronization? A) NRZ-L B) RZ C) NRZ-I D) Manchester

16 ________ is the process of converting digital data to a digital signal. A) Block coding B) Line coding C) Scrambling D) None of the above

34 The _________ product defines the number of bits that can fill the link. A) bandwidth-period B) frequency-amplitude C) bandwidth-delay D) delay-amplitude

8 Which encoding method uses alternating positive and negative values for 1s? A) NRZ-I B) RZ C) Manchester D) AMI

17 _______ provides redundancy to ensure synchronization and inherent error detection. A) Block coding B) Line coding C) Scrambling D) None of the above

CHAPTER 4 1 Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding are types of _______ encoding.

9 Which quantization level results in a more faithful reproduction of the signal? A) 2 B) 8 C) 16 D) 32

18 ________ is normally referred to as mB/nB coding; it replaces each m-bit group with an n-bit group. A) Block coding B) Line coding C) Scrambling

5 #TiwalaLang

D)

None of the above

19 ________ provides synchronization without increasing the number of bits. A) Scrambling B) Line coding C) Block coding D) None of the above

or gaps. It is the responsibility of the receiver to group the bits. A) synchronous B) asynchronous C) isochronous D) none of the above

C) D)

unipolar all of the above

20 Two common scrambling techniques are ________. A) NRZ and RZ B) AMI and NRZ C) B8ZS and HDB3 D) Manchester and differential Manchester

28 The ________ mode provides synchronization for the entire stream of bits must. In other words, it guarantees that the data arrive at a fixed rate. A) synchronous B) asynchronous C) isochronous D) none of the above

36 In _____, the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit. A) NRZ-I B) NRZ-L C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

21 The most common technique to change an analog signal to digital data is called __________. A) PAL B) PCM C) sampling D) none of the above

29 A _________ digital signal includes timing information in the data being transmitted. A) self-synchronizing B) self-modulated C) self-transmitted D) none of the above

37 In ______, the change or lack of change in the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit. A) NRZ-I B) NRZ-L C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

22

The first step in PCM is ________. A) quantization B) modulation C) sampling D) none of the above

30 In decoding a digital signal, the receiver calculates a running average of the received signal power, called the _______. A) baseline B) base C) line D) none of the above

38 The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZL are combined into the ________ scheme. A) Manchester B) differential Manchester C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

39 The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZI are combined into the ________ scheme. A) Manchester B) differential Manchester C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

23 There are three sampling methods: __________. A) quantized, sampled, and ideal B) ideal, sampled, and flattop C) ideal, natural, and flat-top D) none of the above

31 The ________ rate defines the number of data elements sent in 1s; the ______ rate is the number of signal elements sent in 1s. A) data; signal B) signal; data C) baud; bit D) none of the above

24 ______ finds the value of the signal amplitude for each sample; ____ finds the change from the previous sample. A) DM; PCM B) PCM; DM C) DM; CM D) none of the above

32 The signal rate is sometimes called the ____ rate. A) baud B) bit C) signal D) none of the above

40 In _______ encoding, the duration of the bit is divided into two halves. The voltage remains at one level during the first half and moves to the other level in the second half. The transition at the middle of the bit provides synchronization. A) Manchester B) differential Manchester C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

25 While there is (are) only _____ way(s) to send parallel data, there is (are) three subclass(es) of serial transmission. A) one; two B) two; three C) one; three D) none of the above

33 The data rate is sometimes called the ___ rate. A) baud B) bit C) signal D) none of the above

41 In ___________ there is always a transition at the middle of the bit, but the bit values are determined at the beginning of the bit. If the next bit is 0, there is a transition; if the next bit is 1, there is none. A) Manchester B) differential Manchester C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

26 In ______ transmission, we send 1 start bit (0) at the beginning and 1 or more stop bits (1s) at the end of each byte. A) synchronous B) asynchronous C) isochronous D) none of the above

34 In a _____ scheme, all the signal levels are on one side of the time axis, either above or below. A) polar B) bipolar C) unipolar D) all of the above

42 In Manchester and differential Manchester encoding, the transition at the middle of the bit is used for __________. A) bit transfer B) baud transfer C) synchronization D) none of the above

27 In _________ transmission, we send bits one after another without start or stop bits

35 In ______ schemes, the voltages are on the both sides of the time axis. For example, the voltage level for 0 can be positive and the voltage level for 1 can be negative. A) polar B) bipolar

43 The minimum bandwidth of Manchester and differential Manchester is ____ that of NRZ. A) the same as B) twice C) thrice

6 #TiwalaLang

D)

none of the above

44 In _______encoding, we use three levels: positive, zero, and negative. A) unipolar B) bipolar C) polar D) none of the above

A) B) C) D)

100 400 800 1600

45 The _____ scheme uses data patterns of size 2 and encodes the 2-bit patterns as one signal element belonging to a four-level signal. A) 4B5B B) 2B1Q C) MLT-3 D) none of the above

5 If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________. A) 300 B) 400 C) 600 D) 1200

13 In _________, the frequency of the carrier signal is varied to represent data. Both peak amplitude and phase remain constant. A) ASK B) PSK C) FSK D) QAM

6 If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________. A) 300 B) 400 C) 600 D) 1200

14 In ________, the phase of the carrier is varied to represent two or more different signal elements. Both peak amplitude and frequency remain constant. A) ASK B) PSK C) FSK D) QAM

46 The ______ scheme uses three levels (+V, 0, and -V) and three transition rules to move between the levels. A) 4B5B B) 2B1Q C) MLT-3 D) none of the above

7 If the bit rate for a 16-QAM signal is 4000 bps, what is the baud rate? A) 300 B) 400 C) 1000 D) 1200

15 A constellation diagram shows us the __________ of a signal element, particularly when we are using two carriers (one in-phase and one quadrature). A) amplitude and phase B) amplitude and frequency C) frequency and phase D) none of the above

47 ______ substitutes eight consecutive zeros with 000VB0VB. A) B4B8 B) HDB3 C) B8ZS D) none of the above

8 If the baud rate for a 64-QAM signal is 2000, what is the bit rate? A) 300 B) 400 C) 1000 D) 12000

16 Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) is a combination of ___________. A) ASK and FSK B) ASK and PSK C) PSK and FSK D) none of the above

48 ______ substitutes four consecutive zeros with 000V or B00V A) B4B8 B) HDB3 C) B8ZSf D) none of the above

9 Given an AM radio signal with a bandwidth of 10 KHz and the highest-frequency component at 705 KHz, what is the frequency of the carrier signal? A) 700 KHz B) 705 KHz C) 710 KHz D) Cannot be determined from given information

17 ________ uses two carriers, one inphase and the other quadrature. A) ASK B) PSK C) FSK D) QAM

CHAPTER 5 1 ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of ________ conversion. A) digital-to-digital B) digital-to-analog C) analog-to-analog D) analog-to-digital 10 _______ conversion is the process of changing one of the characteristics of an analog signal based on the information in the digital data. A) Digital-to-analog B) Analog-to-analog C) Analog-to-digital D) Digital-to-digital

18 _________ conversion is the representation of analog information by an analog signal. A) Digital-to-analog B) Analog-to-analog C) Analog-to-digital D) Digital-to-digital

2 AM and FM are examples of ________ conversion. A) digital-to-digital B) digital-to-analog C) analog-to-analog D) analog-to-digital

11 Which of the following is not a digital-to-analog conversion? A) ASK B) PSK C) FSK D) AM

19 Analog-to-analog conversion is needed if the available bandwidth is _______. A) low-pass B) band-pass C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

3 In QAM, both ________ of a carrier frequency are varied. A) frequency and amplitude B) phase and frequency C) amplitude and phase D) none of the above

4 If the baud rate is 400 for a QPSK signal, the bit rate is ________ bps.

12 In ________, the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied to create signal elements. Both frequency and phase remain constant. A) ASK B) PSK C) FSK D) QAM

20 Which of the following is not an analog-to-analog conversion? A) AM B) PM C) FM D) QAM

21 In _____ transmission, the carrier signal is modulated so that its amplitude varies with the changing amplitudes of the modulating signal.

7 #TiwalaLang

A) B) C) D)

AM PM FM none of the above

C) D)

0 none of the above

A) B) C) D)

FDM TDM Both (a) and (b) None of the above

22 In _____ transmission, the frequency of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the changing voltage level (amplitude) of the modulating signal. The peak amplitude and phase of the carrier signal remain constant, but as the amplitude of the information signal changes, the frequency of the carrier changes correspondingly. A) AM B) PM C) FM D) none of the above

30 The constellation diagram of BPSK has ______ dots. A) 2 B) 1 C) 0 D) none of the above

31 The constellation diagram of QPSK has ______ dots. A) 2 B) 1 C) 4 D) none of the above

5 In synchronous TDM, for n signal sources of the same data rate, each frame contains _______ slots. A) n B) n+1 C) n-1 D) 0 to n

23 In _____ transmission, the phase of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the changing voltage level (amplitude) of the modulating signal. A) AM B) PM C) FM D) none of the above

32 The constellation diagram of 16QAM has ______ dots. A) 4 B) 16 C) 8 D) none of the above

6 In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum of the transmission rates of the signal sources. A) greater than B) less than C) equal to D) not related to

24 In _______, the peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the other is the same as the amplitude of the carrier frequency. A) PSK B) OOK C) FSK D) none of the above

33 The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______kHz for each AM station. A) 5 B) 10 C) 20 D) none of the above

7 Which multiplexing technique involves signals composed of light beams? A) FDM B) TDM C) WDM D) none of the above

25 How many carrier frequencies are used in BASK? A) 2 B) 1 C) 0 D) none of the above

34 The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______ kHz for each FM station. A) 20 B) 100 C) 200 D) none of the above

8 _________ utilization is the use of available bandwidth to achieve specific goals. A) Frequency B) Bandwidth C) Amplitude D) None of the above

CHAPTER 6 26 How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK? A) 2 B) 1 C) 0 D) none of the above 1 The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _______. A) modulation B) encoding C) line discipline D) multiplexing

9 ________ can be achieved by using multiplexing; ______ can be achieved by using spreading. A) Efficiency; privacy and antijamming B) Privacy and antijamming; efficiency C) Privacy and efficiency; antijamming D) Efficiency and antijamming; privacy

27 How many carrier frequencies are used in BPSK? A) 2 B) 1 C) 0 D) none of the above

2 Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals? A) FDM B) TDM C) WDM D) (a) and (c)

28 How many carrier frequencies are used in QPSK? A) 2 B) 1 C) 0 D) none of the above

3 Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals? A) FDM B) TDM C) WDM D) None of the above

10 ________ is the set of techniques that allows the simultaneous transmission of multiple signals across a single data link. A) Demodulating B) Multiplexing C) Compressing D) None of the above 11 In a multiplexed system, __ lines share the bandwidth of ____ link. A) 1; n B) 1; 1 C) n; 1 D) n; n

29 The constellation diagram of BASK has ______ dots. A) 2 B) 1

4 Which multiplexing technique shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency?

12 The word ______ refers to the portion of a _______ that carries a transmission. A) channel; link B) link; channel C) line; channel D) line; link

8 #TiwalaLang

13 ______ can be applied when the bandwidth of a link (in hertz) is greater than the combined bandwidths of the signals to be transmitted. A) TDM B) FDM C) Both (a) or (b) D) Neither (a) or (b)

C) D)

isochronous none of the above

A) B) C) D)

light radio infrared very low-frequency

22 In ________, we combine signals from different sources to fit into a larger bandwidth. A) spread spectrum B) line coding C) block coding D) none of the above

14

FSM is an _________technique. A) analog B) digital C) either (a) or (b) D) none of the above

5 Which of the following primarily uses guided media? A) cellular telephone system B) local telephone system C) satellite communications D) radio broadcasting

15 ____ is designed to use the high bandwidth capability of fiber-optic cable. A) FDM B) TDM C) WDM D) None of the above

23 _______ is designed to be used in wireless applications in which stations must be able to share the medium without interception by an eavesdropper and without being subject to jamming from a malicious intruder. A) Spread spectrum B) Multiplexing C) Modulation D) None of the above.

6 Which of the following is not a guided medium? A) twisted-pair cable B) coaxial cable C) fiber-optic cable D) atmosphere

16 ______ is an analog multiplexing technique to combine optical signals. A) FDM B) TDM C) WDM D) None of the above

24 The _______ technique uses M different carrier frequencies that are modulated by the source signal. At one moment, the sign modulates one carrier frequency; at the next moment, the signal modulates another carrier frequency. A) FDM B) DSSS C) FHSS D) TDM

7 What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less susceptible to noise than twisted-pair cable? A) inner conductor B) diameter of cable C) outer conductor D) insulating material

17 _____ is a digital process that allows several connections to share the high bandwidth of a link. A) FDM B) TDM C) WDM D) None of the above

25 The ______ technique expands the bandwidth of a signal by replacing each data bit with n bits. A) FDM B) DSSS C) FHSS D) TDM

8 In an optical fiber, the inner core is _______ the cladding. A) denser than B) less dense than C) the same density as D) another name for

18 _____ is a digital multiplexing technique for combining several low-rate channels into one high-rate one. A) FDM B) TDM C) WDM D) None of the above

9 The inner core of an optical fiber is _______ in composition. A) glass or plastic B) copper C) bimetallic D) liquid

CHAPTER 7 1 Transmission media are usually categorized as _______. A) fixed or unfixed B) guided or unguided C) determinate or indeterminate D) metallic or nonmetallic 10 When a beam of light travels through media of two different densities, if the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, _______ occurs. A) reflection B) refraction C) incidence D) criticism

19 We can divide ____ into two different schemes: synchronous or statistical. A) FDM B) TDM C) WDM D) none of the above

20 In ________ TDM, each input connection has an allotment in the output even if it is not sending data. A) synchronous B) statistical C) isochronous D) none of the above

2 Transmission media lie below the _______ layer. A) physical B) network C) transport D) application

11 When the angle of incidence is _______ the critical angle, the light beam bends along the interface. A) more than B) less than C) equal to D) none of the above

21 In ________ TDM, slots are dynamically allocated to improve bandwidth efficiency. A) synchronous B) statistical

3 _______ cable consists of an inner copper core and a second conducting outer sheath. A) Twisted-pair B) Coaxial C) Fiber-optic D) Shielded twisted-pair

12 Signals with a frequency below 2 MHz use _______ propagation. A) ground B) sky C) line-of-sight D) none of the above

4 waves.

In fiber optics, the signal is _______

9 #TiwalaLang

13 Signals with a frequency between 2 MHz and 30 MHz use ______ propagation. A) ground B) sky C) line-of-sight D) none of the above

A) B) C) D)

Coaxial Fiber-optic Twisted-pair none of the above

A) B) C) D)

four three two five

14 Signals with a frequency above 30 MHz use _______propagation. A) ground B) sky C) line-of-sight D) none of the above

23 In a fiber-optic cable, the signal is propagated along the inner core by _______. A) reflection B) refraction C) modulation D) none of the above

4 A ________ network is made of a set of switches connected by physical links, in which each link is divided into n channels. A) line-switched B) frame-switched C) circuit-switched D) none of the above

15 A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) _______ antenna. A) omnidirectional B) bidirectional C) unidirectional D) horn

24 _________ media transport electromagnetic waves without the use of a physical conductor. A) Guided B) Unguided C) Either (a) or (b) D) None of the above

5 Circuit switching takes place at the ________ layer. A) data line B) physical C) network D) transport

25 16 A(n) _____ medium provides a physical conduit from one device to another. A) guided B) unguided C) either (a) or (b) D) none of the above 26 17 ________ cable consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together. A) Coaxial B) Fiber-optic C) Twisted-pair D) none of the above

Radio waves are _________. A) omnidirectional B) unidirectional C) bidirectional D) none of the above

Microwaves are _________. A) omnidirectional B) unidirectional C) bidirectional D) none of the above

6 In _______, the resources need to be reserved during the setup phase; the resources remain dedicated for the entire duration of data transfer phase until the teardown phase. A) datagram switching B) circuit switching C) frame switching D) none of the above

18 _______ cable is used for voice and data communications. A) Coaxial B) Fiber-optic C) Twisted-pair D) none of the above

27 _______ are used for cellular phone, satellite, and wireless LAN communications. A) Radio waves B) Microwaves C) Infrared waves D) none of the above

7 In _________, there is no resource allocation for a packet. A) datagram switching B) circuit switching C) frame switching D) none of the above

19 __________ consists of a central conductor and a shield. A) Coaxial B) Fiber-optic C) Twisted-pair D) none of the above

28 ________ are used for short-range communications such as those between a PC and a peripheral device. A) Radio waves B) Microwaves C) Infrared waves D) none of the above

8 In _________, resources are allocated on demand. A) datagram switching B) circuit switching C) frame switching D) none of the above

CHAPTER 8 20 _____ cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than _____ cable. A) Twisted-pair; fiber-optic B) Coaxial; fiber-optic C) Coaxial; twisted-pair D) none of the above 1 Traditionally, _____ methods of switching have been important. A) four B) three C) five D) six

9 In __________, each packet is treated independently of all others. A) datagram switching B) circuit switching C) frame switching D) none of the above

10 In _______ there are no setup or teardown phases. A) datagram switching B) circuit switching C) frame switching D) none of the above

21 ______ cables are composed of a glass or plastic inner core surrounded by cladding, all encased in an outside jacket. A) Coaxial B) Fiber-optic C) Twisted-pair D) none of the above

2 We can divide today's networks into ____ broad categories. A) four B) three C) five D) two

22 ______ cables carry data signals in the form of light.

3 Packet-switched networks can also be divided into ______subcategories: virtualcircuit networks and datagram networks

11 A _________ network is a cross between a circuit-switched network and a datagram network. It has some characteristics of both. A) virtual-circuit B) packet-switched C) frame-switched D) none of the above

10 #TiwalaLang

12 We can say that a packet switch has _______ types of components. A) two B) three C) four D) none of the above

D)

41

B) C) D)

destination local none of the above

13 The simplest type of switching fabric is the ______ switch. A) crosspoint B) crossbar C) TSI D) STS

21 Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then the minimum number of crosspoints is greater than or equal to _______. A) 15,200 B) 18,000 C) 42,000 D) 20,000

14 A ________ switch is a multistage switch with microswitches at each stage that route the packets based on the output port represented as a binary string. A) crossbar B) TSI C) banyan D) none of the above

22 In a one-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of crosspoints is ______. A) 10,000 B) 20,000 C) 40,000 D) 30,000

30 The _______ address in the header of a packet in a datagram network normally remains the same during the entire journey of the packet. A) source B) destination C) local D) none of the above

CHAPTER 9 1 A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network. A) packet-switched B) circuit-switched C) message-switched D) none of the above

15 In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ stages. A) 8 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2

23 In a three-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of crosspoints is ______. A) 40,000 B) greater than 40,000 C) less than 40,000 D) greater than 100,000

16 In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ microswitches at each stage. A) 8 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2

24 A ________ switch combines crossbar switches in several (normally three) stages. A) multistage B) multiple crossbar C) multiple path D) none of the above

2 The local loop has _______ cable that connects the subscriber telephone to the nearest end office. A) twisted-pair B) coaxial C) fiber-optic D) none of the above

17 A ________ switch combines spacedivision and time-division technologies to take advantage of the best of both. A) TST B) SSS C) TTT D) none of the above

25 In _______ switching, the paths in the circuit are separated from one another spatially. A) time-division B) space-division C) two-dimensional D) three-dimensional

3 Data from a computer are _______; the local loop handles _______ signals. A) analog; analog B) analog; digital C) digital; digital D) digital; analog

18 The most popular technology in time-division switching is called the _________. A) STI B) ITS C) TSI D) none of the above

26 A switched WAN is normally implemented as a _______ network. A) virtual-circuit B) datagram C) circuit-switched D) none of the above

4 _______ is suitable for businesses that require comparable upstream and downstream data rates. A) VDSL B) ADSL C) SDSL D) (a) and (b)

19 Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then n must be equal to or greater than ____. A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40

27 In a ________ network, two types of addressing are involved: global and local. A) virtual-circuit B) datagram C) circuit-switched D) none of the above

5 DMT is a modulation technique that combines elements of _______ and _______. A) FDM; TDM B) QDM; QAM C) FDM; QAM D) PSK; FSK

28 The network layer in the Internet is designed as a __________ network. A) virtual-circuit B) datagram C) circuit-switched D) none of the above

6 The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries _______. A) voice communication B) upstream data C) downstream data D) control data

20 Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then k must be equal to or greater than ____. A) 21 B) 19 C) 31

29 A switch in a datagram network uses a routing table that is based on the ______ address. A) source

7 _______ was designed as an alternative to the T-1 line. A) VDSL B) ADSL C) SDSL D) HDSL

11 #TiwalaLang

HDSL encodes data using _______. A) 4B/5B B) 2B1Q C) 1B2Q D) 6B/8T

17 The United States is divided into many _______. A) LECs B) LATAs C) IXCs D) none of the above

C) D)

modern; demo none of the above

9 Another name for the cable TV office is the _______. A) splitter B) fiber node C) combiner D) head end

26 Most popular modems available are based on the ________standards. A) V-series B) X-series C) VX-series D) none of the above

10 A traditional cable TV network transmits signals ______. A) upstream B) downstream C) upstream and downstream D) none of the above

18 The carrier that handles intra-LATA services is called a(n) _____ . A) POP B) IXC C) LEC D) none of the above

11 In an HFC network, the downstream data are modulated using the _______ modulation technique. A) PSK B) QAM C) PCM D) ASK

19 The carrier that handles inter-LATA services is called a(n) _______. A) POP B) IXC C) LEC D) none of the above

27 ______technology is a set of technologies develpoed by the telephone companies to provide high data rate transmission. A) ASL B) DSL C) LDS D) none of the above

20 In ______signaling, the same circuit is used for both signaling and data. A) in-band B) out-of-band C) mixed D) none of the above

28 The traditional cable TV system used ________cable end to end. A) twisted-pair B) coaxial C) fiber-optic D) none of the above

12 In an HFC network, the upstream data are modulated using the _______ modulation technique. A) QAM B) QPSK C) PCM D) ASK

21 In ________signaling, a portion of the bandwidth is used for signaling and another portion for data. A) in-band B) out-of-band C) mixed D) none of the above

29 The second generation of cable networks is called a(n) _________ network. A) HFC B) HCF C) CFH D) none of the above

30 cable.

The HFC network uses _______ A) B) C) D) twisted-pair coaxial fiber-optic a combination of (b) and

13 The standard for data transmission over an HFC network is called _______. A) MCNS B) DOCSIS C) CMTS D) ADSL

14 The original telephone network, which is referred to as the plain old telephone system (POTS), was an ________ system. A) digital B) analog C) digital as well as analog D) none of the above

22 The protocol that is used for signaling in the telephone network is called ______. A) POP B) SSS C) SS7 D) none of the above

(c)

15 The modern telephone network is now ________. A) digital B) analog C) digital as well as analog D) none of the above

23 Telephone companies provide two types of analog services: analog _______ services and analog _____services. A) switched; in-band B) out-of-band; in-band C) switched; leased D) leased; out-of-band

31 To use a cable network for data transmission, we need two key devices: a ______ and a _________ A) CM; CMS B) CT; CMTS C) CM; CMTS D) none of the above

CHAPTER 10 1 Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic? A) Simple parity check B) Two-dimensional parity check C) CRC D) Checksum

16 The telephone network is made of ______ major components. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) none of the above

24 The two most common digital services are ________ service and ______. A) switched/56; switched/64 B) switched/56; DDS C) DDS; swiched 64 D) leased; out-of-band

25 The term modem is a composite word that refers to the two functional entities that make up the device: a signal _______ and a signal _______. A) modulator; demodulator B) demodulator; modulator

2 Which error detection method consists of just one redundant bit per data unit? A) Simple parity check B) Two-dimensional parity check C) CRC D) Checksum

12 #TiwalaLang

3 In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC? A) The divisor B) The quotient C) The dividend D) The remainder

12 We add r redundant bits to each block to make the length n = k + r. The resulting n-bit blocks are called _________. A) datawords B) blockwords C) codewords D) none of the above

C) D)

0 to 10 none of the above

21 ______.

In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use only A) B) C) D) 1 and 2 0 and 2 0 and 1 none of the above

4 In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _______ the CRC. A) The same size as B) one bit less than C) one bit more than D) none of the above 5 A burst error means that two or more bits in the data unit have changed. A) double-bit B) burst C) single-bit D) none of the above

13 The ________ between two words is the number of differences between corresponding bits. A) Hamming code B) Hamming distance C) Hamming rule D) none of the above

22 Adding 1 and 1 in modulo-2 arithmetic results in _________. A) 1 B) 2 C) 0 D) none of the above

6 In ________ error correction, the receiver corrects errors without requesting retransmission. A) backward B) onward C) forward D) none of the above

14 To guarantee the detection of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code must be _______. A) 5 B) 6 C) 11 D) none of the above

23 In block coding, if k =2 and n =3, we have _______ invalid codewords. A) 8 B) 4 C) 2 D) none of the above

7 In ________ error correction, the receiver asks the sender to send the data again. A) backward B) retransmission C) forward D) none of the above

15 To guarantee correction of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code must be ________. A) 5 B) 6 C) 11 D) none of the above

24 The Hamming distance between equal codewords is _________. A) 1 B) n C) 0 D) none of the above

8 We can divide coding schemes into two broad categories: ________ and ______coding. A) block; linear B) linear; nonlinear C) block; convolution D) none of the above

16 In a linear block code, the _______ of any two valid codewords creates another valid codeword. A) XORing B) ORing C) ANDing D) none of the above

25 The Hamming distance between 100 and 001 is ________. A) 2 B) 0 C) 1 D) none of the above

9 In modulo-2 arithmetic, __________ give the same results. A) addition and multiplication B) addition and division C) addition and subtraction D) none of the above

17 A simple parity-check code can detect __________ errors. A) an even-number of B) two C) no errors D) an odd-number of

26 In block coding, if n = 5, the maximum Hamming distance between two codewords is ________. A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) none of the above

10 In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use the ______ operation for both addition and subtraction. A) XOR B) OR C) AND D) none of the above

18 _______codes are special linear block codes with one extra property. If a codeword is rotated, the result is another codeword. A) Non-linear B) Convolution C) Cyclic D) none of the above

27 If the Hamming distance between a dataword and the corresponding codeword is three, there are _____ bits in error. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) none of the above

11 In _____ coding, we divide our message into blocks, each of k bits, called ___. A) block; blockwords B) linear; datawords C) block; datawords D) none of the above

19 The _____of errors is more difficult than the ______. A) correction; detection B) detection; correction C) creation; correction D) creation; detection

28 The _______ of a polynomial is the highest power in the polynomial. A) range B) degree C) power D) none of the above

20 In modulo-11 arithmetic, we use only the integers in the range ______, inclusive. A) 1 to 10 B) 1 to 11

29 The divisor in a cyclic code is normally called the _________. A) degree B) generator C) redundancy

13 #TiwalaLang

D)

none of the above

30 A generator that contains a factor of ____ can detect all odd-numbered errors. A) x B) x+1 C) 1 D) none of the above

4 For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 10 data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments are needed. A) exactly 10 B) less than 10 C) more than 10 D) none of the above

D)

none of the above

5 31 Checksums use _________ arithmetic. A) two's complement arithmetic B) one's complement arithmetic C) either (a) or (b) D) none of the above

HDLC is an acronym for _______. A) High-duplex line communication B) High-level data link control C) Half-duplex digital link combination D) Host double-level circuit

13 In _________ protocols, we use ________. A) character-oriented; byte stuffing B) character-oriented; bit stuffing C) bit-oriented; character stuffing D) none of the above

32 In one's complement arithmetic, if positive 7 is 0111, then negative 7 is ________. A) 1111 B) 1101 C) 1000 D) none of the above

33 The checksum of 1111 and 1111 is _________. A) 1111 B) 0000 C) 1110 D) 0111

6 Data link control deals with the design and procedures for ______ communication. A) node-to-node B) host-to-host C) process-to-process D) none of the above 7 _______ in the data link layer separates a message from one source to a destination, or from other messages going from other sources to other destinations. A) Digitizing B) Controlling C) Framing D) none of the above

14 Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data section of the frame when there is a character with the same pattern as the ______. A) header B) trailer C) flag D) none of the above

15 In ________ protocols, we use ________. A) byte-oriented; bit stuffing B) character-oriented; bit stuffing C) bit-oriented; bit stuffing D) none of the above

34 The checksum of 0000 and 0000 is __________. A) 1111 B) 0000 C) 1110 D) 0111

8 In _______ framing, there is no need for defining the boundaries of frames. A) fixed-size B) variable-size C) standard D) none of the above

16 Bit stuffing means adding an extra 0 to the data section of the frame when there is a sequence of bits with the same pattern as the ________. A) header B) trailer C) flag D) none of the above

CHAPTER 11 1 In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence numbers? A) 0 to 63 B) 0 to 64 C) 1 to 63 D) 1 to 64

9 In ________ framing, we need a delimiter (flag) to define the boundary of two frames. A) fixed-size B) variable-size C) standard D) none of the above

17 _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment. A) Flow B) Error C) Transmission D) none of the above

2 In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are received successfully, the receiver may send an ACK _______ to the sender. A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) any of the above

10 _________framing uses two categories of protocols: character-oriented and bit-oriented. A) Fixed-size B) Variable-size C) Standard D) None of the above

18 ______ control refers to methods of error detection and correction. A) Flow B) Error C) Transmission D) none of the above

ARQ stands for _______. A) Automatic repeat quantization B) Automatic repeat request C) Automatic retransmission request D) Acknowledge repeat request

11 In a ________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of characters. A) bit-oriented B) character-oriented C) either (a) or (b) D) none of the above

19 The Simplest Protocol and the Stopand-Wait Protocol are for ______ channels. A) noisy B) noiseless C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

12 In a _________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of bits. A) byte-oriented B) bit-oriented C) either (a) or (b)

20 The Stop-And-Wait ARQ, Go-BackN ARQ, and the Selective Repeat ARQ are for ______ channels. A) noisy B) noiseless C) either (a) or (b)

14 #TiwalaLang

D)

neither (a) nor (b) 29 Both Go-Back-N and SelectiveRepeat Protocols use a _________. A) sliding frame B) sliding window C) sliding packet D) none of the above

D)

none of the above

21 The ____ Protocol has neither flow nor error control. A) Stop-and-Wait B) Simplest C) Go-Back-N ARQ D) Selective-Repeat ARQ

22 The _______Protocol has flow control, but not error control. A) Stop-and-Wait B) Simplest C) Go-Back-N ARQ D) Selective-Repeat ARQ

30 In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the send window must be _____ A) 15 B) 16 C) 31 D) 1

37 _________control in the data link layer is based on automatic repeat request, which is the retransmission of data. A) Flow B) Error C) Transmission D) none of the above

23 The _______Protocol has both flow control and error control. A) Stop-and-Wait B) Go-Back-N ARQ C) Selective-Repeat ARQ D) both (b) and (c)

31 In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the receive window must be _____ A) 15 B) 16 C) 31 D) 1

38 In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, we use sequence numbers to number the frames. The sequence numbers are based on __________arithmetic. A) modulo-2 B) modulo-4 C) modulo-m D) none of the above

24 In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends its frames one after another with no regard to the receiver. A) Stop-and-Wait B) Simplest C) Go-Back-N ARQ D) Selective-Repeat ARQ

25 In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends one frame, stops until it receives confirmation from the receiver, and then sends the next frame. A) Stop-and-Wait B) Simplest C) Go-Back-N ARQ D) Selective-Repeat ARQ

32 In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the send window must be _____ A) 15 B) 16 C) 31 D) 1

39 In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, the acknowledgment number always announces in ______ arithmetic the sequence number of the next frame expected. A) modulo-2 B) modulo-4 C) modulo-m D) none of the above

40 In the Go-Back-N Protocol, if the size of the sequence number field is 8, the sequence numbers are in ________ arithmetic, A) modulo-2 B) modulo- 8 C) modulo-256 D) none of the above

26 The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism to the _______Protocol. A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait B) Go-Back-N ARQ; Stopand-Wait C) Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ D) none of the above

33 In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the receive window must be _____ A) 15 B) 16 C) 31 D) 1

41 Stop-and-Wait ARQ is a special case of Go-Back-N ARQ in which the size of the send window is 1. A) 2 B) 1 C) 8 D) none of the above

34 High-level Data Link Control (HDLC) is a _______ protocol for communication over point-to-point and multipoint links. A) bit-oriented B) byte-oriented C) character-oriented D) none of the above

42 In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We have one primary station and multiple secondary stations. A) ABM B) NRM C) ARM D) NBM

27 In the _________Protocol, if no acknowledgment for a frame has arrived, we resend all outstanding frames. A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ B) Go-Back-N ARQ C) Selective-Repeat ARQ D) none of the above

35 The most common protocol for point-to-point access is the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), which is a _________protocol. A) bit-oriented B) byte-oriented C) character-oriented D) none of the above

43 In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link is point-to-point, and each station can function as a primary and a secondary. A) ABM B) NRM C) ARM D) NBM

28 In the _________ protocol we avoid unnecessary transmission by sending only frames that are corrupted. A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ B) Go-Back-N ARQ C) Selective-Repeat ARQ D) none of the above

36 _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment. A) Flow B) Error C) Transmission

44 In PPP, the ________ is responsible for establishing, maintaining, configuring, and terminating links. A) NCP B) LCP C) CHAP

15 #TiwalaLang

D)

PAP

45 In PPP, ________ is a simple authentication procedure with a two-step process: A) NCP B) LCP C) CHAP D) PAP

A) B) C) D)

the same as two times three times none of the above

B) C) D)

CSMA/CD either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b)

46 In PPP, _______ is a three-way hand-shaking authentication protocol in which the password is kept secret; it is never sent online. A) NCP B) LCP C) CHAP D) PAP

8 In the _________ method, after the station finds the line idle, it sends its frame immediately. If the line is not idle, it continuously senses the line until it finds it idle. A) nonpersistent B) 1-persistent C) p-persistent D) none of the above

16 In ________, a station monitors the medium after it sends a frame to see if the transmission was successful. If so, the station is finished. If, however, there is a collision, the frame is sent again. A) CSMA/CA B) CSMA/CD C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b)

CHAPTER 12 1 In ________ each station sends a frame whenever it has a frame to send. A) pure ALOHA B) slotted ALOHA C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

9 In the ________method, a station that has a frame to send senses the line. If the line is idle, it sends immediately. If the line is not idle, it waits a random amount of time and then senses the line again. A) nonpersistent B) 1-persistent C) p-persistent D) none of the above

17 To avoid collisions on wireless networks, ________was invented. A) CSMA/CA B) CSMA/CD C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b)

2 In pure ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time. A) the same as B) two times C) three times D) none of the above

10 In the _______method, after the station finds the line idle it sends or refrain from sending based on the outcome of a random number generator. If the line is busy, it tries again. A) nonpersistent B) 1-persistent C) p-persistent D) none of the above

18 In _______, collisions are avoided through the use of three strategies: the interframe space, the contention window, and acknowledgments. A) CSMA/CA B) CSMA/CD C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b)

3 The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent. A) 12.2 B) 18.4 C) 36.8 D) none of the above

11 We have categorized access methods into _______ groups. A) two B) three C) four D) five

19 In _______ methods, the stations consult one another to find which station has the right to send. A) random access B) controlled access C) channelization D) none of the above

4 In __________, each station is forced to send only at the beginning of the time slot. A) pure ALOHA B) slotted ALOHA C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

12 In ___________ methods, no station is superior to another station and none is assigned the control over another. A) random access B) controlled access C) channelization D) none of the above

20 In _______ methods, a station cannot send unless it has been authorized by other stations. A) random access B) controlled access C) channelization D) none of the above

5 In slotted ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time. A) the same as B) two times C) three times D) none of the above

13 In ______, the chance of collision can be reduced if a station senses the medium before trying to use it. A) MA B) CSMA C) FDMA D) CDMA

21 We discussed ______ popular controlled-access methods. A) two B) three C) four D) none of the above

6 The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent. A) 12.2 B) 18.4 C) 36.8 D) none of the above

14 ________ requires that each station first listen to the medium before sending. A) MA B) CSMA C) FDMA D) CDMA

22 In the ________ method, a station needs to make a reservation before sending data. Time is divided into intervals. A) reservation B) polling C) token passing D) none of the above

7 The vulnerable time for CSMA is the ________propagation time.

15 __________ augments the CSMA algorithm to detect collision. A) CSMA/CA

23 In the _____ method, time is divided into intervals. In each interval, a reservation frame precedes the data frames sent in that interval. A) reservation B) polling

16 #TiwalaLang

C) D)

token passing none of the above

24 In the ______ method, all data exchanges must be made through the primary device even when the ultimate destination is a secondary device. A) reservation B) polling C) token passing D) none of the above

32 In ______, each station is allocated a band to send its data. In other words, each band is reserved for a specific station, and it belongs to the station all the time. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) none of the above

A) B) C) D)

unicast multicast broadcast any of the above

25 In the _______ method, the primary device controls the link; the secondary devices follow its instructions. A) reservation B) polling C) token passing D) none of the above

33 In _______, the stations share the bandwidth of the channel in time. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) none of the above

3 If an Ethernet destination address is 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a ______ address. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) any of the above

26 In the _______ method, the stations in a network are organized in a logical ring. A) reservation B) polling C) token passing D) none of the above

34 In _____, each station is allocated a time slot during which it can send data. Each station transmits its data in its assigned time slot. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) none of the above

4 Which of the following could not be an Ethernet unicast destination? A) 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00 B) 44:AA:C1:23:45:32 C) 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4 D) 48:32:21:21:4D:34

27 In the _______ method, each station has a predecessor and a successor. A) reservation B) polling C) token passing D) none of the above

35 In _____, each station transmits its data in its assigned time slot. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) none of the above

5 Which of the following could not be an Ethernet multicast destination? A) B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00 B) 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32 C) 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4 D) 83:32:21:21:4D:34

28 In the _________ method, a special packet called a ______ circulates through the ring. A) reservation: control frame B) polling: poll request C) token passing: token D) none of the above

36 In ______, the stations use different codes to achieve multiple access. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) none of the above

6 _______ is the most widely used local area network protocol. A) Token Ring B) Token Bus C) Ethernet D) none of the above

29 _________ is a multiple-access method in which the available bandwidth of a link is shared in time, frequency, or through code, between different stations. A) Random access B) Controlled access C) Channelization D) none of the above

37 _______ is based on coding theory and uses sequences of numbers called chips. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) none of the above

7 The IEEE 802.3 Standard defines _________ CSMA/CD as the access method for first-generation 10-Mbps Ethernet. A) 1-persistent B) p-persistent C) non-persistent D) none of the above

30 We discussed ________ channelization protocols. A) two B) three C) four D) none of the above

38 In _______, the sequences are generated using orthogonal codes such the Walsh tables. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) none of the above

CHAPTER 13 1 What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the Ethernet address 01011010 00010001 01010101 00011000 10101010 00001111? A) 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0 B) 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F C) 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F D) 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F

8 The _______ layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC sublayer and the MAC sublayer. A) data link B) physical C) network D) none of the above 9 The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the CSMA/CD access method and framing. A) LLC B) MII C) MAC D) none of the above

31 In ________, the available bandwidth is divided into frequency bands. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) none of the above

10 Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique _______ address imprinted on its network interface card (NIC). A) 5-byte B) 32-bit C) 48-bit D) none of the above

2 If an Ethernet destination address is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a ______ address.

11 The minimum frame length for 10Mbps Ethernet is _______bytes.

17 #TiwalaLang

A) B) C) D)

32 80 128 none of the above

12 The maximum frame length for 10Mbps Ethernet is ________ bytes. A) 1518 B) 1500 C) 1200 D) none of the above

21 _________ uses four pairs of voicegrade, or higher, twisted-pair cable. A) 100Base-TX B) 100Base-FX C) 100Base-T4 D) none of the above

30 In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 0, the address is _________. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above

13

_________ uses thick coaxial cable. A) 10Base5 B) 10Base2 C) 10Base-T D) 10Base-F

22 Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps. A) 10 B) 100 C) 1000 D) 10,000

31 In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 1, the address is _________. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above

14

__________ uses thin coaxial cable. A) 10Base5 B) 10Base2 C) 10Base-T D) 10Base-F

23 Gigabit Ethernet access methods include _______ mode. A) half-duplex B) full-duplex C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

32 In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits are 1s, the address is _________. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above

15 _________ uses four twisted-pair cables that connect each station to a common hub. A) 10Base5 B) 10Base2 C) 10Base-T D) 10Base-F

24 __________ uses two optical fibers and a short-wave laser source, A) 1000Base-SX B) 1000Base-LX C) 1000Base-T D) none of the above

33 ______defines a protocol data unit (PDU) that is somewhat similar to that of HDLC. A) MAC B) LLC C) LLU D) none of the above

16

________ uses fiber-optic cable. A) 10Base5 B) 10Base2 C) 10Base-T D) 10Base-F

25 __________uses two optical fibers and a long-wave laser source. A) 1000Base-SX B) 1000Base-LX C) 1000Base-T D) none of the above

26 17 Fast Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps. A) 10 B) 100 C) 1000 D) 10,000

__________ uses four twisted pairs. A) 1000Base-SX B) 1000Base-LX C) 1000Base-T D) none of the above

34 The purpose of the _______ is to provide flow and error control for the upperlayer protocols that actually demand these services A) MAC B) LLC C) LLU D) none of the above

18 In _________, autonegotiation allows two devices to negotiate the mode or data rate of operation. A) Standard B) Fast Ethernet C) Gigabit Ethernet D) Ten-Gigabit Ethernet

27 ________ uses short-wave 850-nm multimode fiber. A) 10GBase-S B) 10GBase-L C) 10GBase-E D) none of the above

35 In the Ethernet, the _______field is actually added at the physical layer and is not (formally) part of the frame. A) CRC B) preamble C) address D) none of the above

19 __________ uses two pairs of twisted-pair cable. A) 100Base-TX B) 100Base-FX C) 100Base-T4 D) none of the above

28 ________uses long-wave 1310-nm single mode fiber. A) 10GBase-S B) 10GBase-L C) 10GBase-E D) none of the above

36 In the Ethernet frame, the _______ field contains error detection information. A) CRC B) preamble C) address D) none of the above

20 cables.

_________ uses two fiber-optic A) B) C) D) 100Base-TX 100Base-FX 100Base-T4 none of the above

29 ________ uses 1550-mm single mode fiber. A) 10GBase-S B) 10GBase-L C) 10GBase-E D) none of the above

37 Standard Ethernet (10-Mbps) uses _______ encoding A) NRZ B) AMI C) Manchester D) differential Manchester

38 100Base-TX uses _________ block coding and ________ line coding. A) 4B/5B; NRZ B) 8B/10B; NRZ C) 4B/5B; MLT-3

18 #TiwalaLang

D)

8B/10B; NRZ

39 100Base-FX uses _________ block coding and ________ line coding. A) 4B/5B; NRZ-I B) 8B/10B; NRZ C) 4B/5B; MLT-3 D) 8B/10B; NRZ

5 In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two different BSSs usually occurs via two ________. A) BSSs B) ESSs C) APs D) none of the above

13 In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one AP to another AP in a wireless distribution system, the address flag is _____ A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11

40 coding.

100Base-T4 uses ________ line A) B) C) D) NRZ 8B6T MLT-3 Manchester

6 In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility is either stationary (not moving) or moving only inside a BSS. A) no-transition B) BSS-transition C) ESS-transition D) none of the above

14 The IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LANs defines two services: ______ and _______. A) BSS; ASS B) ESS; SSS C) BSS; ESS D) BSS; DCF

41 1000Base-SX, 1000Base-LX, and 1000Base-CX use _________ block coding and ________ line coding. A) 4B/5B; NRZ B) 8B/10B; NRZ C) 4B/5B; MLT-3 D) 8B/10B; NRZ

7 In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________mobility can move from one BSS to another, but the movement is confined inside one ESS. A) no-transition B) BSS-transition C) ESS-transition D) none of the above

15 In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the DCF sublayer is _________. A) ALOHA B) CSMA/CA C) CSMA/CD D) none of the above

42 coding.

1000Base-T uses ________ line A) B) C) D) 4D-PAM5 8B6T MLT-3 Manchester

8 In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility can move from one ESS to another. A) no-transition B) BSS-transition C) ESS-transition D) none of the above

16 In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the PCF sublayer is ______. A) contention B) controlled C) polling D) none of the above

CHAPTER 14 1 IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN, called _______, which covers the physical and data link layers. A) IEEE 802.3 B) IEEE 802.5 C) IEEE 802.11 D) IEEE 802.2 9 In IEEE 802.11, _______ is an optional access method that can be implemented in an infrastructure network (not in an ad hoc network). A) DCF B) PCF C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

17 In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a timer used for collision avoidance. A) NAV B) BSS C) ESS D) none of the above

2 In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and an optional central base station, known as the access point (AP). A) ESS B) BSS C) CSS D) none of the above

10 In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one station in a BSS to another without passing through the distribution system, the address flag is _____ A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11

18 In IEEE 802.11, the MAC layer frame has ______ fields. A) four B) five C) six D) none of the above

19 In IEEE 802.11, the addressing mechanism can include up to ______addresses. A) four B) five C) six D) none of the above

3 In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called an _________. A) an ad hoc architecture B) an infrastructure network C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

11 In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is coming from an AP and going to a station, the address flag is _______. A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11

20 The original IEEE 802.11, uses _________. A) FHSS B) DSSS C) OFDM D) either (a) or (b)

4 In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP is sometimes referred to as ____________. A) an ad hoc architecture B) an infrastructure network C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

12 In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from a station to an AP, the address flag is _____. A) 00 B) 01 C) 10 D) 11

21

The IEEE 802.11a, uses _________. A) FHSS B) DSSS C) OFDM D) either (a) or (b)

22

The IEEE 802.11b, uses _________. A) FHSS

19 #TiwalaLang

B) C) D)

DSSS OFDM either (a) or (b)

23

The IEEE 802.11g, uses _________. A) FHSS B) DSSS C) OFDM D) either (a) or (b)

32 A Bluetooth network consists of _____ primary device(s) and up to ____ secondary devices. A) one; five B) five; three C) two; six D) one; seven

40 In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when data integrity is more important than avoiding latency. A) SCO B) ACL C) ACO D) SCL

24 The original IEEE 802.11, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) 1 B) 6 C) 11 D) 22

33 The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the hidden station problem. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the exposed station problem. A) can; cannot B) cannot; can C) can; can D) cannot; cannot

41 Bluetooth uses ______method in the physical layer to avoid interference from other devices or other networks. A) DSSS B) FHSS C) FDMA D) none of the above

CHAPTER 15 1 A repeater is a connecting device that operates in the _______ layer of the Internet model. A) physical B) data link C) network D) all of the above

25 IEEE 802.11a, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) 1 B) 2 C) 6 D) none of the above

34 In Bluetooth, the current data rate is ____Mbps A) 2 B) 5 C) 11 D) none of the above

26 IEEE 802.11b, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) 1 B) 2 C) 5.5 D) none of the above

27 IEEE 802.11g, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) 1 B) 2 C) 11 D) 22

35 In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is roughly equivalent to the physical layer of the Internet model. A) radio B) baseband C) L2CAP D) none of the above

2 A _______ regenerates a signal, connects segments of a LAN, and has no filtering capability. A) repeater B) bridge C) router D) none of the above

28 The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use ________ types of frames. A) four B) five C) six D) none of the above

36 In Bluetooth, the _____layer is roughly equivalent to the MAC sublayer in LANs. A) radio B) baseband C) L2CAP D) none of the above

3 A _______ is a connecting device that operates in the physical and data link layers of the Internet model. A) repeater B) bridge C) router D) none of the above

29 Bluetooth is a _______ technology that connects devices (called gadgets) in a small area. A) wired LAN B) wireless LAN C) VLAN D) none of the above

37 In Bluetooth, the L2CAP sublayer, is roughly equivalent to the LLC sublayer in LANs. A) radio B) baseband C) L2CAP D) none of the above

4 A ________ bridge can forward and filter frames and automatically build its forwarding table. A) simple B) dual C) transparent D) none of the above

30 A Bluetooth network is called a ________. A) piconet B) scatternet C) bluenet D) none of the above

38 The access method in Bluetooth is ________. A) FDMA B) TDD-TDMA C) CDMA D) none of the above

5 A bridge can use the _________ algorithm to create a loopless topology. A) binary tree B) spanning tree C) multiway tree D) none of the above

31 In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form a network called a _________. A) scatternet; piconets B) piconets: scatternet C) piconets: bluenet D) bluenet; scatternet

39 In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when avoiding latency (delay in data delivery) is more important than integrity (error-free delivery). A) SCO B) ACL C) ACO D) SCL

6 A _______ LAN allows several LANs to be connected. A) backbone B) wireless C) wired D) none of the above

A backbone is usually a ______. A) bus B) star

20 #TiwalaLang

C) D)

either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

B) C) D)

repeater bridge router

A) B) C) D)

repeater bridge router none of the above

8 A virtual local area network (VLAN) is configured by _________. A) software B) physical wiring C) hardware D) none of the above

9 Membership in a VLAN can be based on _________. A) port numbers B) MAC addresses C) IP addresses D) all of the above

17 ________ is actually a multiport repeater. It is normally used to create connections between stations in a physical star topology. A) An active hub B) A passive hub C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

26

A two-layer switch is a ______. A) repeater B) bridge C) router D) none of the above

10

VLANs can_________. A) reduce network traffic B) provide an extra measure C) D) either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b)

18 A ________ operates in both the physical and the data link layer. A) passive hub B) repeater C) bridge D) router

27 Some new two-layer switches, called _______ switches, have been designed to forward the frame as soon as they check the MAC addresses in the header of the frame. A) cut-through B) go-through C) come-through D) none of the above

of security

11

_________ is just a connector. A) An active hub B) A passive hub C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

19 A _______ can check the MAC addresses contained in the frame. A) passive hub B) repeater C) bridge D) router

28 A _______ is a three-layer device that handles packets based on their logical addresses. A) repeater B) bridge C) router D) none of the above

12 In a star-topology Ethernet LAN, _______ is just a point where the signals coming from different stations collide; it is the collision point. A) An active hub B) A passive hub C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

20 A ______ has a table used in filtering decisions. A) passive hub B) repeater C) bridge D) none of the above

29 A ______ normally connects LANs and WANs in the Internet and has a table that is used for making decisions about the route. A) repeater B) bridge C) router D) none of the above

21 A ________ is a device in which the stations are completely unaware of its existence. A) passive hub B) repeater C) simple bridge D) transparent bridge

13 ________ is part of the media; its location in the Internet model is below the physical layer. A) An active hub B) A passive hub C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

30 A ______ switch is a faster and more sophisticated router. A) two-layer B) three-layer C) four-layer D) none of the above

22 IEEE 802.1d specification, defines _________ criteria for a transparent bridges. A) two B) three C) four D) none of the above

14 A _______ is a device that operates only in the physical layer. A) passive hub B) repeater C) bridge D) router

23 A spanning tree is a graph in which there is no _____. A) node B) branch C) loop D) arc

31 A ________ is normally a computer that operates in all five layers of the Internet model or seven layers of OSI model. A) repeater B) bridge C) router D) gateway

15 A ________receives a signal and, before it becomes too weak or corrupted, regenerates the original bit pattern. It then sends the refreshed signal. A) passive hub B) repeater C) bridge D) router

24 In a bridged LAN, the _______ algorithm creates a topology in which each LAN can be reached from any other LAN through one path only. A) spanning tree B) binary tree C) unary tree D) none of the above

32 A _____ can be used as a connecting device between two internetworks that use different models. A) repeater B) bridge C) router D) gateway

16 A __________ forwards every frame; it has no filtering capability. A) passive hub

33 In a _____ backbone, the backbone is just one switch. A) bus B) ring C) star D) none of the above

25 A three-layer switch is a kind of ________.

21 #TiwalaLang

34 A ________ link acts as a LAN in a remote backbone connected by remote bridges. A) point-to-point B) multipoint C) multidrop D) none of the above

D)

none of the above

C) D)

CDMA none of the above

35

VLANs create _________ domains. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above

5 ________ is a second-generation cellular phone system based on CDMA and DSSS. A) GSM B) D-AMPS C) IS-95 D) none of the above

14 D-AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) both (a) and (b)

36 In a(n) _______ configuration, the administrator types the port numbers, the IP addresses, or other characteristics, using the VLAN software. A) manual B) automatic C) semiautomatic D) none of the above

6 The __________ cellular phone system will provide universal personal communication. A) first-generation B) second-generation C) third-generation D) none of the above

15 GSM allows a reuse factor of _______. A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7

37 In a(n) _____ configuration, the stations are automatically connected or disconnected from a VLAN using criteria defined by the administrator. A) manual B) automatic C) semiautomatic D) none of the above

7 In a ______ handoff, a mobile station only communicates with one base station. A) hard B) soft C) medium D) none of the above

16 GSM is a digital cellular phone system using ________. A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA D) both (a) and (b)

17 8 In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with two base stations at the same time. A) hard B) soft C) medium D) none of the above

IS-95 is based on ____________. A) FDMA B) CDMA C) DSSS D) all of the above

38 In a(n) ______ configuration, the initializing is done manually, with migrations done automatically. A) manual B) automatic C) semiautomatic D) none of the above

18

CHAPTER 16 1 _______ is a first-generation cellular phone system. A) AMPS B) D-AMPS C) GSM D) none of the above

9 _______ is an analog cellular phone system using FDMA. A) AMPS B) D-AMPS C) GSM D) none of the above

IS-95 uses the ISM _______band. A) 800-MHz B) 900-MHz C) 1900-MHz D) either (a) or (c)

10 band.

AMPS operates in the ISM _____ A) B) C) D) 800-MHz 900-MHz 1800-MHz none of the above

19 IS-95 uses the _______ satellite system for synchronization. A) GPS B) Teledesic C) Iridium D) none of the above

2 __________ is a second-generation cellular phone system. A) AMPS B) D-AMPS C) GSM D) none of the above

11 In AMPS, each band is divided into ______ channels. A) 800 B) 900 C) 1000 D) none of the above

20 In an IS-95 system, the frequencyreuse factor is normally _____. A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7

3 AMPS.

____________ is a digital version of A) B) C) D) GSM D-AMPS IS-95 none of the above 12 AMPS has a frequency reuse factor of _______. A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7

21 In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses W-CDMA. A) IMT-DS B) IMT-MC C) IMT-TC D) IMT-SC

4 ___________ is a second-generation cellular phone system used in Europe. A) GSM B) D-AMPS C) IS-95

13 AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels. A) FDMA B) TDMA

22 In the third generation of cellular phones, ________ uses CDMA2000. A) IMT-DS B) IMT-MC C) IMT-TC D) IMT-SC

22 #TiwalaLang

23 In the third generation of cellular phones, ______ uses a combination of WCDMA and TDMA. A) IMT-DS B) IMT-MC C) IMT-TC D) IMT-SC

32 A GEO is at the ________ orbit and revolves in phase with Earth. A) equatorial B) polar C) inclined D) none of the above

3 SONET has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________. A) STSs B) STMs C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

24 In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses TDMA. A) IMT-DS B) IMT-MC C) IMT-TC D) IMT-SC

33 GPS satellites are ________ satellites. A) GEO B) MEO C) LEO D) none of the above

4 SDH has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________. A) STSs B) STMs C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

25 The period of a satellite, the time required for a satellite to make a complete trip around the Earth, is determined by _________ law. A) Kepler's B) Newton's C) Ohm's D) none of the above

34 ________ satellites provide time and location information for vehicles and ships. A) GPS B) Iridium C) Teledesic D) none of the above

5 An ______ signal is the optical modulation of an STS-n (or STM-n) signal. A) OC-n B) TDM-n C) FDM-n D) none of the above

26 The signal from a satellite is normally aimed at a specific area called the _________. A) path B) effect C) footprint D) none of the above

35 Iridium satellites are ________satellites. A) GEO B) MEO C) LEO D) none of the above

.SONET defines _______ layers. A) two B) three C) four D) five

7 36 ________ satellites can provide direct universal voice and data communications for handheld terminals. A) GPS B) Iridium C) Teledesic D) none of the above

27 There is (are) _____ orbit(s) for a GEO satellite. A) one B) two C) many D) none of the above

SONET is a _______ TDM system. A) asynchronous B) synchronous C) statistical D) none of the above

28 MEO satellites are located at altitudes between km. A) 3000 and 5000 B) 5000 and 10,000 C) 5000 and 15,000 D) none of the above

37 Teledesic satellites are _________satellites. A) GEO B) MEO C) LEO D) none of the above

8 A SONET system can use _________. A) STS multiplexers B) regenerators C) add/drop multiplexers D) all of the above

9 second

SONET sends ________ frames per A) B) C) D) 1000 2000 4000 8000

29 LEO satellites are normally below an altitude of ________ km. A) 1000 B) 2000 C) 3000 D) none of the above

38 ________ satellites will provide universal broadband Internet access. A) GPS B) Iridium C) Teledesic D) none of the above

CHAPTER 17 30 ______ is based on a principle called trilateration. A) GPS B) Teledesic C) Iridium D) none of the above 1 _______ is a standard developed by ANSI for fiber-optic networks. A) SONET B) SDH C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

10 In SONET each frame lasts _______ microseconds. A) 20 B) 64 C) 128 D) none of the above

31 Low-Earth-orbit (LEO) satellites have _____ orbits. A) equatorial B) polar C) inclined D) none of the above

2 ITU-T.

_______ is a standard developed by A) B) C) D) SONET SDH either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

11 An STS-1 frame is made of ________ rows A) 1 B) 9 C) 90 D) none of the above

12 An STS-1 frame is made ______columns A) 1

23 #TiwalaLang

B) C) D)

9 90 none of the above

C) D)

path none of the above 31 In SONET, for each frame, the bytes are transmitted __________. A) from left to the right, top to bottom B) from right to the left, bottom to top C) from left to the right, bottom to top D) from right to the left, top to bottom

13 rows.

An STS-3 frame is made of ______ A) B) C) D) 1 9 27 none of the above

22 A ______ is the portion of the network between two multiplexers. A) section B) line C) path D) none of the above

14 An STS-3 frame is made of ________ columns. A) 9 B) 90 C) 270 D) none of the above

23 A ______is the end-to-end portion of the network between two STS multiplexers. A) section B) line C) path D) none of the above

15 SONET network topologies can be __________. A) linear B) ring C) mesh D) all of the above

24 The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal from its optical source to its optical destination. A) section B) line C) path D) photonic

32 In SONET, for each byte, the bits are transmitted ____________. A) from least significant to the most significant B) from most significant to the least significant C) two at a time D) three at a time

16 A linear SONET network can be __________. A) point-to-point B) multipoint C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

25 The ____ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal across a physical line. A) section B) line C) path D) photonic

33 Each ________in a SONET frame can carry a digitized voice channel. A) bit B) byte C) frame D) none of the above

17 A ring SONET network can be _________. A) unidirectional B) bidirectional. C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

26 The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal across a physical section. A) section B) line C) path D) photonic

34 The section overhead consists of ______octets. A) 1 B) 6 C) 9 D) 18

35 bytes.

Line overhead consists of ________ A) B) C) D) 1 6 9 18

18 To make SONET backwardcompatible with the current hierarchy, its frame design includes a system of. A) OCs B) STMs C) STSs D) VTs

27 The _______ layer corresponds to the physical layer of the OSI model. A) section B) line C) path D) photonic

36 The path overhead consists of ______ bytes. A) 1 B) 6 C) 9 D) 18

19

A ________ is a repeater. A) regenerator B) ADM C) STS multiplexer/demultiplexer D) none of the above

28 device.

An STS multiplexer is a ______ A) B) C) D) one-layer two-layer three-layer four-layer 37 In ________ APS, there are normally two lines: one working line and one protection line. Both lines are active all the time. A) one-plus-one B) one-to-one C) one-to-many D) none of the above

20 __________ allow insertion and extraction of signals. A) regenerators B) ADMs C) STS multiplexer/demultiplexers D) none of the above

29 device.

An add/drop multiplexer is a ______ A) B) C) D) one-layer two-layer three-layer four-layer

30 21 A _______ is the optical link connecting two neighbor devices. A) section B) line

A regenerator is a ________ device. A) one-layer B) two-layer C) three-layer D) four-layer

38 In ______ APS, there is one working line and one protection line. The data are normally sent on the working line until it fails. A) one-plus-one B) one-to-one C) one-to-many D) none of the above

24 #TiwalaLang

39 In ________APS, there is only one protection line for many working lines. When a failure occurs in one of the working lines, the protection line takes control until the failed line is repaired. A) one-plus-one B) one-to-one C) one-to-many D) none of the above CHAPTER 18 1 ________ is a virtual-circuit widearea network that was designed in response to demands for a new type of WAN in the late 1980s and early 1990s. A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) none of the above

B) C) D)

2 to 3 2 to 4 none of the above

9 In Frame Relay, the EA field defines the number of bytes; it is _____ in the last byte of the address. A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

17 The VPI of an NNI is _______ bits in length. A) 8 B) 12 C) 16 D) 24

18 The ATM data packet is a cell composed of ______ bytes. A) 40 B) 50 C) 52 D) 53

10 To handle frames arriving from other protocols, Frame Relay uses a device called a _________. A) VOFR B) FRAD C) MUX D) none of the above

19 ______ eliminates the varying delay times associated with different-size packets. A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) all of the above

Frame Relay provides ________. A) PVCs B) SVCs C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

3 ______.

VCIs in Frame Relay are called A) B) C) D) PVC SVC DLCIs none of the above

11 Frame Relay networks offer an option called ______________ that sends voice through the network. A) VOFR B) FRAD C) MUX D) none of the above

20 A(n) ______ is the interface between a user and an ATM switch. A) UNI B) NNI C) NNN D) None of the above

4 In Frame Relay, when a _____ is selected, the corresponding table entry is recorded for all switches by the administrator A) PVC B) SVC C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

12 ________ is the cell relay protocol designed by the corresponding Forum and adopted by the ITU-T. A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) none of the above

21 _________ is the interface between two ATM switches. A) UNI B) NNI C) NNN D) none of the above

5 In Frame Relay, when. ______ is selected, it requires establishing and terminating phases A) a PVC B) an SVC C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

13 A _______ is defined as a small, fixed-size block of information. A) frame B) packet C) cell D) none of the above

22 In ATM, connection between two endpoints is accomplished through _______. A) TPs B) VPs C) VCs D) all of the above

Frame Relay has _______. A) only the physical layer B) only the data link C) the physical and data link the physical, data link,

14 In ATM, a virtual connection is defined by _________. A) VPI B) VCI C) DLCI D) a combination of (a) and (b)

23 In ATM, the _______layer accepts transmissions from upper-layer services and maps them into ATM cells. A) physical B) ATM C) AAL D) none of the above

layers D) and network layers

15 layers.

The ATM standard defines ______ A) B) C) D) two three four five

24 In ATM, the ______ layer provides routing, traffic management, switching, and multiplexing services. A) physical B) ATM C) AAL D) none of the above

7 At the data link layer, Frame Relay uses a protocol that supports _____control. A) flow B) error C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

16 length.

The VPI of a UNI is _______ bits in A) B) C) D) 8 12 16 24

8 In Frame Relay, an address can be ________ bytes. A) only 2

25 In ATM, the _____ layer defines the transmission medium, bit transmission, encoding, and electrical-to-optical transformation. A) physical B) ATM layer C) AAL D) none of the above

25 #TiwalaLang

26 The AAL is divided into _______ sublayers. A) two B) three C) four D) none of the above

CHAPTER 19 1 bits. An IPv4 address consists of _______ A) B) C) D) 4 8 32 64

10

Which one is not a contiguous mask? A) 255.255.255.254 B) 255.255.224.0 C) 255.148.0.0 D) all are

27 In ATM, ______ is for constant-bitrate data. A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5

28 packets.

In ATM, _______is for short A) B) C) D) AAL1 AAL2 AAL3/4 AAL5

2 In IPv4, class _______ has the greatest number of addresses in each block. A) A B) B C) C D) D

11 The number of addresses in a class C block is _______. A) 65,534 B) 16,777,216 C) 256 D) none of the above

29 In ATM, _____ is for conventional packet switching (virtual-circuit approach or datagram approach). A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5

3 Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 4.5.6.7. A) A B) B C) C D) none of the above

12 The number of addresses in a class B block is _______. A) 65,536 B) 16,777,216 C) 256 D) none of the above 13 The number of addresses in a class A block is _______. A) 65,534 B) 16,777,216 C) 256 D) none of the above

30 In ATM, ______ is for packets requiring no sequencing and no error control mechanism. A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5

4 Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 229.1.2.3. A) A B) B C) D D) none of the above

5 Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 191.1.2.3. A) A B) B C) C D) none of the above

14 The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______. A) can be any number B) must be a multiple of 256 C) must be a power of 2 D) none of the above

31 ________ technology can be adapted for use in a LAN (ATM LAN). A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) none of the above

6 and 15?

What is the result of ANDing 255 A) B) C) D) 255 15 0 none of the above

15 The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______. A) must be a power of 4 B) must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses C) must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes D) none of the above

32 In a _____ ATM LAN, an ATM switch connects stations. A) pure B) legacy C) mixed architecture D) none of the above

7 15?

What is the result of ANDing 0 and A) B) C) D) 255 15 0 none of the above

16 Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 32 classless addresses? A) 2.4.6.5 B) 2.4.6.16 C) 2.4.6.64 D) none of the above

33 In a _______ ATM LAN, the backbone that connects traditional LANs uses ATM technology. A) pure B) legacy C) mixed architecture D) none of the above

8 and 15?

What is the result of ANDing 254 A) B) C) D) 254 14 0 none of the above

17 Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 16 classless addresses? A) 2.4.6.5 B) 2.4.6.15 C) 2.4.6.62 D) none of the above

34 A _______ ATM LAN combines features of a pure ATM LAN and a legacy ATM LAN. A) pure B) legacy C) mixed architecture D) none of the above

9 and 65?

What is the result of ANDing 192 A) B) C) D) 192 65 64 none of the above

18 Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 256 classless addresses? A) 2.4.6.5 B) 2.4.6.15 C) 2.4.6.0 D) none of the above

26 #TiwalaLang

19 What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.76/27? A) 12.2.2.0 B) 12.2.2.32 C) 12.2.2.64 D) none of the above

27 An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/25. If the subnet prefix length is /28, what is the maximum number of subnets? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) none of the above

A) B) C) D)

suffix prefix hostid none of the above

20 What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.76/10? A) 12.0.0.0 B) 12.2.0.0 C) 12.2.2.2 D) none of the above

28 An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.76.64/28. How many addresses are granted? A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) none of the above

36 In classless addressing, the prefix length defines the _____________. A) netid B) hostid C) mask D) none of the above

37 In a block, the prefix length is /24; what is the mask? A) 255.255.255.0 B) 255.255.242.0 C) 255.255.0.0 D) none of the above

21 What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.127/28? A) 12.2.2.0 B) 12.2.2.96 C) 12.2.2.112 D) none of the above

29 An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.76.128/29. How many addresses are granted? A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) none of the above

38 In a block, the prefix length is /15; what is the mask? A) 255.254.0.0 B) 255.255.255.0 C) 255.255.255.128 D) none of the above

22 Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.7/24. A) 32 B) 64 C) 256 D) none of the above

30 An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.32.0/27. How many addresses are granted? A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) none of the above

39 In a block, the mask is 255.255.192.0; what is the prefix length? A) /20 B) /28 C) /18 D) none of the above

23 Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.7/30. A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) none of the above

40 long. 31 What is the default mask for class A in CIDR notation? A) /9 B) /8 C) /16 D) none of the above

An IPv6 address is _________ bits A) B) C) D) 32 64 128 none of the above

24 What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.127/28? A) 12.2.2.16 B) 12.2.2.112 C) 12.2.2.127 D) none of the above

32 What is the default mask for class B in CIDR notation? A) /9 B) /8 C) /16 D) none of the above

41 An IPv6 address consists of ________ bytes (octets); A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) none of the above

25 What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.6/30? A) 12.2.2.2 B) 12.2.2.6 C) 12.2.2.7 D) none of the above

33 What is the default mask for class C in CIDR notation? A) /24 B) /8 C) /16 D) none of the above

42 To make addresses more readable, IPv6 specifies ____________notation. A) dotted decimal B) hexadecimal colon C) both a and b D) none of the above

26 An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/20. The organization needs 10 subnets. What is the subnet prefix length? A) /20 B) /24 C) /25 D) none of the above

34 In classless addressing, the ______ is another name for the common part of the address range. A) suffix B) prefix C) netid D) none of the above

43 In hexadecimal colon notation, a 128-bit address is divided into _______ sections, each _____ hexadecimal digits in length. A) 8: 2 B) 8: 3 C) 8: 4 D) none of the above

35 In classless addressing, the _______ is the varying part (similar to the hostid).

44 An IPv6 address can have up to __________ colons. A) 8

27 #TiwalaLang

B) C) D)

7 4 none of the above

B) C) D)

site local mapped none of the above

C) the first byte of the datagram is byte 100 D) the first byte of the datagram is byte 800

45 An IPv6 address can have up to __________ hexadecimal digits. A) 16 B) 32 C) 8 D) none of the above

54 In IPv6, a ______address is used if a site with several networks uses the Internet protocols but is not connected to the Internet for security reasons. A) link local B) site local C) mapped D) none of the above

7 In IPv4, what is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment? A) Identification number B) Offset number C) Total length D) (b) and (c)

46 In IPv6, _______ address defines a single computer. A) a unicast B) a multicast C) an anycast D) none of the above

8 CHAPTER 20 1 A best-effort delivery service such as IPv4 includes _______. A) error checking B) error correction C) datagram acknowledgment D) none of the above

The IPv4 header size _______. A) is 20 to 60 bytes long B) is always 20 bytes long C) is always 60 bytes long D) depends on the MTU

47 In IPv6, ____ address defines a group of computers with addresses that have the same prefix. A) a unicast B) a multicast C) an anycast D) none of the above

48 In IPv6, _________ address defines a group of computers. A) a unicast B) a multicast C) an anycast D) none of the above 49 In IPv6, the ________ prefix defines the purpose of the address. A) type B) purpose C) both a and b D) none of the above

2 In IPv4 header, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______. A) there are 10 bytes of options B) there are 40 bytes of options C) there are 10 bytes in the header D) there are 40 bytes in the header

9 Which of the following is a necessary part of the IPv6 datagram? A) Base header B) Extension header C) Data packet from the upper layer D) (a) and (c)

10 In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header restricts the lifetime of a datagram. A) version B) next-header C) hop limit D) neighbor-advertisement

50 In IPv6, the___________ address is generally used by a normal host as a unicast address. A) provider-based unicast B) link local C) site local D) none of the above

3 In IPv4, what is the value of the total length field in bytes if the header is 28 bytes and the data field is 400 bytes? A) 428 B) 407 C) 107 D) 427

11 The ________ protocol is the transmission mechanism used by the TCP/IP suite. A) ARP B) IP C) RARP D) none of the above

51 In IPv6, a _________address comprises 80 bits of zero, followed by 16 bits of one, followed by the 32-bit IPv4 address. A) link local B) site local C) mapped D) none of the above

4 In IPv4, what is the length of the data field given an HLEN value of 12 and total length value of 40,000? A) 39,988 B) 40,012 C) 40,048 D) 39,952

12

IP is _________ datagram protocol. A) an unreliable B) a connectionless C) both a and b D) none of the above

52 In IPv6, a ___________ address is an address of 96 bits of zero followed by 32 bits of IPv4 address. A) link local B) site local C) mapped D) none of the above

5 An IPv4 datagram is fragmented into three smaller datagrams. Which of the following is true? A) The do not fragment bit is set to 1 for all three datagrams. B) The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all three datagrams. C) The identification field is the same for all three datagrams. D) The offset field is the same for all three datagrams.

13 The term ________ means that IP provides no error checking or tracking. IP assumes the unreliability of the underlying layers and does its best to get a transmission through to its destination, but with no guarantees. A) reliable delivery B) connection-oriented delivery C) best-effort delivery D) none of the above

53 In IPv6, a _______ address is used if a LAN uses the Internet protocols but is not connected to the Internet for security reasons. A) link local

6 In IPv4, if the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that _______. A) the datagram has not been fragmented B) the datagram is 100 bytes in size

14 In IPv4, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______. A) there are 10 bytes of options B) there are 40 bytes of options C) there are 40 bytes in the header

28 #TiwalaLang

D)

none of the above

D)

none of the above

15 In IPv4, which field or bit value unambiguously identifies the datagram as a fragment? A) Do not fragment bit ? 0 B) More Fragment bit ? 0 C) Fragment offset = 1000 D) none of the above

CHAPTER 21 1 A _______ address is an internetwork address with universal jurisdiction. A) physical B) logical C) a and b D) none of the above

8 In _______, a table associating a logical address with a physical address is updated manually. A) static mapping B) dynamic mapping C) physical mapping D) none of the above

16

The IPv4 header size _______. A) is 20 to 60 bytes long B) is 20 bytes long C) is 60 bytes long D) none of the above

17 In IPv4, when a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, the total size of the datagram must be less than the _______. A) MUT B) MAT C) MTU D) none of the above

2 The logical addresses in the Internet are called _______ addresses. A) port B) IP C) Email D) none of the above

9 _______ is a dynamic mapping protocol in which a physical address is found for a given logical address. A) ARP B) RARP C) both a and b D) none of the above

18 The IPv4 header field formerly known as the service type field is now called the _______ field. A) IETF B) checksum C) differentiated services D) none of the above

3 A ________ is a local address. Its jurisdiction is over a local network. A) physical B) logical C) a and b D) none of the above

10 The target hardware address on an Ethernet is _______ in an ARP request. A) 0x000000000000 B) 0.0.0.0 C) variable D) class dependent

11 4 If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on the same network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. A) the destination IP address in the datagram header B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table C) either a or b D) none of the above

An ARP reply is normally _______. A) broadcast B) multicast C) unicast D) none of the above

19 In IPv6, options are inserted between the _________ and the ___________ data. A) base header; extension header B) base header; upper-layer data C) base header; frame header D) none of the above

12 An ARP request is normally _______. A) broadcast B) multicast C) unicast D) none of the above

20 IPv6 allows _________ security provisions than IPv4. A) more B) less C) the same level D) none of the above

5 If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on another network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. A) the destination IP address in the datagram header B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table C) either a or b D) none of the above

13 A technique called ______ is used to create a subnetting effect. A) ARP B) RARP C) proxy ARP D) none of the above

21 In IPv6, when a datagram needs to be discarded in a congested network, the decision is based on the _______ field in the base header. A) hop limit B) priority C) next header D) none of the above

6 The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on another network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. A) the destination IP address in the datagram header B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table C) either a or b D) none of the above

14 A _______ is an ARP that acts on behalf of a set of hosts. A) ARP B) RARP C) proxy ARP D) none of the above

15

22 In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header and the sender IP address combine to indicate a unique path identifier for a specific flow of data. A) flow label B) next header C) hop limit D) destination IP address

ICMP is a _________ layer protocol. A) data link B) transport C) network D) none of the above

7 The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on the same network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. A) the destination IP address in the datagram header B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table C) either a or b

16 ICMP messages are divided into two broad categories: _____________. A) query and error reporting messages B) request and response messages C) request and reply messages

29 #TiwalaLang

D)

none of the above

B) C) D)

special query message membership report none of the above

17 An ICMP message has _____ header and a variable-size data section. A) a 16-byte B) a 32-byte C) an 8-byte D) none of the above

26 The least significant 23 bits in a 48bit Ethernet address identify a ________. A) multicast router B) host C) multicast group D) none of the above

34 The IP packet that carries an IGMP packet has a value of _______ in its protocol field. A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) none of the above

18 Which of the following is true about ICMP messages? A) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message. B) An ICMP error message may be generated for each fragment. C) An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram. D) none is true

CHAPTER 22 27 The _______ field of the IGMP message is all zeros in a query message. A) version B) type C) group address D) none of the above 1 In _______ delivery, both the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination are on the same network. A) a connectionless B) a direct C) an indirect D) none of the above

19 Which of the following is true about ICMP messages? A) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message. B) An ICMP error message may be generated only for the first fragment. C) An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram. D) none is true

28 A multicast message is sent from _______ to _______. A) one source; one destination B) one source; multiple destinations C) multiple sources; one destination D) none of the above

2 In _______ delivery, the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination are on different networks. A) a connection-oriented B) a direct C) an indirect D) none of the above

20 IGMP is a companion to the ______ protocol. A) UDP B) TCP C) ICM D) none of the above

29 In networks that do not support physical multicast addressing, multicasting can be accomplished through _______. A) mapping B) queries C) tunneling D) none of the above

3 In _______ forwarding, the full IP address of a destination is given in the routing table. A) next-hop B) network-specific C) host-specific D) default

21

IGMP is _______ protocol. A) an error reporting B) a group management C) a transmission D) none of the above

22 IGMP helps a ________ router create and update a list of loyal members related to each router interface. A) broadcast B) unicast C) multicast D) none of the above

30 If four hosts on a network belong to the same group, a total of _______ sent in response to a general query message. A) one membership report is B) two membership reports are C) three membership reports are D) none of the above

4 In _______ forwarding, the mask and destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in the routing table. A) next-hop B) network-specific C) host-specific D) default

23

IGMP operates __________. A) locally B) globally C) both a and b D) none of the above

31 In IGMP, a membership report is sent _______. A) once B) twice C) three times D) none of the above

5 In _______ forwarding, the destination address is a network address in the routing table. A) next-hop B) network-specific C) host-specific D) default

24 An IGMP query is sent from a _______ to a _______. A) host; host B) host; router C) router; host or router D) none of the above

32 In IGMP, the general query message ___________________ group. A) does not define a particular B) explicitly defines a C) can define more than one D) none of the above

6 In _______ forwarding, the routing table holds the address of just the next hop instead of complete route information. A) next-hop B) network-specific C) host-specific D) default

25 The _______ is used by a router in response to a received leave report. A) general query message

33 An IGMP packet is carried in an __________ packet. A) UDP B) IP C) Ethernet frame D) none of the above

7 The idea of address aggregation was designed to alleviate the increase in routing table entries when using ________. A) classful addressing B) classless addressing C) both a and b D) none of the above

30 #TiwalaLang

D) 8 The principle of ________ states that the routing table is sorted from the longest mask to the shortest mask. A) first mask matching B) shortest mask matching C) longest mask matching D) none of the above

none of the above

B) C) D)

link state path vector none of the above

17

A dynamic table is one _______. A) with manual entries B) which is updated automatically C) either a or b D) none of the above

9 The use of hierarchy in routing tables can ________ the size of the routing tables. A) reduce B) increase C) both a and b D) none of the above

26 The metric used by _______ is the hop count. A) OSPF B) RIP C) BGP D) none of the above

18 For purposes of routing, the Internet is divided into ___________. A) wide area networks B) autonomous networks C) autonomous systems D) none of the above

10 _______ deals with the issues of creating and maintaining routing tables. A) Forwarding B) Routing C) Directing D) None of the above

27 The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to build a routing table. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) none of the above

19 ____________ is a group of networks and routers under the authority of a single administration. A) An autonomous system B) An area C) a and b D) none of the above

11 A _______ routing table contains information entered manually. A) static B) dynamic C) hierarchical D) none of the above

28 The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an intradomain routing protocol based on _______ routing. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) none of the above

20 Routing inside an autonomous system is referred to as _______________. A) interdomain routing B) intradomain routing C) both a and b D) none of the above

12 A _______ routing table is updated periodically using one of the dynamic routing protocols. A) static B) dynamic C) hierarchical D) none of the above

21 Routing between autonomous systems is referred to as ____________. A) interdomain routing B) intradomain routing C) both a and b D) none of the above

29 The _______ protocol allows the administrator to assign a cost, called the metric, to each route. A) OSPF B) RIP C) BGP D) none of the above

13 The input and output ports of a router perform the ________ layer functions of the router. A) physical and data link B) network C) transport D) none of the above

22 In _______ routing, the least cost route between any two nodes is the route with the minimum distance. A) path vector B) distance vector C) link state D) none of the above

30 In OSPF, a ________ link connects two routers without any other host or router in between. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) none of the above

14 The routing processor of a router performs the ________ layer functions of the router. A) physical and data link B) network C) transport D) none of the above

23 In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of minimum distances to every node. A) path vector B) distance vector C) link state D) none of the above

31 In OSPF, a _______ link is a network with several routers attached to it. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) none of the above

15 The task of moving the packet from the input queue to the output queue in a router is done by _________. A) input and output ports B) routing processor C) switching fabrics D) none of the above

32 In OSPF, a ________ link is a network is connected to only one router. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) none of the above

24 In distance vector routing, each node periodically shares its routing table with _________ and whenever there is a change. A) every other node B) its immediate neighbors C) one neighbor D) none of the above

16

A static table is one _______. A) with manual entries B) which is updated automatically C) either a or b

25 The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intradomain routing based on _________ routing. A) distance vector

33 In OSPF, when the link between two routers is broken, the administration may create a _________ link between them using a longer path that probably goes through several routers. A) point-to-point B) transient C) stub D) none of the above

31 #TiwalaLang

34 In ________ routing, we assume that there is one node (or more) in each autonomous system that acts on behalf of the entire autonomous system. A) distant vector B) path vector C) link state D) none of the above

B) C) D)

multicasting broadcasting none of the above

D)

none of the above

35 ___________ is an interdomain routing protocol using path vector routing. A) BGP B) RIP C) OSPF D) none of the above

43 Emulation of ________ through ___________ is not efficient and may create long delays. A) unicasting; multiple unicasting B) multicasting; multiple unicasting C) broadcasting; multicasting D) none of the above

51 _________ broadcasts packets, but creates loops in the systems. A) Forwarding B) Flooding C) Backwarding D) none of the above

36 To create a neighborhood relationship, a router running BGP sends an ________ message. A) open B) update C) keepalive D) none of the above

44 In unicast routing, each router in the domain has a table that defines a ______ path tree to possible destinations. A) average B) longest C) shortest D) none of the above

52 In RPF, a router forwards only the copy that has traveled the _______ path from the source to the router. A) shortest B) longest C) average D) none of the above

53 RPF eliminates the ________ in the flooding process. A) forwarding B) backwarding C) flooding D) none of the above

37

An area is _______. A) part of an AS B) composed of at least two C) D) another term for an AS none of the above

ASs

45 In multicast routing, each involved router needs to construct a ________ path tree for each group. A) average B) longest C) shortest D) none of the above

54 RPF guarantees that each network receives only ____ of the multicast packet. A) one copy B) two copies C) a or b D) none of the above

38 A one-to-all communication between one source and all hosts on a network is classified as a _______ communication. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above

46 In the _______ tree approach, each router needs to have one shortest path tree for each group. A) group-shared B) source-based C) a or b D) none of the above

55 RPB creates a shortest path _______ tree from the source to each destination. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above

39 A one-to-many communication between one source and a specific group of hosts is classified as a _______ communication. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above

47 In the group-shared tree approach, _________ involved in multicasting. A) only the core router is B) all routers are C) only some routers are D) none of the above

56 RPB guarantees that each destination receives _________ of the packet. A) one copy B) no copies C) multiple copies D) none of the above

40 A one-to-one communication between one source and one destination is classified as a _______ communication. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above

48 Multicast link state routing uses the _______ tree approach. A) source-based B) group-shared C) a or b D) none of the above

57 In ________, the multicast packet must reach only those networks that have active members for that particular group. A) RPF B) RPB C) RPM D) none of the above

41 In ______, the router forwards the received packet through only one of its interfaces. A) unicasting B) multicasting C) broadcasting D) none of the above

49 The Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF) protocol is an extension of the OSPF protocol that uses multicast routing to create source-based trees. The protocol is based on _______ routing. A) distance vector B) link state C) path vector D) none of the above

58 _______ adds pruning and grafting to _______ to create a multicast shortest path tree that supports dynamic membership changes. A) RPM; RPB B) RPB; RPM C) RPF: RPM D) none of the above

42 In _______, the router may forward the received packet through several of its interfaces. A) unicasting

50

MOSPF is a _______ protocol. A) data-driven B) command-driven C) both a and b

59 __________ is an implementation of multicast distance vector routing. It is a sourcebased routing protocol, based on RIP. A) MOSPF B) DVMRP

32 #TiwalaLang

C) D)

CBT none of the above

60 DVMRP is a ________routing protocol, based on RIP. A) source-based B) group-shared C) both a and b D) none of the above

1 One of the responsibilities of the transport layer protocol is to create a ______ communication. A) host-to-host B) process-to-process C) node-to-node D) none of the above

C) D)

IP none of the above

61 Pruning and grafting are strategies used in _______. A) RPF B) RPB C) RPM D) none of the above

2 UDP is called a ________________transport protocol. A) connectionless, reliable B) connection-oriented, unreliable C) connectionless, unreliable D) none of the above

10 UDP and TCP are both _______ layer protocols. A) data link B) network C) transport D) none of the above

62 A _______ message tells an upstream router to stop sending multicast messages for a specific group through a specific router. A) weed B) graft C) prune D) none of the above

3 UDP does not add anything to the services of IP except for providing _______ communication. A) node-to-node B) process-to-process C) host-to-host D) none of the above

11 Which of the following functions does UDP perform? A) process-to-process communication B) host-to-host communication C) end-to-end reliable data delivery D) none of the above

63 A _______ message tells an upstream router to start sending multicast messages for a specific group through a specific router. A) weed B) graft C) prune D) none of the above

UDP is an acronym for _______. A) User Delivery Protocol B) User Datagram Procedure C) User Datagram Protocol D) none of the above

12 When the IP layer of a receiving host receives a datagram, _______. A) delivery is complete B) a transport layer protocol takes over C) a header is added D) none of the above

64 CBT is a ________ protocol that uses a core as the root of the tree. A) source-based B) group-shared C) a or b D) none of the above

5 Although there are several ways to achieve process-to-process communication, the most common is through the __________ paradigm. A) client-server B) client-client C) server-server D) none of the above

13 UDP needs the _______ address to deliver the user datagram to the correct application process. A) port B) application C) internet D) none of the above

65 PIM-DM is used in a _______ multicast environment, such as a LAN. A) dense B) sparse C) a or b D) none of the above

6 The local host and the remote host are defined using IP addresses. To define the processes, we need second identifiers called ____________. A) UDP addresses B) transport addresses C) port addresses D) none of the above

14 A port address in UDP is _______bits long. A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) any of the above

66 PIM-SM is used in a _______multicast environment such as a WAN. A) dense B) sparse C) a or b D) none of the above

7 The ports ranging from 49,152 to 65,535 can be used as temporary or private port numbers. They are called the ________ ports. A) well-known B) registered C) dynamic D) none of the above

15 Which of the following does UDP guarantee? A) flow control B) connection-oriented delivery C) flow control D) none of the above

67 In _______, a logical tunnel is established by encapsulating the multicast packet inside a unicast packet. A) UNIBONE B) MULTBONE C) MBONE D) none of the above

8 In the sending computer, UDP receives a data unit from the _______ layer. A) application B) transport C) IP D) none of the above

16 The source port address on the UDP user datagram header defines _______. A) the sending computer B) the receiving computer C) the process running on the sending computer D) none of the above

CHAPTER23

9 In the sending computer, UDP sends a data unit to the _______ layer. A) application B) transport

17 The combination of an IP address and a port number is called a ____________. A) transport address B) network address C) socket address D) none of the above

33 #TiwalaLang

18 To use the services of UDP, we need ________ socket addresses. A) four B) two C) three D) none of the above

27 TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called a ___________. A) user datagram B) segment C) datagram D) none of the above

B) C) D)

randomly generated cumulative none of the above

19

UDP packets are called __________. A) user datagrams B) segments C) frames D) none of the above

28

TCP is a ___________ protocol. A) connection-oriented B) connectionless C) both a and b D) none of the above

36 The value of the window size is determined by _________. A) the sender B) the receiver C) both the sender and receiver D) none of the above

20 UDP packets have a fixed-size header of _______ bytes. A) 16 B) 8 C) 40 D) none of the above

29 TCP is a(n) _______ transport protocol. A) unreliable B) best-effort delivery C) reliable D) none of the above

37 The inclusion of the checksum in the TCP segment is ________. A) optional B) mandatory C) at the discretion of the application program D) none of the above

21 UDP packets are encapsulated in ___________. A) an Ethernet frame B) an TCP segment C) an IP datagram D) none of the above

22 UDP uses ________ to handle outgoing user datagrams from multiple processes on one host. A) flow control B) multiplexing C) demultiplexing D) none of the above

30 TCP uses _________________ to check the safe and sound arrival of data. A) an acknowledgment mechanism B) out-of-band signalling C) the services of another protocol D) none of the above

38 A TCP segment is encapsulated in __________. A) an IP datagram B) an Ethernet frame C) a UDP user datagram D) none of the above

23 UDP uses _______ to handle incoming user datagrams that go to different processes on the same host. A) flow control B) multiplexing C) demultiplexing D) none of the above

31 The bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. The numbering starts with a __________________. A) 0 B) 1 C) randomly generated number D) none of the above

39 Connection establishment in TCP is called __________ handshaking. A) two-way B) four-way C) one-way D) none of the above

40 A SYN segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ sequence number(s). A) no B) one C) two D) none of the above

24

TCP is a __________protocol. A) stream-oriented B) message-oriented C) block-oriented D) none of the above

32 TCP assigns a sequence number to each segment that is being sent. The sequence number for each segment is the number of the _______ byte carried in that segment. A) first B) last C) middle D) none of the above

41 A SYN + ACK segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ sequence number(s). A) no B) three C) two D) none of the above

25 TCP allows the sending process to deliver data as a _______of bytes and allows the receiving process to obtain data as a _________ of bytes. A) message; message B) stream; stream C) block; block D) none of the above

33 Communication in TCP is ___________. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) none of the above

42 An ACK segment, if carrying no data, consumes ______ sequence number(s). A) no B) one C) two D) none of the above

26 Because the sending and the receiving processes may not write or read data at the same speed, TCP ________. A) speeds up the slower process B) slows down the faster process C) uses buffers D) none of the above

34 The value of the acknowledgment field in a segment defines the number of the ______byte a party expects to receive. A) first B) last C) next D) none of the above

43 The connection establishment procedure in TCP is susceptible to a serious security problem called the _________ attack. A) ACK flooding B) FIN flooding C) SYN flooding D) none of the above

35 The acknowledgment number is ________. A) independent

44 The SYN flooding attack belongs to a group of security attacks known as a _____ attack.

34 #TiwalaLang

A) B) C) D)

denial of service replay man-in-the middle none of the above

45 The FIN segment consumes ____ sequence numbers if it does not carry data. A) two B) three C) no D) none of the above

53 TCP delivers _______ out-of-order segments to the process. A) all B) no C) some D) none of the above

61 SCTP allows __________ service in each association. A) single stream B) multistream C) double stream D) none of the above

46 The FIN + ACK segment consumes _____ sequence number(s) if it does not carry data. A) two B) three C) one D) none of the above

54 IP is responsible for _______ communication while TCP is responsible for _______ communication. A) host-to-host; process-toprocess B) process-to-process; hostto-host C) process-to-process; network-to-network D) none of the above

62 SCTP association allows _____________ for each end. A) only one IP address B) multiple IP addresses C) only two IP address D) none of the above

47 In TCP, one end can stop sending data while still receiving data. This is called a ______. A) half-close B) half-open C) one-way termination D) none of the above

55 If a segment carries data along with an acknowledgment, this is called _______. A) backpacking B) piggybacking C) piggypacking D) none of the above

63 In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered using ________. A) a TSN B) an SI C) an SSN D) none of the above

48 A(n) _________ machine is a machine that goes through a limited number of states. A) infinite state B) finite state C) both a and b D) none of the above

56 Multiply the header length field by _______ to find the total number of bytes in the TCP header. A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) none of the above

64 To distinguish between different streams, SCTP uses ___________. A) a TSN B) an SI C) an SSN D) none of the above

49 __________ control regulates the amount of data a source can send before receiving an acknowledgment from the destination. A) Error B) Flow C) Congestion D) none of the above

57 Urgent data requires the urgent pointer field as well as the URG bit in the _______ field. A) control B) offset C) sequence number D) none of the above

65 To distinguish between different data chunks belonging to the same stream, SCTP uses ___________. A) TSNs B) SIs C) SSNs D) none of the above

66 TCP has ____________; SCTP has ____________. A) packets; segments B) segments; packets C) segments; frames D) none of the above

50 To accomplish flow control, TCP uses a ___________ window protocol. A) limited-size B) sliding C) fixed-size D) none of the above

58 The options field of the TCP header ranges from 0 to _______ bytes. A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) none of the above

67 The control information in SCTP is included in the ________. A) header control field B) control chunks C) data chunks D) none of the above

51 TCP sliding windows are __________ oriented. A) packet B) segment C) byte D) none of the above

59 If the ACK value is 200, then byte _______ has been received successfully. A) 199 B) 200 C) 201 D) none of the above

68 An SCTP packet can carry __________. A) only one data chunk B) several data chunks C) no data chunks D) none of the above

52 ACK segments consume _______ sequence number(s) and _______ acknowledged. A) no; are not B) one; are not C) no; are D) none of the above

60 Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a new _____________protocol. A) reliable, characteroriented B) reliable, message-oriented C) unreliable, messageoriented D) none of the above

69 In SCTP, the acknowledgment number and window size are part of each ________. A) data chunk B) control chunk C) a or b D) none of the above

35 #TiwalaLang

70 There is no need for a header length field in SCTP because ________________. A) there are no options in the general header B) the size of the header is fixed C) both a and b D) none of the above

D)

both (a) and (b)

D)

none of the above

2 In _________, we try to create an appropriate environment for the traffic. A) congestion control B) quality of service C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b)

11 Congestion in a network or internetwork occurs because routers and switches have _______. A) tables B) queues C) crosspoints D) none of the above

71 bits.

The checksum in SCTP is ________ A) B) C) D) 16 32 64 none of the above 3 Traffic ______ are qualitative values that represent a data flow. A) controls B) descriptors C) values D) none of the above 12 In a network, when the load is much less than the capacity of the network, the delay is _________. A) at a maximum B) at a minimum C) constant D) none of the above

72 The association identifier in SCTP is __________________. A) a unique verification tag B) a combination of logical and port addresses C) either a or b D) none of the above

4 The _______ defines the maximum data rate of the traffic. A) peak data rate B) maximum burst size C) effective bandwidth D) none of the above

13 In a network, when the load reaches the network capacity, the delay _______. A) increases sharply B) decreases sharply C) remains constant D) cannot be predicted

73 In SCTP, control information and data information are carried in _______ chunks. A) the same chunk B) different chunks C) either a or b D) none of the above

5 The________ normally refers to the maximum length of time the traffic is generated at the peak rate. A) peak data rate B) maximum burst size C) effective bandwidth D) none of the above

74 In SCTP, acknowledgment numbers are used to acknowledge _____________. A) both data chunks and control chunks B) only control chunks C) only data chunks D) none of the above

6 The ________ is a function of three values: average data rate, peak data rate, and maximum burst size. A) peak data rate B) maximum burst size C) effective bandwidth D) none of the above

14 In a network, when the load is below the capacity of the network, the throughput ______________. A) increases sharply B) increases proportionally with the load C) declines sharply D) declines proportionally with the load

75 In an SCTP packet, control chunks come ___________ data chunks. A) after B) before C) a or b D) none of the above

7 A _________ traffic model has a data rate that does not change. A) constant bit rate B) variable bit rate C) bursty D) none of the above

15 In a network, after the load reaches the capacity, throughput _______. A) increases sharply B) increases proportionally with the load C) declines sharply D) declines proportionally with the load

76 In SCTP, ___________ can be carried in a packet that carries an INIT chunk. A) only data chunks B) only control chunks C) no other chunk D) none of the above

8 In the ________ traffic model, the rate of the data flow changes in time, with the changes smooth instead of sudden and sharp. A) constant bit rate B) variable bit rate C) bursty D) none of the above

16 In ________ congestion control, policies are applied to prevent congestion before it happens. A) open-loop B) closed-loop C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

77 A connection in SCTP is called an ____________. A) negotiation B) association C) transmission D) none of the above

9 In the ______ traffic model, the data rate changes suddenly in a very short time. A) constant bit rate B) variable bit rate C) bursty D) none of the above

17 In _______ congestion control, mechanisms are used to alleviate congestion after it happens. A) open-loop B) closed-loop C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

CHAPTER 24 1 In ________ we try to avoid traffic congestion. A) congestion control B) quality of service C) either (a) or (b) 10 _______ happens in any system that involves waiting. A) Congestion B) Jamming C) Error

18 The technique of ________refers to a congestion control mechanism in which a congested node stops receiving data from the immediate upstream node or nodes. A) backpressure B) choke packet C) implicit signaling

36 #TiwalaLang

D)

explicit signaling

19 A ___________ is a packet sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion. A) backpressure B) choke packet C) implicit signaling D) explicit signaling

27 Traditionally, ________types of characteristics are attributed to a flow. A) two B) three C) four D) five

35 The _______ bucket algorithm allows idle hosts to accumulate credit for the future in the form of tokens. A) leaky B) token C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

20 In __________, there is no communication between the congested node or nodes and the source. The source guesses that there is a congestion somewhere in the network from other symptoms. A) backpressure B) choke packet C) implicit signaling D) explicit signaling

28 _________ is a characteristic that a flow needs. Lack of it means losing a packet or acknowledgment, which entails retransmission. A) Reliability B) Delay C) Jitter D) Bandwidth

36 In _________, when a source makes a reservation, it needs to define a flow specification. A) Integrated Services B) Differentiated Services C) Connectionless D) Connection-Oriented

21 In the __________ method, the signal is included in the packets that carry data. A) backpressure B) choke packet C) implicit signaling D) explicit signaling

29 _______ is a flow characteristic that applications can tolerate in different degrees. A) Reliability B) Delay C) Jitter D) Bandwidth

37 _________ is a class-based QoS model designed for IP. A) Integrated Services B) Differentiated Services C) Connectionless D) Connection-Oriented

22 In the ________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the congestion window increases exponentially until it reaches a threshold. A) slow-start B) congestion avoidance C) congestion detection D) none of the above

30 ________ is the variation in delay for packets belonging to the same flow. A) Reliability B) Delay C) Jitter D) Bandwidth

38 In Frame Relay, the user can never exceed the_________. A) access rate B) committed burst size C) committed information rate D) excess burst size

23 In the _________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the congestion window increases additively until congestion is detected. A) slow-start B) congestion avoidance C) congestion detection D) none of the above

31 In ________, queuing packets wait in a buffer (queue) until the node (router or switch) is ready to process them. A) FIFO B) priority C) weighted fair D) none of the above

24 In the ___________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the threshold is dropped to onehalf, a multiplicative decrease. A) slow-start B) congestion avoidance C) congestion detection D) none of the above

32 In ________ queuing, packets are first assigned to a priority class. Each class has its own queue. A) FIFO B) priority C) weighted fair D) none of the above

39 In Frame Relay, a ___________ is the maximum number of bits in a predefined time that the network is committed to transfer without discarding any frame or setting the DE bit. A) access rate B) committed burst size C) committed information rate D) excess burst size

25 In Frame Relay, the ________ bit warns the sender of congestion in the network. A) BECN B) FECN C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

33 In _________ queuing, the packets are assigned to different classes and admitted to different queues. The queues, however, are weighted based on the priority of the queues; higher priority means a higher weight. The system processes packets in each queue in a round-robin fashion with the number of packets selected from each queue based on the corresponding weight. A) FIFO B) priority C) weighted fair D) none of the above

40 In Frame Relay, the _____________ defines an average rate in bits per second. A) access rate B) committed burst size C) committed information rate D) excess burst size

41 In Frame Relay, the ___________ is the maximum number of bits in excess of Bc that a user can send during a predefined time. A) access rate B) committed burst size C) committed information rate D) excess burst size

26 In Frame Relay, the ________ bit is used to warn the receiver of congestion in the network. A) BECN B) FECN C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

34 In the ______ bucket algorithm, bursty chunks are stored in the bucket and sent out at an average rate. A) leaky B) token C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

42 In ATM, the _________ class is designed for customers who need real-time audio or video services. The service is similar to that provided by a dedicated line such as a T line. A) CBR B) VBR C) ABR D) UBR

37 #TiwalaLang

43 In ATM, the _________ class is divided into two subclasses: real-time (VBRRT) and non-real-time (VBR-NRT). VBR-RT is designed for those users who need real-time services (such as voice and video transmission) and use compression techniques to create a variable bit rate. VBR-NRT is designed for those users who do not need real-time services but use compression techniques to create a variable bit rate. A) CBR B) VBR C) ABR D) UBR

A) B) C) D)

label; 127 name; 255 label; 63 none of the above

The root of the DNS tree is _______. A) a string of characters B) a string of 63 characters C) an empty string D) none of the above

15 When the secondary downloads information from the primary, it is called ______ transfer. A) domain B) zone C) label D) none of the above

44 In ATM, the _________ class delivers cells at a minimum rate. If more network capacity is available, this minimum rate can be exceeded. A) CBR B) VBR C) ABR D) UBR

7 A full domain name is a sequence of labels separated by ________. A) semicolons B) dots C) colons D) none of the above

16 In the Internet, the domain name space (tree) is divided into _______ different sections: A) three B) two C) four D) none of the above

8 If a label is terminated by a null string, it is called a __________. A) PQDN B) FQDN C) SQDN D) none of the above

17 The _______ domains define registered hosts according to their generic behavior. A) generic B) country C) inverse D) none of the above

45 In ATM, the _________ class is a best-effort delivery service that does not guarantee anything. A) CBR B) VBR C) ABR D) UBR

9 If a label is not terminated by a null string, it is called a __________. A) PQDN B) FQDN C) SQDN D) none of the above

18 The first level in the generic domains section allows ______ possible labels. A) 10 B) 12 C) 16 D) none of the above

CHAPTER 25 1 In a _______ name space, a name is assigned to an address. A name in this space is a sequence of characters without structure. A) flat B) hierarchical C) organized D) none of the above

10 A _________ is a subtree of the domain name space. A) label B) name C) domain D) none of the above

19 The ____________ domain section uses two-character country abbreviations. A) generic B) country C) inverse D) none of the above

2 In a _________name space, each name is made of several parts. A) flat B) hierarchical C) organized D) none of the above

11 What a server is responsible for or has authority over is called a _________. A) domain B) label C) zone D) none of the above

20 The _________ domain is used to map an address to a name. A) generic B) country C) inverse D) none of the above

3 To have a hierarchical name space, a ______________ was designed. A) domain space B) domain name C) domain name space D) none of the above

12 A _______ is a server whose zone consists of the whole tree. A) domain server B) zone server C) root server D) none of the above

21 In __________ resolution, the resolver expects the server to supply the final answer. A) iterative B) recursive C) straight D) none of the above

4 In the DNS, the names are defined in ___________ structure. A) a linear list B) an inverted-tree C) a graph D) none of the above

13 A ________ server loads all information from the disk file. A) primary B) secondary C) zone D) none of the above

22 In __________ resolution, the server returns the IP address of the server that it thinks can resolve the query. A) iterative B) recursive C) straight D) none of the above

5 Each node in the tree has a _______, which is a string with a maximum of ___ characters.

14 A ________ server loads all information from the primary server. A) primary B) secondary C) zone D) none of the above

23 In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is the least specific label. A) chal

38 #TiwalaLang

B) C) D)

atc edu none of the above

24 In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is the most specific label. A) chal B) atc C) fhda D) none of the above

5 NVT uses two sets of characters, one for _____and one for __________. A) sending; receiving B) request; reply C) data; control D) none of the above

13 The _______ is software residing on the remote system that allows the remote system to receive characters from a TELNET server. A) terminal driver B) pseudoterminal driver C) TELNET client D) none of the above

25 A host with the domain name pit.arc.nasa.gov. is on the _______ level of the DNS hierarchical tree. (The root is level one.) A) third B) fourth C) fifth D) none of the above

6 For data, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to ______. A) 1 B) 0 C) a or b D) none of the above

14 The _______ translates local characters into NVT form. A) terminal driver B) TELNET client C) TELNET server D) none of the above

26 A pointer query involves the _______ domain. A) inverse B) reverse C) root D) none of the above

7 For control, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to ______. A) 1 B) 0 C) a or b D) none of the above

15 The _______ translates NVT characters into a form acceptable by the remote operating system. A) terminal driver B) TELNET client C) TELNET server D) none of the above

27 DNS can use the services of ________ using the well-known port 53. A) UDP B) TCP C) either (a) or (b) D) none of the above

8 TELNET uses only one TCP connection. The server uses ________ port and the client uses ________ port. A) a well-known; another well-known B) an ephemeral; another ephemeral C) a well-known; an ephemeral D) none of the above

16 If the sender wants to disable an option, it sends a _______ command. A) WILL B) DO C) WONT D) none of the above

CHAPTER 26 1 TELNET is an abbreviation for ____________. A) terminal network B) telephone network C) telecommunication network D) none of the above

9 To distinguish data from control characters, each sequence of control characters is preceded by a special control character called ________. A) ICA B) IAC C) AIC D) none of the above

17 If the sender wants to enable an option, it sends a _______ command. A) WILL B) DO C) WONT D) none of the above

18 If the sender wants an option disabled by the receiver, it sends a _______ command. A) WILL B) DO C) DONT D) none of the above

2 TELNET is a ________ client-server application program. A) specific-purpose B) general-purpose C) both a and b D) none of the above

10 In the _______ mode, the echoing is done by the client. A) default B) character C) line D) none of the above

19 If the sender wants an option enabled by the receiver, it sends a _______ command. A) WILL B) DO C) WONT D) none of the above

3 When a user logs into a local timesharing system, it is called ________ login. A) local B) remote C) temporary D) none of the above

11 In the _______ mode, each character typed is sent by the client to the server. A) default B) character C) line D) none of the above

4 When a user wants to access an application program or utility located on a remote machine, he or she performs ___________ login. A) local B) remote C) temporary D) none of the above

12 In the ____ mode, line editing (echoing, character erasing, line erasing, and so on) is done by the client. A) default B) character C) line D) none of the above

20 _______ is the standard mechanism provided by TCP/IP for copying a file from one host to another. A) TELNET B) SMTP C) TFTP D) none of the above

21

FTP uses the services of ________. A) UDP B) IP C) TCP D) none of the above

39 #TiwalaLang

22 In FTP, the well-known port ____ is used for the control connection and the wellknown port ________ for the data connection. A) 21; 22 B) 21; 20 C) 20; 21 D) none of the above

D)

none of the above

D)

all are

31 In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the client to the server. A) retrieve a file B) store a file C) retrieve a list D) none of the above

23 In FTP, _______ is the service type used by the IP protocol because this is an interactive connection between a user (human) and a server. A) maximize throughput B) minimize delay C) minimize error D) none of the above

32 ________ is part of a local hard drive, a special file with permission restrictions. A) A message B) A response C) An agent D) None of the above

39 There are two types of user agents: _________ and ___________. A) command-driven; datadriven B) command-driven; GUIbased C) command-based and databased D) none of the above

24 For the control connection, FTP uses the __________ character set A) regular ASCII B) EBCDIC C) NVT ASCII D) none of the above

33 When the sender and the receiver of an email are on the same system, we need only ___________. A) one UA B) two UAs C) one UA and one MTA D) none of the above

40 The ________ usually contains the sender address, the receiver address, and other information. A) message B) envelope C) both a and b D) none of the above

25 During an FTP session the control connection is opened _______. A) exactly once B) exactly twice C) as many times as necessary D) none of the above

34 When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different systems, we need only _____________. A) one MTA B) two UAs C) two UAs and one pair of MTAs D) none of the above

41 The message contains the ________ and the __________. A) header; envelop B) header; body C) envelop; body D) none of the above

26 During an FTP session the data connection is opened _______. A) exactly once B) exactly twice C) as many times as necessary D) none of the above

42 In the Internet, the email address consists of two parts: a _______ and a _______. A) local part; domain name B) global part; domain name C) label; domain name D) none of the above

27 In FTP, a file can be organized into records, pages, or a stream of bytes. These are types of an attribute called _______. A) file types B) data structures C) transmission modes D) none of the above

35 When the sender is connected to the mail server via a LAN or a WAN, we need ______________. A) two MTA B) two UAs and two pairs of MTAs C) two UAs and a pair of MTAs D) none of the above

43 _________ is a supplementary protocol that allows non-ASCII data to be sent through email. A) JPEG B) MPEG C) MIME D) none of the above

28 In FTP, there are three types of _______: stream, block, and compressed. A) file types B) data structures C) transmission modes D) none of the above

36 When both sender and receiver are connected to a mail server via a LAN or a WAN, we need ___________________. A) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and a pair of MAAs B) two UAs, and two pairs of MTAs C) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and two pairs of MAAs D) none of the above

44 The actual mail transfer is done through ____________. A) UAs B) MTAs C) MAAs D) none of the above

29 In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define an attribute called _______. A) file type B) data structure C) transmission mode D) none of the above

37 ________ provides service to the user to make the process of sending and receiving a message easier. A) An MTA B) An MAA C) A UA D) none of the above

45 The formal protocol that defines the MTA client and server in the Internet is called ___________. A) SMTP B) SNMP C) TELNET D) none of the above

30 In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the server to the client. A) retrieve a file B) retrieve a list C) a and c

38 Which of the following services is not provided by a UA? A) composing messages B) reading messages C) replying messages

46 The process of transferring a mail message occurs in ________ phases. A) two B) four C) five D) none of the above

47

SMTP is a __________protocol. A) pull

40 #TiwalaLang

B) C) D)

push both a and b none of the above

48 The third stage in an email transfer needs a ________ protocol. A) pull B) push C) both a and b D) none of the above

3 The _________ is a standard for specifying any kind of information on the Internet. A) URL B) ULR C) RLU D) none of the above

12 A _______ document is created by a Web server whenever a browser requests the document. A) static B) dynamic C) active D) none of the above

49 The third stage in an email transfer uses a(n) ________ protocol. A) UA B) MTA C) MAA D) none of the above

4 In a URL, the _______ is the clientserver program used to retrieve the document. A) path B) protocol C) host D) none of the above

13 ___________ is a technology that creates and handles dynamic documents. A) GIC B) CGI C) GCI D) none of the above

50 Currently two message access protocols are available: _______ and _________. A) POP3; IMAP2 B) POP4; IMAP1 C) POP3; IMAP4 D) none of the above

5 In a URL, the ______ is the computer on which the information is located. A) path B) protocol C) host D) none of the above

14 Dynamic documents are sometimes referred to as _________ dynamic documents. A) client-site B) server-site C) both a and b D) none of the above

51 Which part of the mail created by the UA contains the sender and receiver names? A) envelope B) address C) header D) none of the above

6 In a URL, an optional ________ can be inserted between the host and the path, and it is separated from the host by a colon. A) path B) protocol C) host D) none of the above

15 For many applications, we need a program or a script to be run at the client site. These are called _______________ documents. A) static B) dynamic C) active D) none of the above

52 The MIME _______ header uses text to describe the type of data in the body of the message. A) content-type B) content-transfer-encoding C) content-description D) none of the above

7 In a URL, the _______ is the full name of the file where the information is located. A) path B) protocol C) host D) none of the above

16 One way to create an active document is to use __________. A) CGI B) Java stand-alone programs C) Java applets D) none of the above

53 _______ is more powerful and complex than _______. A) POP3; IMAP4 B) IMAP4; POP3 C) SMTP; POP3 D) none of the above

8 A cookie is made by the ________ and eaten by the _________. A) client; client B) client; server C) server; server D) none of the above

17 Active documents are sometimes referred to as _________ dynamic documents. A) client-site B) server-site C) both a and b D) none of the above

CHAPTER 27 1 _________ is a repository of information linked together from points all over the world. A) The WWW B) HTTP C) HTML D) none of the above

9 The documents in the WWW can be grouped into ______ broad categories. A) two B) three C) four D) none of the above

18 HTTP uses the services of _________ on well-known port 80. A) UDP B) IP C) TCP D) none of the above

2 The WWW today is a _______ client-server service, in which a client using a browser can access a service using a server. A) limited B) vast C) distributed D) none of the above

10 A _______ document is a fixedcontent document that is created and stored in a server. The client can get a copy of the document only. A) static B) dynamic C) active D) none of the above

19 In HTTP, the first line in a request message is called a _______ line; the first line in the response message is called the ________ line. A) request; response B) response; request C) response; status D) none of the above

11 _____________ is a language for creating Web pages. A) HTTP B) HTML C) FTTP D) none of the above

20 In a ___________ connection, one TCP connection is made for each request/response. A) persistent

41 #TiwalaLang

B) C) D)

nonpersistent both a and b none of the above

21 In a ___________connection, the server leaves the connection open for more requests after sending a response. A) persistent B) nonpersistent C) both a and b D) none of the above

29 A response message always contains _______. A) a header and a body B) a request line and a header C) a status line and a header D) none of the above

Both tasks need variable declarations. In network management this is handled by _________. A) SMNP B) MIB C) SMI D) none of the above

22 HTTP version 1.1 specifies a _________connection by default. A) persistent B) nonpersistent C) both a and b D) none of the above

30 An applet is _______ document application program. A) a static B) an active C) a passive D) a dynamic

8 We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a program. Both tasks have actions performed by statements. In network management this is handled by _______. A) SMNP B) MIB C) SMI D) none of the above

CHAPTER 28 1 SNMP defines the ___________________ to be sent from a manager to an agent and vice versa. A) format of the packets B) encoding of the packets C) number of packets D) none of the above 9 SMI emphasizes three attributes to handle an object: _____, ________, and _________. A) name; data type; size B) name; size; encoding method C) name; data type; encoding method D) none of the above

23 In HTTP, a _______ server is a computer that keeps copies of responses to recent requests. A) regular B) proxy C) both a and b D) none of the above

24 An HTTP request message always contains _______. A) a header and a body B) a request line and a header C) a status line, a header, and a body D) none of the above

2 A manager is a host that runs the SNMP _______ process. A) client B) server C) both a and b D) none of the above

10 To name objects globally, SMI uses an object identifier, which is a hierarchical identifier based on a _______ structure A) linear B) tree C) graph D) none of the above

25 Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line? A) HTTP version number B) URL C) status code D) none of the above

3 An agent is a host or computer that runs the SNMP _______ process. A) client B) server C) both a and b D) none of the above

26 The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to request a document from the server. A) GET B) POST C) COPY D) none of the above

4 SNMP uses two other protocols:________ and _________. A) MIB; SMTP B) SMI; MIB C) FTP; SMI D) none of the above

11 All objects managed by SNMP are given an object identifier. The object identifier always starts with _______. A) 1.3.6.1.2.1 B) 1.3.6.1.2.2 C) 1.3.6.1.2.3 D) none of the above

27 A user needs to send the server some information. The request line method is _______. A) OPTION B) PATCH C) POST D) none of the above

5 ________ defines the general rules for naming objects, defining object types, and showing how to encode objects and values. A) MIB B) BER C) SMI D) none of the above

12 To define the data type, SMI uses fundamental _______ definitions and adds some new definitions. A) AMS.1 B) ASN.1 C) ASN.2 D) none of the above

28 The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to get information about a document without retrieving the document itself. A) HEAD B) POST C) COPY D) none of the above

6 We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a program. Both tasks need rules. In network management this is handled by ___________. A) SMNP B) MIB C) SMI D) none of the above

13 SMI has two broad categories of data type: _______ and _______. A) simple; complex B) simple; structured C) structured; unstructured D) none of the above

14 The _______ data types are atomic data types. A) structure B) simple C) both a and b D) none of the above

7 We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a program.

42 #TiwalaLang

15 SMI defines two structured data types: ________ and _________. A) sequence; atomic B) sequence; sequence of C) a sequence of; array D) none of the above

D)

none of the above

C) D)

VarBindList none of the above

16 SMI uses another standard, ___________, to encode data to be transmitted over the network. A) MIB B) ANS.1 C) BER D) none of the above

24 Which of the following could be a legitimate MIB object identifier? A) 1.3.6.1.2.1.1 B) 1.3.6.1.2.2.1 C) 2.3.6.1.2.1.2 D) none of the above

CHAPTER 29 1 We can divide audio and video services into _______ broad categories. A) three B) two C) four D) none of the above

25

17 The _________ ordering enables a manager to access a set of variables one after another by defining the first variable. A) lexicographic B) linear C) non-linear D) none of the above

Which is a manager duty? A) Retrieve the value of an object defined in an agent. B) Store the value of an object defined in an agent. C) a and b D) none of the above

26 For a 1-byte length field, what is the maximum value for the data length? A) 127 B) 128 C) 255 D) none of the above

2 ________ audio/video refers to ondemand requests for compressed audio/video files. A) Streaming live B) Streaming stored C) Interactive D) none of the above

18 The GetRequest PDU is sent from the _______ to the __________ to retrieve the value of a variable or a set of variables. A) client; server B) server; client C) server; network D) none of the above

27 An object id defines a _______. Add a zero suffix to define the _______. A) variable; table B) table; variable C) variable; variable contents D) none of the above

3 ___________ audio/video refers to the broadcasting of radio and TV programs through the Internet. A) Interactive B) Streaming live C) Streaming stored D) none of the above

19 The Response PDU is sent from the ______ to the ______ in response to GetRequest or GetNextRequest. A) server; client B) client; server C) network; host D) none of the above

28 An SNMP agent can send _______ messages. A) GetRequest B) SetRequest C) Trap D) none of the above

4 _________ audio/video refers to the use of the Internet for interactive audio/video applications. A) Interactive B) Streaming live C) Streaming stored D) none of the above

20 The Trap PDU is sent from the ______ to the _______ to report an event. A) server; client B) client; server C) network; host D) none of the above

29 An SNMP agent can send _______ messages. A) Response B) GetRequest C) SetRequest D) none of the above

5 According to the Nyquist theorem, we need to sample an analog signal ________times the highest frequency. A) three B) two C) four D) none of the above

21 SNMP uses the services of UDP on two well-known ports, _______ and _______. A) 161; 162 B) 160; 161 C) 160; 162 D) none of the above

30 The _______ field in the SNMP PDU is an offset that points to the variable in error. A) community B) enterprise C) error index D) none of the above

6 In ________ encoding, the differences between the samples are encoded instead of encoding all the sampled values. A) predictive B) perceptual C) both a and b D) none of the above

22 _______ runs the SNMP client program; _______ runs the SNMP server program. A) A manager; a manager B) An agent; an agent C) A manager; an agent D) An agent; a manager

31 The _______ field in the SNMP PDU reports an error in a response message. A) community B) enterprise C) error status D) none of the above

7 __________ encoding is based on the science of psychoacoustics, which is the study of how people perceive sound. A) Predictive B) Perceptual C) both a and b D) none of the above

23 INTEGER, OCTET STRING, and ObjectIdentifier are _______ definitions used by SMI. A) MIB B) SNMP C) ASN.1

8 images. 32 The _______ field in the SNMP PDU consists of a sequence of variables and their corresponding values. A) version B) community

____________ is used to compress A) B) C) D) MPEG JPEG either a or b none of the above

43 #TiwalaLang

9 video.

____________ is used to compress A) B) C) D) MPEG JPEG either a or b none of the above

18 __________ means changing the encoding of a payload to a lower quality to match the bandwidth of the receiving network. A) Translation B) Mixing C) both a and b D) none of the above

10 The first phase of JPEG is ___________. A) DCT transformation B) quantization C) data compression D) none of the above

19 __________ means combining several streams of traffic into one stream. A) Translation B) Mixing C) both a and b D) none of the above

27 A real-time video performance lasts 10 min. If there is jitter in the system, the viewer spends _______ minutes watching the performance. A) less than 10 B) more than 10 C) exactly 10 D) none of the above

11 The second phase of JPEG is ___________. A) DCT transformation B) quantization C) data compression D) none of the above

20 _________ is not suitable for interactive multimedia traffic because it retransmits packets in case of errors. A) UDP B) TCP C) both a and b D) none of the above

28 A _______ shows the time a packet was produced relative to the first or previous packet. A) timestamp B) playback buffer C) sequence number D) none of the above

12 The third phase of JPEG is ___________. A) DCT transformation B) quantization C) data compression D) none of the above

21 __________ is the protocol designed to handle real-time traffic on the Internet. A) TCP B) UDP C) RTP D) none of the above

29 _______ are used to number the packets of a real-time transmission. A) Timestamps B) Playback buffers C) Sequence numbers D) none of the above

13 Jitter is introduced in real-time data by the _______________. A) error caused during transmission B) delay between packets C) both a and b D) none of the above

22 RTP uses a temporary evennumbered _______ port. A) UDP B) TCP C) both a and b D) none of the above

30 In a real-time video conference, data from the server is _______ to the client sites. A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above

14 To prevent _________, we can timestamp the packets and separate the arrival time from the playback time. A) error B) jitter C) either a or b D) none of the above

23 ___________ is a protocol for controlling the flow and quality of data. A) RTP B) RTCP C) UDP D) none of the above

31 A _______ adds signals from different sources to create a single signal. A) timestamp B) sequence number C) mixer D) none of the above

15 A ________buffer is required for real-time traffic. A) playback B) reordering C) sorting D) none of the above

24 RTCP uses an odd-numbered _______ port number that follows the port number selected for RTP. A) UDP B) TCP C) both a and b D) none of the above

32 A _______ changes the format of a high-bandwidth video signal to a lower quality narrow-bandwidth signal. A) timestamp B) sequence number C) translator D) none of the above

16 A __________on each packet is required for real-time traffic. A) timestamp B) sequence number C) both a and b D) none of the above

25 ___________ is an application protocol that establishes, manages, and terminates a multimedia session A) RIP B) SIP C) DIP D) none of the above

33 An RTP packet is encapsulated in _______. A) a UDP user datagram B) a TCP segment C) an IP datagram D) none of the above

17 Real-time traffic needs the support of ____________. A) broadcasting B) multicasting C) both a and b D) none of the above

34 When there is more than one source, the _______ identifier defines the mixer. A) synchronization source B) contributor C) timestamp D) none of the above

26 _______ is a standard to allow telephones on the public telephone network to talk to computers connected to the Internet. A) SIP B) H.323 C) Q.991 D) none of the above

CHAPTER 30 1 ________ is the science and art of transforming messages to make them secure and immune to attacks.

44 #TiwalaLang

A) B) C) D)

Cryptography Cryptoanalysis either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

C) D)

either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

2 The ________is the original message before transformation. A) ciphertext B) plaintext C) secret-text D) none of the above

11 In an asymmetric-key cipher, the sender uses the__________ key. A) private B) public C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

relationship between the input stream and the output stream. A) S-box B) P-box C) T-box D) none of the above

3 The ________ is the message after transformation. A) ciphertext B) plaintext C) secret-text D) none of the above

12 In an asymmetric-key cipher, the receiver uses the ______ key. A) private B) public C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

20 A modern cipher is usually a complex _____cipher made of a combination of different simple ciphers. A) round B) circle C) square D) none of the above

4 A(n) _______ algorithm transforms plaintext to ciphertext A) encryption B) decryption C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

13 A ________ cipher replaces one character with another character. A) substitution B) transposition C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

21 DES is a(n) ________ method adopted by the U.S. government. A) symmetric-key B) asymmetric-key C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

5 A(n) ______ algorithm transforms ciphertext to plaintext. A) encryption B) decryption C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

14 _________ ciphers can be categorized into two broad categories: monoalphabetic and polyalphabetic. A) Substitution B) Transposition C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

22 DES has an initial and final permutation block and _________ rounds. A) 14 B) 15 C) 16 D) none of the above

6 A combination of an encryption algorithm and a decryption algorithm is called a ________. A) cipher B) secret C) key D) none of the above

15 The _______ cipher is the simplest monoalphabetic cipher. It uses modular arithmetic with a modulus of 26. A) transposition B) additive C) shift D) none of the above

23 The DES function has _______ components. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

7 The _______ is a number or a set of numbers on which the cipher operates. A) cipher B) secret C) key D) none of the above

16 The Caesar cipher is a _______cipher that has a key of 3. A) transposition B) additive C) shift D) none of the above

24 DES uses a key generator to generate sixteen _______ round keys. A) 32-bit B) 48-bit C) 54-bit D) 42-bit

8 In a(n) ________ cipher, the same key is used by both the sender and receiver. A) symmetric-key B) asymmetric-key C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

17 The ________ cipher reorders the plaintext characters to create a ciphertext. A) substitution B) transposition C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

25 ________ DES was designed to increase the size of the DES key A) Double B) Triple C) Quadruple D) none of the above

9 In a(n) ________, the key is called the secret key. A) symmetric-key B) asymmetric-key C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

18 A(n) ______ is a keyless substitution cipher with N inputs and M outputs that uses a formula to define the relationship between the input stream and the output stream. A) S-box B) P-box C) T-box D) none of the above

26 _______ is a round cipher based on the Rijndael algorithm that uses a 128-bit block of data. A) AEE B) AED C) AER D) AES

10 In a(n) ________ cipher, a pair of keys is used. A) symmetric-key B) asymmetric-key

27 AES has _____ different configurations A) two B) three C) four D) five

19 A(n) _______is a keyless transposition cipher with N inputs and M outputs that uses a table to define the

28

ECB and CBC are ________ ciphers.

45 #TiwalaLang

A) B) C) D)

block stream field none of the above

29 One commonly used public-key cryptography method is the ______ algorithm. A) RSS B) RAS C) RSA D) RAA

6 A(n) _________ can be used to preserve the integrity of a document or a message. A) message digest B) message summary C) encrypted message D) none of the above

15 A digital signature needs a(n)_________ system. A) symmetric-key B) asymmetric-key C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

30 The ________ method provides a one-time session key for two parties. A) Diffie-Hellman B) RSA C) DES D) AES

7 A(n) ________function creates a message digest out of a message. A) encryption B) decryption C) hash D) none of the above

16 A witness used in entity authentication is ____________. A) something known B) something possessed C) something inherent D) all of the above

31 The _________ attack can endanger the security of the Diffie-Hellman method if two parties are not authenticated to each other. A) man-in-the-middle B) ciphertext attack C) plaintext attack D) none of the above

8 A hash function must meet ________ criteria. A) two B) three C) four D) none of the above

17 In _______, a claimant proves her identity to the verifier by using one of the three kinds of witnesses. A) message authentication B) entity authentication C) message confidentiality D) message integrity

CHAPTER 31 1 Message ________ means that the sender and the receiver expect privacy. A) confidentiality B) integrity C) authentication D) none of the above

9 A _______ message digest is used as an MDC. A) keyless B) keyed C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

18 Password-based authentication can be divided into two broad categories: _______ and _______. A) fixed; variable B) time-stamped; fixed C) fixed; one-time D) none of the above

10 To authenticate the data origin, one needs a(n) _______. A) MDC B) MAC C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

19 In ________ authentication, the claimant proves that she knows a secret without actually sending it. A) password-based B) challenge-response C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

2 Message_____ means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as sent. A) confidentiality B) integrity C) authentication D) none of the above

11 A ________ signature is included in the document; a _______ signature is a separate entity. A) conventional; digital B) digital; digital C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

20 Challenge-response authentication can be done using ________. A) symmetric-key ciphers B) asymmetric-key ciphers C) keyed-hash functions D) all of the above

3 Message _______ means that the receiver is ensured that the message is coming from the intended sender, not an imposter. A) confidentiality B) integrity C) authentication D) none of the above

12

Digital signature provides ________. A) authentication B) nonrepudiation C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

21 A(n) _____ is a trusted third party that assigns a symmetric key to two parties. A) KDC B) CA C) KDD D) none of the above

4 _________ means that a sender must not be able to deny sending a message that he sent. A) Confidentiality B) Integrity C) Authentication D) Nonrepudiation

13 Digital signature cannot provide ________ for the message. A) integrity B) confidentiality C) nonrepudiation D) authentication

22 A(n)______ creates a secret key only between a member and the center. A) CA B) KDC C) KDD D) none of the above

5 ________ means to prove the identity of the entity that tries to access the system's resources. A) Message authentication B) Entity authentication C) Message confidentiality D) none of the above

14 If _________ is needed, a cryptosystem must be applied over the scheme. A) integrity B) confidentiality C) nonrepudiation D) authentication

23 The secret key between members needs to be created as a ______ key when two members contact KDC. A) public B) session C) complimentary D) none of the above

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24 __________ is a popular session key creator protocol that requires an authentication server and a ticket-granting server. A) KDC B) Kerberos C) CA D) none of the above

C) D) 3 In the ______ mode, IPSec protects information delivered from the transport layer to the network layer. A) transport B) tunnel C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

KDC IKE

12

IKE creates SAs for _____. A) SSL B) PGP C) IPSec D) VP

25 A(n) ________is a federal or state organization that binds a public key to an entity and issues a certificate. A) KDC B) Kerberos C) CA D) none of the above

4 IPSec in the ______ mode does not protect the IP header. A) transport B) tunnel C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

13 IKE is a complex protocol based on ______ other protocols. A) two B) three C) four D) five

26 A(n) ______ is a hierarchical system that answers queries about key certification. A) KDC B) PKI C) CA D) none of the above

5 The _______ mode is normally used when we need host-to-host (end-to-end) protection of data. A) transport B) tunnel C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

14

IKE uses _______. A) Oakley B) SKEME C) ISAKMP D) all of the above

27 The _______ criterion states that it must be extremely difficult or impossible to create the message if the message digest is given. A) one-wayness B) weak-collision-resistance C) strong-collisionresistance D) none of the above

6 In the _______ mode, IPSec protects the whole IP packet, including the original IP header. A) transport B) tunnel C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

15 A _______network is used inside an organization. A) private B) public C) semi-private D) semi-public

28 The ________ criterion ensures that a message cannot easily be forged. A) one-wayness B) weak-collision-resistance C) strong-collisionresistance D) none of the above

7 IPSec defines two protocols: _______ and ________. A) AH; SSL B) PGP; ESP C) AH; ESP D) none of the above

16 An ________ is a private network that uses the Internet model. A) intranet B) internet C) extranet D) none of the above

29 The _______criterion ensures that we cannot find two messages that hash to the same digest. A) one-wayness B) weak-collision-resistance C) strong-collisionresistance D) none of the above

8 ______ provides authentication at the IP level. A) AH B) ESP C) PGP D) SSL

17 An _________ is a network that allows authorized access from outside users. A) intranet B) internet C) extranet D) none of the above

CHAPTER 32 1 _________ is a collection of protocols designed by the IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force) to provide security for a packet at the network level. A) IPSec B) SSL C) PGP D) none of the above

9 ______ provides either authentication or encryption, or both, for packets at the IP level. A) AH B) ESP C) PGP D) SSL

18 The Internet authorities have reserved addresses for _______. A) intranets B) internets C) extranets D) none of the above

10 IPSec uses a set of SAs called the ________. A) SAD B) SAB C) SADB D) none of the above

19 A ______ provides privacy for LANs that must communicate through the global Internet. A) VPP B) VNP C) VNN D) VPN

2 _________ operates in the transport mode or the tunnel mode. A) IPSec B) SSL C) PGP D) none of the above

11 ______ is the protocol designed to create security associations, both inbound and outbound. A) SA B) CA

20 A _______ layer security protocol provides end-to-end security services for applications. A) data link B) network C) transport D) none of the above

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21 ______ is actually an IETF version of _____ A) TLS; TSS B) SSL; TLS C) TLS; SSL D) SSL; SLT 22 _______ provide security at the transport layer. A) SSL B) TLS C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b)

30 ________ provides privacy, integrity, and authentication in e-mail. A) IPSec B) SSL C) PGP D) none of the above

31 In PGP, to exchange e-mail messages, a user needs a ring of _______ keys. A) secret B) public C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b)

23 ______ is designed to provide security and compression services to data generated from the application layer. A) SSL B) TLS C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b)

32 In ______, there is a single path from the fully trusted authority to any certificate. A) X509 B) PGP C) KDC D) none of the above

24 Typically, ______ can receive application data from any application layer protocol, but the protocol is normally HTTP. A) SSL B) TLS C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b)

33 In _____, there can be multiple paths from fully or partially trusted authorities. A) X509 B) PGP C) KDC D) none of the above

25

SSL provides _________. A) message integrity B) confidentiality C) compression D) all of the above

34 _______ uses the idea of certificate trust levels. A) X509 B) PGP C) KDC D) none of the above

26 The combination of key exchange, hash, and encryption algorithms defines a ________ for each SSL session. A) list of protocols B) cipher suite C) list of keys D) none of the above

27 In _______, the cryptographic algorithms and secrets are sent with the message. A) IPSec B) SSL C) TLS D) PGP

28 One security protocol for the e-mail system is _________. A) IPSec B) SSL C) PGP D) none of the above

29 ______ was invented by Phil Zimmerman. A) IPSec B) SSL C) PGP D) none of the above

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