JAR 66 Module 7 Exam Practice Exam

Module 7
Maintenance Practices

This is exam number 1.

1. Where would you disconnect a chain?
a) At a bolted joint
b)At a spring clip joint
c) At an riveted joint
Answer:A
2. How many strokes per minute should be used with a hacksaw?
a) 30
b)55
c) 60
Answer:A
3. Unused holes in an electrical multi-pin connector should be
a) fitted with pins
b)fitted with blanks
c) left open
Answer:B
4. How many times can a locking plate be used?
a) once, then discarded
b)indefinitely providing it is a good fit around the component to be
locked
c) 3 times, then discarded
Answer:B

5. In a front release connector the pin will be

a) released from the front and extracted from the rear
b)released from rear and extracted from the front
c) released from the front and extracted from the front
Answer:A
6. What cable would you use where temperatures are going to exceed 200
degrees C?
a) Aluminium
b)Silver plated
c) Nickel plated
Answer:C

7. Brinelling of a wheel bearing could be caused by

a) heavy landing
b)rotation of the outer race in the wheel housing
c) overheating of the brakes
Answer:A
8. A hi-lock collar should be
a) lubricated before fitting
b)washed in solvent before fitting
c) not lubed or washed because they are lubed at manufacture
Answer:C
9. A CAA issued capability list gives
a) details of the scope and extent of a type rated engineer's license
b)details of the scope and extent to which an organization's approval is
granted
c) details of the operational restrictions in terms of manoeuvres (g.
forces) placed on a transport category aircraft at the time of issue of a
C of A.
Answer:B

10. Mandatory Warning Plaques and symbols

a) must be displayed on all flights
b)must be displayed in the cabin only if they are legible
c) need not be displayed if they are incorporated in the flight
manual
Answer:A

This is exam number 2.

1. A chain removed for routine inspection
a) does not need proof loading
b)must be proof loaded to 50%
c) must be proof loaded to 150%
Answer:A
2. Taper pins resist what loads
a) shear
b)tension
c) compression
Answer:A
3. The pipe flaring angle is
a) 37o
b)25o
c) 45o
Answer:A
4. What is a drill cutting angle?
a) 59o
b)12o - 15o
c) 125o - 135o
Answer:A

5. When drilling out a rivet, use a drill

a) same size as the hole
b)larger than the hole
c) smaller than the hole
Answer:A
6. A dry joint in soldering is caused by
a) flux not used
b)components not hot enough
c) wrong solder used
Answer:B
7. What type of drill would you use on carbon fibre?
a) carburundum
b)tungsten carbide
c) diamond tipped
Answer:A
8. After welding why would you normalise to
a) remove carbon build up from the welded joint
b)release the stresses from the material
c) remove oxidation from the welded joint
Answer:B
9. A stud broken off below the surface is removed by
a) using a stud box
b)cutting a slot in it and removing with a screwdriver
c) a stud remover tool fitted into a drilled hole
Answer:C
10. Following a major defect the C of A
a) will be suspended until the defect is rectified.
b)will be invalidated and needs renewing.
c) is not affected, however may run out on a time basis.
Answer:C

This is exam number 3.

1. Brinelling of a bearing is
a) shallow smooth depressions caused by the rollers being forced
against the cup, due to overtorquing
b)blueing of the bearing due to overheating
c) indentations in the race surface caused by continual static
vibration
Answer:A
2. The purpose of a joggle is
a) to act as a tear stopper
b)to produce a flush fit at a metal joint
c) to make the holes for a rivet line up
Answer:B
3. When riveting two dissimilar sheets of metal together the joint
should be protected with
a) paint
b)grease
c) jointing compound
Answer:C
4. Caustic soda applied to a metal turns black. This would indicate the
metal is
a) aluminium
b)duralumin
c) magnesium alloy
Answer:B
5. Proof testing after cable installation is
a) not required
b)sometimes required
c) always required

Answer:A
6. An aircraft control chain is connected using
a) a split link and spring clip
b)quick release pins
c) nuts and bolts
Answer:C
7. If a control chain can be lifted clear of a tooth, it should be
a) removed and an elongation check carried out
b)cleaned, retensioned and inspected after a period of time
c) rejected as unserviceable
Answer:A
8. A control cable that has been contaminated with acid should be
a) cleaned
b)cleaned, inspected, and reinspected after a period of time
c) rejected
Answer:C
9. Removal of a scratch from a sheet of metal requires
a) burnishing
b)blending
c) polishing
Answer:A
10. When dimpling a sheet of metal you would require
a) a male die only
b)a male and female die
c) an oversized rivet and special reaction block
Answer:B
This is exam number 4.

1. A micro-shaver is used to
a) cut rivets to length prior to forming
b)trim the shank diameter prior to forming
c) mill the rivet head after forming
Answer:C
2. The skin on an aircraft is normally manufactured from
a) 2024 aluminium alloy
b)2117 aluminium alloy
c) 7075 aluminium alloy
Answer:A
3. Springs are manufactured from
a) high carbon alloy steel with low strength requirements
b)low carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements
c) high carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements
Answer:C
4. The mold point is
a) an imaginary point from which real base measurements are provided
b)the centre of curvature of a radiused corner in a metal fabricated
component
c) the mid point in the thickness of a sheet of metal to which the
radius dimension is calculated
Answer:A
5. Relief holes are
a) holes drilled in the corner of a metal box to prevent cracking
b)holes drilled in a battery container to provide drainage
c) holes drilled to stop a crack
Answer:A
6. The 'setback' is
a) the distance from the mold point to the bend tangent line

b)the distance from the bend tangent line to the setback line
c) the distance from the edge of the metal to the bend tangent line
Answer:A
7. A balance cable is installed in a control system to
a) allow the aircraft to be flown 'hands off'
b)correct for wing heaviness
c) enable the cable to be tensioned
Answer:C
8. Faying surfaces are
a) surfaces that have been treated with anti-corrosion compound
b)surfaces that are stressed
c) surfaces that are in contact with each other
Answer:C
9. After a heavy landing you should inspect
a) the engine module alignment
b)the engine thrust alignment
c) the engine toe-in
Answer:B
10. The flux used during brazing is a mixture of water and
a) borax powder
b)hydrochloric acid
c) zinc chloride
Answer:A
This is exam number 5.
1. A wear check on a cylinder head valve spring should include
a) diameter and length
b)length under load
c) length off-load

Answer:B
2. A tapered roller bearing is designed to take
a) radial loads only
b)axial loads only
c) both radial and axial loads
Answer:C
3. When riveting, the distance from the edge to the rivet (land) should
not be less than
a) 1D
b)2D
c) 4D
Answer:B
4. The type of flux to be used When soft soldering on aircraft is
a) active
b)non-active
c) either active or non-active
Answer:B
5. When carrying out a pressure test on a pipe it should be
a) twice the working pressure for two minutes
b)three times the working pressure for five minutes
c) 1.5 times the working pressure
Answer:C
6. When checking a hose after installation it should be checked for
freedom of movement
a) by flexing +/- 15o either side of the neutral position
b)by flexing through the normal operating range plus 15o
c) by flexing through the normal operating range only
Answer:B

7. If the outer cover of a flexible hose is found to be cracked

a) it is unserviceable since it may have a restricted flow
b)it is unserviceable since it may leak
c) it may still be serviceable
Answer:C
8. A rigid hydraulic pipe requires shaping. It should be carried out
a) as supplied
b)after annealing
c) after age hardening
Answer:A
9. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is
a) 1:400
b)1:600
c) 1:200
Answer:B
10. The strength of a riveted joint compared to that of the original
metal is
a) 75%
b)100%
c) 125%
Answer:A
This is exam number 6.
1. A repair has a double riveted joint. The shear strength would be
a) 75%
b)100%
c) 125%
Answer:A
2. The equipment required to carry out a run-out check on a shaft would

be
a) a DTI and 'V' blocks
b)a ball bearing and a micrometer
c) a surface plate and a three leg trammel
Answer:A
3. Fretting corrosion on a braided pipe would mean it was
a) unserviceable and should be replaced
b)not necessarily unserviceable
c) only unserviceable if the corrosion penetrates the braids
Answer:A
4. When weighing an aircraft the hydrostatic weighing units are
positioned
a) one under each jack
b)one on top of each jack
c) either under or on top of each jack
Answer:B
5. To enable a composite panel to dissipate static charge it would be
sprayed with
a) aluminium paint
b)ferrous paint
c) polyurethane paint
Answer:A
6. When carrying out a dye penetrant test, after the developer has been
applied it should be inspected
a) as soon as the developer is dry and again after approximately 10
minutes
b)after 30 minutes
c) after 1 hour
Answer:A
7. How many teeth per inch are there on a fine hacksaw blade?

a) 16
b)32
c) 64
Answer:B
8. What is the cutting angle of a drill?
a) 130o
b)59o
c) 12o
Answer:B
9. When inserting a helicoil insert, which way does the tang face?
a) Towards the hole
b)Away from the hole
c) Towards the mandril
Answer:A
10. When using a moving coil as an ammeter the greatest amount of
current flows through the
a) coil
b)shunt
c) bushes
Answer:B
This is exam number 7.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
A
B
B
B

6
B

7
B

8
B

9
C

10
C

1. During a colour contrast test the penetrant time should be

a) longer for a small crack
b)shorter for a small crack
c) longer for a wide crack

2. When using the old style vernier caliper for taking internal
measurements
a) add the nib measurements
b)subtract the nib measurements
c) the nib size has no relevance and can be ignored
3. To carry out an insulation test on a wire rated at 115 volts you
would use
a) a 500 volt megger
b)a 250 volt megger
c) a 115 volt megger
4. How would you test a mach switch in-situ?
a) It is not possible to test a mach switch in situ
b)Use an external test kit
c) Use built in test equipment
5. A wire clamped vertically at one end and horizontally at the other
end should have a bend radius of no less than
a) 10 times the diameter of the wire
b)3 times the diameter of the wire
c) 5 times the diameter of the wire
6. The standard minimum rivet row spacing is
a) 3 D
b)4 D
c) 2 1/4 D
7. In sheet metal bending, how would you measure the bend radius to
calculate the bend allowance?
a) Measure to the outside of the bend radius
b)Measure to the inside of the bend radius
c) Measure to the inside of the bend radius plus half the metal
thickness

8. A dry joint when soldering is caused by

a) too much flux
b)too little heat
c) too large an iron
9. What elements is solder made from?
a) Tin, lead and silver
b)Tin, lead and copper
c) Tin and lead only
10. How should a dye penetrant field kit be stored?
a) At a cold temperature in a darkened room
b)In direct sunlight
c) At room temperature away from direct sunlight
This is exam number 8.
Answer
1.
2
C
A

3
B

4
A

5
A

6
C

7
B

8
B

9
B

10
C

1. When carrying out a colour contrast test on a pressure vessel

a) the dye should be applied to the outside and the developer to the
inside
b)both the dye and the developer should be applied to the outside
c) the dye should be applied to the inside and the developer to the
outside
2. After a reported lightening strike
a) the flight controls should be checked for full and free movement
before the next flight
b)the flight controls need to be checked for full and free movement only
if a bonding lead to one of the control surfaces is found to be burned or

broken
c) the aircraft and its systems must have a major overhaul before the
next flight
3. Aircraft below 5700kg not used for commercial air transport purposes
are required to be reweighed
a) every 5 years
b)as required by the CAA
c) every 2 years
4. When an aircraft has been reweighed under JAR OPS, what should be
done to the old weight and balance report?
a) Destroyed after 3 months
b)Kept in the aircraft logbook
c) Kept in the weight and balance schedule
5. When the park brake has been applied on an aircraft which has a
pressurized hydraulic system and is reading maximum system pressure, the
brake gauges to the left and right main wheels will read
a) full system pressure
b)no indication
c) full scale deflection
6. What tap do you use when fitting a Helicoil?
a) The same as the original thread size
b)The next size up from the original tap size
c) The tap supplied with the Helicoil kit
7. What is the maximum bow allowed in a strut?
a) 1 in 200
b)1 in 600
c) 1 in 500
8. On a hollow tube where would a small indentation normally be

unacceptable?
a) In either of the outer 1/3 portion of the tube
b)In the mid 1/3 section
c) Nowhere on the tube is an indentation acceptable
9. After a report of flight through heavy turbulence, you would
a) carry out a major overhaul
b)check the aircraft symmetry
c) not carry out any checks
10. When leak testing with a colour contrast field kit, the soak time
for a component less than 1/8 in. (3mm) thick would be
a) at least the normal soak time
b)at least twice the normal soak time
c) at least 3 times the normal soak time

This is exam number 9.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
A
B
B
C

6
A

7
C

8
C

9
A

10
C

1. The normal drill angles are

a) cutting angle 130o, web angle 59o and clearance angle 12o
b)cutting angle 59o, web angle 130o and clearance angle 12o
c) cutting angle 12o, web angle 130o and clearance angle 130o
2. To check a chain for articulation
a) it should be run over the finger through 180o and checked for
smoothness and kinks
b)move each link individually and check for tightness
c) lay on a flat surface and check for kinks

3. Glycol de-icer fluid in contact with a silver cable can cause

a) corrosion
b)a fire
c) disintegration of the cable insulation
4. With a rear release connecter, the pin will be
a) released from the front and extracted from the rear
b)released from the rear and extracted from the rear
c) released from the rear and extracted from the front
5. The maximum operating temperature for a nickel plated copper or
aluminium connector is
a) 135oC
b)200oC
c) 260oC
6. What gauge of pin would a yellow plastic insert / extract tool be
used on?
a) 12 - 10
b)22 - 18
c) 16 - 14
7. Can the insulation grip be adjusted on a PIDG crimp tool?
a) No
b)Yes by turning a knob
c) Yes by adjusting the pins
8. The abbreviation A/F means
a) American Fine
b)Associated Fine
c) Across Flats

9. This drawing indicates

a) a blind hole
b)a countersunk hole
c) a counterbored hole
10. The width of a visible outline on a drawing is
a) 0.3 mm
b)0.5 mm
c) 0.7 mm
This is exam number 10.
Answer
1.
2
B
C

3
C

4
C

5
A

6
B

7
A

8
A

9
C

10
B

1. What gauge of pin would a red plastic insert / extract tool be used
on?
a) 12 - 10
b)22 - 18
c) 16 - 14
2. What cable would you use where temperatures are going to exceed
200oC?
a) Tinned copper or aluminium
b)Silver plated copper or aluminium
c) Nickel plated copper or aluminium
3. When weighing an aircraft by the weighbridge method the aircraft is
a) jacked and levelled
b)only levelled laterally
c) resting on the wheels

4. What test do you do on a bonded join?

a) shear
b)tension
c) peel
5. Skin wrinkling on the lower surface of a wing is caused by
a) hogging
b)sagging
c) tension
6. The maximum temperature for Nyloc nuts is
a) 100oC
b)120oC
c) 160oC
7. What type of grinding wheel would you sharpen an HSS drill bit on?
a) A fine wheel
b)A course wheel
c) A green wheel
8. When using a reamer
a) use the same lubricant as was used on the drill bit
b)use lard oil
c) use no lubricant
9. The maximum value of bonding of a secondary structure is
a) 1 kilohm
b)1 megohm
c) 1 ohm
10. How long should a fireproof cable last in a fire?
a) 5 minutes
b)15 minutes

c)

50 minutes

This is exam number 11.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
A
C
A
C

6
C

7
C

8
B

9
A

10
A

1. What type of rivet would you use when there is access to only one
side of the work?
a) Hilok
b)Pop
c) Blind
2. When using a colour contrast dye penetrant kit, and a small crack is
suspected in the material
a) less developer should be used
b)less inhibitor should be used
c) a magnifying glass is recommended
3. How would you use a Pacific T5 tensiometer?
a) Use a load meter to apply the correct load
b)Use a standard riser and use the chart to correct for different sized
cables
c) Use correct chart and correct riser
4. Small indentations in the race of a ball bearing indicate
a) brinelling
b)corrosion
c) overtorqueing
5. What gauge of pin would a blue plastic insert / extract tool be used
on?

a) 12 - 10
b)22 - 18
c) 16 - 14
6. On a composite repair the vacuum should be
a) above required level
b)below required level
c) at the required level
7. The insulation resistance for wiring in undercarriage wheelwells
should normally be not less than
a) 10 megohms
b)5 megohms
c) 2 megohms
8. How many teeth per inch are used on a hacksaw blade for cutting hard
metal?
a) 26
b)36
c) 54
9. How many strokes per minute are used on a hacksaw when cutting thick
metal?
a) 30
b)55
c) 65
10. What would you use to check the runout on a control rod?
a) DTI + V blocks
b)Micrometer + ball bearing
c) 3 leg trammel + feeler gauge
This is exam number 12.
Answer

1.
B

2
B

3
B

4
B

5
C

6
A

7
C

8
C

9
B

10
B

1. Points forward of the datum point are

a) positive
b)negative
c) neutral
2. Pipe flaring is carried out
a) in the annealed state
b)as supplied
c) after normalizing
3. What is meant by empty weight?
a) Basic weight minus unusable fuel plus oil
b)Basic weight plus unusable fuel plus oil
c) Basic weight only
4. When picketing a helicopter you
a) tie down one blade
b)fit sleeves and tie off all blades
c) fit sleeves to the blades to protect them if they strike the
ground
5. Circuit tests on aircraft should be carried out in the following
order
a) continuity, bonding, functional, insulation
b)functional, bonding, continuity, insulation
c) bonding, continuity, insulation, functional
6. A rivet shaver is used to
a) mill the head flush
b)mill the tail after setting

c)

mill the tail after cutting

7. What NDT method would you use to detect delamination?

a) Colour contrast dye penetrant
b)Eddy current
c) Ultrasound
8. Before using a dead weight tester you would
a) calibrate the tester using a standard weight
b)replace the oil
c) pressurize the tester to the required pressure
9. After the normal function test of an individual circuit has been
completed and the circuit switched off
a) a second function test must be carried out to verify the first
b)the fuse should be removed and the circuit again switched on to check
the isolation of the circuit concerned
c) a duplicate check must be carried out in accordance with AWN 3
10. A drill and wire gauge has holes numbered
a) 1 to 50
b)1 to 80
c) 10 to 60

This is exam number 13.

Answer
1.
2
B
A

3
B

4
A

5
B

6
B

7
B

1. A 250 volt megger should not be used

8
B

9
B

10
B

a) in fuel tanks
b)on electronic equipment
c) on radio aerials
2. What does GA stand for on a drawing?
a) General arrangement
b)General assembly
c) Gradient Axis
3. What is the purpose of an aileron balance cable?
a) Allows for hands off flying
b)Equalizes control cable tension
c) Relieves pilot loads
4. When dimpling sheet with a squeeze dimpling tool
a) adjust the jaws to accommodate different material gauges
b)the jaws are not adjustable
c) use a lubricant
5. Bend radius on sheet metal is
a) outside radius
b)inside radius
c) inside radius + thickness
6. Why would you joggle panels?
a) To make a stronger joint
b)To make panels flush
c) To make a tighter seal
7. Magnetic particle testing detects faults
a) longitudinally
b)transverse
c) longitudinal and transverse

8. Dye penetrant in a cold climate

a) is not affected
b)takes longer to work
c)

works more quickly

9. If the leads of a megger are held apart

a) the spring will return the needle to the zero stop
b)if the handle was turned the meter would read infinity
c) the spring will return the needle to infinity
10. If after spraying the developer, red blotches appear, the part
a) was not cleaned properly
b)is porous
c) has sub-surface defects
This is exam number 14.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
B
A
C
C

6
C

7
A

8
B

1. When storing parts you should use

a) silica gel
b)monitor the temperature
c) place in a sealed container
2. How would you inspect a cable for fraying?
a) Run your fingers the full length of the cable
b)Run a rag the full length of the cable
c) Operate the controls and feel for stiffness

9
C

10
C

3. What causes knuckling on older type electrical cables?

a) Excessive pull through forces
b)Over-temperature soldering
c) Applying cable ties too tightly
4. To find a high resistance or open circuit, carry out
a) a bonding check
b)a milli-volt drop test
c) a continuity check
5. The maximum bonding resistance on an aircraft primary structure
should be
a) 0.001 ohms
b)0.01 ohms
c) 0.05 ohms
6. One megohm is equal to
a) 1,000 ohms
b)100,000 ohms
c) 1,000,000 ohms
7. Before effecting a crimp, the bare ends of a cable should be
a) twisted lightly in the direction of the lay
b)straightened out
c) tightly twisted
8. Reamers are used to
a) drill accurate holes
b)enlarge holes to accurate dimensions
c) to make holes oversize
9. The pitch of a hacksaw blade is
a) its length
b)the number of teeth on the blade

c)

the number of teeth per inch

10. The web angle of a twist drill is

a) 59o
b)12o
c) 130o

This is exam number 15.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
B
B
C
B

6
A

7
C

8
A

9
C

10
C

1. The leads of a bonding tester

a) have critical lengths and the resistance of the leads is accounted
for
b)are supplied in 60 foot and 6 foot lengths but can be varied due to
wear
c) are interchangeable, one 60 foot long having two prongs and a 6
foot one with a single prong
2. The number of the dots impressed on the insulation of the
pre-insulated connectors during crimping indicates that
a) the crimp is properly formed
b)the correct tool was used to effect the connection
c) the correct connector has been used

3. The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG crimping tool
can be changed by
a) varying the torque applied to the handles
b)changing the position of the pins
c) using different coloured crimping pliers and terminations

4. When referring to fuses, HRC means

a) hot running capacity
b)high running current
c) high rupture capacity
5. Expanding reamers are used to
a) ream holes in metal that has been heated
b)ream holes of different diameters by adjusting the position of the
blades
c) ream tapered holes
6. The main scale on a 24/25 vernier caliper is divided into
a) inches, tenths and fortieths
b)inches, tenths and twentieths
c) inches, tenths and thousandths
7. The vernier height gauge uses the same principle as the
a) micrometer
b)bevel protractor
c) vernier caliper
8. Design drawings of aircraft components are produced by organizations
approved by
a) CAA in accordance with the BCARs
b)British Standards Institute
c) SBAC
9. This symbol found on an engineering drawing would mean
a) cylindricity
b)concentricity
c) angularity

10. One revolution of the thimble of the English micrometer produces a

linear movement of the spindle of
a) 0.040"
b)0.001"
c) 0.025"

This is exam number 16.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
C
C
B
C

6
A

7
C

8
C

9
B

10
C

1. The pitch of a metric micrometer screw thread is

a) 0.5 mm
b)0.02 mm
c) 1.0 mm
2. ATA specification 100 is
a) the American FAA specification controlling the manufacture of
aluminium and its alloys
b)the procedures which must be complied with before an aircraft can be
given a Certificate of Airworthiness in the Transport Category (Passenger)
c) the International standardization of maintenance manuals,
illustrated parts catalogues, overhaul and repair manuals, service
bulletins and letters
3. When wiring an electrical component to a plug, the live wire is
coloured
a) green and yellow
b)blue
c) brown

4. When lifting a bulky component with a wire rope sling, the component
can be protected from damage by the sling by
a) using a suitably shaped sling
b)using spreader bars and packing
c) fabricating alternative lifting points
5. A dry powder extinguisher is coloured
a) red
b)green
c) blue
6. When torque loading, a wrench should be selected where the required
value falls
a) at the top end of the range
b)at the bottom end of the range
c) in the middle of the range
7. Torque loading is carried out to provide
a) as tight a joint as possible
b)flexibility
c) sufficient clamping without overstressing
8. High temperature solder is used where the operating temperature is
high. It is an alloy of
a) lead / copper / antimony
b)tin / zinc / antimony / silver
c) tin / lead / antimony / silver
9. A flux is used in soldering to
a) etch the metal surface for more adhesion
b)dissolve oxides
c) prevent solder spikes

10. Acetylene gas forms an explosive compound with

a) tin and silver
b)tin and copper
c) copper and silver

This is exam number 17.

Answer
1.
2
A
C

3
A

4
B

5
C

6
C

7
C

8
B

9
A

10
C

1. When manufacturing aircraft control cables, the cable can be cut by

a) using a chisel on a flat metal surface
b)using a hacksaw with the cable under tension
c) using an oxy-acetylene torch
2. When fitting a ball bearing to a shaft it should be carefully
positioned using
a) a copper or aluminium tube drift
b)a steel drift with light blows
c) a soft steel or brass tube drift
3. A ball or roller bearing is cleaned by soaking and rinsing in
a) white spirit
b)trichloroethylene
c) petroleum spirit
4. To allow for shrinkage, vibration and whip all straight hoses must be
a) 2% longer than the distance between the fittings
b)3% longer than the distance between the fittings
c) 5% longer than the distance between the fittings

5. Gas bottles for CO2 air and acetylene are coloured

a) grey, maroon, green
b)green, grey, maroon
c) black, grey, maroon
6. Graphite prevents seizure and conducts heat. It is normally used in
a) lithium based greases
b)copper based greases
c) sodium based greases
7. What is the purpose of the developer in a dye penetrant inspection?
a) It is drawn to the crack by electrostatic attraction
b)It seeps into the crack and makes it show up
c) It acts a s a blotter to draw out the penetrant that has seeped
into the crack

8. The test equipment normally used to carry out a continuity test on an

electrical cable is
a) a high tension circuit tester
b)a low reading ohmmeter
c) an ammeter
9. If all three prongs on a bonding tester were shorted together, the
metre would read
a) zero
b)FSD
c) off-scale high
10. An aircraft should carry at least the following number of spare
fuses
a) 3
b)10

c)

3 or 10%, whichever is greater

This is exam number 18.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
B
A
B
A

6
B

7
B

8
A

9
B

10
A

1. The pitch of the screw thread on an English micrometer is

a) 0.050 in
b)0.0001 in
c) 0.025 in
2. The vernier scale on an English micrometer is divided into
a) 50 equal divisions
b)25 equal divisions
c) 40 equal divisions
3. Which pictorial projection shows one face in true elevation and line
of depth normally draw at 30o or45o to the horizontal
a) oblique
b)perspective
c) isometric
4. If a design amendment is made on a drawing
a) the old issue number is retained, with the amendment date added
b)a new issue number and date must be allocated to the drawing
c) no change in issue number or date is necessary
5. The thimble of a metric micrometer is divided into
a) 50 equal divisions

b)25 equal divisions

c) 40 equal divisions
6. The main advantage of dye penetrant inspection is
a) the part to be inspected does not require cleaning
b)the penetrant solution works on any non-porous material
c) the defect must be opened to the surface
7. The British Standard for Engineering Drawings is
a) BS 307
b)BS 308
c) BS 306
8. What is the normal spacing between rivets
a) 4 D
b)2 D
c) 3 D
9. In British rivets (solid) what is the length grading unit?
a) 1/10"
b)1/16"
c) 1/32"
10. If the thickness of a single sheet of material, about to be joined
by riveting was 1/16" of an inch thick what would be the approximate
diameter of the rivets to be used
a) 3/16"
b)1/16"
c) 1/8"

This is exam number 19.

Answer
1.
2
B
A

3
C

4
C

5
A

6
B

7
C

8
A

9
A

10
A

1. To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant inspection usually

requires
a) that the developer be applied to a flat surface
b)a longer than normal penetrating time
c) the surface to be highly polished
2. When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method,
circular and longitudinal magnetization should be used to
a) reveal all possible defects
b)evenly magnetize the entire part
c) ensure uniform current flow
3. P.C.D. is an abbreviation for
a) Pitch Cord Diameter
b)Precision Circle Dimension
c) Pitch Circle Diameter
4. Maintenance Schedules are issued
a) with an approval certificate by the CAA
b)in a folder with the operators name on the cover
c) by the operator with CAA approval
5. This represents
a) squared shaft
b)bearing on shaft
c) relief valve
6. After a mandatory inspection has been carried out by a Licensed

Engineer, what is issued

a) a Flight Release Certificate
b)Certificate of Release to Service
c) a Certificate of Maintenance Review
7. A hard time engine inspection involves
a) removal of an engine component, its inspection and refitting
b)an in-situ function test
c) replacement with a new or overhauled component
8. This represents
a) internal thread
b)external thread
c) counterbored hole
9. Drawing numbers are
a) unique to each drawing
b)changed after each drawing amended after May 28, 1999
c) the same as serial numbers
10. Hatching lines are usually drawn at:
a) 45o
b)30o
c) 60o
This is exam number 20.
Answer
1.
2
A
A

4
C

5
A

6
B

7
B

8
B

9
A

10
A

1. Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection

using either circular or longitudinal magnetisation

a) 45o
b)longitudinal
c) transverse
2. Who approves Maintenance Manuals
a) The CAA
b)The Board of Trade
c) The Department of Trade and Industry
3. Surface cracks in aluminium castings and forgings may usually be
detected by
a) the use of dye penetrants and suitable developers
b)gamma ray inspection
c) submerging the part in a solution of hydrochloric acid and rinsing
with clear water
4. Regarding riveting, which of the following is correct?
a) the length of a round head or flat head is measured from the end of
the rivet to underside of rivet head
b)the length of a countersunk rivet (flush head) is measured from the end
of the rivet to the top of the countersunk head
c) both of the above are correct
5. When riveting, a certain clearance must exist between the rivet and
the hole in which it is fitted, to allow for shank expansion. If the
clearance is too large, what could be the result?
a) Separation of the sheets may occur
b)Sheet may tend to buckle
c) Indentations by rivet head on the material
6. To replace one 1/8 inch rivet
a) two 1/16 inch rivets would be required
b)four 1/16 inch rivets would be required
c) three 1/16 inch rivets would be required

7. The scale of an engineering drawing is shown as 1:4. This indicates

it is
a) drawn to scale
b)drawn to a quarter
c) drawn four times larger
8. A Certificate of Release to Service must be issued after
a) a Re-fuel has been done
b)a repair has been carried out in accordance with an approved repair
scheme
c) engine runs
9. An orthographic projection usually shows
a) three, two-dimensional views of an object
b)one, three-dimensional view of an object
c) a pictorial view of the object
10. When dimensioning a drawing, the dimension lines should be
a) the minimum number of dimensions necessary to enable the component to
be manufactured
b)as many dimensions as possible
c) only size dimensions

This is exam number 21.

Answer
1.
2
C
C

3
A

4
B

5
C

6
B

7
A

8
B

9
B

10
B

1. If the operator varies the content of the maintenance schedule, what

action must be taken?

a) Amend the Maintenance Schedule
b)Amend the Maintenance Schedule and seek the CAA approval
c) Await CAA approval before amending the Maintenance Schedule
2. When is a Certificate of Fitness for Flight under 'A' conditions
required?
a) to allow an unregistered aircraft to fly for air test
b)after a Certificate of Maintenance Review has been signed
c) to allow an aircraft to fly on air test to check out a
modification
3. When there is an overlap of responsibility, how is the CRS signed?
a) Appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineers must each certify
the parts appropriate to their license coverage
b)Only one appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineer may sign
the CRS as he assumes responsibility for the operation, the other
engineers must sign the paperwork
c) An appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineer and an ATPL
holder sign the CRS when the aircraft is away from base
4. Information contained in the ANO is
a) of a mandatory nature where safety is concerned
b)of a legal nature in all sections and is therefore mandatory
c) written in compliance of the Civil Aviation Act of 1943 ratifying
the ICAO Convention
5. Which of these metals is inspected using the magnetic particle
inspection method
a) magnesium alloys
b)aluminium alloys
c) iron alloys
6. One way a part may be demagnetized after magnetic particle inspection

is by
a) subjecting the part to high voltage, low amperage a.c
b)slowly moving the part out of an ac magnetic field of sufficient
strength
c) slowly moving the part into an ac magnetic field of sufficient
strength
7. What is generally the best procedure to use when removing a solid
shank rivet?
a) Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a shank size
drill and remove the rivet with a punch.
b)Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a drill one size
smaller than the rivet shank and remove the rivet with a punch
c) Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a drill one
size smaller than the rivet and remove the rivet with a punch
8. Aircraft skin is joggled to
a) Conform with the Area Rule
b)Provide smooth airflow at faying surfaces
c) Make a frame lighter but stronger
9. If treated rivets have not been used within the prescribed time they
can be re-treated. What is the maximum number of times that they can be
heat-treated?
a) Twice only
b)Three times
c) If no more in Stores, as many times as required
10. Rivets kept at a temperature of between 15oC and 20oC are usable
for
a) 150 minutes
b)150 hours
c) 150 days

This is exam number 22.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
B
C
B
C

6
B

7
C

8
A

9
A

10
A

1. A hole is placed in the lowest point of electrical cable conduit

a) to allow for pull-through of the cables
b)to allow for drainage of moisture
c) to secure the conduit to a piece of aircraft structure
2. Taper pins are used in which of the following applications?
a) To take compression loads
b)To take shear loads
c) To take compression and shear loads
3. What action is taken with a common circlip removed from a component?
a) It is replaced with a new item on assembly
b)It is examined for distortion
c) It is checked for springiness
4. The maximum bolt diameter for which a 1/16 split pin may be used is
a) 1/4" or 2BA
b)3/8"
c) 7/16"
5. The check for a cable pulling out of a swaged fitting is by
a) seeing that the cable is still past the safety holes in the swage
b)seeing that there are no broken wires near the fitting
c) looking for a shiny surface on the cable near the fitting
6. A 'Reel' used to hold an aircraft cable in storage should have a
minimum diameter of

a) at least 25 times that of the cable diameter

b)at least 40 times that of the cable diameter
c) at least 50 times that of the cable diameter
7. How do you remove a tight link from a chain which is to be used on an
aircraft control system?
a) Dismantle, inspect, rectify and re-assemble the chain
b)If the chain has a tight link, the chain has to be removed from service
c) You may be able to remove the tight link by applying a light tap
with a hammer
8. Why is a shouldered stud used
a) to provide a rigid assembly
b)as a replacement for a damaged stud
c) to decrease weight without loss of strength
9. Large control cables (45 to 120 cwt) may have tension loads that can
break the locking wire or lease lock nuts. How is this overcome?
a) A tube is fitted over the turnbuckle assembly and drilled to take up
to 3 bolts, to prevent independent rotation of any part
b)The cable is kept slightly slack
c) Duplicating the number of cables to cut down on individual tensile
loads
10. The initial lubricant on a new chain
a) should not be removed
b)should be removed and replaced with the approved oil
c) must be replaced with grade altitude grease

This is exam number 23.

Answer
1.
2

10

1. False Brinelling of a bearing is

a) movement of the outer ring relative to its housing
b)a scoring of the race-way surfaces due to ball or roller skidding
c) indentations on the race-way due to load transferred through the
bearing when static
2. Avdel rivets are closed by
a) a squeezing process
b)a broaching process
c) a tapered mandrel
3. What is the purpose of the Avdel pin tester?
a) To test the shear strength of the pin
b)To test the tightness of the pin in the rivet
c) To test the tightness of the rivet in the hole
4. On completion of assembly the bearing housing
a) should be examined for end float
b)lightly packed with grease
c) packed fully with grease
5. What purpose does flux serve in welding aluminium?
a) Removes dirt, grease, and oil
b)Minimises or prevents oxidation
c) Ensures proper distribution of the filler rod
6. The testing medium that is generally used in magnetic particle
inspection utilises a ferromagnetic material that has
a) high permeability and low retentivity
b)low permeability and high retentivity
c) high permeability and high retentivity

7. When inspecting a butt-welded joint by visual means

a) the penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the
base metal
b)the penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base
metal
c) look for evidence of excessive heat in the form of a very high
bead
8. A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted
compound repair technique. What non-destructive testing method is used to
determine the soundness of the repair after the repair has cured
a) eddy current test
b)metallic ring test
c) ultrasonic test
9. The shielding gases generally used in the Tungsten Inert Gas (TIG)
welding of aluminium consist of
a) a mixture of nitrogen and carbon dioxide
b)nitrogen or hydrogen, or a mixture of nitrogen and hydrogen
c) helium or argon, or a mixture of helium and argon
10. An On Condition Inspection involves
a) an inspection of a component with a view to continued operation if
its condition warrants such action
b)replacement of life expired components for new ones
c) a program of inspections used to increase the life of lifed
components

This is exam number 24.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
B
C
A
B

6
C

7
A

8
C

9
B

10
A

1. Air Navigation General Regulations are to be found in

a) Airworthiness Requirements CAP 455
b)British Civil Airworthiness Requirements Section A
c) CAA Printed Manual CAP 393
2. The information in the ANO is given in the form of
a) Chapters, each one dealing with a different aspect of Civil Aviation,
these chapters being backed up by the schedules
b)Articles of Law, some of which are further clarified by Schedules
c) Regulations, each one covering a different aspect of Civil Aviation
and as such is mandatory
3. British Civil Airworthiness Requirements
a) are printed by the CAA and are of an advisory nature
b)form the Technical requirements for the design and operation of
aircraft and their equipment
c) interpret the ANO and form the Technical requirements for the
design
4. Which statement concerning a welding process is true?
a) The inert-arc welding process uses an inert gas to protect the weld
zone from the atmosphere
b)In the metallic-arc welding process, filler material, if needed, is
provided by a separate metal rod of the proper material held in the arc
c) In the oxyacetylene welding process, the filler rod used for steel
is covered with a thin coating of flux
5. The "Dwell Time" of a dye-penetrant NDT inspection is the
a) amount of time the developer is allowed to act
b)time the penetrant is allowed to stand
c) time it takes for a defect to develop

6. The stems of an Avdel rivet are

a) removed with the riveting tool
b)removed with a taper punch
c) nipped off and milled flush with the head
7. When checking a ball bearing for corrosion and foreign matter
a) oscillate and rotate slowly to listen for roughness
b)rotate at operational speed and check for roughness
c) make a strip down inspection
8. A thread insert is made from
a) white metal
b)aluminium alloy
c) stainless steel
9. Filing or grinding a weld bead
a) may be performed to achieve a smoother surface
b)reduces the strength of the joint
c) may be necessary to avoid adding excess weight or to achieve
uniform material thickness
10. What non-destructive testing method requires little or no part
preparation, is used to detect surface or near-surface defects in most
metals, and may also be used to separate metals or alloys and their
heat-treat conditions
a) eddy current inspection
b)ultrasonic inspection
c) magnetic particle inspection

This is exam number 25.

Answer

1.
B

2
A

3
A

4
B

5
A

6
A

7
C

8
B

9
B

10
A

1. A thread insert is removed by

a) using a drill the major diameter of the thread insert
b)a special drill provided by the thread insert manufacturer
c) once fitted, a thread insert must not be removed
2. To correctly tension cables it can help
a) to have control surface locks in to support weight and adjust
turnbuckles equally
b)to take up initial slack by additional pulleys
c) to use a cable with turnbuckles at least every eight feet
3. What type of load is a journal load?
a) Radial
b)Axial
c) Centrifugal
4. What is the pressure range for the Avdel Riveter Type F
a) 20 to 60 lbs per sq. in
b)60 to 80 lbs per sq. in
c) 40 to 60 lbs per sq. in
5. Gamma Ray Testing of combustion chambers will show up
a) light grey on black background
b)black on lighter background
c) grey on white background
6. In selecting a torch tip size to use in welding, the size of the tip
opening determines the
a) amount of heat applied to the work

b)temperature of the flame

c) melting point of the filler metal
7. Which of these non-destructive testing methods is suitable for the
inspection of most metals, plastics and ceramics for surface and
subsurface defects:
a) magnetic particle inspection
b)eddy current inspection
c) ultrasonic inspection
8. The most important consideration(s) when selecting welding rod is/are
a) current setting or flame temperature
b)material compatibility
c) ambient conditions
9. A CMR is raised after
a) defect rectification
b)scheduled servicing at specified intervals
c) major overhaul
10. Compliance with the ANO is restricted to
a) aircraft and their equipment which are on the UK Civil Register only
b)aircraft and their equipment which are on the UK & Commonwealth Civil
Registers
c) All civil aircraft and their equipment on the international Civil
Register

This is exam number 26.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
C
C
B
B

6
C

7
B

8
A

9
B

10
A

1. The measuring capacity of a Vernier Caliper is

a) the length of the graduated scale
b)the length of the graduated scale plus the width of the nibs
c) the length of the graduated scale less the length of the vernier
scale
2. To drill a 1/4 inch hole in titanium, the correct starting procedure
would be
a) to drill 1/4 inch hole direct
b)to centre punch
c) to centre drill
3. When using a D.T.I. to check the run-out of a shaft, readings of -15
to +25 would indicate a run-out of
a) 0.025 inches
b)0.040 inches
c) 0.020 inches
4. Vee-blocks are manufactured
a) as single items and may be paired with any other vee-block
b)in sets of two and identified for use as a set
c) in sets of three and identified for use as a set
5. The metric micrometer reading shown is
a) 13.87 mm
b)13.37 mm
c) 10.337 mm
6. When fitting Rivnuts into position how are they secured and prevented
from rotating?
a) Peened

b)Locknut at the rear

c) A locating key
7. The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering should be
a) oxidizing
b)neutral
c) carbonizing
8. A flexible hose that cannot be internally inspected by eye or
intrascope can be ball tested by suspending from one end at a time to
check
a) ball of 90% of bore of end fittings passes freely under own weight
b)a ball of 98% of bore of end fittings passes freely under own weight
c) a ball of 95% of bore of hose can be pushed through with a metal
rod
9. Bearings to be cleaned for further examination should be wiped free
of all grease on outer surfaces with the aid of dry compressed air for
cages and rolling parts. The bearings should then be soaked in
a) lead free gasoline
b)white spirit
c) M.E.K.
10. Ultra sonic flaw detectors use
a) high frequency sound waves
b)x-rays
c) a magnetic field

This is exam number 27.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
A
C
A
B

6
C

7
C

8
B

9
B

10
C

1. on an engineering drawing would indicate

a) repair and recondition
b)ultra-sonic test
c) dye penetrant check
2. S.W.G. is an abbreviation for
a) Standard Wire Gauge
b)Screw Width Gauge
c) Standard Water Gauge
3. A Certificate of Release to service states that
a) the aircraft has been maintained to an approved schedule
b)an operator has satisfied the CAA of his competence
c) a task has been carried out in accordance with the ANO
4. When can a CMR be renewed
a) never
b)1 year
c) 2 years
5. If the edge of aluminium is treated with caustic soda, the metal
turns
a) black
b)white
c) black / white / black
6. Technical and Administrative information is officially circulated to
L.A.M.E.S. in
a) C.A.I.P.s
b)B.C.A.R.s
c) A.W.N.s

7. After cleaning a bearing should be dried with

a) lint free rags
b)left in free air to dry naturally
c) clean, warm, dry compressed air
8. Hoses are normally pressure tested to
a) 2 times maximum working pressure
b)1 times maximum working pressure
c) maximum working pressure
9. Defects are indicated in the dye penetrant crack detection test by
a) green lines and dots
b)red lines on a white background
c) yellowish green marks
10. A dent is measured in a tubular push-pull rod by
a) passing a ball down its bore
b)callipers and feeler gauges
c) a steel ball and micrometer
This is exam number 28.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
C
C
B
A

6
C

7
C

8
A

9
C

10
A

1. A fluid line marker with a skull & crossbones is

a) warning symbol
b)radioactive symbol
c) fluid line carries toilet waste
2. NDT using colour dye process at temperatures below 15C will
a) mean choosing alternative NDT method

b)not be affected by the temperature

c) retard the penetrant action of the dye and penetration time is
extended
3. The international marking for a water injection pipeline is a series
of
a) dots
b)squares
c) chevrons
4. What solder should be used to solder aluminium?
a) 90% tin and 10% zinc
b)wire flux cored solder
c) D.T.D. 685 lead-silver-tin solder
5. The soldering method where molten solder is pumped from the bottom
of
a bath through a slot so that a stationary wave of solder appears on the
surface is known as the
a) standing wave bath method
b)stationary wave method
c) rotary bath method
6. A ketts saw is used because
a) its low torque allows single handed use
b)it is available both pneumatic and electric
c) it can cut thicker metal than is required by most repair schemes
7. An aircraft should be cleared of snow
a) using hot fluid
b)using cold fluid
c) using air blast
8. The gears used in a pistol windy are

a) spur gears
b)gears in a gearbox
c) gerotor type gears
9. When countersinking rivet holes in a material
a) a plain countersinking bit should be used
b)the rivet head should stand 1/32" proud of the surface
c) a special countersinking bit with a pad to prevent drilling too
deep should be used
10. When using dye penetrant NDT on a tank, the dye penetrant should be
applied
a) on the inside, with developer on the outside
b)on the outside with developer on the outside
c) on the inside with the developer on the inside

This is exam number 29.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
C
C
A
C

6
C

7
A

8
C

9
A

10
A

1. The international marking for a fire protection pipe line is a series

of
a) diamonds
b)circles
c) squares
2. Hi-loks are installed with the
a) shank lubricated when fitting
b)thread lubricated when fitting
c) thread and shank not lubricated
3. The minimum distance between electrical cable splices is

a) 12 inches
b)3 feet
c) 500 mm
4. A fire resistant cable is proof tested by exposure to a standard fire
for
a) 5 minutes
b)15 minutes
c) 30 minutes
5. Zinc Chromate applied between faying surfaces will
a) improve bonding between them
b)improve adhesion thus relieving the amount of riveting necessary
c) inhibit dissimilar metal (electrolytic) corrosion
6. In order for dye penetrant inspection to be effective, the material
being checked must
a) be magnetic
b)be non-magnetic
c) have surface cracks
7. Which of the following metals can be inspected using the magnetic
particle inspection method?
a) Iron alloys
b)Aluminium alloys
c) Magnesium alloys
8. Which of the following shafts would you use to obtain a clearance fit
in a bush 0.750 inch diameter?
a) 750 inch
b)0.752 inch
c) 0.748 inch

9. To prevent corrosion where aluminium alloy pipelines are supported by

rubber cleats, the pipe should be treated over the area of contact with
a) varnish
b)petroleum jelly
c) french chalk
10. Which of the following is checked when using a 'GO / NO -GO' gauge?
a) Tolerance
b)Clearance
c) Allowance
This is exam number 30.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
B
A
C
C

6
A

7
C

8
B

9
A

10
C

1. The international marking for an instrument air pipe line is a

a) zig zag line
b)wavy band
c) series of dots
2. The maximum distance between end fittings to which a straight hose
assembly is to be connected is 50 inches. The minimum hose length should
be
a) 51 inches
b)51 inches
c) 3 inches
3. The length of a hose assembly with elbowed end fittings is taken from
a) the centre of the bore at the nipple extremity
b)the extreme overall length
c) the maximum length of the straight portion of hose
4. The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipe line is a
series of

a) diamonds
b)dots
c) rectangles
5. If a non-ferrous metal being examined by chemical test turns black
when caustic soda is applied to the surface, the metal is
a) aluminium
b)alclad
c) duralumin
6. Which of the following is a 'Bilateral Tolerance?
a) 2 inches 0.002
b)2 inches - 0.002
c) 2 inches + 0.002
7. The term "dry joint' is usually applied to
a) a water tight joint
b)a metal being lightly heated
c) a defect associated with a soldered joint
8. A tolerance is
a) a required difference in dimension between mating parts to obtain a
certain class of fit
b)a permitted variation on a dimension to allow for inaccuracy of
equipment
c) a permitted difference between new and worn dimensions
9. When an aircraft is pulled out of soft ground, the equipment should
be attached to
a) the main gear
b)the nose gear
c) the tail cone
10. A transition fit is one in which the shaft is

a) larger than the hole

b)smaller than the hole
c) the same size as the hole
This is exam number 31.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
C
C
C
B

6
B

7
C

8
B

9
A

10
B

1. Cross cut files

a) cut on the forward stroke only
b)cut on the backward stroke only
c) cut in both directions
2. When making a small soldered electrical connection, using flux-cored
solder
a) the soldering iron should be loaded with solder and then applied to
the connection
b)the connection should be heated first and then solder applied
c) the soldering iron and solder should be applied simultaneously to
the connection
3. In a torque wrench of handle length, L = 12 in. and an extension E =
3 in, the desired torque value is 300 lbs.in. the dial should read
a) 280 lb.ins.
b)375 lb.ins.
c) 240 lb.ins.
4. The correct size spanner for use on a unified 5/16 in. threaded
hexagon headed bolt is
a) 5/16 in A/F
b)1/4 in A/F
c) 1/2 in A/F
5. When a torque loading is specified for a castellated or slotted nut

on an undrilled new bolt

a) the bolt should be pre-drilled and the torque increased if
necessaryto allow the split pin to be fitted
b)the torque should be applied and the bolt suitably drilled for thesplit
pin
c) the bolt should be pre-drilled, the torque applied and the nut
eased back, if necessary, to allow the split pin to be fitted
6. The length of the Vernier Scale in a 24/25 Vernier Caliper is
a) 1.2 in
b)0.6 in
c) 2.45 in
7. After completion of electro-magnetic crack detection, the test piece
must be
a) allowed to cool to room temperature as slowly as possible
b)allowed to lose any residual magnetism over as long a period possible
c) de-magnetised before returning to service
8. Which of the following N.D.T. techniques cannot be used on a
component manufactured from austenitic stainless steel
a) penetrant dye
b)magnetic - particle
c) hot oil and chalk
9. A reamer with spiral flutes is removed
a) clockwise
b)anticlockwise
c) straight
10. To aid marking out on Fe metals use
a) graphite grease
b)copper sulphate solution
c) engineer's blue

This is exam number 32.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
C
A
B
A

6
C

7
B

8
B

9
A

10
C

1. What is used on Magnesium to reprotect it?

a) Selenious Acid
b)Deoxidine
c) Chromic Acid
2. The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent in a cornice
or box brake is measured and marked
a) one-half radius from either bend tangent line
b)one radius from either bend tangent line
c) one radius from the bend tangent line that is placed under the
brake
3. Fluorescent penetrant processes for the detection of cracks or
material defects are used with
a) an ultra-violet radiation source
b)a tungsten light source
c) an infra-red light source
4. A jury strut is one giving
a) additional support to a stressed area
b)a temporary support
c) a part of the structure that takes only tensile loads
5. What is an isotope the power source of?
a) Gamma Rays
b)Ultra Violet Rays
c) X-Rays
6. The fluid used in the 'Oil and Chalk' method of non-destructive
testing is a mixture of

a) lubricating oil and petrol

b)lubricating oil and lard oil
c) lubricating oil and paraffin
7. A non-destructive testing technique which is suitable for inspecting
for delamination in Redux bonded structure of light aluminium alloys is
a) magnetic flow
b)ultrasonic
c) eddycurrent
8. Vital point inspections are carried out
a) on an "A" Check
b)after an area is disturbed
c) on a "C" check
9. The difference between high and low limits of a size for a dimension
is known as the
a) tolerance
b)deviation
c) fit
10. Rubber components should be stored
a) in warm and humid conditions
b)in a well lit room
c) in a cool dark area
This is exam number 33.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
C
B
C
A

6
C

7
A

8
C

9
A

10
A

1. If you are unable to identify a structure 'classification' as either

primary or secondary, what action should you adopt?
a) Grade it as 'secondary'

b)Upgrade it to primary
c) Paint it red and stamp it as 'tertiary'
2. Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will be identified as
having a fatigue crack under which condition?
a) The discontinuity pattern is straight
b)The discontinuity is found in a non-stressed area of the part
c) The discontinuity is found in a highly stressed area of the part
3. When inspecting a component which is being subjected to the hot fluid
chalk process, the examination for defects should be carried out
a) immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinet
b)when the item is quite cool
c) whilst the item is still quite hot
4. Circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect which defects
a) defects parallel to the long axis of the part
b)defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part
c) defects perpendicular to the concentric circles of magnetisation
5. In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid,
neutralizing is carried out
a) with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate
b)by washing with distilled water
c) by applying a coating of Vaseline
6. Which type of repair has to be used where the damage is large and
lost strength of the area has to be restored?
a) Filling plate and patch
b)Insert and butt strap
c) Patch repair to the punctured skin
7. An indication of porosity when using a penetrant dye crack detection
method is

a) an area of scattered dots of dye

b)closely spaced dots of dye formed in a line
c) areas where dye is not showing
8. In a test for adequate demagnetization of a component after a
magnetic particle test, the test compass should not deflect
a) more than 1o when standing due south of the component
b)more than 1o when standing north-east of the component
c) more than 1o when standing due east of the component
9. If copper sulphate is used on magnesium alloy it will
a) effervesce to a black colour
b)effervesce to a copper colour
c) have no effect
10. If on application of developer it all turns to a pinkish hue, what
has happened?
a) Incorrect cleaning
b)The hue has pinked
c) Thin porosity
This is exam number 34.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
B
C
C
A

6
B

7
C

8
B

9
C

10
B

1. If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the
most probable cause is that the part
a) was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied
b)is not damaged
c)

was not thoroughly cleaned before developer was applied

2. When comparing the machining techniques for stainless steel sheet

material to those for aluminium alloy sheet, it is normally considered
good practice to drill the stainless steel at a

a) higher speed with less pressure applied to the drill

b)lower speed with more pressure applied to the drill
c) lower speed with less pressure applied to the drill
3. If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance problem and bend
allowance tables are not available, the neutral axis of the bend can be
a) represented by the actual length of the required material for the
bend
b)found by subtracting the stock thickness from the bend radius
c) found by adding approximately one-half of the stock thickness to
the bend radius
4. When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have an included
angle of
a) 90 degrees and turn at a low speed
b)118 degrees and turn at a high speed
c) 140 degrees and turn at a low speed
5. The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle build-up forming
a) a fernlike pattern
b)a single line
c) parallel lines
6. Aluminium clad alloy sheet should not be polished with mechanical
buffing wheels as this
a) will cause large static charges to build up
b)may remove the aluminium coating
c) may remove the alloy coating
7. When carrying out a penetrant dye crack test, before the dye is
applied the surface being tested should be
a) etch primed
b)painted with developer fluid
c) thoroughly degreased

8. What colour is used to indicate a tertiary structure on a diagram or

drawing?
a) Yellow
b)Green
c) Red
9. When stop drilling a crack, what is the typical drill size used?
a) 0.250"
b)0.025"
c) 0.125"
10. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures?
a) Lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel shields and minor
component brackets etc
b)Highly stressed parts but if damaged will not cause failure of the
aircraft
c) Highly stressed parts and if damaged may cause failure of the
aircraft and loss of life
This is exam number 35.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
B
A
B
C

6
C

7
B

8
A

9
B

10
B

1. When degreasing aluminium alloys, and no trichloroethylene is

available, a suitable alternative is
a) M.E.K.
b)white spirit and naphtha
c) dilute sulphuric acid
2. When mixing acid and water
a) the water should always be added to the acid
b)the acid should always be added to the water
c) it does not matter which way the two are mixed

3. What is used to measure the depth of a blend after a corrosion

repair?
a) Dial Test Indicator
b)Straight edge and slip gauges
c) Vernier caliper
4. Vacu-blast beads re-used on a steel component, after being used on an
aluminium component will
a) be ineffective in abrasion
b)cause corrosion to the steel component
c) cause clogging of the vacu-blast machine
5. What colour is used to identify a 'primary structure' when using the
aircraft Maintenance Manual?
a) Yellow
b)Green
c) Red
6. A grinding wheel is normally refaced by
a) holding a hard wood scraper against the rotating wheel
b)grinding through using another grinding wheel
c) dressing with a special tool
7. The main scale on a 49/50 Vernier caliper is divided into
a) inches, tenths and fortieths
b)inches, tenths and twentieths
c) inches, tenths and thousandths
8. Centre punches are made of
a) high carbon steel hardened and tempered
b)case hardened mild steel
c) high carbon steel with the tip hardened and tempered

9. When checking a torque wrench 15 inches long, the load required to

give torque of 120 lbs.in. is
a) 6 lbs
b)8 lbs
c) 10 lbs
10. The formula for setback for a 90o bend is
a) (R + T)
b)(R + T)
c) (R + T)
This is exam number 36.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
C
B
C
A
B
B
B
B

9
A

10
B

1. What type of flutes should be used in a reamer for cutting titanium?

a) Straight flutes
b)Tapered flutes
c) Spiral flutes
2. The depth micrometer reading shown is
a) 0.336 ins.
b)0.261 ins.
c) 0.361 ins.
3. You are involved with a fire caused by titanium swarf. What type of
extinguishant should you use to deal with the fire?
a) CO2
b)Chemical foam
c) Dry asbestos wool and chalk powder
4. When carrying out a dye penetrant inspection, what time should elapse
after applying the developer before inspecting the component?
a) Initial inspection after 30 seconds followed by a 2nd inspection

after 10 minutes
b)After 10 minutes
c) After 15 minutes
5. Caustic soda placed on the edge of alclad will turn
a) black white black
b)white black white
c) all white
6. The length of a blended repair of corrosion should be no less than
a) 10 times its depth
b)20 times its depth
c) 5 times its depth
7. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for soft metals?
a) 118 degrees
b)90 degrees
c) 65 degrees
8. A cable is replaced
a) when each strand is worn to limits
b)if a chemical spillage is suspected
c) when a shiny portion is found
9. If there is a positive allowance between the smallest possible hole
and the largest possible shaft, the fit is known as
a) a clearance fit
b)an interference fit
c) a transition fit
10. An aircraft should not be refueled when
a) the APU is running
b)within 10 metres (30 feet) of radar operating
c) navigation and landing light in operation

This is exam number 37

Answer
1.
2
C
A

3
B

4
C

5
A

6
B

7
A

8
C

10
A

1. Which of the following NDT methods can be carried out and certified
by a mechanic not approved specifically for NDT inspections
a) Ultrasonic
b)Magnetic Particle
c) Neither of the above
2. When should the developer be applied to the component
a) after excess penetrant has been removed and the area completely
dried
b)before the penetrant dries
c) before applying penetrant
3. Why is an extra layer of fibre glass added to a composite repair?
a) To increase the strength of the repair
b)For sacrificial sanding
c) To provide additional flexibility
4. Plumbers solder is grade
a) B
b)C
c) D
5. The basic weight of an aircraft is
a) the aircraft, minimum equipment, unusable fuel and oil
b)the passengers, baggage and fuel
c) the pilot, flight crew and their luggage

6. To check the structure of a wing

a) low voltage X-rays are used
b)high voltage X-rays are used
c) ultrasound NDT is used
7. How would you check the setting of an adjustable reamer?
a) Ring gauge
b)Dial test indicator and V' blocks
c) External calipers
8. What is the specified lubricant for drilling brass?
a) Paraffin
b)Lard oil
c) None
9. What should the point angle of a drill be if it is to be used for
drilling titanium (drill size below 1.4 inch)?
a) 105 to 120
b)90
c) 90 to 105
10. In the Limit System, the term 'allowance' is the
a) shaft diameter variation
b)hole diameter variation
c) difference between shaft and hole diameters

This is exam number 38.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
C
C
B

6
B

7
B

8
B

9
B

10
B

1. Which of the following NDT methods requires that the orientation (or
direction) of the defect be known before the test can commence?
a) X-Ray and Magnetic Particle
b)Ultrasonic and Dye Penetrant
c) Magnetic Particle and Ultrasonic
2. Before soldering stainless steel it must be
a) cleaned with emery cloth
b)sand papered
c) pickled
3. Silver solder melts within the range
a) 200 C - 400 C
b)400 C - 550 C
c) 600 C - 850 C
4. How are pin punches classified?
a) By overall length and type
b)By length and diameter of the small end
c) By type and diameter of the small end
5. How are spring dividers classified?
a) The diameter of the largest circle that can be scribed
b)The diameter of a circle scribed with the legs at 600
c) The length of the legs
6. Which is correct concerning the use of a file?
a) Apply pressure on the forward stroke, only, except when filing very
soft metals such as lead or aluminium
b)A smoother finish can be obtained by using a double-cut file than by
using a single-cut file
c) The terms `double-cut` and `second-cut` have the same meaning in
reference to files

7. Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to finish a drilled

hole to the correct size?
a) Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when enlarging the hole and
in the opposite direction to remove from the hole
b)Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction
c) Apply considerable pressure on the reamer when starting the cut
and reduce the pressure when finishing the cut
8. Of what tolerance is the following an example?
1 in.+ 0.002
- 0.001
a) Unilateral
b)Bilateral
c) Multilateral
9. When fitting a thread insert
a) a thread the next size up from the original should be tapped
b)the hole should be expanded using a tap supplied by the insert
manufacturer
c) the insert should be tapped in using a hammer
10. B.C.A.Rs
a) are issued by Ministry of Trade and Industry
b)contain minimum requirements to be met
c) detail mandatory requirements for aircraft design and construction

This is exam number 39.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
B
C
C
B

6
C

7
C

8
C

9
C

10
C

1. Which of the following defects could not be detected by Eddy Current

NDT inspection?
a) A crack in a magnesium alloy wheel casting
b)A crack in a glass fibre reinforced plastic cowl
c) Heat damage of a Haynes Alloy turbine blade
2. Which of the following methods could be used to detect the presence
of tiny drops of Mercury in a large area of aircraft hull structure after
an accident with a mercury thermometer?
a) Ultrasonic
b)X-Ray
c) Magnetic Particle
3. On completion of soldering a non-activated flux
a) must be cleaned off with a selected solvent
b)must be cleaned off with an acid solution
c) need not be cleaned off

4. The purpose of a taper tap is to

a) form a tapered thread
b)produce a fine thread
c) start a thread
5. Why is the Vee cut in the base of a scribing block?
a) to reduce the contact area with the marking off table and reduce
friction
b)to trap any dirt that may be adhering to the surface of the marking off
table
c) to allow the scribing block to be used on the edge of the marking
off table

6. How should a scraper be finally sharpened?

a) By draw filing
b)On a grindstone
c) On an oilstone
7. How is a D.T.I. initially set up?
a) The gauge plunger should be fully extended and the needle zeroed
b)The needle zeroed, then the plunger fully extended
c) The gauge plunger should be partly depressed and the needle zeroed
8. A lightning strike on an aircraft would show
a) the entry point only
b)the exit point only
c) the entry and exit point
9. When drilling a 3/8" hole in titanium
a) the hole should be drilled straight through with the 3/8" drill
b)the hole should be centre punched, pilot drilled and then drilled
c)

a centre drill should be used

10. How should a dead weight tester be used?

a) The pressure increasing handle should be screwed in before the
addition of fluid and screwed out when fluid is added
b)The platform should be removed and fluid poured into the hole
c) The outlet should not be connected to the instrument until the
required weights are raised by the platform

This is exam number 40.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
B
C
C
C

6
B

7
C

8
A

9
B

10
C

1. Which of the following NDT methods requires that the surface of the
test piece is cleaned down to bare metal?
a) Dye-penetrant
b)Eddy Current
c) Magnetic Particle
2. An inside micrometers normal measurement range is
a) .in. to 10in
b)2in. to 10in
c) 2in. to 12in
3. What is the purpose of Target Points on a Vernier caliper?
a) To zero the caliper
b)For scribing lines inside tubes
c) To enable spring dividers to be accurately set
4. General purpose solders are graded by
a) a colour coding
b)a letter coding
c) a numerical coding
5. What action is taken when soldering flux residue may have lodged in
deep crevices of an assembly
a) it must be thoroughly rinsed with a weak solution of sulphuric acid
and washed in cold water
b)it must be immersed in a weak solution of phosphoric acid and rinsed in
water
c) it must be immersed in a weak solution of hydrochloric acid and
rinsed thoroughly in running water
6. Die Nuts are used to
a) form external threads

b)clean up damaged threads

c) form internal threads
7. In marking a light alloy
a) the scriber must be held at an angle to give a smooth line where
bending is required
b)caustic soda is used
c) a pencil is used to mark the material and all marks removed after
bending
8. When assembling metals of different potential, corrosion may be
inhibited by application of
a) zinc or barium chromate & assemble while wet
b)zinc or chromic acid & assemble while wet
c) nothing - assemble bare
9. When using the colour contrast NDT
a) the surface should be lightly scuffed
b)the surface paint should be removed
c) the surface should be bead blasted
10. When using dye penetrant field kit, removal of excess penetrant is
done by applying the solvent by
a) spraying twice direct on the part
b)spraying once direct on the part
c) using a lint free cloth

This is exam number 41.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C C
B
C
A

6
C

7
A

8
C

9
C

10
C

1. A Dial Test Indicator may be used for

a) checking dimensions to within 0.125''
b)checking any known depth
c) checking a round bar for bow
2. Which cut of a file should be used on mild steel?
a) Single cut
b)Second cut
c) Double cut
3. Nickel alloy chisels should be sharpened
a) on a grindstone
b)on a oilstone
c) by filing
4. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) To cut an aluminium block use a fine hacksaw blade
b)To cut thin mild steel plate use a coarse blade
c) To cut thin sheet metal use a fine blade
5. A power meter indicates that a circuit has a power of 16 kW.
Separate readings of the voltage and current are 400 V and 20 A
respectively. The Power factor is
a) 2
b)
c) 20
6. What is a key-seat rule used for?
a) Providing a positive driving force
b)Marking lines which are parallel to a true edge
c) Marking lines parallel to an axis of a round bar

7. When measuring current in a circuit, the ammeter is placed

a) in series with the circuit
b)in parallel with the circuit
c) in series with the shunt
8. A 3 bit multimeter will indicate readings up-to
a) 9999
b)999
c) 1999
9. Liquid penetrant tests can be used to detect
a) internal porosity in castings
b)corrosion wall thinning in pipes and tubes
c) fatigue cracks in magnesium alloy parts
10. Water-washable liquid penetrants differ from Post-emulsification
penetrants in that they
a) need not be removed from surfaces prior to development
b)can only be used on aluminium alloys
c) do not need an emulsifier added

This is exam number 42.

Answer
1.
2
C
B

3
B

4
C

5
C

6
C

7
B

8
A

1. The accuracy a bevel protractor can be read to is

a) 1
b)50'

9
C

10
B

c)

5'

2. When using a post-emulsification penetrant, the timing is most

critical during
a) penetration
b)emulsification
c) penetrant removal
3. A liquid penetrant test cannot
a) be used on porous materials
b)locate sub-surface discontinuities
c) be used on non-metallic surfaces
4. After mechanical removal of corrosion on an aluminium alloy casting,
the length of the blended recess should be
a) no more than twenty times the depth
b)no less than ten times the depth
c) no less than twenty times the depth
5. After carrying out an identification test of aluminium alloy with
caustic soda, the caustic soda should be neutralized with
a) Phosphoric acid
b)Copper sulphate solution
c) Chromic anhydride solution
6. Steel wire brushes or steel wool should
a) be used to clean magnesium alloys
b)be used to clean aluminium sheet
c) never be used on light alloys
7. If an English micrometer is showing 4 main divisions, 3 sub-divisions
and the 25th thimble division was in line, what would the reading be?
a) 0.555in

b)0.475in
c) 0.175in
8. An open circuit on an ohmmeter would be indicated by a reading of
a) infinite resistance
b)zero resistance
c) a negative resistance
9. The leads of an ohmmeter should be replaced if their resistance is
greater than
a) 0.05 ohms
b)0.5 ohms
c) 1 ohm
10. Torque loading is determined by multiplying the tangent force
applied at the free end of the spanner
a) by the dia. of the bolt and the distance of its point of application
b)by its distance of application from the axis of the bolt
c) by the distance moved by the point of application

This is exam number 43..

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
C
B
B
C

6
C

7
A

8
C

9
C

10
B

1. Hot air drying of articles during liquid penetrant testing is carried

out at a temperature of
a) 75 F
b)130F
c) 250F

2. Which electrical measuring device needs a power source?

a) A voltmeter
b)An ammeter
c) An ohmmeter
3. When measuring voltage or current with a digital multimeter, the
indication is
a) peak values
b)RMS values
c) Average values
4. On a multimeter, what colour lead is connected to the Common socket
a) red
b)black
c) green
5. The Vernier scale of a Bevel Protractor is shown below. What is the
reading?
a) 8615
b)3845
c) 6315
6. A phosphate based flux paste is for soldering
a) aluminium
b)brass
c) stainless steel
7. What type of lubricant should be used when drilling aluminium?
a) Paraffin
b)Vegetable oil
c) None

8. How are spring dividers sharpened?

a) By grinding the inside of the points
b)By filing the outside of the points
c) By stoning the outside of the points
9. Three point micrometers are for measuring
a) linear dimensions
b)external dimensions
c) internal dimensions
10. When is a coarse hacksaw blade used?
a) When cutting material of thin cross section
b)When cutting material of thick cross section
c) When cutting ferrous metals only

This is exam number 44.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
A
C
A
B

6
A

7
C

8
C

9
A

10
B

1. To neutralize spilled battery acid on aluminium alloy, use

a) caustic soda
b)bicarbonate of soda
c) sulphuric acid
2. Hydrogen embrittlement of high tensile steel is caused if it is
treated with
a) Phosphoric acid
b)Zinc Chromate
c) Nitric acid

3. The regulations concerning the levels of competence for personnel

authorized to carry out Non-Destructive testing are described in
a) the Air Navigation Order
b)JAR 66
c) Airworthiness Notice No.94
4. What would be the result of an insufficient clearance angle on a
twist drill?
a) It would cut slowly, if at all
b)It would produce an oversize hole
c) It would tend to pull through the hole
5. Dents in a tubular push-pull rodare not allowed
a) in the end thirds of the rod
b)in the middle third of the rod
c) anywhere on the rod
6. A voltage drop across a component is measured by placing the meter in
a) parallel with the component
b)series with he component
c) series with the power source
7. Which of the following reamers would you use in a hole having a
keyway?
a) Parallel reamer
b)Expanding reamer
c) Spiral fluted reamer
8. Which of the following actions would be taken to fit a locking device
to a nut or bolt, if the correct torque has been reached but the locking
device will not fit
a) tighten further until device fits

b)file the base of the nut

c) change the nut or bolt for one that will achieve the desired
condition
9. A tolerance given on a dimension is indicated
a) by a plus and minus sign preceding the permitted tolerance
b)by the prefix TOL with the permitted tolerance
c) by enclosing the permitted tolerance within a triangle
10. How much material should be allowed for reaming?
a) 0.010" to 0.015"
b)0.003" to 0.007"
c) 0.001" to 0.010"

This is exam number 45.

Answer
1.
2
A
B

3
B

4
A

5
B

6
C

7
A

8
A

9
C

10
C

1. This symbol found on an engineering drawing would mean

a) concentricity
b)cylindricity
c) angularity
2. The purpose of the CRS is
a) to ensure that the log book entry is complete
b)to turn a log book or job card entry into a legal document and to
ensure that the signatory takes full responsibility for the work done
c) to comply with article 15 of the ANO which states that an aircraft
must not fly unless it is properly equipped for the intended flight

3. Duplicate inspections are

a) Inspections signed by a mechanic and countersigned by an approved
signatory or licensed engineer
b)Inspections certified by one approved signatory or LAE and then
certified by a second approved signatory or LAE
c) Inspections which have to be duplicated but which can finally be
certified by one LAE or approved signatory
4. This symbol means
a) first angle projection
b)second angle projection
c) third angle projection
5. When a piece of metal is bent, the surface of the metal on the
outside of the bend is
a) in compression
b)in tension
c) neither in tension or in compression
6. The abbreviation B.A. means
a) British Assembly
b)British Arrangement
c) British Association
7. The resistance between a flexible hose and a component should not
exceed
a) 0.05 ohm
b)0.5 ohm
c) 1 ohm
8. Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering operations?
a) To chemically clean the base metal of oxide film

b)To prevent overheating of the base metal

c) To increase heat conductivity
9. Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or metals are hot. It is
important, therefore, when welding aluminium to use a
a) solvent
b)filler
c) flux
10. Bore tests of flexible hoses are carried out using a suitable ball
or bobbin of
a) 25% of the diameter of the end fittings
b)85% of the diameter of the end fittings
c) 90% of the diameter of the end fittings

This is exam number 46.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
B
C
C
A

6
C

7
A

8
C

9
B

10
A

1. When related to aeronautical engineering , the term Inspection" is

defined in the publication
a) ANO article 11
b)Airworthiness Notice (AWN) 3
c) BCAR Section L
2. The technical laws relating to Civil Aviation are contained in
a) the Civil Aviation Act 1971
b)the Air Navigation Order
c) the Civil Aircraft Inspection Procedures

3. Technical and Administrative information is circulated to licensed

engineers, aircraft owners, and approved organizations in
a) A.N.O. revisions
b)Air Navigation Regulations
c) Airworthiness Notices
4. Civil aircraft manufactured in the UK are constructed from parts that
have been
a) tested to destruction
b)manufactured by British Aerospace
c) manufactured to approved drawings
5. Design drawings of aircraft components are produced by organisations
approved by
a) C.A.A. in accordance with BCAR
b)British Standards Institute
c) S.B.A.C.
6. The sight line of a bend is
a) half a radius from the tangent line
b)at the tangent line
c) one radius from the tangent line
7. In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding, a stream of inert gas is used to
a) prevent the formation of oxides in the puddle
b)concentrate the heat of the arc and prevent its dissipation
c) lower the temperature required to properly fuse the metal
8. A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used effectively until after
the working face has been
a) fluxed
b)polished
c) tinned

9. What is the proof loading for cables after swaging?

a) 1/3 minimum breaking strain
b)50% minimum breaking strain
c) 2/3 minimum breaking strain
10. Control chains should be fitted in an aircraft
a) with the minimum of slack in the chain
b)so that the chain can be removed easily
c) with as much slack as possible to allow for contraction

This is exam number 47.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
B
C
B
C

6
B

7
A

8
A

9
C

10
B

1. This tolerance symbol means

a) angularity
b)position
c) diameter
2. Where are correct layout, dimensioning, numbering and reference
procedures for engineering drawing are to be found
a) BS 1916
b)BS 308
c)

BS 31

3. What is the purpose of a Morse taper on large sizes of twist drills?

a) To allow the drills to be fitted to a drilling machine
b)To ensure that the drill is fitted correctly
c) To give a positive drive when fitted into a tapered chuck

4. 10:1 on an engineering drawing indicates

a) the drawing is one tenth full size
b)the drawing is ten times full size
c) the drawing is full size
5. After cutting a 3/8" BSF internal thread and stud, it is found that
the stud is too large. How is a fit achieved?
a) Remove the male thread crests with a fine emery cloth
b)Grind a taper on the end of the bolt
c) Re-adjust the die and re-cut the male thread
6. Civil Aircraft Airworthiness Information Procedures
a) contain information of a mandatory nature
b)are a guide to the general maintenance of aircraft
c) contain approved inspection schedules
7. British Civil Airworthiness Requirements
a) list the minimum design requirements for aircraft
b)specify the minimum qualifications for aircrew and engineers
c) give General technical information

8. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for hard metal?
a) 118 degrees
b)100 degrees
c) 90 degrees
9. You have reamed out a hole in a piece of titanium. How should you
remove the reamer safely to prevent unnecessary damage?
a) Anti-clockwise
b)Allow the reamer to pass right through the hole
c) Remove it, but in the same rotation as if cutting

10. The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of metal without
critically weakening the part is called the
a) bend allowance
b)minimum radius of bend
c) maximum radius of bend
This is exam number 48.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
A
A
C
A

6
B

7
A

8
A

9
B

10
A

1. Increasing the weight of an aircraft

a) decreases the glide range
b)increases the glide range
c) has no affect on the glide range
2. The Datum point on an aircraft, for measuring C of G position could
be
a) anywhere on the aircraft
b)the front bulkhead
c) the nose of the aircraft
3. What work has to be recorded and signed for
a) all work carried out
b)only work involving replacements
c) only work which entails a duplicate inspection
4. Are C.A.A.I.P. mandatory?
a) Only selected parts which are in B.C.A.R.
b)Yes, but only for six months at a time
c) No, nothing in C.A.A.I.P.s is mandatory
5. When reading an engineering drawing, this symbol means

a) profile of a surface
b)profile of a position
c) profile of a line
6. The threads per inch on the spindle of an English micrometer are
a) 25 t.p.i.
b)40 t.p.i.
c) 50 t.p.i.
7. Variable load is weight of
a) crew, their baggage and equipment relevant to role
b)fuel, oil and non-expendable equipment relevant to role
c) basic weight plus operating weight
8. The spring loaded ratchet attached to the spindle of a standard
external micrometer produces
a) a pre-set feel during use
b)a smooth free run during use
c) a means for controlling thread binding
9. Solders are available in two forms
a) stick solder with a rosin core and solder in a wire form having a
rosin core
b)stick solder needing a separate flux and solder in wire form having a
rosin core
c) Solder in a wire form needing a separate flux and stick solder
needing no flux at all
10. The purpose of the land on a twist drill is to
a) reduce friction
b)present the cutting edge at the required angle
c) to allow clearance for swarf
This is exam number 49.

Answer
1.
2
C
B

3
A

4
A

5
C

6
A

7
A

8
B

9
B

10
C

1. When weighing an aircraft, the hydraulic system should be

a) completely full
b)empty
c) filled to maximum level mark
2. Lines known as short dashes (thin) are used on drawings to indicate
a) visible outlines
b)hidden detail
c) cutting revolved
3. Cargo placed aft of the datum will produce a
a) positive moment
b)negative moment
c) neutral moment
4. If the C of G of an aircraft with a full complement of fuel is
calculated
a) the C of G must be recalculated with zero fuel to ensure it will
still be within limits
b)the C of G will always be within limits if it was within limits with
full fuel tanks
c) the C of G will only need to be recalculated if the fuel weight is
behind the aircraft C of G position
5. The name given to the moving scale on the Vernier caliper is
a) the cursor
b)the main scale
c) the vernier scale

6. This symbol means

a) flatness
b)position
c) perpendicularity
7. What is the reading of the Vernier caliper scale in inches shown
below?
a) 1.816
b)1.8016
c) 0.1816
8. What does the cut of a file refer to
a) Number of teeth per inch
b)Arrangement of the teeth
c) Grade
9. Why are teeth of hacksaw blades off-set?
a) To provide greater strength
b)To provide clearance for non-cutting part of the blade
c) To allow a quick cutting positive action
10. Why are some components torque loaded?
a) To ensure they do not vibrate loose
b)To ensure that they are tightened to their yield point
c) To ensure that their elastic limit is not exceeded

This is exam number 50.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
B
C
B
A

6
C

7
A

8
B

9
B

10
B

1. Any change to a drawing

a) must be accompanied by the new issue number and date
b)requires a new drawing number
c) must be notified to the S.B.A.C.
2. This symbol on a drawing means
a) washed and packed
b)solution treated and precipitated
c) solution treated and requiring precipitation
3. This symbol means
a) diameter
b)dimensionality
c) concentricity
4. How are files classified?
a) By length, grade and material
b)By length, grade, cut and section
c) By length, grade, cut, section and material
5. Details on recording of weight and C of G position can be found in
a) BCAR section A
b)Air Navigation Order
c) Airworthiness Notices
6. Hammers are classified by
a) shape of head and length of shaft
b)weight and length of shaft
c) weight and type of head

7. What does the term 'second cut' indicate as applied to hand files?
a) The grade of the file
b)A reconditioned file
c) The section of the file
8. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is required by
a) all aircraft regardless of weight
b)all aircraft above 2730 kg MTWA
c) all aircraft not exceeding 2730 kg MTWA
9. When using a reamer, in which direction should it be turned?
a) Anti-clockwise when Cutting and removing
b)Clockwise when cutting and removing
c) Clockwise when cutting and anti-clockwise when removing
10. What comprises a full set of BA taps?
a) A taper, second and plug tap
b)A taper and plug tap
c) A taper and second tap
This is exam number 51.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
B
C
A
A

6
C

7
C

8
C

9
A

10
B

1. Break lines are used

a) to show where components are expected to break
b)in sectional drawing
c) where it would be inconvenient (because of limited space) to draw
long lengths of the same section
2. An oblique projection

a) is the same as an isometric projection

b)has one view looking directly at one face with the lines representing
depth drawn at a constant angle
c) has one view looking directly at one face with the lines
representing depth drawn at 90o
3. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is to be raised
a) in triplicate, for the CAA, the operator and the maintenance
organisation
b)once only, for the CAA
c) in duplicate, for the CAA and the operator
4. The teeth on a hacksaw blade
a) should point away from the handle
b)should point towards the handle
c) does not matter which way they point
5. What is the clearance angle on a twist drill
a) 12 degrees
b)59 degrees
c) 130 degrees
6. If a new Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is issued, the old one
must be retained for
a) one year
b)two years
c) six months
7. When tapping blind holes
a) a single tap is used
b)a set of two taps is used
c) a set of three taps is used
8. On a torque wrench the torque loading is

a) the tangential application of the force divided by the perpendicular

distance to the centre of the bolt
b)the tangential application of the force plus the perpendicular distance
to the centre of the bolt
c) the tangential application of the force times the perpendicular
distance to the centre of the bolt
9. Surface Plates are used
a) for marking out work and testing flat surfaces
b)for filing flat surfaces
c) only on surface tables
10. Draw filing produces
a) a course finish
b)a fine finish
c) a mottled finish
This is exam number 52.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
B
C
C
B

6
C

7
A

8
B

9
B

10
B

1. For purposes of calculating weight and C of G position, an adult male

is considered to have a mass of
a) 65 kg
b)75 kg
c) 85 kg
2. Aircraft must be reweighed
a) after two years from manufacture only
b)after two years from manufacture then at periods not exceeding five
years
c) at periods not exceeding five years

3. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule must be signed by

a) the pilot
b)the CAA
c) a Licensed aircraft engineer
4. A drawing in which the subassemblies or parts are shown as brought
together on the aircraft is called
a) a sectional drawing
b)a detail drawing
c) an installation drawing
5. A safe edge of a file is used
a) against a rough unfinished surface
b)against a finished surface
c) to give a fine polished finish to a smooth surface
6. What is the minimum number of hacksaw blade teeth that should be in
contact with the material being cut
a) 4
b)2
c) 3
7. Scribers are used to
a) mark guide lines on material
b)produce an accurate finish
c) make centre pop marks for drilling
8. The main scale of a Metric Vernier Caliper is calibrated in
a) millimetres
b)millimetres and half millimetres
c) micro-meters
9. A thread on a drawing is labeled - 20 UNF 1B. The thread is
a) external

b)internal
c) either external or internal, depending on the application
10. NTS on a drawing stands for
a) Not True Scale
b)Not To Scale
c) No Tolerance System
This is exam number 53.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
A
C
B
B

6
B

7
A

8
C

9
C

10
B

1. A load sheet
a) is always carried on the aircraft
b)need not be carried on the aircraft if one remains at base
c) is never carried on the aircraft
2. A load Sheet must be signed by
a) the Commander of the aircraft
b)the Loading Officer
c) a licensed aircraft engineer
3. Variable Load is
a) weight of fuel and oils
b)weight of passengers
c) weight of crew, their baggage and their equipment
4. When reading a blueprint, a dimension is given as 4.387 inches +
0.005 - 0.002. Which statement is true?
a) The maximum acceptable size is 4.385 inches
b)The minimum acceptable size is 4.385 inches
c) The maximum acceptable size is 4.389 inches

5. A hydraulic system schematic drawing would indicate the

a)specific location of the individual components within the aircraft
b)direction of fluid flow through the system
c) type and quantity of the hydraulic fluid
6. For a drill to cut properly it is essential that the point angle be
the same on each side, for general use the angle is
a) 130o
b)59o
c) 12o
7. Chalk when used with a fine file produces
a) a finer finish
b)a ground type surface
c) a milled type surface
8. The pitch of a hacksaw blade is
a) its length
b)the number of teeth on the blade
c) the number of teeth per inch
9. When using a hand file correctly, the downward pressure should be
used only
a) on a return stroke
b)on the forward and return stroke
c) on the forward stroke
10. When using a bench grinding machine the wheel rotates
a) from the bottom upwards past the work piece
b)from the top down towards the work piece
c) either direction as selected on starting the machine
This is exam number 54.

Answer
1.
2
C
A

3
C

4
B

5
A

6
A

7
B

8
B

9
B

10
C

1. A Load Sheet is compiled in the order of

a) Basic Weight, Variable Load, Fuel Load, Disposable Load
b)Variable Load, Fuel Load, Disposable Load, Basic Weight
c) Basic Weight, Variable Load, Disposable Load, Fuel Load
2. An aircraft which has its C of G forward of the Forward Limit
a) will have a longer take-off run
b)will have a shorter take-off run
c) the take-off run will not be affected
3. Which statement is true regarding an orthographic projection?
a) There are always at least two views
b)It could have as many as eight views
c) One-view, two-view, and three-view drawings are the most common
4. A line used to show an edge which is not visible is a
a) phantom line
b)hidden line
c) break line
5. One purpose for schematic diagrams is to show the
a) functional location of components within a system
b)physical location of components within a system
c) size and shape of components within a system
6. The size of the nibs of vernier calipers can be ascertained by
a) noting the dimension engraved on the instrument
b)measuring the steel rule

c)

using the standard of 0.693 inches

7. The thimble of an English micrometer is divided into

a) 50 equal divisions
b)25 equal divisions
c) 40 equal divisions
8. The reading on the inch micrometer scale shown is
a) 4.758 ins
b)0.483 ins
c) 0.488 ins
9. A flux is used in soldering to
a) etch the metals surface for more adhesion
b)to dissolve oxides
c) to prevent solder spikes
10. This type of break line represents
a) square tube
b)round tube
c) round bar

This is exam number 55.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
C
A
C
A

6
C

7
C

8
B

9
C

10
A

1. What angle of turn will double the weight of the aircraft

a) 30o
b)45o
c) 60o

2. The vernier height gauge uses the same principle as

a) the micrometer
b)the bevel protractor
c) the vernier caliper
3. What type of line is normally used in a mechanical drawing or
blueprint to represent an edge or object not visible to the viewer?
a) Medium-weight dashed line
b)Light solid line
c) Alternate short and long light dashes
4. A specific measured distance from the datum or some other point
identified by the manufacturer, to a point in or on the aircraft is called
a
a) zone number
b)specification number
c) station number
5. The correct way to show two adjacent sectioned parts is
a)
b)
c)
6. The pitch of the screw thread on an English micrometer is
a) 0.050 in
b)0.001 in
c) 0.025 in
7. The best way to check control cables for broken wires is to
a) examine them visually
b)increase the tension and check with a magnifying glass
c) run a rag along the cable in both directions

8. If the turnbuckles in a control system are tightened excessively the

result will be
a) the cable will break
b)the aircraft will be heavy on controls
c) the cables will vibrate excessively and cause failure of controls
9. The "Lay Line" on a flexible hose is
a) a white line painted the full length of the hose to indicate any
stretch in the hose
b)an arrow painted on the hose to show the direction of fluid flow
c) a white line painted the full length of the hose to indicate any
twist in the hose
10. Backlash is a type of wear associated with
a) gears
b)bearings
c) rivets

This is exam number 56.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
C
C
A
A

6
A

7
B

8
B

9
B

10
B

1. After a chain has been cleaned in paraffin it should be

a) hung up to drip dry
b)dried in hot air
c) washed in soapy water then hung to drip dry
2. What fraction of the minimum breaking load should be the proof load
for a chain?
a) 0.1%.

b)0.1
c) 1/3
3. A control cable is proof loaded to ensure that
a) it will not break after fitting in an aircraft
b)it will not stretch after fitting in an aircraft
c) the end fittings on the cable are secure
4. To check the structure of a wing, which NDT is used?
a) Radiographic
b)Dye penetrant
c) Magnetic Flaw
5. British turnbuckles are checked for safety by
a) attempting to pass a hardened pin probe through the inspection hole
b)attempting to push locking wire through the hole
c) looking through the hole and checking for threads showing
6. If corrosion is found on a chain
a) replace the chain
b)clean off the corrosion and if acceptable re-fit the chain
c) lubricate the chain
7. A suspected chemical spillage on a cable, you should
a) clean the cable and inspect 24 hours later
b)replace the cable
c) clean, inspect and refit immediately
8. The riveting defect in the figure shown is
a) too much hammering
b)the snap was not square
c) the dolly was not square

9. Rivet allowance is
a) the distance between rivets in the same row
b)the amount of material required to form the rivet on installation
c) the distance the rivet is positioned from the edge of the repair
plate
10. This electrical symbol represents a
a) single pole double throw switch
b)double pole double throw switch
c) double pole single throw switch
This is exam number 57.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
B
C
C
A

6
B

7
A

8
C

9
B

10
C

1. In the Push-pull tube linkage used in aircraft flying control

systems, how is the length of the tube adjusted?
a) It is fixed and does not require adjusting
b)By adjusting end fittings at each end of the tube
c) Fit anew push-pull tube
2. The three principle dimensions specified for a chain is the diameter
of the rollers and
a) the pitch and width across the outside of the plates
b)the pitch and width between the inner plates
c) pitch and chain length

3. The distance between the centres of the rollers of a chain is called

a) length
b)crest
c) pitch
4. What is the approximate distance of the sphere of influence of a
rivet?
a) 4 D
b)2 D
c) 5 D
5. Rivet clearance is
a) the amount that the rivet hole diameter exceeds the rivet diameter
b)the distance between rivets in the same row
c) the distance between rows of rivets
6. This electrical symbol represents a
a) variable inductor
b)iron core inductor
c) air core inductor
7. This electrical symbol represents a
a) PNP transistor
b)NPN transistor
c) Zener diode
8. The minimum rivet pitch is
a) 2 x the rivet diameter
b)2 1/2 x the rivet diameter
c) 3 x the rivet diameter
9. Spotfacing is done to
a) provide a good surface for welding

b)provide a flat area on a rough surface

c) compensate for height in lieu of a spring washer
10. If ice and snow is found on the wings of an aircraft. Before flight
the
a) ice should be removed but snow can remain because the airflow will
remove it
b)snow should be removed but ice can remain because it has no appreciable
affect on the airflow
c) all snow and ice must be removed

This is exam number 58.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
C
C
A
A

6
B

7
A

8
B

9
B

10
B

1. Which of the following formulas should be used to calculate the

percentage extension of an aircraft control chain
Note:
M = Measured length under load in inches
X = Number of pitches measured
P = Pitch of chain in inches
a) M - (X x P) x 100
XxP
b) X - (M x P) x 100
MxP
c) M + (X x X) x 100
PxM
2. HTS aircraft control cables are protected from corrosion by
a) zinc plating
b)cadmium coating
c) Galvanising
3. The maximum allowable extension of a chain assembly over a nominal

length is
a) 3%
b)5%
c) 2%
4. In a first angle orthographic projection the plan view is placed
a) below the front elevation
b)below the side elevation
c) above the front elevation
5. A geometric tolerance symbol indicating that one edge must be
parallel to a datum edge would be shown as
a)
b)
c)
6. When a cutting plane on a drawing cuts a web longitudinally, the web
is
a) sectioned the same as the rest of the view
b)not sectioned
c) sectioned with different direction of hatch
7. A shaft dimension given as 1.225 +/- 0.003 followed by MMC
should be manufactured to what size?
a) 1.228
b)1.222
c) 1.225
8. 2 microns is
a) 0.002
b)0.002 mm
c) 0.000 002
9. The edge or surface of a part from which dimensions are measured from

is called the
a) reference plane
b)datum
c) water line
10. This electrical symbol represents a
a) push to reset circuit breaker
b)push-pull circuit breaker
c) toggle switch circuit breaker
This is exam number 59.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
B
C
B
A

6
B

7
B

8
B

9
A

10
A

1. What is the purpose of the hole in the swaged end fitting on a swaged
cable?
a) To allow trapped air to escape
b)To ensure the cable end passes the inspection hole on drilled through
type fittings but leaves the locking wire hole clear
c) To allow a split pin to be inserted
2. With a serviceable chain not required for use, how should you store
it?
a) clean, lubricate, wrap the chain in grease proof paper and suspend
b)carefully coil, lubricate, lay flat and wrap in grease proof paper
c) lay the chain flat in full length , lubricate and wrap in brown
paper to exclude all dirt and moisture
3. The riveting defect in the figure shown is
a) an incorrect snap has been used
b)the snap was not square
c) the hole was too small

4. The inspection hole in a turnbuckle is

a) to allow the locking wire to pass through for the purpose of locking
b)to ensure that the turnbuckle is in safety
c) to ensure that the locknuts are adequately tightened
5. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection
failure?
a) Unserviceable radio filters
b)Broken or missing static wicks
c) Corrosion on bonding leads
6. This electrical symbol represents a
a) light bulb
b)fuse
c) flexible coupling
7. The grip of a rivet is
a) the area of the plates held firmly together
b)the thickness of plates which can be fastened
c) the length of rivet left to form the head
8. Water Lines are
a) front to rear measurements on the fuselage
b)vertical measurements on the fuselage
c) left and right measurements on the fuselage
9. When a cutting plane goes through a bush and bolt assembly, on the
sectioned view
a) the bush will be hatched but the bolt will not
b)neither the bush nor the bolt will be hatched
c) both the bush and the bolt will be hatched

10. This symbol indicates that

a) machining is required on a particular surface
b)machining is required on all surfaces
c) chisels must not be used

This is exam number 60.

Answer
1.
2
A
C

3
A

4
C

5
C

6
C

7
C

8
B

9
C

10
C

1. When checking a diode forward bias function, the positive lead of the
ohmmeter should be placed on the
a) anode and the negative lead to the cathode
b)cathode and the negative lead to the anode
c) cathode and the negative lead the earth
2. An avometer can measure alternating current because it has a
a) moving coil
b)moving iron
c) bridge rectifier circuit
3. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection
failure?
a) Unserviceable radio filters
b)Broken or missing static wicks
c) Corrosion on bonding leads

4. The basic equipment of an aircraft is

a) the crew equipment, and other equipment including fuel and oil
necessary for a particular flight
b)all equipment including fuel and oil necessary for a particular flight
c) that equipment which is required for every role of the aircraft for
which the aircraft is operated plus unusable fuel.
5. Taper reamers are classified by
a) the diameter of the small end
b)the diameter of the large end
c) a type number (1 to 10)
6. Silver solder is made from
a) tin, copper and zinc
b)copper, tin and silver
c) copper, zinc and silver
7. Brazing material is made from
a) copper and tin and lead
b)copper, silver and tin
c) copper zinc and silver
8. When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables
a) avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric
constant
b)distortion of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is
not affected
c) the clamps must be no more than 1 metre apart
9. When fitting coaxial cable connectors it is important to
a) fit the correct lock nuts
b)not damage any seals fitted
c) make sure the outer cup is fitted the correct way round

10. The bonding resistance of primary structure must not exceed

a) 0.5 ohms
b)0.005 ohms
c) 0.05 ohms
This is exam number 61.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
C
C
A
C

6
B

7
B

8
A

9
A

10
B

1. A crimped electrical connection is suspected to be high resistance.

How would you verify this without disconnecting the circuit?
a) Measure the resistance with a 250 volt megger
b)Measure the resistance with an ohmmeter
c) Measure the millivolt drop across the connection with a millivolt
meter
2. How would you measure continuity of a coaxial cable?
a) With a 250 volt megger
b)With a safety ohmmeter
c) With a reflectometer
3. What is the licensed engineer responsible for when fitting a new
component to an aircraft?
a) That is has a green serviceable tag
b)That the paperwork is signed by an approved signatory
c) The correct part number, the modification state and the
serviceability of the component
4. Where would you find documented, the fore and aft limits of the C of
G position?
a) In the Flight Manual (or the documentation associated with the C of
A)

b)In the aircraft Maintenance Manual

c) In the technical log
5. If a test or inspection instrument has no calibration data supplied
by the manufacturer, you would use the calibration data provided by
a) CAAIPs
b)the Maintenance Manual
c) the British Standards Quality Assurance documentation referring to
calibration of instrumentation and test equipment
6. Why are test or inspection instruments regularly calibrated and
certified?
a) To ensure they are being used regularly
b)To ensure they will perform within the required limits of operation
c) To ensure they can handle the range of measurements required of
them
7. Who is responsible for ensuring that weight and balance
instrumentation is serviceable before use?
a) An engineer holding a license in the instrument category
b)The person responsible for carrying out the weight and balance
procedure
c) The manufacturer of the equipment
8. The term 'reaction' used in weighing an aircraft refers to
a) the individual loads on each landing gear
b)the sum of the loads on all of the landing gear
c) the sum of the loads on the main landing gear only
9. When inspecting a weld, you should make sure that
a) the parent (or basis) materials are fully fused together
b)the weld has inclusions inside the bead
c) there are voids either side of the weld

10. A hole drilled at the intersection of two bends in a fabricated

sheet metal component is called
a) a crack stopper
b)a relief hole
c) a drain hole
This is exam number 62.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
A
C
A
A

6
C

7
B

8
C

9
C

10
C

1.
This is a diagram of
a) a voltage divider
b)a potentiometer
c) a voltage regulator
2. Aluminium alloy pipe used for hydraulics systems is flared
a) as supplied
b)annealed
c) normalized

3. Material used for springs is

a) Low carbon steel or alloy steel with high working stresses
b)Low carbon steel or alloy steel with low working stresses
c) High carbon or alloy steel with low working stresses
4. Magnetic Flux detection will show defects which are
a) transverse only
b)longitudinal and Transverse
c) longitudinal only
5. Thrust bearings transmit
a) thrust loads, thus limiting axial movement
b)thrust loads, thus limiting radial movement

c) radial loads, thus limiting axial movement

6. Chipping of a ball bearing indicates
a) brinelling
b)chattering
c) spalling
7. When testing thermocouples using a test set the ambient temperature
a) never needs to be considered
b)is considered every time
c) is only considered when temperatures of 20 degrees C or above
8. After a heavy landing you should check
a) engine module alignment
b)engine compressor shaft alignment
c) engine thrust alignment
9. Refueling should not take place when
a) APU running
b)Nav lights and landing lights on
c) within 30 m (100 ft) of radar equipment being operated
10. When Ground Power is connected to aircraft, the generators are
a) paralleled to supply
b)paralleled to supply for ground starting only
c) never paralleled
This is exam number 63.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
A
C
B
A

6
A

7
B

8
B

9
A

10
B

1. Electronic test equipment for fuel tank contents systems usually

incorporate variable
a) inductors
b)resistors
c) capacitors
2. A defect would be marked on an exhaust system using
a) chalk
b)a pencil
c) a special zinc/copper tipped marking tool

3. Which of the following lines indicate hidden detail on a drawing?

a) A continuous line as shown in 1
b)A broken line as shown in 3
c) A broken line as shown in 2
4. A hairline crack would show up on a dye penetrant inspection as
a) a group of dots spread over a wide area
b)a continuous line of small dots
c) a thin broken line or chain
5. When carrying out an ultrasonic inspection, what is the gel used for?
a) To create a good sonic coupling between the the probe and the test
piece
b)To reduce the friction between the probe and the test piece
c) To prevent the test piece from becoming scratched by the probe
6. Before using a bonding tester, the 6 foot lead has the two prongs
shorted together with a piece of metal. What would the indicator read?
a) Full scale left
b)Full scale right
c) Zero at the centre

7. When using a megger to test insulation resistance, capacitive filters

should be disconnected for what reason?
a) Remove the risk of damage to the megger
b)Remove the spurious readings caused by the capacitors charging and
discharging
c) Prevent damage to the filters
8. When inserting pins into a front release connector the inserting tool
should be used with the gap facing which direction?
a) The centre of the connector
b)The outside of the connector
c) Either direction
9. Hydraulic crimping tool after completing the crimping operation,
releases the crimp when
a) the by pass valve opens
b)the by pass valve closes
c) the foot pedal force is at maximum
10. The type of binding tape used for cables in temperatures above 260C
is which of the following?
a) Nylon
b)Teflon
c) Nomex

This is exam number 64.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
B
C
B
B

6
B

7
A

8
A

9
B

10
A

1. At which frequency is the calibration of crimping tools carried out?

a) Annually
b)Every 1000 crimps
c) Bi-annually
2. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between airframe
and electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50V RMS or dc
should not exceed
a) 1 M ohm
b)1 ohm
c) 0.05 ohm

3. Ribbon cables affected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage

should be protected by
a) shielding each individual conductor
b)connecting all conductors to a common earth
c) earthing each alternate conductor to separate points
4. On a long coaxial cable how would you check for discontinuities and
shorts in situ?
a) Safety ohmmeter
b)Time Domain Reflectometer
c) Continuity tester
5. What is the minimum bend radius of a loom adequately supported at a
terminal block?
a) 8 x diameter
b)3 x diameter
c) 10 x diameter
6. How are front release pins removed?
a) The tool is Inserted from the front and the pin is removed from the
front
b)The tool is inserted from the front and the pin is removed from the

rear
c) The tool is inserted from the rear and the pin Is removed from the
front
7. If a co-axial cable clamp is over tightened so as to compress the
dielectric, how will the capacitance change?
a) Increase
b)Decrease
c) Stay the same
8. What is the minimum bend radius of a single co-axial cable?
a) 6 x diameter
b)8 x diameter
c) 10 x diameter
9. What is wet arc tracking?
a) A fault caused by insulation damage and fluid contamination
b)A fault caused by hot stamp printing
c) A fault caused by knuckling through"
10. When using a heat shrink gun, what should the temperature of the gun
be set to?
a) 100 above the heat shrink temperature
b)100 below the heat shrink temperature
c) 15 below the heat shrink temperature

This is exam number 65.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
C
A
C
B

6
B

7
A

8
C

9
B

10
B

1. What is the maximum resistance between the main earth system and a
metal plate on which the earthing device (tyre) is resting?
a) 1 megohm
b)10 megohms
c) 100 megohms
2. What is the primary purpose of bonding of metallic parts of an
aircraft?
a) To prevent lightening strikes
b)To provide a return path for electrical two-wire system
c) To prevent high potential differences between metallic parts from
building up

3. What is the reason for a primary bonding connections large

cross-sectional area?
a) To carry lightening discharge current should the need arise
b)To maintain the airframe at the same potential throughout
c) To carry the static discharge current to the conducting nose wheel

4. The three electrical checks carried out on aircraft are (1)

continuity (2) bonding (3) insulation. What is the order in which they are
executed?
a) 1-2-3
b)2-3-1
c) 2-1-3
5. When an engine is not in direct electrical contact with its mounting,
how should it be bonded?
a) With at least one primary conductor
b)With at least two primary conductors, one each side of the engine
c) With at least two primary conductors on one side of the engine
6. When carrying out a serviceability check on a bonding tester - short

together the three prongs of both probes and ensure which of the
following?
a) A full scale reading is obtained
b)A zero reading
c) The meter reads 0.1 ohm
7. When an earth-return terminal assembly has to be replaced which of
the following checks must be carried out?
a) Bonding and milli-volt drop tests
b)Bonding and insulation resistance tests
c) Bonding and continuity tests
8. If the leads of a bonding tester are damaged, what is the procedure?
a) A new lead may be manufactured using the correct current rated cable
b)Provided that the damage is situated close to the end of the leads the
cable may be shortened
c) The damaged leads and the tester should be returned to the
manufacturer for repair and calibration
9. When carrying out millivolt drop checks on a circuit, what is an
approximate guide for a correct reading?
a) 10 millivolts for every 15 amps flowing
b)5 millivolts for every 10 amps flowing
c) 10 millivolts for every 5 amps flowing

10. When refueling an aircraft from a tanker, why are the aircraft and
tanker bonded together?
a) To enable the aircraft re-fuel pumps to be operated from the tanker
electrical supply
b)To maintain the aircraft and tanker at the same electrical potential
c) To discharge static electricity from the aircraft to the tanker
This is exam number 66.
Answer

1.
A

2
B

3
B

4
A

5
A

6
B

7
A

8
B

9
C

10
A

1. When carrying out a continuity test on a circuit when a known

resistance exists, what instrument would you use?
a) A multimeter
b)A high resistance insulation tester
c) A lamp and battery
2. Effective continuity is not possible unless which of the following
conditions exists?
a) All circuit earths are disconnected
b)The portion of the circuit under test must constitute a simple series
circuit with no parallel paths
c) All manually operated switches must be off

3. Why is a low voltage supply used for continuity testing?

a) To avoid damage to the wiring
b)To avoid breaking down a high resistance film that might exist between
contacting surfaces
c) To prevent fuses blowing and lamps burning out
4. If an insulation resistance tester is operated and the leads are
suspended in free air, what will the meter read?
a) Infinity
b)Zero
c) Mid scale - it is a ratiometer movement and there is no current
flowing in the external circuit
5. When replacing a bonding connection and the original conductor cannot
be matched exactly, which of the following replacements would you use?
a) One manufactured from the same type of material, but of greater
cross sectional area should be selected
b)One manufactured from any conducting material of the same cross

sectional area be used

c) One manufactured from any piece of Nyvin cable having the correct
current capacity may be used
6. How do you reduce or remove electrostatic charges which may build up
on fibre glass surfaces?
a) The surface is impregnated with copper strips
b)The surface is treated with a special conductive paint
c) No special treatment is necessary because fibre glass is an
insulator
7. If bridging strips or bonding cords are fractured, what action may be
taken?
a) A new conductor should be fitted
b)The broken ends can be soldered
c) The broken ends can be repaired with an in-line splice
8. An Insulation test is carried out on a group of cables and a low
reading obtained. What action would you take?
a) Change or renew all the cables involved in the test
b)Break the circuit down and carry out further checks
c) A low reading would be expected because the cables are in parallel

9. What is a typical min insulation resistance value for an aircraft

undercarriage bay?
a) 10 megohms
b)5 megohms
c) 2 megohms
10. Whenever possible a functional test should be carried out on an
aircraft using which power supply?
a) An external supply
b)The aircraft battery
c) The aircraft generators

This is exam number 67..

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
C
C
C
A

6
A

7
B

8
A

9
A

10
A

1. Immediately after carrying out an insulation check, which of the

following applies?
a) A continuity check must be carried out before switching on the
circuit for the first time
b)The readings observed and the atmospheric conditions at the time should
be noted and compared to previous readings
c) The observed readings should be noted and an independent check
carried out by another engineer
2. A Hardy Spicer coupling has what type of bearings?
a) Plain bearings
b)Ball Bearings
c) Needle bearings

3. When using the trepanning tool, the hole to be drilled should be

a) 1/32" Smaller than the guide diameter
b)1/32" bigger than the guide pin diameter
c) same diameter as the guide pin
4. When a helicopter lands, how does the pilot signal to ground staff
when it is safe to approach the aircraft?
a) Flash the Nav lights
b)Flash the landing lights
c) Turn the anti collision lights off
5. When using a digital meter to test a diode , a correct operation of

the diode is indicated by a volt drop of

a) 0.3v to 0.7v
b)1.5v to 2v
c) 2.5v to 2.8v
6. When using a stripboard , the tracks on a PCB are etched
a) before component fitment
b)after fitment but before soldering the components
c) after fitment and soldering of components
7. The recommended insulation resistance of a DC motor is
a) 0.5 megohms
b)2 megohms
c) 5 megohms
8. Silver soldering is suited for
a) general soldering work
b)high temperature applications
c) electronic component soldering
9. Soft solder is suited for joints, which are
a) subjected to small forces
b)subjected to strong forces
c) subjected to fatigue
10. To check that the ident pulse is being generated from an ATC
transponder,
a) press the ident and monitor the indication on the ramp test set
b)select ident and check the indication on the instrument panel
c) select an ATC channel and check the morse code

This is exam number 68.

Answer
1.
2
B
C

3
B

4
C

5
A

6
C

7
B

8
C

9
A

10
C

1. A feather key locates a gear on a shaft and permits

a) a positive and strong drive transmission
b)a positive drive and axial movement
c) a positive drive with the gear firmly locked
2. If an aircraft exceeded the RVSM , when shall the crew report the
incident in the appropriate channels
a) 24 hrs
b)48 hrs
c) 72 hrs

3. Fluorescent dye penetrant is suited for what materials?

a) Ferrous magnetic materials
b)Non magnetic non-ferrous materials
c) Plastics and non magnetic materials
4. Taper pin are classified by
a) length and taper
b)length and diameter of large end
c) length and diameter of small end
5. Graphite greases are used for
a) high temperature applications
b)low temperature applications
c) medium temperature applications
6. Live AC circuits to be checked for open circuits by the use of
a) ohmmeter set to megohms
b)ammeter set to amps

c)

multimeter set to AC volts

7. A millivolt drop check is to be carried out on a heavy duty relay.

The Millivolt meter would be connected to the relay
a) when contacts are open and power is on
b)when contacts closed and power is on
c) when contacts open and power off
8. Light drive fits for bolts have a maximum allowance of
a) 0.0025 inch
b)0.005 inch
c) 0.0006 inch
9. Removal of ice by the use of de-icing fluid on the aircraft, before
flight
a) may remove ice for a period of time depending on the airfield
conditions
b)must be 1 hour before flight to enable fluid to be cleaned from
aircraft
c) will provide sufficient prevention of ice formation until take off
10. Non metallic parts of the aircraft
a) do not require to be bonded because they are non conductive
b)must be bonded by bonding leads
c) must be bonded by application of conductive paint

This is exam number 69.

Answer
1.
2
B
C

3
A

4
B

5
C

6
B

7
A

8
C

9
C

10
C

1. When fitting a hydraulic component, the hydraulic seal should be

lubricated with
a) with a specified hydraulic oil
b)the same fluid that is used in the hydraulic system (e.g. skydrol)
c) grease
2. To ensure protection against HIRF affecting audio and navigation
aids
a) ensure that the correct number of static wicks are fitted
b)inspect and check all bonding leads to ensure their serviceability and
replace if defective
c) ensure that all audio and navigation equipment is adequately
screened

3. If the aircraft is away from base who may certify the second part of
the duplicate inspection?
a) a pilot with a licence for the aircraft type
b)a pilot with a licence for any similar aircraft type
c) any licensed engineer
4. BITE systems to be used on the ground only is deactivated by
a) the parking break
b)on take off
c) by the undercarriage retraction
5. The intervals for calibration of test equipment
a) are every year
b)are as specified in JAR 145
c) are different from one appliance to another
6. A multiplier resistance is used to extend the working range of the
a) ammeter
b)voltmeter
c) ohmeter

7. On twist drill chart, small drills have

a) largest numbers
b)smallest numbers
c) their sizes in fractions, in inches
8. What drill angle is used to drill titanium?
a) 90-100 degrees
b)130-140 degrees
c) 105-120 degrees
9. When pressure testing a flexible hydraulic pipe you test it at
a) its normal range
b)straight plus and minus 15 degrees
c) normal range plus 15 degrees
10. When turning and towing an aircraft, why should sharp radiuses be
avoided?
a) Power steering leaks could occur
b)Scrubbing of nosewheel tyres could occur
c) Scrubbing of mainwheel tyres could occur

This is exam number 70.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
A
C
C
A

6
B

7
A

8
B

9
B

10
A

1. The minimum 'no smoking' zone around an aircraft when refuelling is

a) 6m
b)15m
c) 10m
2. A CO2 extinguisher is used on

a) solid, liquid and electrical fires

b)solid, liquid, hot metal and electrical fires
c) solid and liquid fires
3. The Sine Bar is used to
a) check accuracy of slip gauges
b)by itself to calculate angles
c) produce angles using slip gauges
4. When tightening a nut on a bolt the torque loading applied is
a) independent of whether the threads are wet or dry
b)inversely proportional to the force applied to the spanner
c) the tangential application of the force times the perpendicular
distance from the point of application to the centre of the bolt
5. The UK standard of limits and fits is
a) BS4500
b)BS308
c) BS8888
6. A pressure gauge is fitted to a Dead Weight Tester. The piston area
is 0.25 sq.in. and the total mass of the mass carrier and masses is 5lb.
If the pressure gauge is accurate what pressure in pounds per square inch
(PSI) will it read?
a) 1.25psi
b)20psi
c) 200psi
7. De-icing fluid Type 1 is used
a) for short holdover times
b)where the ambient temperature is below -10degrees Centigrade
c) where holdover times are long
8. Block cumulative maintenance means that

a) each check usually involves an increased aircraft down time

b)all the checks require the same man hour input except for the major
inspections
c)

all the maintenance is carried out in blocks

9. A separate modification record book is required for

a) all aircraft
b)passenger aircraft exceeding 2730 kgs MTWA
c) passenger aircraft exceeding 3600 kgs MTWA
10. Sector record pages from the Tech Logs, must be
a) at least duplicated
b)retained for two years from the date of issue
c) retained for four years from the last effective date

This is exam number 71.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
B
A
B
A

6
B

7
A

8
A

9
A

10
A

1. In an electrical cable 1EF6B22NMS, what does the letter E represent?

a) Circuit function
b)Cable size
c) Segment letter
2. On a vernier micrometer, what will three turns of the barrel
represent?
a) 0.050"
b)0.075"
c) 0.100"

3. When mooring an aircraft what type of rope should be used?

a) Nylon
b)Fibre, tied tight due to stretch when wet
c) Fibre, with some slack due to shrinkage when wet
4. When using a Pacific tensionmeter the correct tension is found by
a) reading dial, provided the correct riser is used for the cable
diameter
b)comparing reading to chart provided
c) adding reading to riser number
5. Dye penetrant kits should be stored
a) out of sunlight in a dry place
b)in direct sunlight to keep it dry
c) in a dark damp cupboard
6. When testing a fuel metering unit, how is it checked?
a) With the meter in parallel with the unit
b)With the meter in series with the unit
c) With the unit disconnected
7. How does a windy drill get power?
a) Impeller
b)Spur gear
c) Bevel gear
8. Which of the following can dye penetrant be used on
a) non ferrous metals
b)plastics
c) honeycomb panels
9. When using bonding tester

a) ensure prongs penetrate anodised layer

b)ensure prongs do not penetrate anodising layer
c) an anodised component cannot be tested
10. An aircraft with underwing mounted engines has a heavy landing,
where would you expect to see wrinkling of the skins?
a) On the top and bottom skins
b)Top skin only
c) Bottom skin caused by engine inertia
This is exam number 72.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
B
A
C
A

6
B

7
C

8
B

9
C

10
C

1. In an oxygen system, if the pressure drops to 500 PSI, it

a) causes anoxia
b)blocks the oxygen system regulator
c) begins to overheat
2. How are taper reamers classified?
a) Taper and diameter of small end
b)Length and diameter of large end
c) Length, diameter of large end, and diameter of small end
3. Where do you find the preparation for weight and balance?
a) Maintenance Manual
b)CAIPs
c) BCARs
4. An AC voltmeter reads
a) peak value
b)peak to peak value
c) average value

5. Minimum equipments to be carried is given by

a) JAR OPS
b)JAR 145
c) JAR 25
6. In film radiography, image quality indicators (IQI) are usually
placed
a) between the intensifying screen and the film
b)on the source side of the test object
c) on the film side of the object
7. A hydrometer is used to
a) check battery electrolyte density
b)take humidity reading
c) check battery electrolyte specific gravity
8. A pyrometer is a
a) pyramid shaped altimeter
b)thermometer for use at high temperature
c) foam/granule fire extinguisher
9. A hygrometer is used to
a) check battery electrolyte relative density
b)check battery electrolyte specific gravity
c) take humidity reading
10. Which type crack will probably cause the most build-up in the
magnetic particle indicating medium?
a) shrink
b)grinding
c) fatigue

This is exam number 73.

Answer
1.
2
A
B

3
B

4
C

5
C

6
C

7
A

8
A

9
A

10
C

1. Identify the parts required to make up a flared-tube fitting?

a) Sleeve and nut
b)Body, sleeve and nut
c) Ferrule and nut
2. The letter A.F.D. in a circle stamped on a material indicates that it
has
a) been annealed fired and doped
b)been anodic flaw detected
c) an across flats diameter bolt
3. The primary reason for using flux when welding aluminium is to
a) promote better fusion of the base metal at a lower temperature
b)prevent oxides from forming ahead of the weld
c) prevent molten metal from flowing too widely
4. The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering should be
a) oxidizing
b)carburizing
c) neutral
5. Which items listed below is the most important consideration when
selecting a welding rod?
a) Type of torch
b)Thickness of the metal to be welded only
c) Type and thickness of the metal to be welded

6. On a coaxial cable, cable impedance is

a) proportional to length
b)inversely proportional to length
c) not effected by length
7. Where would Zone 324 be found in ATA 100?
a) Tip of horizontal stabilizer
b)Fwd of the wing rear spar
c) Between rear spar of wing and trailing edge of wing
8. A secondary earth is
a) 18 AWG
b)not less than 0.5mm cross sectional area
c) 22 AWG
9. On a static leak tester, pressure is released by
a) slowly opening the release knob for 3 minutes
b)an internal balance valve in the tester
c) a bleed valve in the tester
10. The strength of a riveted joint is determined by
a) pitch and tensile strength of rivet
b)shear strength of rivet and material it is made of
c) shear strength and pitch of rivet

This is exam number 74.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
A
B
C
B

6
C

7
A

8
B

9
B

10
B

1. What temperature should the heat gun be set for shrinking heat shrink

sleeve?
a) 100 degrees C above rated temperature
b)100 degrees C below rated temperature
c) At the rated temperature
2. What should be checked before a licensed engineer signs a CRS?
a) That he/she has worked for 6 months on the aircraft type within the
previous 2 years
b)That he/she has had continuation training within the previous 2 years
c) That he/she has worked for 4 months on the aircraft type within the
previous 2 years
3. How many primary bonding conductors are required on an engine?
a) 2 on one side
b)1 on each side
c) 1 only
4. A 0.625" drill is identified by
a) Letter A
b)Letter E
c) 5/8
5. HIRF interference occurs when
a) in use on mid frequencies
b)in use on all frequencies
c) in use on low frequencies
6. Solder can be used to join
a) similar metals only
b)only copper based metals
c) some dissimilar metals
7. Bonding value for secondary structure is
a) 1 ohm

b)0.5 ohms
c) 0.05 ohms
8. A fuel calibration test set when used to check an aircraft with half
a fuel load is connected
a) to gauge with fuel level capacitance
b)to gauge with fuel level in series
c) to gauge with fuel level in parallel
9. To measure AC with a moving coil, it
a) is rectified and measures peak value
b)is rectified and measures average value
c) can be directly connected
10. The benefit of a ketts saw is
a) it allows a single handed operation due to less torque
b)it can cut thicker metal than is usually required for a repair
c) it comes in two versions - pneumatic and electric
This is exam number 75.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
B
B
C
A

6
B

7
A

1. 'E' on a wire, under ATA 100 is a

a) phase indication
b)system ID code
c) cable size

2. The drill bit cutting angle for titanium is

a) 90-100 degrees
b)105-120 degrees

8
B

9
C

10
C

c)

120-140 degrees

3. The flare angle on an AGS pipe is

a) 45 degrees
b)32 degrees
c) 90 degrees
4. A gap in a fire wall can be plugged by
a) a plastic bung
b)an aluminium plate
c) a fireproof bung or bush
5. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding we
a) acid etch
b)solvent wipe
c) alkaline etch
6. Diffusion bonding gives
a) high strength and stiffness
b)high strength and ductility
c) high strength and brittleness
7. Glass reinforced panels are bonded by
a) special conductive paint
b)bonding strips to conductors
c) wire mesh
8. Calibration of aircraft hydro static weighing equipment is
a) carried out every time before an aircraft is weighed and adjusted by
operator
b)done once a year
c) not required

9. On an aircraft which has had a heavy landing on the lower wing you
may see
a) sagging
b)hogging
c) wrinkling
10. A chain is removed by
a) spring clips
b)removing chain links on an endless chain
c) nuts and bolts
This is exam number 76.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
A
B
C
A

6
B

7
B

8
C

9
C

1. An aircraft should be cleared of snow using

a) hot fluid
b)cold fluid
c) hot air
2. When weighing an aircraft with load cells
a) the aircraft is jacked
b)only the main wheels are weighed
c) a load cell should be placed under each set of wheels
3. Vital points inspections are carried out
a) on an A check
b)after the area is disturbed
c) on a C check
4. Rubber components should be stored
a) in warm and humid conditions

10
B

b)in a well lit room

c) in a cool dark area
5. When an aircraft is pulled out of soft ground
a) the equipment should be attached to the main gear
b)the equipment should be attached to the nose gear
c) the equipment should be attached to the tail cone
6. An aircraft should not be refuelled when
a) the APU is running
b)with radar and electrical equipment operating
c) navigation and landing lights are operating
7. To check the structure of a wing, use
a) low voltage X-rays
b)high voltage X-rays
c) ultrasonic NDT
8. When drilling light alloy
a) no lubricant is required
b)lard oil should be used
c) use the specified lubricant
9. When countersinking rivet holes in a material
a) a plain countersink bit should be used
b)the rivet head should stand 1/32" proud of the surface
c) a special countersinking bit with a pad to stop drilling too deep
should be used
10.
The picture above shows a torque wrench with an extension. To apply a
torque of 350 lb.in. the reading on the dial should be
a) 350 lb.in.
b)280 lb.in.

c)

245 lb.in.

This is exam number 77.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
A
A
C
B

6
C

7
C

8
A

9
A

10
B

1. The gears in a pistol windy drill are

a) spur gears
b)gears in a gear box
c) gerotor type gears
2. When using dye penetrant NDT on a tank, the penetrant should be
applied
a) on the inside, with developer on the outside
b)on the outside, with developer on the outside
c) on the inside, with developer on the inside
3. Reaming light alloy tube is done with
a) the same oil and lubrication as used for cutting
b)hard base lubricant
c) no lubricant
4. What is a countersink tool used for?
a) To adjust the angle of a countersink
b)To prevent damage to pipework in a blind hole
c) To adjust the depth of a countersink
5. Storage of components to prevent corrosion is usually in the form of
a) a plastic box
b)silica gel
c) grease proof paper
6. When mooring helicopters

a) one blade should be tied to the tail rotor

b)one blade should be tied to the structure
c) each blade should be capped and tied to the mooring points
7. To prevent wet arc tracking
a) cables should not be stretched
b)cable grips should be tight
c) ensure hot stamp printing is controlled
8. Dye penetrant kits should be stored
a) out of sunlight in a dry place
b)in direct sunlight to keep it dry
c) in a dark damp cupboard
9. Aircraft measurements aft of the datum are
a) positive
b)negative
c) either positive or negative
10. When splicing a cable with a soldered joint, the operation is
finished when
a) the solder has melted
b)the solder and insulation have formed
c) the solder sleeve disappears
This is exam number 78.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
C
B
C
B
A
B
A
A
B
A
1. When manufacturing an electrical connector the unused holes are
a) filled with connectors and blanked
b)filled with connectors
c) covered with blanks

2. There is ice and snow on a helicopter blade. You

a) wipe off excess snow and leave ice
b)remove all traces of ice and snow
c) leave a layer of ice
3. Wrinkling of an aircraft skin will
a) weaken the skin
b)increase drag on the aircraft
c) cause rivets to pull
4. Marking out on stainless steel can be clarified by application of
a) ammonia
b)copper sulphate
c) sal ammoniac
5. Tolerance is the
a) allowable error due to faulty workmanship and tools
b)difference between worn and new tools
c) the difference between a hole and shaft size
6. A press fit requires
a) the hole to be expanded by heat
b)some sort of driving force
c) the shaft to be shrunk by cooling
7. When drawing lines on aluminium alloy sheet prior to bending
a) a thin coat of zinc chromate primer should be used, ready for pencil
lines
b)a scriber should be used
c) a wax pencil should be used
8. You have removed a bolt from a critical bolted joint for inspection
and rectification. What action should you take prior to inspection?
a) A preliminary inspection should be made before the hole is cleaned

b)Before any inspection is carried out, the nut/bolt and hole must be
cleaned with a solvent such as trichloroethylene
c) Clean the bolt shank and thread and re-grease and replace bolt and
check for side-play.
9. On inspection of a critical bolted joint you witness black or grey
dust or past. What type of corrosion has taken place and what type of
material is involved?
a) Galvanic corrosion in magnesium alloys
b)Fretting corrosion in aluminium alloys
c) Exfoliation corrosion in magnesium alloys
10. In a critically bolted joint
a) a PLI washer can only be used once
b)a PLI washer can be used more than once only with self locking nuts
c) a PLI washer can be affected by thread lubricant
This is exam number 79.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
A
C
C
A

6
C

7
B

8
A

9
B

10
C

1. What solvents could you use to clean tools used for fibreglass
repairs?
a) Lead free petrol/kerosene
b)Trichloroethylene or acetone
c) acetone or MEK
2. Which of the following jointing compounds should not be used in the
vicinity of a joint where the temperature may exceed 200 degrees C?
a) DTD 369
b)DTD 200
c) DTD 900
3. Why is jointing compound applied to the surfaces of material being
joined together prior to riveting?

a) To prevent swarf damage

b)To act as a sealant and prevent filiform corrosion
c) To inhibit electrolytic action
4. What is the typical acceptable limit of a dent on a frame member?
a) One and a half times the skin thickness
b)Twice the skin gauge and 0.75" diameter
c) One gauge depth and 0.75" diameter
5. What is indicated by the wrinkling of the underside of an aircraft
skin?
a) Hogging
b)Fretting
c) Sagging
6. What is used to re-protect magnesium?
a) Selenious acid
b)Deoxidine
c) Chromic acid
7. What is used on magnesium to remove corrosion?
a) Selenious acid
b)Chromic acid / sulphuric acid solution
c) Strontium chromate
8. How do you prevent aquaplaning during landing?
a) Use reverse thrust
b)Reduce flare
c) Put flaps up
9. When an aircraft has been struck by lightning
a) control surface freedom of movement need not be checked provided skin
punctures are less than 3/16 inch diameter.
b)control surface bearings and hinges should be checked for stiffness in

operation
c) control surface freedom of movement need not be checked providing
the bonding is undamaged.
10. Galvanic corrosion refers to a type of
a) plating process
b)surface corrosion
c) corrosion between two pieces of material
This is exam number 80.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
C
B
C
A

6
A

7
C

8
A

9
A

10
B

1. Co-axial cable is preferred to airframe cable in which application?

a) High frequency interference
b)Low frequency interference
c) Where the diameter of cable is not important
2. Chromating used on magnesium alloys produces
a) metal chromates on the electrochemically
b)chromium surface electrochemically
c) a chromate film surface
3. Forward release electrical connectors are removed
a) pushed forwards
b)pulled backwards
c) twisted to the right
4. A metallic stiff nut
a) is pre lubricated and does not need lubricating
b)cannot be torque loaded
c) cannot be used in areas in excess of 250oC

5. If during an engine overhaul, ball or roller bearings are found to

have magnetised but otherwise have no defects, they
a) must be degaussed before use
b)are in an acceptable service condition
c) cannot be used again
6. Damaged chromate film should be repaired by using
a) selenious acid 10% by weight in water
b)phosphoric acid 10% by weight in water
c) selenious acid 20% by weight in water
7. When receiving new parts it is the responsibility of the engineer to
check
a) it was designed to acceptable standards
b)it has a green serviceable label attached
c) it is of the correct modification state and is serviceable
8. Chromating used on magnesium alloys
a) uses chromates and converts the surface chemically
b)uses chromium and converts the surface electrochemically
c) uses chromium, which is deposited on the surface
9. PIDG crimp tools are marked by
a) coloured handles and wire crimp size on tool
b)coloured handles only
c) wire crimp size on tool only
10. Repair to aluminium pipe can be done using burnishing
a) if damage is no more than 5%
b)if damage is no more than 10%
c) if damage is surface only
This is exam number 81.

Answer
1.
2
B
B

3
C

4
C

5
A

6
C

7
C

8
A

9
C

10
A

1. When there is no laid down procedures for calibration, what should be

used?
a) CAAIPs
b)British Standards for calibration of tools
c) Aircraft Maintenance Manual
2. What type of flux should generally be used?
a) Active
b)Non-Active
c) Passive
3. When measuring a square waveform with a multimeter, what voltage
does
it display?
a) Less than RMS value
b)More than RMS value
c) Equal to RMS value
4. If an ammeter reads 0 - 1mA FSD, what would you be required to do to
enable it to read 10mA FSD?
a) Place a 9 ohm resistor in series with the meter
b)Place a 9.9 ohm resistor across the coils
c) Place a 5.8 ohm resistor as a shunt in parallel with the meter
5. What should be done if a tool is found not to be working to its
calibrated requirements?
a) It should be removed from service, marked as unserviceable and sent
away for overhaul
b)A mechanic should adjust it to restore it to the correct operation
c) It should be placed back into stores and kept in service until the
next calibration is due

6. How do you prevent earth loops forming on screened cables?

a) Do not earth the screen
b)Earth both ends of the screen
c) Earth one end of the screen
7. When carrying out a bonding test in the presence of an anodic
coating, what should you do?
a) Take account of the resistance of the coating
b)Disregard the resistance of the coating
c) Penetrate the coating so a good electrical contact is made
8. When carrying out soldering to an end termination and a wire, you
should tin
a) both the end of the wire and the termination
b)only the end of the wire
c) neither the wire or the termination as tinning is not required
9. When inspecting an aircraft after a lightning strike, you should
observe
a) entry damage
b)entry and exit damage
c) all signs of burning

10. To detect a fault with magnetic particle flaw detection, the test
requires
a) two passes at 90 degrees to each other
b)one pass in any direction
c) two passes in any direction
This is exam number 82.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
A
A
C
A

6
A

7
B

8
A

9
C

10
A

1. The substance used in ultrasound inspection is

a) a couplant to allow sound waves to travel
b)a cleaning agent to keep the components clean
c) a developer
2. Run-out of a rod is measured using
a) DTI, surface plate and V-blocks
b)micrometer and V-blocks
c) vernier and V-blocks
3. Dye penetrant defects are marked using
a) crayon, unless used in a highly stresses area
b)pencil
c) chalk
4. How would you mark a defect on an exhaust system?
a) Special zinc/copper tipped marking tool
b)Pencil
c) Chalk
5. Swaging of a cable end fitting is checked by
a) using a go / no-go gauge on the barrel
b)measuring the length of the barrel before and after swaging
c) looking for cracks on the swage indicating poor swaging
6. The internal resistance of a voltmeter is
a) high
b)low
c) no more than 0.05 ohms
7. The internal resistance of an ammeter is
a) high
b)low
c) 1 ohm

8. For airworthiness purposes, aircraft structural parts are graded as

a) primary, secondary and tertiary
b)class A, B and C
c) 1, 2 and 3
9. After working with epoxy resins, how is natural oil returned to the
skin?
a) Refatting cream
b)Epoxy removing cream
c) Acetone/lanolin mixture
10. When crimping wires, the wires should be
a) lightly twisted
b)twisted
c) straight
This is exam number 83.
Answer
1.
2
C
A

3
B

4
C

5
B

6
C

7
B

8
C

9
A

10
B

1. Why are copper wires used in electrical systems?

a) They do not give off a magnetic field
b)They have high permeability
c) They have a low resistance to current
2. When crimping wires, the wire should
a) extend 0.8 mm beyond the crimp
b)be flush with the crimp
c) be beneath the crimp
3. A pressure vessel of thickness 1/16" to 1/8" is being tested with dye
penetrant. The penetrant should be left for

a) the same length of time as normal

b)3 times longer than normal
c) less than normal
4. A capacitive fuel contents system should be tested with
a) a ratiometer
b)a decade box
c) a wheatstone bridge
5. This is a diagram of a
a) rheostat
b)potentiometer
c) variable resistor
6. Continuity of a fibre optic cable is tested with a
a) multimeter
b)light source and optometer
c) calibrated light generator and opto-power meter
7. A flight control cable is replaced if
a) a wire is 20 % worn
b)single wires are blended together
c) the protective fluid coating is missing
8. A drill bit of 0.250" would be
a) 6/32 and letter F
b)7/32 and letter G
c) 8/32 and letter E
9. Insufficient heat used in soldering will cause
a) a high resistance joint potential
b)the joint to oxidize
c) contamination of the joint

10. On a patch repair you should use

a) the same rivet spacing as the original structure
b)material one gauge thicker than the original structure
c) only aluminium alloy rivets
This is exam number 84.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
B
C
B
B

6
A

7
C

8
A

9
B

10
A

1. When testing hoses you should use

a) a pressure equal to 12" head of water
b)1.5 x maximum pressure under water
c) 3 x maximum pressure under water
2. When weighing an aircraft using elastic load cells, the load cells go
a) between top of jack and the aircraft
b)as a single unit or combination of units under the aircraft wheels
c) between undercarriage and aircraft
3. Needle grease points are used on
a) items with gland seals
b)large pivoted joints
c) small pivoted joints

4. When using transistorized test equipment, what should the output be?
a) High impedance
b)Low impedance
c) Not affected by impedance
5. When de-icing an aircraft with pressure de-icing fluid, the sensors
on the outside of the aircraft should
a) have their heating switched on

b)be fitted with blanks or bungs

c) not be blanked
6. If an unauthorized repair is carried out
a) the Cof A is invalidated until an authorized repair has been done
b)the Cof A is not invalidated providing a CRS is issued
c) the aircraft can fly with a Certificate of Fitness for Flight
7. Rigid pipes are designed with bends to
a) absorb vibration
b)fit to the aircraft structure
c) allow for expansion and contraction due to heat and absorb
vibration
8. On a composite aircraft, large items are bonded
a) by primary bonding leads attached to a cage
b)by use of large copper strips
c) Don't need to be bonded because they are made of an insulating
material.
9. On an ATC transponder transmitting altitude, how do you get the code?
a) Convert it to binary
b)Read off the ATC-600 test set
c) Read off the transponder itself
10. When fitting a shackle pin , fit with
a) head uppermost
b)a shakeproof washer under the head
c) 0.020" float
This is exam number 85.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
A
A
B
A

6
B

7
C

8
C

9
C

10
C

1. Fore and aft limits of the CG

a) are specified by the manufacturer
b)are determined by the licensed engineer after a major check and
weighing
c) are determined by the pilot when calculating the loading data
2. 1EF6B22 NMSV
What does the B mean
a) Segment letter
b)Circuit function
c) Cable number
3. In aircraft control cables, when a lock is fitted to the control
surface
a) it will prevent the control surface and the control column movement
b)it will not prevent the control surface movement but will lock the
control column
c) it will prevent the control surface movement but not the control
column movement
4. A white/blue insertion-extraction tool would be used on a cable of
what size?
a) 22
b)16
c) 10
5. Which of the following is a preventive process against HIRF?
a) Visual inspections
b)Periodically checking aircraft bonding
c) Monitoring HIRF on the communication system
6. A C.of A. for export
a) gives authority for the aircraft to fly
b)does not give authority by it self for the aircraft to fly

c)

is required before aircraft registration in a foriegn country

7. The box unit in a Teleflex control run which is not suitable for
heavily loaded controls is called
a) Single entry
b)Double entry
c) Straight lead
8. You find a pipe with a flare end fitting of 74. What specification
has it been manufactured to?
a) S.A.E.
b)A.G.S.
c) A.N.
9. Neither oil nor grease should be used as a lubricant on couplings or
pipelines carrying
a) Nitrogen
b)Kerosene
c) Oxygen
10. The threads on a stud:
a) are of opposite hand at each end of the plain of portion
b)are continuous throughout its length and there is no plain portion
c) are of the same hand at each end of the plain portion

This is exam number 86.

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
C
C
A
B

6
B

7
C

8
B

9
C

10
C

1. Ball and roller bearings are made from a combination of low carbon
steel and a percentage of
a) Nickel
b)Chromium

c)

Nickel chrome

2. A UNF threaded wire thread insert may be identified

a) by a red painted tang
b)by a black painted tang
c) by an un-painted tang
3. Which type of extinguisher can be used for electric fire?
a) Water
b)Foam
c) CO2
4. After solution treatment of aluminium alloy, the effect of immediate
refrigeration at a temperature with the range -15oC to - 20oC is
a) to suspend natural ageing for a limited period
b)to increase the rate of artificial ageing
c) to permanently soften the metal to retard the onset of fatigue
5. Which of the following NDT techniques cannot be used on a component
manufactured from austenitic stainless steel?
a) Penetrant dye
b)Magnetic particle
c) Hot oil and chalk
6. Aluminium clad alloy sheet should not be polished with mechanical
buffing wheels
a) as this will cause large static charges to build up
b)as this may remove the aluminium coating
c) as this may remove the alloy coating
7. The angle between starts on a double start thread is
a) 120 degrees
b)90 degrees
c) 180 degrees

8. What does 18N and contiguous circles on the head of a bolt indicate?
a) 1.8" nominal length 1/2" BSF
b)1.8" plain shank 1/2" UNF
c) 1.8" threaded portion and plain shank 1/2" UNF
9. The colour of CO2 type fire extinguisher is
a) red
b)green
c) black
10. Which type of extinguisher can be used for engine fire?
a) Water
b)BCF
c) CO2
This is exam number 88..
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B
A
B
B
A

6
A

7
C

8
B

9
B

10
A

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This is exam number 94.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
A
A
C
A

6
C

7
C

8
B

9
A

10
A

1. According to ATA 100, a symbol code 'X' on a wiring number denotes

a) a ground circuit
b)a warning circuit
c) AC power
2. The normal tolerance allowed for a bend in a rod is
a) 1:600
b)1:400
c) 1:100
3. The damping force in a meter
a) prevents oscillation of the pointer
b)assists the pointer to move over the scale
c) returns the pointer to zero

4. In a moving coil meter the deflecting force is provided by

a) hairsprings which move the pointer towards full scale
b)a soft iron permanent magnet
c) a current carrying coil pivoted in a permanent magnet field
5. The force acting on a meter which returns the pointer to zero is
called the
a) controlling force
b)turning force
c) deflecting force
6. The forces acting on a meter which moves the pointer over the scale
is called
a) the controlling force
b)the turning force
c) the deflecting force
7. The resistance of an ammeter must be
a) high to create a large volts drop across it
b)low because the ammeter is in parallel with the circuit
c) low to prevent volts drop across it
8. The resistance of a voltmeter must be
a) low to provide a parallel path for the circuit current
b)high so that little current passes through it
c) low to prevent overloading the circuit
9. On inspection a bearing is found to have distortion, what action
should be taken?
a) Reject bearing
b)Blend out distortion and re-grease bearing
c) No action required. Some distortion is normal
10. On inspection a bearing is found to show signs of overheating, what

action should be taken?

a) Reject bearing
b)clean up bearing and repack with grease
c) No action required. Some overheating is normal

This is exam number 89

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
A
A
C
B

6
B

7
B

8
A

9
A

10
A

1. "Stop Drill" is the process of ibyxvvxdgbvlkjk kxzv zlxv kzlxvj lkjv

lv
a) drilling holes in a metal prior to riveting
b)drilling a rivet head to remove it from the metal
c) drilling holes to stop a crack at the crack ends
2. The scale on an ohmmeter is
a) cramped at high resistance
b)cramped at low resistance
c) linear
3. What is undesirable in a good weld?
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lv
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4. An unauthorised repair has been carried out
a) sign a CRS for the repairjk kxzv zlxv kzlxvj lkjv lv
b)apply for it as a modification
c) carryout an approved repair
5. Where would you find the information on the conditions for weighing
the aircraft?

a) Flight Manual in conjunction with the documents associated with the

CofA
b)Maintenance Manual
c) Technical Log
6. A JAR 66 licensed engineer, when signing a CRS for a non-JAR 145
company would need to have
a) maintenance experience for 4 months within the last 24 months
b)maintenance experience for 6 months within the last 24 months
c) an aircraft type refresher in the last 24 months
7. A National UK licensed engineer, when signing a CRS would need to
have
a) maintenance experience for 4 months within the last 24 months
b)maintenance experience for 6 months within the last 24 months
c) an aircraft type refresher in the last 24 months
8. Silver solder is made from
a) zinc, copper, silver
b)zinc, copper, tin
c) zinc, copper, lead
9. How do you check a chain for elongation?
a) Lay flat on a table, apply tensile load and measure
b)Hang chain up, check sight line and measure
c) Adjust the end fittings
10. A windy drill produces power by
a) vane type motor producing torque
b)spur gears in a miniature gearbox
c) bevel gears
This is exam number 90..
Answer

1.
A

2
A

3
C

4
C

5
C

6
B

7
A

8
B

9
A

10
B

1. A light drive clearance between bolt and hole on a drawing would be

a) 0.0015
b)0.0025
c) 0.005

2. What is a good weld?

a) Build up by 1/8 in the middle of the weld
b)Sides sloping to the base metals
c) An oxide coating on the base metals
3. Previous weighing record are
a) retained for 2 yrs only
b)destroyed after 5 yrs
c) are kept with aircraft records
4. Which is the preferred method for aluminium alloy alloy?
a) Electroflux
b)Magnaflux
c) Ultrasonic
5. A composite flap panel has corrosion. What NDT method will you use
to detect?
a) High voltage x-ray
b)Low voltage x-ray
c) Coin tap test
6. Vital point inspections
a) are lifed components
b)are components which involve duplicate inspections
c) are points which require special certifying LAEs

7. Bonding lead testers are attached with

a) a 60 feet lead is connected to the main earth and a 6 foot test lead
is connected to check the resistance between selected points
b)a 6 feet test lead is connected to the main earth and a 60 feet lead
is connected to check the resistance between selected points
c) either of the leads can be connected anywhere
8. Chopped strand mat is a good general purpose mat because
a) it has short fibres
b)it gives equal properties in all directions
c) it is a stiffer than woven cloth
9. When checking resistance of a cable to the starter motor what test is
carried out?
a) Millivolt drop test
b)Safety Ohmeter
c) Time Domain Reflectometer
10. When checking cable tensions you are looking for
a) artificial feel
b)full and free movement
c) free movement only
This is exam number 91.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
A
C
A
B
A

6
B

7
A

8
B

9
A

1. Three revolutions of a 40 T.P.l. micrometer will show

a) 0.075 inch
b)0.03 inch
c) 0.003 inch

10
B

2. If the bearing strength of a metal is greater than the shear strength

of the rivet, what will occur?
a) Rivet will show incorrectly installed
b)Rivet will pull through the metal
c) Rivet will joggle
3. The latest drawing identified by
a) issue number
b)amendment number
c) date
i
4. To carry out a continuity test you would use
a) an HT circuit tester
b)a low reading ohmmeter
c) ammeter
5. On a pre flight check you notice an instrument glass is cracked. You
should
a) check MEL
b)tell oncoming captain
c) enter into technical log
6. Electrical cables installed on aircraft. What is used to indicate a
fault?
a) Resistance test
b)Continuity test
c) Bonding test
7. What is the measure of a d.t.i?
a) 0.020 mm
b)0.040 mm
c) 0.050 mm

8. In the CRS, a specific reference is made to

a) AOC
b)ANO
c) CofA
9. Units of torque are
a) lbs.ft and lbs.in
b)lbs/ft2 and lbs/in2
c) Lbs and Kg
10. The value of the insulation resistance of an electric motor compared
to its supply leads is
a) greater
b)smaller
c) same
This is exam number 93.
Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
C
C
C
B
C

6
B

7
C

8
B

9
B

10
A

1. A deep internal crack in a structural steel member is detected by

a) magnetic flaw method
b)fluorescent penetrant method
c) x-ray or ultrasonic process
2. Very light corrosion on aluminium alloy can be removed by
a) rubbing with wire wool
b)using Alocrom 1200
c) using a solvent
3. To remove corrosion on Fe metals use

a) sulphuric acid rust remover

b)selenious acid rust remover
c) phosphoric acid rust remover
4. The usual manufacturers anti corrosive process to be applied to Fe
aircraft parts is
a) anodising
b)cadmium plating
c) metal spraying
5. The ultrasonic method of crack detection can be used on
a) surface and subsurface defects on ferrous metals only
b)subsurface defects on all metals
c) surface and subsurface defects on all metals
6. An intervention defect is one where
a) there is a requirement for the maintenance engineer to intervene
b)the defect occurred because of some previous maintenance action
c) the engineer has the discretion on whether to intervene
7. Porosity in cast materials
a) only occurs on the surface
b)is only detectable on the surface
c) is detectable as a surface or sub surface defect
8. When using the fluorescent ink flaw detection method, the component
should b inspected using an
a) infrared lamp
b)ultraviolet lamp
c) ordinary lamp and special glasses
9. When using the dye penetrant method of crack detection should not
normally be used at temperatures
a) above 15 degrees C

b)below 0 degrees C
c) above 20 degrees C
10. When using the dye penetrant method the part should be kept wet with
the penetrant for
a) up to one hour
b)15 minutes
c) 5 minutes

This is exam number 95..

Answer
1.
2
3
4
5
B

10

1. Vapour phase inhibitor should be used

a) when painting an aircraft
b)when reprotecting after corrosion
c) when degreasing a component
2.
a)
b)
c)
3.
a)
b)
c)
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c)
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b)
c)
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b)
c)
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b)
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Module 7 ExamPractice Exam

Module 7
Maintenance PracticesStopwatch
Start at

This is exam number 92. You've been here 1 times.

1. On a Bonding Tester the number of probes on the 60 ft and 6ft leads

respectively are
a) 1 and 2
b)2 and 1
c) 2 and 2
2. Maximum value of resistance between all isolated parts which may be
subjected to appreciable electrostatic charging and the main earth
a) 0.05 ohm
b)1 ohm
c) 0.5 Megohm or 100 kilohm per sq.ft. of surface area whichever is
less

3. The calibration of a piece of test equipment is suspect. Your actions

would be
a) calibrate/rectify immediately
b)note and rectify later
c) remove from service and annotate accordingly
4. Removal of corrosion from aluminium clad alloy
a) chemically by trichloroethylene
b)mechanically by buffing
c) chemically by sulphuric acid solution
5. The eddy current method of flaw detection can detect
a) surface flaws only
b)surface flaws and those just beneath the surface
c) sub surface flaws only
6. With dye penetrant how is the developer applied
a) at a distance of 10 to 12 inches with several passes
b)as an even layer of chalk applied over the area
c) using a tank
7. How is dye penetrant affected when applying below 15 degrees C?
a) not affected by temperature
b)precipitation affects efficiency
c) warm the work beforehand
8. When using the dye penetrant method crack detection ,the indications
on a short, deep crack are
a) single dots
b)circles
c) long chain
9. Control methods for galvanic corrosion include
a) joining similar metals and using jointing compounds

b)reducing cyclic stressing and increasing cross sectional area

c) ensuring correct heat treatments and correct alloying
10. The treatment for stress corrosion is
a) always the replacement of the part
b)the same as for surface corrosion or surface cracks in sheet metal
c) not the same as fatigue corrosion