quizlet.

com

https://quizlet.com/18530/print

USMLE Step I Comprehensive review

Step 2: Open the file
Open PDF

Step 3: Print it!

Study online at quizlet.com/_eaq

1.

<2

What is the lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio in respiratory

distress syndrome of newborns?

2.

>3.5 g/day of protein, along with generalized

edema, hypoalbuminemia, and
hyperlipidemia

How many grams of protein must be excreted in 24 hours

to produce the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome?

3.

>5 mm

What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following?

(Reactive) Posttransplantation patient taking
immunosuppressive agents

4.

>5 mm

What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following?

(Reactive) Patient with AIDS

5.

>10 mm

What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following?

(Reactive) IV drug abuser

6.

>10 mm

What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following?

(Reactive) Recent immigrant from India

7.

>15 mm

What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following?

(Reactive) Healthy suburban male without any medical
illnesses

8.

0.2

How many milliliters of O2 per milliliter of blood?

9.

0.21; it is a fancy way of saying 21% of the

air is O2.

What is the FiO2 of room air?

10. 1:1. Remember, the flow through the

pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit are
equal.

What is the ratio of pulmonary to systemic blood flow?

11.

What are the three posttranscriptional modifications?

1. 7-methyl guanine cap on the 5' end 2.

Addition of the poly(A) tail to the 3' end 3.
Removal of introns

12. 1. ADP 2. PG 3. TXA2

What are the three platelet aggregating factors?

13. 1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3.

Anemia 4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell
anemia

What are the five conditions associated with normochromic

normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and an elevated
reticulocyte count?

14. 1. Benefits of the procedure 2. Purpose of the procedure 3. Risks of the

procedure 4. The nature of the procedure (what you are doing) 5. The
alternative to this procedure and its availability (Don't forget the last one; this is
where physicians get in trouble.)

What are the five pieces

of information
considered necessary
for fully informed
consent?

15. 1. Big 2. Bilateral 3. Berry aneurysm

What are the three Bs of

adult polycystic kidneys?

16. 1. Bunyavirus 2. Orthomyxovirus 3. Arenavirus 4. Reovirus Remember BOAR

What are the four

segmented RNA
viruses?

17. 1. Burkitt's lymphoma 2. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma 3. Thymic carcinoma

What three carcinomas

are associated with
EBV?

18. 1. C5a 2. Leukotriene B4 3. IL-8 4. Bacterial peptides

What are the four

chemotactic agents?

19. 1. Ca2+ : calmodulin ratio 2. Epinephrine 3. Glucagon

What three substances

stimulate
glycogenolysis?

20. 1. Caput medusae 2. Esophageal varices 3. Ascites 4. Splenomegaly 5.

Hemorrhoids

What are the five

components of portal
HTN?

21. 1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Ceftriaxone

What three
cephalosporins are
eliminated via biliary
mechanisms?

22. 1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Moxalactam

What three
cephalosporins can
produce disulfiram-like
reactions?

23. 1. Cefotetan 2. Cefoxitin 3. Ceftizoxime

What three
cephalosporins have
good penetration against
Bacteroides fragilis?

24. 1. CHF 2. Vena caval obstruction or constriction 3. Hepatic cirrhosis 4. Renal

artery stenosis

What four conditions

result in secondary
hyperaldosteronism?

25. 1. Clavulanic acid 2. Sulbactam 3. Tazobactam

What are the three Betalactamase inhibitors?

26. 1. Cloxacillin 2. Oxacillin 3. Nafcillin 4. Dicloxacillin 5. Methicillin (CONDM)

What are the five

penicillinase-resistant
penicillins?

27. 1. CNS 2. Renal tubules 3. Beta Islet cells of the pancreas 4. RBCs 5. GI
mucosa

What are the five tissues in

which glucose uptake is
insulin independent?

28. 1. Competition for carrier with similar chemical substances 2. Chemical

specificity needed for transportation 3. Zero-order saturation kinetics
(Transportation is maximal when all transporters are saturated.) 4. Rate of
transportation faster than if by simple diffusion

What are the four

characteristics of all proteinmediated transportation?

29. 1. Concentration (greater concentration gradient, greater diffusion rate) 2.

Surface area (greater surface area, greater diffusion rate) 3. Solubility
(greater solubility, greater diffusion rate) 4. Membrane thickness (thicker the
membrane, slower the diffusion rate) Molecular weight is clinically
unimportant

What four factors affect

diffusion rate?

30. 1. Conjunctivitis 2. Nongonococcal urethritis 3. Peripheral arthritis Can't see,

can't wee, can't kick with your knee

What is the triad of Reiter

syndrome?

31. 1. Cortisol (stimulates PEPCK) 2. Glucagon 3. GTP

What three substrates

control the enzyme PEPCK
for the conversion of
oxaloacetate (OAA) to
pyruvate in the cytoplasm?

32. 1. Cough 2. Coryza 3. Conjunctivitis

What are the three C's of

measles?

33. 1. Covalent bonding between the hapten and carrier 2. B-cell exposure to
hapten twice 3. T-cell exposure to carrier twice

What are the three rules

governing a secondary
immune response?

34. 1. Cytosine 2. Uracil (only in RNA) 3. Thymidine

What three bases are

pyrimidines?

35. 1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Syncytiotrophoblast 3. Extraembryonic mesoderm

What three embryonic cell

layers form the chorion?

36. 1 day prior to ovulation

How many days prior to ovulation

does LH surge occur in the
menstrual cycle?

37. 1. Decrease alpha-1 activity 2. Increase Beta-2 activity 3. Increase

ACh levels

Name the three methods of

vasodilation via the sympathetic
nervous system.

38. 1. Decrease concentrations of Ag levels 2. Administer IgG in high

concentrations 3. Inhibit B cells with Ag bound to IgG (complexes)
4. Turn off the original T or B cell with anti-Ab

What are the four ways to downregulate the immune system?

39. 1. Decrease the radius of the vessel 2. Increase the length of the
vessel 3. Increase the viscosity 4. Decrease the number of parallel
channels

What are the four ways to increase

TPR?

40. 1. Diarrhea 2. Dermatitis 3. Dementia 4. Death

What are the four Ds of niacin

deficiency?

41. 1. Dilation of the afferent arteriole 2. Constriction of the efferent

arteriole 3. Inhibition of reabsorption of sodium and water in the
collecting ducts

What are the three mechanisms of

action for atrial natriuretic peptide's
diuretic and natriuretic affects?

42. 1. Dorsal scapular 2. Suprascapular 3. Long thoracic 4. Nerve to

subclavius

What four branches of the brachial

plexus arise prior to the first rib?

43. 1. Epinephrine synthesis 2. Phosphatidyl choline 3. Creatine 4.

Methylation of cytosine 5. N-methyl cap of mRNA

What five pathways use SAM (Sadenosylmethionine) as the methyl

donor?

44. 1. Exercise 2. Emergencies (stress) 3. Exposure to cold (The three

Es)

Which three factors cause the

release of epinephrine from the
adrenal medulla?

45. 1. Fat 2. Forty 3. Female 4. Familial 5. Fertile

What are the five F's associated with

gallstones?

46. 1. Fibrillary protein 2. Amyloid protein 3. Glycosaminoglycans

What are the three components of

amyloid?

47. 1. Flow independent of BP 2. Flow proportional to local metabolism

3. Flow independent of nervous reflexes

What are the three characteristics of

autoregulation?

48. 1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. Glycerol kinase 4. PEPCK 5. Pyruvate

carboxylase 6. Galactokinase 7. Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphatase 8. Glucose-6phosphatase

What are the eight liverspecific enzymes?

49. 1. Fructose-6-phosphate 2. Glucose-6-phosphate 3. Glyceraldehyde-3phosphate

At what three sites can the

HMP shunt enter into
glycolysis?

50. 1. Glucagon 2. NADH 3. Acetyl CoA 4. ATP

What four substances

increase the rate of
gluconeogenesis?

51. 1. Glucose 2. Amino acid (arginine) 3. Gastrin inhibitory peptide (GIP) 4.

Glucagon 5. -Agonists 6. ACh

What are the six

substances that promote
the secretion of insulin?

52. 1. Glucose from liver glycogen 2. Glucose from gluconeogenesis 3. Body

protein 4. Body fat

What is the order of fuel

use in a prolonged fast?

53. 1. Glycine 2. Aspartate 3. Glutamine

What three AAs are used

to synthesize the purine
ring?

54. 1. H2O2 2. Superoxide 3. Hydroxyl radical 4. Myeloperoxidase 5.

Hypochlorous acid

What five main oxidizing

reactions are used to kill
ingested organisms?

55. 1. HPV 2. EBV 3. Hepatitis B 4. Kaposi sarcoma

What are the four DNA

oncogenic viruses?

56. 1. IgA receptor 2. Transport of IgA across epithelial barriers 3. Protection of

IgA from degradative proteases

What are the three major

functions of secretory IgA?

57. 1. Iliocostalis 2. Longissimus 3. Spinalis ("I Love Science" muscles)

What three muscles

constitute the erector
spinae?

58. 1. Incompetent patient (determined by the courts) 2. Therapeutic privilege (in

the best interest of the patient when he or she is unable to answer) 3. Waiver
signed by the patient 4. Emergency

What are the four

exceptions to
requirements for informed
consent?

59. 1. Increase compliance 2. Decrease surface tension 3. Decrease probability of

pulmonary edema formation

What are the three

functions of surfactant?

60. 1. Increased amino acid uptake by muscles 2. Decreased protein breakdown

3. Increased protein synthesis

What are the three

effects of insulin on
protein metabolism?

61. 1. Increased glucose uptake by fat cells 2. Increased triglyceride uptake by fat
cells 3. Increased conversion of CHOs into fat 4. Decreased lipolysis in fat
tissue 5. Decreased ketone body formation

What are the five effects

of insulin on fat
metabolism?

62. 1. Increased solubility 2. Increased concentration gradient 3. Decreased

thickness of the membrane

What three factors

increase simple
diffusion?

63. 1. Increased synthesis and secretion of oxytocin 2. Increased release of PIF by

the hypothalamus 3. Inhibition of GnRH (suppressing FSH/LH) 4. Milk
secretion

What are the four effects

of suckling on the
mother?

64. 1. Increased tube radius 2. Increased velocity 3. Decreased viscosity 4.

Increased number of branches 5. Narrowing of an orifice

What five factors promote

turbulent flow?

65. 1. Inhibin 2. Estradiol (E2) 3. Androgen-binding protein 4. Meiosis inhibiting

factor (in fetal tissue) 5. Antimullerian hormone

What are the five

hormones produced by
Sertoli cells?

66. 1. Intracellular receptors 2. Membrane receptors 3. Enzymes 4. Intracellular

effectors

What are the four types of

signaling mechanisms?

67. 1. Laminin 2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin sulfate) 3. Fibronectin 4. Type IV

collagen

What are the four

components of the
basement membrane?

68. 1. Large sample size 2. Large effect size 3. Type I error is greater

In biostatistics, what are

the three criteria required
to increase power?

69. 1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3.

Musculocutaneus

What are the three branches of the lateral

cord of the brachial plexus?

70. 1. Less than 3 cm 2. Clean base 3. Level with the surrounding

mucosa

What three criteria allow you to

differentiate an ulcer from an erosion or
carcinoma?

71. 1. Liver 2. Kidney 3. Pituitary gland (via 5'-deiodinase

enzyme)

At which three sites in the body is T4

converted to T3?

72. 1. Liver 2. Muscle 3. Adipose tissue

What are the three tissues where

triacylglycerols are produced?

73. 1. Lowers surface tension, so it decreases recoil and

increases compliance 2. Reduces capillary filtration 3.
Promotes stability in small alveoli by lowering surface tension

What are the three main functions of

surfactant?

74. 1. Low pressure in the afferent renal arteriole 2. Low sodium

sensed by the macula densa 3. Increased -1-sympathetic
stimulation of the JG cells

What are the three stimuli that result in the

reninangiotensin-aldosterone secretion?

75. 1. Malate dehydrogenase 2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 3. Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

What three steps of the TCA cycle

generate NADH?

76. 1. Maltose 2. Maltotetrose 3. -Limit dextrans (-1, 6 binding)

What are the three end products of

amylase digestion?

77. 1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateral

pterygoid

What are the four muscles of mastication?

78. 1. Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands (both apocrine and

sebaceous)

What are the three epidermal derivatives?

79. 1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae 3.

Streptococcus pneumoniae

What three bacteria are positive to

quellung reactive test?

80. 1. Notify police. 2. Try to detain the person making the threat.
3. Notify the threatened victim.

What three actions should take place

when one person threatens the life of
another? (Hint: think of the Tarasoff
decision.)

81. 1. One cell type 2. One Ab type 3. Random selection of

hypervariable regions, and only cells with bound Ag undergo
clonal expansion

What are the three rules of clonal

selection?

82. 1. Petechiae 2. Hyperactive mental status 3.

Occurrence within 24 to 48 hours of the initial insult
(e.g., long bone fracture)

What is the triad of fat embolism?

83. 1. Phosphorylation of mannose (lysosomes only) 2.

Removal of mannose residues 3. Formation of
glycosylate proteins 4. Phosphorylation of sulfate amino
acids

What are the four posttranslational modifications

done by the Golgi apparatus?

84. 1. Picornavirus 2. Calicivirus 3. Reovirus (Remember

PCR)

What are the three naked RNA viruses?

85. 1. Pinpoint pupils 2. Decreased respiratory rate 3. Coma

What are the three signs of morphine overdose?

86. 1. Plicae circularis (3 times) 2. Villi (30 times) 3.

Microvilli (600 times)

What three structures increase the surface area

of the GI tract?

87. 1. Posterior auricular vein 2. Posterior division of the

retromandibular vein

What two vessels come together to form the

external jugular vein?

88. 1. Propranolol 2. Timolol 3. Carteolol

What three -blockers are used in the treatment

of glaucoma?

89. 1. Protest 2. Despair 3. Detachment

What are the three stages that children aged 7

months to 5 years go through when they are
separated from a primary caregiver for a long
time?

90. 1. Provide antibacterial action 2. Lubricate 3. Begin

CHO digestion 4. Begin fat digestion

What are the four functions of saliva?

91. 1. Recognize self from nonself 2. Amplify via cell

division or complementation 3. Control the level of the
response 4. Remove foreign material

What are the four major functions of the

acquired immune system?

92. 1. Sartorius 2. Gracilis 3. Semitendinous

What three muscles constitute the pes

anserinus?

93. 1. Short attention span 2. Impulsivity 3. Hyperactivity

What are the three characteristics of ADHD?

94. 1. Sideroblastic anemias (i.e., porphyrin and heme

synthesis disorders) 2. Thalassemia 3. Iron deficiency 4.
Lead poisoning

What are the four reasons for hypochromic

microcytic anemia with a low MCV?

95. 1. Skin 2. Liver 3. Kidney

What three organs participate in production of

vitamin D?

96.

1. Skin color 2. Heart rate 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle tone 5. Respiratory rate APGAR,
Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration

What five things are

checked in the
APGAR test?

97.

1. Sleep paralysis 2. Hypnagogic hallucinations (while falling asleep) 3. Sleep

attacks with excessive daytime sleepiness 4. Cataplexy (pathognomonic)
Narcolepsy is a disorder of REM sleep, with REM occurring within 10 minutes of
sleep.

Name the four

components of the
narcoleptic tetrad.

98.

1. Steroids 2. Alcohol 3. Scuba diving 4. Sickle cell anemia

What are the four

most common
causes of femoral
head necrosis?

99.

1. Streptomycin 2. Gentamicin 3. Tobramycin

Which three
aminoglycosides
have vestibular
toxicity?

100. 1. Sustained release 2. IV drip 3. Phenytoin 4. Alcohol 5. Aspirin toxicity

Name five causes

for zero-order
metabolism.

101. 1. Sweat glands 2. Arterioles 3. Veins

In what three areas

of the body are
sympathetics the
predominant tone?

102. 1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5. Cervical (Two Zebras Bit My

Clavicle.)

What are the five

terminal branches
of the facial nerve?

103. 1. The child poses an imminent danger to self or others. 2. The child is unable to
self-care daily at the appropriate developmental level. 3. The parents or guardians
have no control over the child or will not promise to ensure the child's safety even
though they refuse hospitalization.

What three
circumstances allow
a child to be
committed to
institutional care?

104. 1. The lesser omentum (consisting of the hepatoduodenal and hepatogastric

ligaments) 2. Falciform ligament 3. Coronary ligament of the liver 4. Triangular
ligament of the liver Liver is ventral; all other ligaments are dorsal mesentery
derivatives.

Name the four

ventral mesentery
derivatives.

105. 1. Tight junctions 2. Capillaries that lack fenestration 3. Very selective

pinocytosis by the capillaries

What are the three

reasons for the
effectiveness of the
blood-brain barrier?

106. 1. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic appendages

What are the three

anatomic characteristics
that differentiate the large
bowel from the small
bowel and the rectum?

107. 1. TTP 2. Lipoic acid 3. Coenzyme A from pantothenate 4. NAD(H) (from

niacin or tryptophan) 5. FADH2 (from riboflavin)

What five cofactors and

coenzymes are required
by pyruvate
dehydrogenase?

108. 1. VSD 2. ASD 3. PDA

What are the three left-toright shunts?

109. 1. What did the patient want? 2. What would the patient say? 3. What is in the
patient's best interests?

What are the three

surrogate criteria?

110.

1. -Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 2. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 3.

Transketolase Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) functions as a coenzyme vital
to tissue respiration. It is required for the oxidative decarboxylation of
pyruvate to form acetyl-coenzyme A, providing entry of oxidizable substrate
into the Krebs cycle for the generation of energy

With what three enzymes

is thiamin pyrophosphate
(TPP) associated?

111.

2.0 or greater

What lecithin:
sphingomyelin ratio
indicates lung maturity?

112.

2, 4-Dinitrophenol

What attaches to protons

and allows them to enter
into the mitochondria
without going through the
ATP-generating system?

113.

2 acetyl CoA per glucose, producing 12 ATPs per

acetyl CoA, resulting in a total of 24 ATPs produced
from glucose (via acetyl CoA) enter the TCA cycle

How many acetyl CoAs per glucose enter into the

TCA cycle?

114.

2 ATPs, because RBCs use only anaerobic

metabolism.

How many ATPs per glucose are generated from

glycolysis in RBCs?

115.

2 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation

How many ATPs are produced from cytoplasmic

NADH oxidation using the glycerol phosphate
shuttle?

116.

2 ATPs, via the amino acyl tRNA synthase enzyme

How many high-energy bonds are used to

activate an AA?

117.

2 days prior to ovulation

How many days prior to ovulation does estradiol

peak in the menstrual cycle?

118.

2 NADPHs per acetyl CoA

How many NADPHs are used per addition of

acetyl CoA into a fatty acid chain?

119.

2% of population, 2 cm long, 2 feet from ileocecal

valve, 2 years old, and 2% of carcinoid tumors

What are the rules of 2 for Meckel diverticulum?

120. 2 to 4 hours

How long is the transit time through the small

intestine?

121. 3'-5' direction, synthesizing RNA in the 5'-3' direction

What direction does RNA polymerase move

along the template strand of DNA during
transcription?

122. 3 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation

How many ATPs are produced from cytoplasmic

NADH oxidation using the malate shuttle?

123. 3'end of the codon (third position) on mRNA and 5'

end of the anticodon (first position) on tRNA.

Where on the codon and anticodon does the

wobble hypothesis take place?

124. 3' end. Phosphate (PO4) is at the 5' end.

Is the hydroxyl (-OH) end of DNA and RNA at the

3' or the 5' end?

125. 3 months of symptoms in 2 consecutive years

How many months in how many years must a

person cough with copious sputum production for
the diagnosis of chronic bronchitis to be made?

126. 3-Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase; this

produces two ATPs per enzyme (total four ATPs)

What two glycolytic enzymes catalyze the

substrate-level phosphorylations?

127. 3 to 4 days

How long is the transit time through the large

intestine?

128. 3 years old

By what age should children be able to draw

the following figures? Circle

129. 4.5 years old (Alphabetic order except with a diamond

last: circle, cross, rectangle, square, triangle)

By what age should children be able to draw

the following figures? Rectangle

130. 4.7 L, 5% of body weight

What is the amount in liters and percent body

weight for the following compartments?
Vascular fluid

131. 4 years old

By what age should children be able to draw

the following figures? Cross

132. 5' deiodinase

What enzyme is inhibited by propylthiouracil

(PTU)?

133. 5HT1D

Of what serotonin receptor is sumatriptan an

agonist?

134. 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)

What urinary metabolite is increased in

patients with carcinoid syndrome?

135. 5 years old

By what age should children be able to draw

the following figures? Square

136. 6 ATPs (remember 2 pyruvates per glucose are

produced, and 2 NADHs result from production of acetyl
CoA, so 6 ATPs)

How many ATPs per glucose are produced by

pyruvate dehydrogenase?

137. 6 weeks 10 weeks

When does the primitive gut herniate out of

the embryo? When does it go back into the
embryo?

138. 6 years old

By what age should children be able to draw

the following figures? Triangle

139. 7 to 14 days

What is a plasma cell's life expectancy?

140. 7 years old

By what age should children be

able to draw the following
figures? Diamond

141. 8 to 25 hours

How long after ovulation does

fertilization occur?

142. 8 weeks (response to a face)

At what age does a child develop

Exogenous smile?

143. 9.3 L, 15% of body weight

What is the amount in liters and

percent body weight for the
following compartments?
Interstitial fluid

144. 9 kcal/g from fat metabolism; 4 kcal/g from both CHO and protein
metabolism

How many kilocalories per gram

are produced from the
degradation of fat? CHO?
Protein?

145. 10% are bilateral, 10% malignant, and 10% familial, 10% in children,
and 10% outside the adrenal gland

What are the rules of 10

regarding pheochromocytoma?

146. 11-Beta-Hydroxylase deficiency results in excess production of 11deoxycorticosterone, a weak mineralocorticoid. It increases BP, Na+,
and ECF volume along with production of adrenal androgens.

What adrenal enzyme deficiency

results in hypertension,
hypernatremia, and virilization?

147. 12 ATPs per acetyl CoA that enter the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle
(Krebs cycle)

How many ATPs are generated

per acetyl coenzyme A (CoA)?

148. 12 days after ovulation

If no fertilization occurs, how

many days after ovulation does
the corpus luteum begin to
degenerate?

149. 12 to 16 weeks (in response to mother's face)

At what age does a child develop

Preferential smile?

150. 14 days

What is the bone marrow

maturation time for a phagocytic
cell?

151. 14 days in most women (Remember, the luteal

phase is always constant.)

How many days before the first day of menstrual

bleeding is ovulation?

152. 14 L, 33% of body weight

What is the amount in liters and percent body weight

for the following compartments? ECF

153. 16S subunit

What part of the 30S ribosome binds to the ShineDalgarno sequence?

154. 17-alpha-Hydroxylase deficiency

What adrenal enzyme deficiency results in

hypertension, hypernatremia, increased ECF volume,
and decreased adrenal androgen production?

155. 18 years old (except if emancipated)

What is the legal age to be deemed competent to make

decisions?

156. 20:1T4T3. There is an increase in the

production of T3 when iodine becomes deficient.

What is the ratio of T4:T3 secretion from the thyroid

gland?

157. 21--Hydroxylase deficiency leads to

hypotension, hyponatremia, and virilization.

What adrenal enzyme deficiency can be summed up

as a mineralocorticoid deficiency, glucocorticoid
deficiency, and an excess of adrenal androgens?

158. 28 L, 40% of body weight

What is the amount in liters and percent body weight

for the following compartments? ICF

159. 31 pairs

How many pairs of spinal nerves exit from the spinal

cord?

160. 38 ATPs if aerobic, 2 ATPs if anaerobic (36

ATPs[malate shuttle] + 4 ATPs[Glycolysis] - 2
ATPs[phosphorylate glucose] = 38 ATPs)

How many ATPs per glucose are generated in

glycolysis?

161. 42 L, 67% of body weight

What is the amount in liters and percent body weight

for the following compartments? Total body water

162. 45XO

What is the karyotype in Turner syndrome?

163. 50%. The uncles and older siblings are the most likely
perpetrators, although stepfathers also have a high rate.

What percent of sexual abuse cases are

committed by family members?

164. 50%, with 50% of them having the child

What percent of unwed mothers are

teenagers?

165. 60%

What is the PO2 of aortic blood in fetal

circulation?

166. 60S and 40S. The large subunits (60S) are made in the
nucleolus and the small subunits (40S) are made in the
nucleus.

What ribosomal subunit sizes do eukaryotic

cells have?

167. 61 codons code for AAs and 3 codons (UAA, UGA, UAG)
code for the termination of translation.

How many codons code for AAs? How

many for termination of translation?

168. 70S ribosomes in prokaryotes and 80S ribosomes in

eukaryotes

What is the size of the prokaryotic

ribosome?

169. 80S ribosomes (because they are eukaryotic)

What size ribosomes do fungi have?

170. 90% as HCO3-, 5% as carbamino compounds, and 5% as

dissolved CO2

What percentage of CO2 is carried in the

plasma as HCO3- ?

171. 90% of benign myxomas arise within the left atrium near
the fossa ovalis.

What is the most common cardiac tumor?

In what chamber does it most commonly
arise?

172. 95% in the kidneys; that's why adequate Na+ and fluid
intake is essential.

Where is lithium metabolized and excreted?

173. 100%; the percentage of blood flow through the pulmonary

and systemic circulations are equal.

What percentage of cardiac output flows

through the pulmonary circuit?

174. 100%, with about 20% remaining positive after 1 year

What percentage of children born to HIVpositive mothers will test positive for HIV at
birth?

175. 150 mcg/day is the minimal daily intake needed. Most

people ingest 500 mcg/day.

How much dietary iodine is necessary to

maintain normal thyroid hormone
secretion?

176. 0157:H7

What is the most common serotype of

enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli?

177. 300 mOsm/L

What are the following changes seen in the

luminal fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the
nephron? Osmolarity

178. About 80% of stage 4 sleep is recovered,

approximately half of REM is recovered, and only
one-third of total sleep is ever made up.

When attempting to make up sleep, what stage of

sleep is recovered?

179. Absolutely not! Answer any question you are asked.

If a patient asks you a question and you do not

know the answer, do you tell a white lie or simply
not respond?

180. Absolutely not. Diabetics who are given a -blocker

for an acute chest syndrome have significantly better
outcomes than those who do not.

Is DM a contraindication to use of a -blocker in a

patient who is having an MI?

181. Absolute refractory period is due to voltage

inactivation of sodium channels.

Name the period described by the following

statement: no matter how strong a stimulus is, no
further action potentials can be stimulated.

182. Abs to HBsAg

Abs to what hepatitis B Ag provide immunity?

183. Acamprosate (the number of glutamate receptors

increases with chronic alcohol abuse)

What medication is used to help alcoholics avoid

relapse by decreasing glutamate receptor activity?

184. Acanthosis nigricans

What is the term for thickened, hyperpigmented

skin in the axillae, groin, and skin folds associated
with malignancies, obesity, and DM?

185. Acarbose

What oral hypoglycemic agent inhibits glucosidase in the brush border of the small
intestine?

186. Accessory nucleus

What is the only CN nucleus found in the cervical

spinal cord?

187. Accidents

What is the MCC of death in children aged 1 to 14

in the United States?

188. Accommodation

What term describes the reflex that increases

the curvature of the lens, allowing near vision?

189. Accuracy (think of it as all the trues, because they are

the ones correctly identified)

What is the term for the total percentage of

correct answers selected on a screening test?

190. Acebutolol and Pindolol

What two -blockers decrease serum lipids?

191. ACE inhibitors (-pril)

Which antihypertensive class is used to help

stop the progression of microalbuminuria?

192. ACE inhibitors (the-pril agents)

Which class of antihypertensives produces

angioedema, hyperkalemia, and a dry cough?

193. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase

What enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram?

194. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. When this enzyme is

blocked, acetaldehyde builds up, and its presence in
excess results in nausea and hypotension.

What enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram?

195. Acetazolamide

What is the only class of diuretics to retain Clused in the short-term treatment of glaucoma
and of acute mountain sickness?

196. Acetoacetate, acetone, and -hydroxybutyrate

Name the three ketone bodies.

197. Acetylcholinesterase breaks ACh into acetate and

choline (which gets resorbed by the presynaptic nerve
terminal).

What enzyme found in a cholinergic synapse

breaks down ACh? What are the byproducts?

198. Acetyl CoA and propionyl CoA (in odd chain fatty acids)

Name the end product or products: Fatty acid

oxidation

199. Acetyl CoA carboxylase

What is the rate-limiting step of the following?

Fatty acid synthesis

200. Acetyl CoA carboxylase

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step

in fatty acid synthesis?

201. Acetyl CoA, FADH2, and NADH

At the end of each round of -oxidation, what

is released?

202. Acetyl CoA (pyruvate to acetyl CoA)

What is the main inhibitor of pyruvate dehydrogenase?

203. ACh

What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites?

All motor neurons, postganglionic parasympathetic neurons

204. ACh

What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites?

Autonomic preganglionic neurons

205. Achalasia

What occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax

during swallowing due to abnormalities of the enteric nervous
plexus?

206. Achalasia. (Think Chagas disease if it

presents in a person from Central or
South America.)

What disorder is defined by inability of the lower esophageal

sphincter to relax with swallowing and a bird beak barium
swallow result?

207. ACh, histamine, and gastrin

What three substances stimulate parietal cells?

208. Achondroplasia

What AD disorder due to a mutation in fibroblast growth factor

receptor 3 results in normal-size vertebral column and skull and
short, thick extremities?

209. Achondroplasia

What is the most common form of inherited dwarfism?

210. ACh receptor

To what host cell receptor does the rabies virus attach?

211.

Name the neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junctions for

all of the voluntary muscles in the body.

ACh; think about the ANS.

212. Acid is needed for the activation of

pepsin and therefore needed for
protein digestion.

What pH (acidotic or alkalotic) is needed for pepsinogen to

pepsin conversion?

213. ACL

What structure of the knee is described thus? Prevents

anterior displacement and has lateral-to-medial attachment on
the tibia

214. Acral-lentiginous melanoma

What is the most common one? Melanoma in dark-skinned

persons

215. ACTH

What hormone excess produces adrenal hyperplasia?

216. Acting out

Outburst to cover up true feelings (emotion is covered, not

redirected).

217. Actinomyces israelii

What gram-positive anaerobic rod with branching

filaments is a component of the normal flora of the
mouth and female genital tract and is responsible
for draining abscesses with sulfur granules in the
exudates?

218. Action potential

What type of potential is characterized as being an

all-or-none response, propagated and not
summated?

219. Actually, yes. You should encourage your patient to

try other forms of medicine as long as they are not
contraindicated with the patient's preexisting illness.
You must be able to accept the health beliefs of your
patients, even if you don't agree.

Should you refer a patient to a form of folk

medicine even if you don't believe in it?

220. Acute CO poisoning

With what is cherry red intoxication associated?

221. Acute cystitis

WBCs in the urine

222. Acute glomerulonephritis

RBC casts in the urine

223. Acute pyelonephritis

WBC casts in the urine

224. Acute rejection

Based on the following information, is the renal

transplantation rejection acute, chronic, or
hyperacute? Weeks to months after
transplantation; abrupt onset of oliguria and
azotemia; seen as neutrophilic vasculitis and
interstitial lymphocytes

225. Acute toxic or viral nephrosis

Renal epithelial casts in the urine

226. Acute tubular necrosis

Name the most common type or cause. Acute

renal failure in the United States

227. Adaptive branch. The adaptive branch of the

immune system has a slow initiation with rapid
responses thereafter.

What branch of the immune system is acquired in

response to an Ag?

228. Addition (They are mutually

exclusive.)

If one event precludes another event, their probabilities are combined by

what method?

229. Adenine and guanine

Name the two purine bases found in both DNA and RNA.

230. Adenocarcinoma

What is the most common one? Primary lung cancer

231. Adenocarcinoma (30% to

35%)

What is the most common one? Primary malignant tumor of the lungs

232. Adenocarcinoma (because

of Barrett esophagus)

What is the most common one? Esophageal cancer in the United States

233. Adenocarcinoma of the

cervix

What is the most common one? Primary malignant tumor of the female
genital tract in the United States

234. Adenosine deaminase

What enzyme of the purine salvage pathway is deficient in the following?

SCID

235. Adenosine deaminase

(ADA) deficiency

What is the first human disease successfully treated with gene therapy?

236. Adenosine (it is an excellent

agent to use in emergencies
because its half-life is 30
seconds)

What antiarrhythmic agent is the DOC for treating and diagnosing

paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) and AV nodal
arrhythmias?

237. Adenovirus

Name the DNA virus: Linear dsDNA; naked; replicates in the nucleus

238. Adenovirus

What is the MCC of viral conjunctivitis?

239. Adhesions and hernias

Name the most common type or cause. Intestinal obstructions in adults

240. ADH is secreted in

response to increased
plasma osmolarity and
decreased blood volume.

ADH is secreted in response to what two stimuli?

241. Adjustment disorder. It is a

diagnosis of exclusion (used
if no other choice).

What axis I disorder is characterized by a clinically significant syndrome

that affects social, occupational, and/or academic achievement; occurs
less than 3 months after a stressor; and abates less than 6 months after
the stressor is removed?

242. Adrenal medulla

What is the only organ in the body supplied by

preganglionic sympathetic fibers?

243. Adrenarche

What is the term to describe the increased rate of

secretion of adrenal androgens at the onset of
puberty?

244. Adulthood

What stage of male development is characterized by

the following LH and testosterone levels? LH
secretion drives testosterone production, with both
levels paralleling each other.

245. Adult polycystic kidney disease

What AD renal disorder is associated with mutations of

the PKD 1 gene on chromosome 16 and berry
aneurysms in the circle of Willis and presents in the
fifth decade with abdominal masses, flank pain,
hematuria, HTN, and renal insufficiency?

246. Adult tapeworms develop in the definitive host,

whereas cysticerci or larvae develop in the
intermediate host.

Where do adult tapeworms develop, in the

intermediate or definitive host?

247. Adult T-cell leukemia

What leukemia is associated with four-leaf-clover

lymphocytes on peripheral blood smear?

248. Aedes mosquito

What is the vector for yellow fever?

249. Aedes (the same for yellow fever)

What mosquito is the vector for dengue fever?

250. Afferent arteriole

Are the JG cells of the nephron a part of the afferent or

efferent arteriole?

251. Afferent pupillary defect (CN II lesion); in an

efferent pupillary defect (CN III), B/L constrict
when light is shined in the unaffected eye and
consentual pupil constriction occurs when light is
shined in the affected eye.

Is an afferent or efferent pupillary defect described as

B/L pupillary constriction when light is shined in the
unaffected eye and B/L paradoxical dilation when light
is shined in the affected eye?

252. Affinity

What type of binding occurs with one Fab or one

idiotype of IgG?

253. Affinity decreases; they are inversely

proportional.

What happens to affinity if you increase Km?

254. The affinity of the drug for its

receptor

What is the most important determinant of drug potency?

255. Affinity (one of each)

What is the term for the strength of the association between Ag

and an Ab?

256. Afterload

What is the term for the load a muscle is trying to move during
stimulation?

257. Afterload

What is the term for the force the ventricular muscle must
generate to expel the blood into the aorta?

258. Afterload

What equals the total tension on a muscle minus the preload?

259. After the eclipse period

Regarding the viral growth curve, is the internal virus present

before or after the eclipse period?

260. After the latent period

Regarding the viral growth curve, is the external virus present

before or after the latent period?

261. Ag-Ab complexes. The alternative

pathway protects without use of Abs;
the pathogen is the stimulus.

What is the stimulus for the classical pathway activation?

262. Aged adult

What stage of male development is characterized by the following

LH and testosterone levels? Decreased testosterone production
is accompanied by an increase in LH production.

263. Agents that decrease ACh function

reduce tremors and rigidity, not
bradykinesias.

Do agents used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease that

decrease ACh function have little effect on reducing tremors and
rigidity?

264. Agglutination test

What immunologic test checks for a reaction between Abs and a

particular Ag? (hint: ABO typing)

265. Agoraphobia. It also means having a

sense of humiliation or
hopelessness.

What phobia is described as the fear of open spaces?

266. Ag processing; it is needed for class I

molecules. Class II molecules have an
invariant chain that protects them from
breakdown.

What is the term for processing an APC's pinocytosed

material by fusing with a lysosomal granule and cleaving the
Ag into peptide fragments?

267. Agranulocytosis; approximately 2%

develop this side effect.

What potentially lethal side effect of clozapine should be

monitored with frequent blood drawing?

268. Air flows into the respiratory system.

What result occurs because of the negative alveolar

pressure generated during inspiration?

269. Akathisia

What antipsychotic movement disorder can occur at any

time and is characterized by a subjective sense of
discomfort that brings on restlessness, pacing, sitting down,
and getting up?

270. ALA dehydrogenase and ferrochelatase

What two enzymes of heme synthesis are inhibited by lead?

271. Alanine and glutamine

As what AAs do muscles send nitrogen to the liver?

272. Alanine cycle

In what cycle does glucose go to the muscle, where it is

converted to pyruvate and then into alanine before being
taken back to the liver?

273. Al-Anon

What is the name of the program that deals with

codependency and enabling behaviors for family members
of alcohol abusers?

274. Albendazole

What drug blocks glucose uptake, leading to decreased

formation of ATP and resulting in immobilization of the
parasite?

275. Albinism

What disorder is due to a deficiency in tyrosinase?

276. Albinism. Tyrosine is converted to melanin

by the enzyme tyrosinase.

What disease is produced by a deficiency in the enzyme

tyrosinase?

277. Albumin

What protein carries free fatty acids to the liver?

278. Alcohol abuse

Name the most common type or cause. Reversible HTN in

the United States

279. Alcohol abuse

Name the most common cause. Chronic pancreatitis

280. Alcohol and its related problems cost the

country approximately $100 billion a year.

What is the costliest health care problem in the United

States?

281. Alcohol consumption

Name the most common type or cause. Cirrhosis in the

United States

282. Alcoholic cirrhosis

Name the most common type or cause. Liver

transplantation in adults

283. Alcoholics Anonymous

What is the name of the 12-step program believed to be the

most successful for the treatment of alcohol abuse?

284. Alcoholism

Name the most common type or cause. Mallory-Weiss

syndrome

285. Alcohol. Nearly 10% of adults have a

problem with alcohol.

What is the most abused drug across all age groups?

286. Aldehyde dehydrogenase

What enzyme is blocked by disulfiram?

287. Aldolase B deficiencies are treated by

eliminating fructose from the diet.

What fructose metabolism enzyme is deficient in patients

with vomiting, apathy, diarrhea, jaundice, proximal renal
tubular acidosis, hypoglycemia, and hyperuricemia?

288. Aldosterone Remember, from the outer

cortex to the inner layer, Salt, Sugar, Sex.
The adrenal cortex gets sweeter as you go
deeper.

What is the major hormone produced in the following areas

of the adrenal cortex? Zona glomerulosa

289. Alendronate

What is the drug of choice for steroid-induced osteoporosis?

290. Alkaline phosphatase

What enzyme is associated with osteoblastic activity?

291. ALL

What leukemia affects a 4-year-old child with 3 months of

fever, fatigue, generalized lymphadenopathy, CNS
involvement, hepatosplenomegaly, bleeding, and platelet
count below 100, 000?

292. ALL

What is the most common one? Malignancy in children

293. All are lactose fermenters except Yersinia and

Proteus.

Which of the following Enterobacteriaceae family

membersYersinia, Klebsiella, Enterobacter,
Escherichia, Proteus, and Citrobacter do not ferment
lactose?

294. Allelic exclusion. It is to ensure that one B cell

produces only one Ab.

What is the name of the process that ensures that

each B cell produces only one heavy-chain variable
domain and one light chain?

295. ALL (nearly 15-20 times the normal risk)

What hematological malignancy is particularly likely to

affect patients with Down syndrome?

296. Allograft

Name the type of graft described by these transplants:

From one person to the next (the same species)

297. Allopurinol

What is the drug of choice for treating a patient with

hyperuricemia due to overproduction of uric acid?

298. Allotypes

What are the genetic variants of a molecule within

members of the same species?

299. alpha2-Receptors

What presynaptic receptor does NE use to terminate

further neurotransmitter release?

300. alpha-Cells; glucagon has stimulatory effects on

-cells and inhibitory effects on -cells.

What pancreatic islet cell secretes glucagons?

301. alpha-Motor neurons innervate extrafusal

muscle fibers (a motor unit), whereas gammamotor neurons innervate intrafusal muscle
fibers.

Do alpha-or gamma-motor neurons innervate

extrafusal muscle fibers?

302. Alteplase

Which thrombolytic agent, activated in the presence of

fibrin, is manufactured by recombinant DNA process?

303. Alternative hypothesis (what is left after the null

has been defined)

What is the name of the hypothesis you are trying to

prove?

304. Although both pathways are associated with disinhibition,

the indirect basal ganglia pathway is associated with a
decreased level of cortical excitation.

Does the direct or indirect basal ganglia

pathway result in a decreased level of
cortical excitation?

305. Altruism

Name these mature defense mechanisms:

Helping others without expecting any return

306. Alveolar dead space

What is the term for ventilation of

unperfused alveoli?

307. Alveolar macrophages

Name the macrophages by location: Lungs

308. Alveolar macrophages (dust cells)

In the alveoli, what cell type is part of the

mononuclear phagocytic system?

309. The alveoli at the apex are almost completely inflated prior
to inflation, and although they are large, they receive low
levels of alveolar ventilation.

Why is the apex of the lung hypoventilated

when a person is standing upright?

310. The alveoli at the base are small and very compliant, so
there is a large change in their size and volume and
therefore a high level of alveolar ventilation.

Why is the base of the lung hyperventilated

when a person is standing upright?

311.

Which of the following is not part of the

conducting portion of the respiratory system:
trachea, bronchi, alveoli, or larynx?

Alveoli; they are part of the respiratory portion.

312. Alzheimer disease

Senile plaques

313. Alzheimer disease

Neurofibrillary tangles

314. Alzheimer disease

Name the most common cause. Dementia

in persons aged 60 to 90 years

315. Alzheimer's (dementia of Alzheimer's type, DAT).

(Remember, Alzheimer's constitutes 65% of dementias
seen in patients 65 years old.)

What is the most common form of

dementia?

316. Amanita phalloides

What mushroom poisoning is associated

with fulminant hepatitis with extensive liver
necrosis?

317. Amantadine

What antiviral agent blocks the attachment and penetration of

influenza A virus?

318. Amantadine

What antiviral agent is used in the treatment of drug-induced

Parkinson's disease?

319. Amiloride

What is the treatment for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus induced

by lithium?

320. Amiloride

Which sodium channel blocker is used to treat lithium-induced

diabetes insipidus?

321. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, which

uses 2 ATPs for this reaction.

What enzyme catalyzes the covalent bonding of the AA's carboxyl

group to the 3' end of tRNA?

322. Aminoglycosides

Which drugs bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and interfere with
the initiation complex, causing a misreading of mRNA?

323. Aminoglycosides

Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed.

CN VIII damage (vestibulotoxic)

324. Aminophylline

What phosphodiesterase inhibitor is used IV in the management of

status asthmaticus ?

325. AML-M3

Auer rods

326. Amnesia. (The person is aware of

the memory loss.)

What term describes the inability to recall personal information,

commonly associated with trauma?

327. Amphotericin B

What is the DOC for severe infections with Sporothrix, Mucor,

Histoplasma, Cryptococcus, Candida, and Aspergillus?

328. Ampicillin and amoxicillin

What are the two broad-spectrum penicillins?

329. Ampulla

What is the region of the fallopian tube where fertilization most

commonly occurs?

330. Ampulla of the fallopian tube

Where is the most frequent site of ectopic pregnancy?

331. Amygdala; it helps imprint an

emotional response in memory.

What area of the limbic system is responsible for attaching

emotional significance to a stimulus?

332. Amylase hydrolyzes alpha-1, 4-glucoside

linkages, forming alpha-limit dextrins, maltotriose,
and maltose.

What linkage of complex CHOs does pancreatic

amylase hydrolyze? What three complexes are
formed?

333. Amyl nitrate, sodium nitrate, or sodium thiosulfate

Name the antidote. Cyanide

334. Amyloidosis

Name the most common type or cause. Restrictive

cardiomyopathy

335. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's

disease) is a LMN lesion at the level of the lesion
and UMN lesion below the level of the lesion.

What disease is described by bilateral flaccid

weakness of the upper limbs (LMN) and bilateral
spastic weakness of the lower limbs (UMN)
beginning at the cervical level of the spinal cord and
progressing up or down the cord?

336. Anatomical dead space, which ends at the level of

the terminal bronchioles.

What is the term for any region of the respiratory

system that is incapable of gas exchange?

337. Androgen-binding protein

What hormone, produced by the Sertoli cells, is

responsible for keeping testosterone levels in the
seminiferous tubules nearly 50 times that of the
serum?

338. Androgens are 19-carbon steroids.

How many carbons do androgens have?

339. Anemia

What toxicities are caused by the following agents?

Occupational nitrous oxide exposure

340. Anemia of chronic disease

Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on

the following laboratory values. Decreased iron,
TIBC, and percent saturation; increased ferritin

341. Anemic patients have a depressed O2 content

because of the reduced concentration of Hgb in
the blood. As for polycythemic patients, their O2
content is increased because of the excess Hgb
concentrations.

Why is O2 content depressed in anemic patients?

342. Angiosarcoma of the liver

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some
may have more than one answer.) Vinyl chloride

343. Anhedonia

What is the term to describe the inability to feel any pleasant emotions?

344. Ankylosing spondylitis

What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in HLA-B27-positive

young men, involves the sacroiliac joints, has no subcutaneous nodules,
and has a bamboo spine appearance on radiograph?

345. Anopheles mosquito

What mosquito is responsible for the transmission of malaria?

346. Anopheles mosquito

What vector is associated with malaria?

347. Anorgasmia. (The overall

prevalence is 30%.)

What is the term for an inhibited female orgasm?

348. Anterior compartment (it's

the blood supply to the
posterior compartment)

In what compartment of the thigh is the profundus femoris artery found?

349. Anterior compartment of the

leg, deep peroneal nerve

Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its
movements. Dorsiflex the foot, extend the toes, and invert the foot

350. Anterior compartment of the

thigh, femoral nerve

Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its
movements. Flex the hip and extend the knee

351. Anterior hypothalamic zone;

lesions here result in
hyperthermia.

What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for recognizing an increase

in body temperature and mediates the response to dissipate heat?

352. Anterior limb of the internal

capsule is supplied by the
anterior cerebral artery.

What limb of the internal capsule is not supplied by the middle cerebral
artery?

353. Anterior nuclear group (Papez circuit

of the limbic system)

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. Input
from the mammillary bodies via the mammillothalamic tract and
the cingulated gyrus; output to the cingulated gyrus via the
anterior limb of the internal capsule

354. The anterior nucleus of the thalamus

What thalamic relay nucleus do the mammillary bodies project

to?

355. Anterior spinal artery

What branch off the vertebral artery supplies The ventrolateral

two-thirds of the cervical spinal cord and the ventrolateral part of
the medulla?

356. Anterior tibial artery

What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it crosses the
extensor retinaculum?

357. Anterior wall of the first part of the

duodenum

What is the most common one? Location of a duodenal ulcer

358. Anticipation

Name these mature defense mechanisms: Preparing for an

upcoming event

359. Anticipation, associated with fragile X

syndrome; Huntington's disease is
also associated with a decrease in
onset of age.

What is the term for the number of trinucleotide repeats

increasing with successive generations and correlating with
increased severity of disease?

360. Antidigoxin Fab fragments

Name the antidote. Digoxin

361. Antigenic determinant (epitope)

What is the term to describe the limited portion of an Ag that is

recognized by an Ab?

362. Antigenic determinant (epitope).

(Idiotypes bind to epitopes.)

What is the limited portion of a large Ag that will actually be

recognized and bound to an Ab and that contains approximately
five to six amino acids or four to five hexose units?

363. Anti-HAV IgG Abs are associated with

immunization or a prior infection. AntiHAV IgM is associated with acute or
recent infection.

Is an anti-HAV IgG Ab associated with immunization or recent

infection?

364. Antisocial

Name the cluster B personality disorder: Criminal behavior; lacking

friends, reckless, and unable to conform to social norms

365. Antisocial personality

What personality disorder affects 75% of the prison population?

366. Antithyroglobulin and

antimicrosomal Abs

What two Abs are used to diagnose Hashimoto's thyroiditis?

367. Anxiety disorders; for men it

is substance abuse.

Name the most common type. Psychiatric disorder in women of all ages

368. The aorta

What large-diameter vessel has the smallest cross-sectional area in

systemic circulation?

369. Aorta, azygos vein, and

thoracic duct Remember: 1
at T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at
T12

What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at T12 level?

370. The aorta has the greatest

velocity and the capillaries
have the slowest velocity.

What vessels in the systemic circulation have the greatest and slowest
velocity?

371. Aortic insufficiency

Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: Diastolic

murmur; increased preload, stroke volume, and aortic pulse pressure;
decreased coronary blood flow; no incisura; and peripheral vasodilation

372. Aortic stenosis

Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: Systolic

murmur, increased preload and afterload, decreased aortic pulse pressure
and coronary blood flow

373. Apneustic center (deep

breathing place)

What respiratory center in the caudal pons is the center for rhythm
promoting prolonged inspirations?

374. apo A-1

What apoprotein on HDL activates lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase

(LCAT)?

375. apo B-48

What apoprotein is required for the release of chylomicrons from the

epithelial cells into the lymphatics?

376. APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla, Areola, and Anus all
begin with A. APES are hairy (associated with hair follicles). They smell
(odor production), and if confronted by an APE, your Adrenergic nervous
system would be firing (innervation).

What sweat gland type is

associated with odor
production and hair follicles
and is found in the axilla?

377. Apoptosis (Remember, there is a lack of inflammatory response.)

What is the term for

programmed cell death?

378. Appendix (second is terminal ileum)

What is the most common

one? Site for carcinoid
tumors

379. Arboviruses (bunyavirus, flavivirus, and togavirus)

What is the term given to

arthropod-borne viruses?

380. Arch of the aorta

Name the correct artery.

The left recurrent laryngeal
nerve passes around it.

381. Area 4

What Brodmann area is

associated with Primary
motor cortex?

382. Area 6

What Brodmann area is

associated with Premotor
cortex?

383. Area 8

What Brodmann area is

associated with Frontal
eye fields?

384. Area 17

What Brodmann area is

associated with Primary
visual cortex?

385. Area 22 and occasionally 39

and 40

What Brodmann area is associated with Wernicke's area?

386. Areas 1, 2, and 3

What Brodmann area is associated with Primary somatosensory

cortex?

387. Areas 5 and 7

What Brodmann area is associated with Somatosensory association

cortex?

388. Areas 18 and 19

What Brodmann area is associated with Visual association cortex?

389. Areas 41 and 42

What Brodmann area is associated with Primary auditory cortex?

390. Areas 44 and 45

What Brodmann area is associated with Broca's area?

391. These are the gross pathologic

changes associated with
Alzheimer's disease.

What dementia is associated with dilated ventricles with diffuse cortical

atrophy, decreased parietal lobe blood flow, and a decrease in choline
acetyl transferase activity?

392. The AR form is malignant and

AD is benign.

Is the AD or AR form of osteopetrosis malignant?

393. Arginine

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? N2O

394. Arginine

What AA is broken down into N2O, causing an increase in cyclic

guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) of smooth muscle, hence
vasodilation?

395. Arginine

What AA has a pKa of 13?

396. Argyll Robertson pupils

What is the term for pupils that react normally to accommodation but
have bilateral loss of constriction in response to light?

397. Argyll Robertson pupils accompany a loss of both direct

and consensual light reflexes, but the accommodationconvergence reaction remains intact. It can also be
seen in patients with pineal tumors or multiple
sclerosis.

What is the term for the type of pupil seen in

neurosyphilis, and what ocular reflexes are
lost?

398. Arnold-Chiari malformation type 2

What CNS developmental abnormality is

associated with downward displacement of the
cerebellar vermis and medulla compressing the
fourth ventricle and leading to obstructive
hydrocephalus?

399. Arnold-Chiari malformation type 2

What CNS developmental abnormality is

associated with 90% of syringomyelia?

400. Aromatase

What enzyme converts androgens to

estrogens?

401. Arsenic

Name the most common type or cause. Acute

metal poisoning in the United States

402. Arsenic, thorotrast, and vinyl chloride

What three chemical agents are associated

with angiosarcomas of the liver?

403. Arterial PCO2 levels are proportional to cerebral blood

flow.

Under resting conditions, what is the main

determinant of cerebral blood flow?

404. Arterioles

What component of the vascular system is

most sensitive to the effects of calcium channel
blockers?

405. Arterioles have the largest drop, whereas the vena

cava has the smallest pressure drop in systemic
circulation.

In the systemic circulation, what blood vessels

have the largest pressure drop? Smallest
pressure drop?

406. Arthroconidia with hyphae

A suspected dermatophyte infection is stained

with KOH. What spore type do you expect to
see?

407. ASA

What is the only NSAID that causes irreversible

inhibition of the cyclooxygenase pathway?

408. ASA (salicylate)

What commonly encountered overdose produces headache,

tinnitus, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, confusion,
vomiting, and tachypnea?

409. Asbestosis

What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the

following occupations or materials? Shipyards, brake linings,
insulation, and old building construction

410. Asbestosis

Name the most common type or cause. Nonorganic

pneumoconiosis

411.

With what two pathologies is a honeycomb lung associated?

Asbestosis and silicosis

412. Ascaris lumbricoides

What is the most common one? Helminthic parasite

worldwide

413. Ascending limb

What is the site of action of the following? Loop diuretics

414. Aschoff bodies of rheumatic fever

What foci of fibrinoid necrosis are surrounded by lymphocytes

and macrophages throughout all the layers of the heart?

415. Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) deficiency

(These are the signs of scurvy.)

What vitamin deficiency is evidenced by poor wound healing,

loose teeth, bleeding gums, petechiae, and ecchymosis?

416. ASD

What is the most common one? Congenital heart defect in

adults

417. As flow increases, the urine becomes

more dilute because of decreased time
for H2O reabsorption.

How are flow through the loop of Henle and concentration of

urine related?

418. Asparagine

What AA undergoes N-glycosylation?

419. Aspartame

What artificial sweetener must patients with PKU avoid?

420. Aspartate and carbomoyl PO4-

What are the two ways that nitrogen can enter into the urea
cycle?

421. Aspartate transcarbamylase

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in pyrimidine

synthesis?

422. Aspartic acid and glutamic acid

What two AAs have a pKa of 4?

423. Aspiration

Name the most common type or cause. Lung abscess

424. Aspiration pneumonia

What is the most common one? Complication of nasogastric

tube feeding

425. As sample size increases, the lower the

chance of error.

What is the relationship between chance of error and

Sample size?

426. As the isotype is switched, the Ab

specificity does not change because it
does not affect the variable chains.

What happens to the Ab specificity when class switching

occurs in mature B cells?

427. As the name indicates, there is no

change in volume but there is an
increase in pressure.

What happens to intraventricular pressure and volume during

isovolumetric contraction?

428. As the standard deviation increases, the

greater the chance of error.

What is the relationship between chance of error and

Standard deviation?

429. Astrocytes

What cells contribute to the blood-brain barrier and proliferate

in response to CNS injury?

430. Astrocytoma

What CNS tumor cells stain positive for glial fibrillary acidic
protein (GFAP)?

431. Astrocytoma

Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes.

(Some may have more than one answer) sis

432. At 8 to 9 years of age. Prior to this age

they view death as a form of punishment.

At what age do children begin to understand the irreversibility

of death?

433. A-T are linked by 2 hydrogen bonds, C-G

by 3 hydrogen bonds.

How many hydrogen bonds link A-T? C-G?

434. Ataxia-telangiectasia

What AR disorder is seen by age 1 to 2 with recurrent

sinopulmonary infections, uncoordinated muscle movements,
and dilation of the blood vessels?

435. At birth (reflex)

At what age does a child develop Endogenous smile?

436. AT II

What hormone constricts afferent and efferent arterioles

(efferent more so) in an effort to preserve glomerular capillary
pressure as the renal blood flow decreases?

437. AT II

What component of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone

axis increases sodium reabsorption in the proximal
convoluted tubules and increases thirst drive?

438. At least 5 lobes

How many segments in a neutrophilic nucleus are

necessary for it to be called hypersegmented?

439. At least 15%

How far below ideal body weight are patients with

anorexia nervosa?

440. At least 30% blast in the bone marrow

What percentage of the bone marrow must be composed

of blast for leukemia to be considered?

441. At least six

How many caf-au-lait spots are necessary for the

diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1?

442. ATP/ADP Translocase

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the

following? Atractyloside

443. Atracurium

Which nicotinic receptor antagonist is inactivated to

laudanosine?

444. Atrial contraction Atrial, Contraction, Venous

On the venous pressure curve, what do the following

waves represent? A wave?

445. Atrial filling (venous filling) Atrial, Contraction,

Venous

On the venous pressure curve, what do the following

waves represent? V wave?

446. Atrophy. Disuse can also be due to

immobilization, ischemia, aging, and a host of
other causes.

What is the term to describe a decrease in the cell size

and function usually associated with disuse?

447. Atropine, 2-PAM (pralidoxime)

Name the antidote. Organophosphates

448. Atropine and 2-PAM (pralidoxime)

What is the antidote for organophosphate ingestion?

449. Atropine with pralidoxime

Name the antidote. AChE inhibitors

450. At the beginning of splay is when the renal

threshold for glucose occurs and the excess
begins to spill over into the urine.

On a graphical representation of filtration, reabsorption,

and excretion, when does glucose first appear in the
urine?

451. At the end of the PCT

25% of Na+, Cl-, K+ is
left

What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid by the time it leaves
the PCT of the nephron? Percentage of Na+, Cl-, K+ left in the lumen

452. At the end of the PCT

25% of the original
volume is left

What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid by the time it leaves
the PCT of the nephron? Percentage of original filtered volume left in the
lumen

453. Auspitz sign

What is the term for the sign revealed when a psoriatic scale is removed and
pinpoint bleeding occurs?

454. Autism. Head-banging,

rocking, and selfinjurious behaviors are
also common in autism.

What axis I disorder is characterized by pronoun reversal, preference for

inanimate objects, obliviousness to the external environment, lack of
separation anxiety, and abnormalities in language development?

455. Autograft

Name the type of graft described by these transplants: From one site to
another on the same person

456. Autoimmune hemolytic

anemia

What form of anemia is associated with IgG Abs against Rh antigens, positive
direct Coombs test, and splenomegaly?

457. Autoimmune hemolytic

anemia

What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as Autoantibodies directed

against RBC Ag I?

458. Autoimmune
thrombocytopenia
purpura

What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as Autoantibodies directed

against platelet integrin?

459. Autosomal dominant

Name the pattern of genetic transmission characterized thus: both M and F

are affected; M may transmit to M; each generation has at least one affected
parent; and one mutant allele may produce the disease.

460. Autosomal recessive

Name the pattern of genetic transmission: both M and F are affected; M-to-M
transmission may be present; both parents must be carriers; the trait skips
generations; two mutant alleles are needed for disease; and affected children
may be born of unaffected adults?

461. Average

What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is 90 to 109

462. Aversive conditioning

What classical conditioning therapy or modification is described as Pairing

noxious stimuli to an inappropriate behavior?

463. Avidity (more than one binding

site)

What is the term for the strength of association between multiple

Abbinding sites and multiple antigenic determinants?

464. Avidity. There is a positive

correlation between valence
numbers and avidity.

What is the term for the strength of the association between Ags and
Abs?

465. Avoidant

Name the cluster C personality disorder: Sensitive to criticism, shy,

anxious; socially isolated but yearns to be in the crowd

466. Axillary nerve and posterior

humeral artery

What nerve and artery could be affected in a humeral neck fracture?

467. Axis I

The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In

what axis would you place Clinical disorders (e.g., schizophrenia)?

468. Axis II

The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In

what axis would you place Personality and mental disorders?

469. Axis III

The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In

what axis would you place Medical or physical ailments?

470. Axis IV

The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In

what axis would you place Psychosocial and environmental
problems (stressors)?

471. Axis V

The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In

what axis would you place Global assessment of function?

472. Axon hillock

Where is the action potential generated on a neuron?

473. Azathioprine

What immunosuppressive agent is converted to 6-mercaptopurine?

474. Azithromycin

Which macrolide is given as 1200 mg/week for the prophylaxis of

Mycobacterium avium intracellulare complex?

475. The Babinski reflex is present in UMN lesions.

Muscle atrophy due to disuse, hyperreflexia,
spastic paralysis, increased muscle tone, and
weakness are commonly seen in UMN
lesions.

What reflex, seen in lesions of the corticospinal tract, is

an extension of the great toe with fanning the of
remaining toes?

476. Bacillus anthracis

What bacterium is characterized by large boxcar-shaped

gram-positive rods and is spore-forming, aerobic, and
associated with cutaneous infections and woolsorter's
disease?

477. Bacillus anthracis

What bacterium is responsible for woolsorter's disease?

478. Bacillus cereus

What organism would you suspect in a patient with

diarrhea after eating rice?

479. Bacteria

Which of the following characteristics accurately describe

fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites? Small prokaryotic
cells; no histones; 70S ribosomes; no sterols in cell
membrane; peptidoglycans in cell wall; replicate by
binary fission

480. Bacterial meningitis

What condition results in the following CSF results?

Opening pressure 400 mm H2O; WBCs 8500 (90%
PMNs); glucose 15; protein 120

481. Bactericidal

What form of antimicrobial therapy is best for an

immunocompromised patient?

482. Bainbridge reflex

What cardiac reflex is characterized by stretch receptors

in the right atrium, afferent and efferent limbs via the
vagus nerve, and increased stretch leading to an
increase in heart rate via inhibition of parasympathetic
stimulation?

483. Barbiturate overdose and benzodiazepine

withdrawal carry the highest mortality rates.

Which overdose carries a higher mortality rate, that of

benzodiazepines or barbiturates?

484. Barr bodies in females, T-cell receptor loci, and

immunoglobulin light and heavy chain loci

What are the three exceptions to the rule of

codominant gene expression?

485. Barrett esophagus has an increased risk of developing

adenocarcinoma of the esophagus.

What is the term for squamous to columnar

metaplasia of the distal esophagus secondary to
chronic inflammation?

486. Basal cell carcinoma

What is the most common one? Skin tumor in

the United States

487. Basal cell carcinoma

What is the most common one? Tumor on sunexposed sites

488. Basal ganglia

Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the

function described: Initiation and control of
movements

489. Baseline apical intrapleural pressure is -10 cm H2O

(more negative than the mean) resulting in a force to
expand the alveoli.

At the apex of the lung, what is the baseline

intrapleural pressure, and what force does it
exert on the alveoli?

490. The basilar artery is formed at the pontomedullary

junction.

What artery is formed by the union of the two

vertebral arteries?

491. Basophilic stippling

What is the term for cytoplasmic remnants of

RNA in RBCs, seen in lead poisoning?

492. B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulp

and germinal centers in the spleen.

What cell type is found in the peripheral white

pulp of the spleen?

493. B cells; macrophages and dendritic cells are

nonspecific.

What is the only specific Ag-presenting cell?

494. Bcl-2

What gene inhibits apoptosis by preventing the

release of cytochrome c from mitochondria?

495. Because creatinine is filtered and a small amount is

secreted

Why is the clearance of creatinine always slightly

greater than the clearance of inulin and GFR?

496. Because incidence is defined as new events; treatment does not

decrease the number of new events. It does decrease the number of
individuals with the event (prevalence would decrease).

Why isn't the incidence of a

disease decreased when a new
treatment is initiated?

497. Because it is the largest vessel and has the highest velocity in
systemic circulation

Why will turbulence first appear in

the aorta in patients with anemia?

498. Because RPF is markedly decreased, while GFR is only minimally

diminished; this results in an increase in FF (remember FF =
GFR/RPF).

Why is there an increase in FF if

the GFR is decreased under
sympathetic stimulation?

499. Because the chronic inhibition of dopamine (PIF) on the release of

prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland is removed, thereby
increasing the secretion of prolactin.

Why is there an increase in

prolactin if the hypothalamicpituitary axis was severed?

500. Because the large drop in TPR is accompanied by a large increase

in cardiac output, resulting in a minimal change in BP.

Why is there a minimal change in

BP during exercise if there is a
large drop in TPR?

501. Because the venous system is more compliant than the arterial
vessels, small changes in pressure result in large changes in blood
volume.

Regarding the venous system,

what happens to blood volume if
there is a small change in
pressure?

502. Because they do not block D2A receptors, they are antagonists of
5HT2 receptors.

Why are clozapine and olanzapine

unlikely to result in EPS effects?

503. Being a female physician increases the risk of suicide nearly four
times the general population.

Does being a female physician

increase or decrease the risk of
suicide?

504. Being awake

Name the stages of sleep with

these EEG patterns: Alpha
waves

505. Bell pad

What has proved to be the best

way to extinguish enuresis?

506. Bender Visual Motor Gestalt

Test

What neuropsychologic test shows nine designs to the patient, then

asks for recall of as many as possible?

507. Benign lentigo

What skin condition is a localized proliferation of melanocytes

presenting as small, oval, light brown macules?

508. Benign nevus (mole)

What is the term for a benign melanocytic tumor associated with sun
exposure that presents as tan-to-brown colored and has sharply
defined well-circumscribed borders?

509. Berger disease (IgA

nephropathy)

What type of GN, associated with celiac disease and dermatitis

herpetiformis, has mesangial deposits of IgA, C3, properdin, IgG, and
IgM?

510. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

What AR syndrome is due to a deficiency of glycoprotein Ib, resulting

in a defect in platelet adhesion?

511.

What aneurysm of the circle of Willis is associated with polycystic

kidney disease?

Berry aneurysm

512. Berry aneurysm in the circle of

Willis

Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular

pathologies. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

513. Berylliosis

What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following

occupations or materials? Aerospace industry, nuclear reactors

514. Beryllium

What chemical can be dangerous if you work in the aerospace industry

or in nuclear plants?

515. Beta2-integrins

Which integrin mediates the adhesion to endothelial cells for migration

in and out of the blood during an immune response?

516. The Beta-2-microglobin. It is the

separately encoded Beta-chain
for class I Ags.

What molecule differentiates the MHC class I from II Ag? (Hint: it's in
the light chain.)

517. Between the renal arteries and

at the bifurcation of the
abdominal aorta

What is the most common one? Sites for abdominal aorta aneurysm

518. The bifurcation of the abdominal

aorta

What is the most common one? Site for atherosclerotic plaques in

the abdominal aorta

519. Bilateral degeneration of the dorsal columns in the spinal

cord secondary to syphilis is known as tabes dorsalis. A
high-step gait is seen in patients with tabes dorsalis
because of the inability to feel the ground beneath their
feet.

What sensory system is affected in the late

spinal cord manifestation of syphilis?

520. Bile acid sequestrants (cholestyramine and colestipol)

increase VLDL and triglyceride levels; therefore, they are
not used if a patient has hypertriglyceridemia.

Which class of antihyperlipidemics would you

avoid for a patient with elevated triglyceride
levels?

521. Bile salts are actively reabsorbed in the distal ileum.

Where in the GI tract does the reabsorption of

bile salts take place?

522. Bioavailability

What is the term for the proportion of a drug

that reaches systemic circulation?

523. Biofeedback

What operant conditioning therapy or

modification is described as Providing the
person with information regarding his or her
internal responses to stimuli with methods of
controlling them?

524. The biofeedback model is based on the parasympathetic

nervous system.

What part of the ANS is affected in the

biofeedback model of operant conditioning?

525. Biotin, ATP, and CO2

In the mitochondria, what complex is needed

for pyruvate carboxylase to catalyze the
reaction from pyruvate to OAA?

526. Biotin, ATP, and CO2

What complex is needed for propionyl CoA

carboxylase?

527. Biotin. Avidin is found in raw egg whites.

Avidin decreases the absorption of what

vitamin?

528. Biotin (only if eaten in large quantities)

What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency may

result from eating raw eggs?

529. Bipolar disorder (manic-depressive

disorder)

Increased self-esteem, flight of ideas, decreased sleep, increased

libido, weight loss, and erratic behavior are all symptoms of what
disorder?

530. Birds

What is the reservoir for the togavirus?

531. Birth defects, low birth weight (<

1500 g) with neonatal respiratory
distress syndrome (NRDS), and
SIDS

What are the top three causes of infant mortality?

532. Bisphosphonates

What class of drugs is used in the treatment of demineralization of

the bone?

533. Bitemporal heteronymous

hemianopsia

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. Optic chiasm lesion

534. Bladder cancer

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents.

(Some may have more than one answer.) Naphthylamine

535. Bladder carcinoma

RBCs in the urine

536. Blastoconidia

What type of spore is defined as an asexual budding daughter

yeast cell?

537. Blastomyces dermatitidis

Which dimorphic fungus is found as hyphae with nondescript

conidia in rotting wood in the Upper Great Lakes, Ohio,
Mississippi, eastern seaboard of the United States, and southern
Canada?

538. Blocking

Name these immature defense mechanisms: Inability to

remember a known fact (aware of forgetting)

539. Blood

What body fluid preferentially breaks down esters?

540. The blood withdrawn is the unconditioned stimulus,

inducing the unconditioned response (fainting). The
needle is part of the blood-drawing procedure and is the
conditioned stimulus (unconditioned and conditioned
stimuli are paired) resulting in the conditioned response
(fainting at the sight of the needle).

Which is the conditioned response, the

conditioned stimulus, the unconditioned
response, the unconditioned stimulus in this
case? A patient has blood withdrawn and
faints. The next time she goes to have blood
taken, she faints at the sight of the needle.

541. B lymphocyte

What cell type involves humoral immunity?

542. Body dysmorphic disorder

What somatoform disorder is described as

Unrealistic negative opinion of personal
appearance, seeing self as ugly?

543. Bone deposition increases with increased Ca2+ or PO 4concentrations, whereas resorption (breakdown) is
increased when there are low levels of Ca2+ or PO4-.

Is bone deposition or resorption due to

increased interstitial Ca2+concentrations?

544. Borderline

Name the cluster B personality disorder: In a

constant state of crisis, promiscuous, unable
to tolerate anxiety-causing situations, afraid
of being alone, and having intense but brief
relationships

545. Borderline

What is the label given to an individual whose

IQ is 70 to 79

546. Bordetella pertussis

What small gram-negative aerobic rod

requires Regan-Lowe or Bordet- Gengou
medium for growth?

547. Borrelia burgdorferi

What spirochete is responsible for Lyme

disease?

548. Borrelia recurrentis

Which organism causes multiple infections by

antigen switching?

549. Both

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer

motor, sensory, or both) Ventral rami?

550. Both

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer

motor, sensory, or both) Dorsal rami?

551. Both

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer

motor, sensory, or both) Spinal nerve?

552. Both are AR with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, but

Dubin-Johnson syndrome is differentiated from
Rotor by the black pigmentation of the liver.

Is Dubin-Johnson or Rotor syndrome associated

with black pigmentation of the liver?

553. Both Neisseria and Moraxella are gram-negative

cocci.

What are the two exceptions to the rule "all cocci

are gram positive"?

554. Bouchard nodes in the PIP joints; Heberden nodes

in the DIP joints.

What is the term for osteophyte formation at the

proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints in
osteoarthritis? In the distal interphalangeal (DIP)
joints?

555. Boutonnire deformities

What is the term for flexion of the PIP and

extension of the DIP joints seen in rheumatoid
arthritis?

556. BPH

Name the most common type or cause. Urinary

tract obstruction

557. BPH

What is the most common one? Proliferative

abnormality of an internal organ

558. BPH. Although an argument can be made for prostatic cancer

(you should expect a much higher PSA result), these are
buzzwords for BPH. Prostatic cancer is usually silent until late
in the disease, when obstructive symptoms begin to occur.

A 70-year-old man complains of urinary

urgency, nocturia, hesitancy, postvoid
dribbling, urinary retention, and a PSA
result of 6.5 ng/mL. What is your
diagnosis?

559. Brain abscess

What condition results in the following

CSF results? Opening pressure 450
mm H2O; 5 WBCs (90% lymphocytes);
normal glucose and protein levels

560. Brain, spleen, and kidney

What are the three most common sites

for left-sided heart embolisms to
metastasize?

561. Breast

What is the most common one?

Primary tumor metastasis to the bone

562. Breast

What is the most common one?

Malignant tumor in women

563. Breast and lung cancer, respectively.

What are the two leading causes of

cancer-related death in women?

564. Breast cancer

Name the cancer associated with the

following oncogenes. (Some may have
more than one answer) hst-1, int-2,
erb-2, and erb-3

565. Breast cancer

What is the most common diagnosis

made (or missed!) resulting in a
malpractice suit?

566. Breast cancer

What do the risk factors late menopause, early menarche,

obesity, nulliparity, excessive estrogen, genetic factor p53, and
brc-abl characterize?

567. Breathing high-pressure nitrogen over

a long time and sudden
decompression result in the bends.

What two factors lead to the development of the bends (caisson

disease)?

568. Bridging veins draining into the sagittal

sinus

Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular

pathologies. Subdural hemorrhage

569. Brief psychotic disorder. (In

schizophreniform disorder the
symptoms last longer than 6 months.)

What is the term for a schizophrenic episode lasting longer than

30 days with full return to former functioning capacity?

570. Broca's aphasia

Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: Nonfluent

speech, telegraphic and ungrammatical; lesion in Brodmann's
area 44; unimpaired comprehension

571. Bronchial asthma (eosinophil

membranes)

Charcot-Leyden crystals

572. Bronchial asthma (whorled mucous

plugs)

Curschmann spirals

573. Bronchiectasis

What is the term for chronic necrotizing pulmonary infections

resulting in permanent airway dilation and associated with
Kartagener syndrome?

574. Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma

What subset of adenocarcinoma arises from the terminal

bronchioles and/or alveolar walls?

575. Bronchoconstriction is associated with parasympathetic stimulation

(ACh), and catecholamine stimulation is associated with
bronchodilation (why epinephrine is used in emergency treatment of
bronchial asthma.)

Is ACh associated with

bronchoconstriction or
bronchodilation?

576. Bronchogenic carcinoma

What is the most common one?

Tumor in individuals exposed to
asbestos

577. Bronchogenic carcinoma

Name the cancer associated with

the following chemical agents.
(Some may have more than one
answer.) Chromium and nickel

578. Bronchogenic carcinoma

Name the cancer associated with

the following chemical agents.
(Some may have more than one
answer.) Polycyclic aromatic
hydrocarbons

579. Brother Fox (Eichner vs. Dillon). The substituted standard could not
apply because the patient had never been competent, so no one
knew what the patient would have wanted. Therefore, the decision
was based on what a "reasonable" person would have wanted.

What case is best known for use

of the "best interest standard"?

580. Brucella

What small, facultative gramnegative intracellular rod's

transmission is associated with
unpasteurized dairy products and
undulant fever?

581. Brucella and Listeria (has tumbling motility)

What two bacteria are associated

with drinking unpasteurized milk?

582. Brushfield spots

What is the term for the speckled appearance of the iris in

patients with Down syndrome?

583. Bruton X-linked

hypogammaglobinemia. Tyrosine
kinase deficiency leads to inadequate
B cell maturation.

What B cell disorder is characterized by pre-B cells in the bone

marrow, no circulating B cells in plasma, normal cell-mediated
immunity, low Igs, and appearance by 6 months of age?

584. Budd-Chiari syndrome

What is the term for the syndrome consisting of hepatomegaly,

ascites, and abdominal pain due to hepatic vein thrombosis?

585. Buerger disease (thromboangiitis

obliterans)

What small- to medium- sized vasculitis is seen in a 35-year-old

man who is a heavy smoker presenting with claudication
symptoms in the upper and lower extremities?

586. Buffers (remember that buffers are

best when they are used in a pH
range near its pK)

What is the term for chemicals that keep the pH constant despite
the formation of acids and bases during metabolism?

587. Bulbus cordis

From what embryonic structure are the following structures

derived? The aortic vestibule and the conus arteriosus

588. Bulla

What is the term for a raised fluid-filled cavity greater than 0.5 cm
that lies between the layers of the skin?

589. Bunyavirus

What family do the following viruses belong to? Hantavirus

590. Bunyavirus

What family do the following viruses belong to? California

encephalitis

591. Burkitt lymphoma

Starry sky appearance of macrophages is pathognomonic of what

lymphoma?

592. Burkitt lymphoma

Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes.

(Some may have more than one answer) c-myc

593. Burkitt lymphoma

Starry sky pattern

594. Burr cells (echinocytes)

What is the term for RBCs with smooth undulations on the

surface of their membrane, commonly seen in uremia?

595. By causing rebound

insomnia and
decrease in REM
sleep

How does ceasation of barbiturate use affect sleep?

596. C1, C2, or C4

deficiency

What complement factor deficiency leads to Leukocyte adhesion deficiency with

poor opsonization?

597. C1 esterase inhibitor

(C1INH)

Hereditary angioneurotic edema (AD) produces local edema in organs (e.g., GI,
skin, respiratory tract). What enzyme deficiency causes increased capillary
permeability due to a release of vasoactive peptides?

598. C1 inhibitor (C1-INH)

What complement factor deficiency leads to Hereditary angioedema?

599. C1 through C4

What nerve roots constitute the cervical plexus?

600. C2 deficiency

What is the most common complement deficiency?

601. C3a, C4a, and C5a

What three complement fragments are also anaphylatoxins?

602. C3a, C4a, C5a

What complement factor or factors are associated with Anaphylaxis?

603. C3b

What complement factor or factors are associated with Opsonization?

604. C3, C4, and C5 keep

the diaphragm alive!

Ventral rami of what cervical nerves constitute the phrenic nerve?

605. C3 deficiency

What complement factor deficiency leads to Increased susceptibility to pyogenic

infections?

606. C4 (the upper border

of the thyroid
cartilage)

At what vertebral level does the common carotid artery bifurcate?

607. C5a

What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from The blood
serum? (Hint: it is a complement factor.)

608. C5a

What complement factor or factors are associated with Chemotaxis?

609. C5b-C9

What components of the complement cascade form the MAC?

610. C5-C8 deficiency

What complement factor deficiency leads to Recurrent gonococcal infections?

611.

What complement factor or factors are associated with Membrane attack

complex (MAC)?

C5-C9

612. Caisson disease

What disease caused by decompression sickness leads to

multiple foci of ischemic necrosis that affect the head of the
femur, humerus, and tibia?

613. Calcarine sulcus

What sulcus divides the occipital lobe horizontally into a

superior cuneus and inferior lingual gyrus?

614. Calcitriol

What hormone is characterized by the following renal effects?

Calcium excretion, phosphate excretion

615. Calcium and ATP are required for

packaged macromolecules to be
extruded from the cell.

What two factors are required for effective exocytosis?

616. Calcium influx secondary to slow

channel opening

What triggers phase 0 of the action potential in a ventricular

pacemaker cell?

617. Calcium oxalate

What is the most common one? Kidney stone type

618. Calcium oxylate

What is the most common one? Renal calculus type

619. Calicivirus

What virus is associated with the Norwalk agent?

620. Camper's fascia; Scarpa's fascia is

devoid of fat. (Remember campers are
fat.)

What is the name of the superficial subcutaneous fascia of the

abdomen containing fat?

621. Campylobacter jejuni

What microaerophile is a motile gram-negative curved rod with

polar flagella that causes infectious diarrhea at low doses
(<500)?

622. Cancer

What is the second leading cause of death in the United

States?

623. Cancer

What is the second leading cause of death in children aged 1 to

14 in the United States?

624. Cancer of the lung, stomach, colon,

and breast

Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers.

(Some may have more than one answer.) CEA

625. Candida

What is the most common fungal infection in HIV?

626. Candida albicans

What fungus causes endocarditis in IV drug users?

627. Capillaries

What vessels have the largest total cross-sectional area in

systemic circulation?

628. Capillary flow and pressure increase

with arteriolar dilation and decrease
with arteriolar constriction.

What happens to flow and pressure in capillaries with arteriolar

dilation? Arteriolar constriction?

629. Caplan syndrome

What syndrome is rheumatoid arthritis with pneumoconiosis?

630. Caput medusa, internal hemorrhoids,

esophageal varices, retroperitoneal
varices, and splenomegaly

What are five clinical signs of portal HTN?

631. Carbamazepine

What antiepileptic agent has SIADH as a side effect?

632. Carbamazepine

What is the DOC for trigeminal neuralgia?

633. Carbamazepine

Which anticonvulsant used in the treatment of bipolar disorder is

refractory to lithium?

634. Carbamazepine

Which anticonvulsant can cause teratogenic craniofacial

abnormalities and spina bifida?

635. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step of the urea cycle?

636. Carbidopa and benserazide

What two drugs block dopa-decarboxylase in the periphery to

decrease the conversion of L-dopa to dopamine?

637. Carbidopa and benserazide

Inhibition of peripheral aromatic amino acid decarboxylase and

increased CNS availability of L-dopa are results of what drug
used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease?

638. Carbonic anhydrase

What enzyme is essential for the conversion of CO2 to HCO3-?

639. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

(acetazolamide and dorzolamide)

Which class of diuretics is used to treat metabolic acidosis, acute

mountain sicknesses, and glaucoma and to aid in the elimination
of acidic drug overdoses?

640. Carcinoid tumor

What neuroendocrine tumor produces excess serotonin; is

associated with diarrhea, flushing, bronchospasms, wheezing; and
is diagnosed by findings of elevated urinary 5-HIAA levels?

641. Cardiac muscle

Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: Continuous

involuntary contraction, uninuclear striated branched fibers, actin
and myosin overlapping for banding pattern, dyadic T tubules,
intercalated discs, troponin and desmin as a Z disc intermediate
filament.

642. Cardiac muscle

Name the muscle type based on the histological features: Actin

and myosin in sarcomeres; striated; uninuclear; gap junctions;
troponin:calcium binding complex; T tubules and SR forming
dyadic contacts; voltage-gated calcium channels

643. Carnitine acyl CoA transferase II

Which shuttle is used to bring fatty acyl CoA from the cytoplasm
for ketogenesis?

644. Carnitine acyltransferase I

What is the rate-limiting step of the following? -Oxidation

645. Carnitine acyltransferase-I

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in fatty acid

oxidation?

646. The carotid body, which monitors

arterial blood directly

What peripheral chemoreceptor receives the most blood per gram

of weight in the body?

647. The carotid sinus is a pressuresensitive (low) receptor, while the

carotid body is an oxygen-sensitive
(low) receptor. (Remember "Sinus
Pressure").

Is the carotid sinus sensitive to pressure or oxygen?

648. The carotid sinus reflex

What reflex increases TPR in an attempt to maintain BP during a

hemorrhage?

649. Case control studies cannot assess

incidence or prevalence, but they
can determine causal relationships.

Can incidence, prevalence, and cause and effect be assessed in

Case control studies?

650. Case fatality rate

What type of mortality rate is defined

as the number of deaths From a
specific cause per number of
persons with the disease?

651. Caseous necrosis

Name the type of necrosis. Soft,

friable, cottage-cheese appearing;
characteristically seen in TB

652. The cat

What is the essential reservoir host

for Toxoplasma gondii?

653. Catalase-negative bacteria secrete H2O2 as a byproduct

(remember, catalase breaks down H2O2), allowing the neutrophils
to use it as the substrate for the other toxic metabolites. Patients
with CGD are prone to catalase-positive bacterial infections.

Why are patients with Chronic

Granulomatous Disease not prone to
develop infections from catalasenegative bacteria?

654. Catatonic schizophrenia

What subtype of schizophrenia is

characterized by Stuporous mute
echopraxia and automatic
obedience, waxy flexibility with
rigidity of posture?

655. Cauda equina

What is the name of the spinal cord

passing within the subarachnoid
space and forming the spinal nerves
that exit the lumbar and sacral
foramina?

656. Cause-specific mortality rate

What type of mortality rate is defined

as the number of deaths From a
specific cause per population?

657. CCK stimulates the pancreas to release amylase, lipase, and

proteases for digestion.

What is the pancreatic action of

CCK?

658. CD3

Name the T-cell CD marker: Expressed on all T cells

and is needed as a signal transducer for the T cell
receptor

659. CD3

What cell surface marker do all T cells have?

660. CD3 molecule. It transmits signals to the inside

of the T cell to trigger activation

What molecule that is needed to trigger T cell

activation is noncovalently linked to TCR?

661. CD4

Name the T-cell CD marker: Interacts with MHC class

II molecules

662. CD4+T cells

Development of what T cell line follows low affinity for

self-MHC class II Ags in the thymus?

663. CD4+ T cells (helper)

What subset of T cells recognizes the MHC class II

Ags?

664. The CD4 T cell; the APC is the first cell in the
immune response.

What is the second cell involved in the immune

response?

665. CD8

Name the T-cell CD marker: Interacts with MHC class

I molecules

666. CD8+ T cells

What T cell line arises from low affinity for self-MHC

class I Ags in the thymus?

667. CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic) Remember, 81=8

(CD8MHC class I=8); 42=8 (CD4 MHC
class II 8)

What subset of T cells recognizes the MHC class I

Ags?

668. CD14

What endotoxin receptor is the best marker for

macrophages?

669. CD15 and CD30

What two CD cell surface markers do Reed- Sternberg

cells stain positive for?

670. CD16 and CD56

What receptors are the best markers for NK cells?

671. CD19

Name the B-cell CD marker: Used clinically to count

B cells in blood

672. CD19

What cell surface marker is found on blood B cells?

673. CD21; it is a complement receptor for cleaved

C3

Name the B-cell CD marker: Receptor for EBV

674. CD28

Name the T-cell CD marker: Is a costimulatory

molecule in T cell activation

675. CD40

What cell surface marker is found on activated

helper T cells?

676. CD40

Name the B-cell CD marker: Required for

class switching signals from T cells

677. CD40 ligand

Name the T-cell CD marker: Essential for Ab

isotype switching (for B cell binding)

678. cDNA libraries are derived from mRNA, are continuous,

and contain no introns or regulatory elements.

What type of DNA library is made from the

mRNA from a tissue expressing a particular
gene?

679. cDNA, when it is made from mRNA

What form of continuous DNA, used in

cloning, has no introns or regulatory
elements?

680. Cefamandole, cefoperazone, and moxalactam

What three cephalosporins inhibit vitamin Kdependent factors?

681. Cefuroxime and cefaclor

Which two cephalosporins cross the bloodbrain barrier?

682. Celecoxib

What selective Cox-2 inhibitor should be

avoided in patients with a history of
sulfonamide allergy?

683. Celiac, aorticorenal, and superior mesenteric ganglias.

(Remember all " Splanchnics" are Sympathetic except
for the Pelvic splanchnics, which are Preganglionic
Parasympathetic fibers.)

Name the three postganglionic sympathetic

ganglia that receive input from thoracic
splanchnics.

684. Celiac sprue (gluten-sensitive enteropathy)

What malabsorption syndrome produces

abdominal distention, bloating, flatulence,
diarrhea, steatorrhea, and weight loss shortly
after eating bread products?

685. Cell-mediated immunity

What form of immunity is responsible for

removal of intracellular infections?

686. Central/neurogenic diabetes insipidus; in the

nephrogenic form there is sufficient ADH available,
but the renal collecting ducts are impermeable to its
actions.

What form of diabetes insipidus is due to an

insufficient amount of ADH for the renal collecting
ducts?

687. Central. Remember, there is a deficiency in ADH

production in the central form.

To differentiate central from nephrogenic diabetes

insipidus, after an injection of ADH, which will
show a decreased urine flow?

688. Central sulcus (sulcus of Rolando)

What fissure of the cerebral cortex runs

perpendicular to the lateral fissure and separates
the frontal and the parietal lobes?

689. Centriacinar worse in upper lobes; panacinar worse

in base of lower lobes

In which form of emphysema, panacinar or

centriacinar, is the effect worse in the apical
segments of the upper lobes?

690. Ceramide

What is the precursor of all sphingolipids?

691. Cerebellum

Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the

function described: Skill-based memory, verbal
recall, balance, refined voluntary movements

692. Cerebral aqueduct

What connects the third and the fourth ventricles?

693. Cervical neoplasia

What is the most common one? Primary

malignant tumor of the female genital tract in the
world

694. Chdiak-Higashi syndrome

In what rare AR disorder do you see neutropenia,

defective degranulation, and delayed microbial
killing due to a problem in chemotaxis and
migration?

695. Chemotaxis

What is the name of the process in which cells

migrate toward an attractant along a
concentration gradient?

696. Chemotaxis

What is the term for the unidirectional attraction of cells toward a

chemical mediator released during inflammation?

697. CHF

What is the term for the heart's inability to maintain perfusion and
meet the metabolic demands of tissues and organs?

698. CHF, cirrhosis, and nephrosis

What are the three causes of transudate?

699. Chief cell adenoma (80%)

What is the leading cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?

700. Chief cells

What are the cells of the parathyroid gland that produce PTH?

701. Chief cells

What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach secretes

pepsinogen?

702. The chief cells of the parathyroid gland

release PTH in response to
hypocalcemia.

What cells of the parathyroid gland are simulated in response to

hypocalcemia?

703. Childhood

What stage of male development is characterized by the

following LH and testosterone levels? Both LH and
testosterone levels drop and remain low.

704. Chi-square.

What statistical method do you use when analyzing Crosssectional studies?

705. Chi-square (when you are in doubt

and have nominal data, use chisquare)

What statistical test, using nominal data only, checks whether

two variables are independent events?

706. Chlamydia

Name the most common reported STD. In females

707. Chlamydia; gonorrhea is second

(Remember, it is mandatory to report
STDs to the CDC.)

What is the most common disease or infection reported to the

CDC?

708. Chlamydia psittaci

Name the MCC. Pneumonia in a patient with atypical bird

exposure and hepatitis

709. Chlamydia trachomatis

Name the most common cause. Blindness worldwide

710. Chloral hydrate

Which sedative-hypnotic is contraindicated for patients taking

warfarin?

711.

Chloramphenicol

What bacteriostatic agent's side effect

profile includes grey baby syndrome and
aplastic anemia?

712. Chloramphenicol

Name the antimicrobial agent whose major

side effect is listed. Grey baby syndrome

713. Chlortetracycline

What tetracycline is associated with

hepatotoxicity?

714. Cholera toxin

What toxin ADP-ribosylates via Gs protein

to increase cAMP?

715. Cholera toxin irreversibly activates the cAMP-dependent

chloride pumps of the small and large intestine, producing a
large volume of chloride-rich diarrhea.

What is the site of action of cholera toxin?

716. Cholesterol biosynthesis

What pathway uses HMG CoA synthetase

in the cytoplasm?

717. Cholesterolosis

What condition results in a strawberry

gallbladder?

718. Chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate

What are the proteoglycans of cartilage

and bone?

719. Chordae tendineae

What attaches the cusps of the valves to

the papillary muscles in the heart?

720. Chorda tympani of CN VII

What nerve supplies taste sensation to the

anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

721. Choriocarcinoma

What is the most common one?

Malignant germ cell tumor in women

722. Choriocarcinomas and trophoblastic tumors

Name the cancer associated with the

following tumor markers. (Some may have
more than one answer.) Beta-hCG

723. Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla)

What cells of the adrenal gland are neural crest derivatives?

724. Chromium (Cr)

What mineral is associated with impaired glucose tolerance?

725. Chromomycosis

What fungus is seen as colored cauliflower lesions?

726. Chromophobe adenoma

What is the most common one? Pituitary tumor

727. Chromosome 1

Name the associated chromosome. Gaucher disease

728. Chromosome 3p

Name the associated chromosome. VON Hippel-Lindau disease

729. Chromosome 4p

Name the associated chromosome. Huntington disease

730. Chromosome 5

Cri-du-chat syndrome results in a terminal deletion of the short arm

of what chromosome?

731. Chromosome 5, 21

Name the associated chromosomal translocation. Adult familial

polyposis

732. Chromosome 5p

Name the associated chromosome. Cri-du-chat

733. Chromosome 5q21

On what chromosome is the adenomatous polyposis coli gene?

734. Chromosome 6

Which chromosome is associated with MHC genes?

735. Chromosome 7

Name the associated chromosome. Cystic fibrosis

736. Chromosome 8, 14

Name the associated chromosomal translocation. Burkitt

lymphoma

737. Chromosome 9, 22 (Philadelphia

chromosome)

Name the associated chromosomal translocation. CML

738. Chromosome 11, 22

Name the associated chromosomal translocation. Ewing sarcoma

739. Chromosome 11p

Name the associated chromosome. Niemann-Pick disease

740. Chromosome 11p

Name the associated chromosome. Albinism

741. Chromosome 12

Name the associated chromosome. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

(CLL)

742. Chromosome 13

Name the associated chromosome. Patau syndrome

743. Chromosome 14, 18

Name the associated chromosomal translocation. Follicular

lymphoma

744. Chromosome 15

Name the associated chromosome. Marfan disease

745. Chromosome 15

What chromosome is autism linked to?

746. Chromosome 15,

17

Name the associated chromosomal translocation. Acute promyelocytic leukemia

(M3)

747. Chromosome 15,

17

Name the associated chromosomal translocation. M3 AML

748. Chromosome
15q

Name the associated chromosome. Tay-Sachs disease

749. Chromosome 17

Name the associated chromosome. Neurofibromatosis type 1

750. Chromosome 18

Name the associated chromosome. Edward syndrome

751. Chromosome 19

Familial hypercholesteremia is due to a mutation in the LDL receptor gene. What

chromosome carries it?

752. Chromosome 19

Name the associated chromosome. Familial hypercholesterolemia

753. Chromosome
20q (deficiency
in adenosine
deaminase)

What chromosome is associated with the AR form of SCID?

754. Chromosome 21

Name the associated chromosome. Down syndrome

755. Chromosome
22q

Name the associated chromosome. Neurofibromatosis type 2

756. Chronic alcoholic

Mallory bodies

757. Chronic endstage renal

disease

Waxy casts

758. Chronic rejection

Based on the following information, is the renal transplantation rejection acute,

chronic, or hyperacute? Months to years after transplantation; gradual onset of HTN,
oliguria, and azotemia; seen as intimal fibrosis of the blood vessels and interstitial
lymphocytes

759. Churg-Strauss
syndrome

What variant of polyarteritis nodosa is associated with bronchial asthma, granulomas,

and eosinophilia?

760. Chylomicrons

Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics. apo E, apo C-II, apoB48

761. Cilia

What cell surface modification of ependymal cells and respiratory epithelium has a 9 +
2 microtubular configuration and movement as its function?

762. Ciliary ganglion

What ganglion supplies the postganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary

muscles of the eye?

763. Ciliary ganglion producing a tonic pupil

What ocular ganglion is affected if the pupil on the affected

side sluggishly responds to light with normal
accommodation?

764. Ciliary ganglion. (These fibers are carried

in CN III. Remember it like this:-ili-in
ciliary ganglion looks like the III of CN III.)

What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic

ganglion that innervates The papillary sphincter and ciliary
muscle of the eye?

765. Cingulate gyrus herniation (subfalcine)

Which cerebral herniation results in compression of the

anterior cerebral artery?

766. Circumvallate papillae

What papillae are responsible for sweet taste?

767. Cirrhosis

What disorder is associated with spider angiomas, palmar

erythema, gynecomastia, testicular atrophy, encephalopathy,
abnormalities in clotting factors, and portal HTN?

768. Cirrhosis and hemolytic anemia, which

are risk factors for pigmented gallstones.

Which of the following is not a risk factor for cholesterol

gallstones: pregnancy, OCP use, female gender, hemolytic
anemia, cirrhosis, and obesity? (May be more than one
answer.)

769. Citrate, via the citrate shuttle

As what compound do the carbons for fatty acid synthesis

leave the mitochondria?

770. Clarke's nucleus

What nucleus, found in the intermediate zone of the spinal

cord, sends unconscious proprioception to the cerebellum?

771. Class 1 (1A, 1B, and 1C)

Which class of antiarrhythmics blocks sodium channels?

772. Class II

Which class of antiarrhythmics are -blockers?

773. Class III

Which class of antiarrhythmics are potassium channel

blockers?

774. Class IV

Which class of antiarrhythmics are calcium channel blockers?

775. Clavicle, acromion, and glenoid fossa of

the scapula and the humerus

Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be specific.

Shoulder

776. Clearance

What is the term for drug removal per unit of time in a given
volume of blood?

777. Clearance

What term describes the volume of plasma

from which a substance is removed over
time?

778. Clear cell

What is the most common one? Renal cell

cancer type

779. Cleft lip

What results when the maxillary prominence

fails to fuse with the medial nasal
prominence?

780. Cleft palate

What results when the palatine prominences

fail to fuse with the other side?

781. Climbing fibers;, they are monosynaptic input on Purkinje

cells. Mossy fibers, also excitatory, are axons of all other
sources and synapse on granule cells.

What excitatory fibers arise from the inferior

olivary nuclei on the contralateral side of the
body?

782. Clindamycin

Which antimicrobial agent is used with

pyrimethamine to treat toxoplasmosis?

783. CLL (B-cell origin)

Which B-cell neoplasm has the following cell

surface markers: CD19, CD20, CD5 (T-cell
marker), CD23; and are CD10-negative?

784. Clofazimine

What is the drug of choice in the treatment of

the lepra reaction?

785. Clonidine

Which centrally acting 2-adrenergic agonist

is used in the treatment protocol of opioid
withdrawal?

786. Clonidine

Which drug is used to treat opioid withdrawal,

ADHD, and sometimes Tourette's syndrome?

787. Clonorchis sinensis

What parasitic infection is associated with

cholangiocarcinoma?

788. Clostridium botulinum

What bacterium found in poorly preserved

canned food causes flaccid paralysis?

789. Clostridium botulinum

What gram-positive spore-forming anaerobic rod blocks the

release of ACh at the NMJ, resulting in reversible flaccid
paralysis?

790. Clostridium botulinum

Which gram-positive bacteria infection of infancy is associated

with ingestion of honey?

791. Clostridium perfrigens

Gas gangrene is associated with which Clostridium species?

792. Clostridium perfringens

What organism is associated with the following types of

diarrhea? Watery diarrhea from beef, poultry, or gravies

793. Clostridium perfringens

What is the only nonmotile pathogenic Clostridium species?

794. Clostridium tetani

What large, spore-forming, gram-positive anaerobic rod is

associated with infections due to puncture wounds and trauma?

795. Closure of the aortic valve indicates

the termination of the ejection phase
and the beginning of the isovolumetric
relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle.

The closure of what valve indicates the beginning of the

isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle?

796. Clozapine

What neuroleptic agent causes agranulocytosis but does not

induce tardive dyskinesia?

797. Clozapine

What is the only neuroleptic agent that does not cause

hyperprolactinemia?

798. CML

What leukemia is characterized by Philadelphia chromosomal

translocation (9;22); massive splenomegaly; peripheral
leukocytosis (commonly > 100, 00); decreased LAP levels; and
nonspecific symptoms of fatigue, malaise, weight loss, and
anorexia?

799. CML and ALL

Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes.

(Some may have more than one answer) abl

800. CMV; remember, EBV is associated

with heterophile-positive
mononucleosis.

What DNA virus is associated with heterophile-negative

mononucleosis?

801. CMV retinitis and HSV-2

What are the two most common viral infections in HIV?

802. CMV; Toxoplasma also causes intracerebral

calcifications but it is a parasite.

What viral infection is known to cause intracerebral

calcifications?

803. CMV, Toxoplasma gondii, and Listeria

Which three organisms cause heterophilic negative

mononucleosis?

804. CN I

Name the structure that enters or exits the following

foramina: Cribriform plate

805. CN II and ophthalmic artery

Name the structure that enters or exits the following

foramina: Optic canal

806. CN III

With which CN are preganglionic parasympathetic

axons arising from the Edinger- Westphal nucleus
associated?

807. CN III and IV

What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in The

midbrain?

808. CN III and IV

What CNs arise from The midbrain?

809. CN I, II, III, VI, and XII Add 1 + 1 = 2, 1 + 2 = 3,

1 + 2 + 3 = 6, 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 12

Which CNs are found in the midline of the brainstem?

810. CN III, IV, and VI

What three CNs are associated with conjugate eye

movements?

811.

What CNs are responsible for the sensor and motor

components of the light reflex?

CN II is the sensory limb and CN III is the motor

component through parasympathetic
stimulation.

812. CN III, VII, IX, and X

What four CN carry preganglionic parasympathetic

fibers?

813. CN IV

What is the only CN to arise from the dorsal surface of

the midbrain?

814. CN IX

What CN is associated with the Third pharyngeal

arch?

815. CN IX and X

What two CNs are responsible for the carotid body and
sinus reflexes?

816. CN IX, X, and XII

What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in The

upper medulla?

817. CN IX, X, and XII CN XI arises from the cervical

spinal cord.

What CNs arise from The medulla?

818. CN IX, X, and XI; sigmoid sinus

Name the structure that enters or exits the

following foramina: Jugular foramen

819. CN V

What CN is associated with the First

pharyngeal arch?

820. CN V

What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in

The upper pons?

821. CN V1 carries the sensory and CN VII carries the motor

component of the blink reflex.

What nerves carry the sensory and motor

components of the blink reflex?

822. CN V1, the occulomotor division of the trigeminal nerve,

is the sensory component of the corneal reflex.

What CN transmits sensory information from

the cornea?

823. CN V2

Name the structure that enters or exits the

following foramina: Foramen rotundum

824. CN V3 and the lesser petrosal nerve

Name the structure that enters or exits the

following foramina: Foramen ovale

825. CN VII

What CN is associated with the Second

pharyngeal arch?

826. CN VII

Name the structure that enters or exits the

following foramina: Stylomastoid foramen

827. CN VII and VIII

Name the structure that enters or exits the

following foramina: Internal auditory meatus

828. CN VII, IX, and X; taste and general sensation for the
tongue is sent to the solitary nucleus.

Which three CNs send sensory information to

the solitary nucleus?

829. CN VI, VII, and VIII

What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in

Pontomedullary junction?

830. CN V, VI, VII, and VIII

What CNs arise from The pons?

831. CN X

What CN is associated with the Sixth

pharyngeal arch?

832. CN X

What CN is associated with the Fourth

pharyngeal arch?

833. CN XI and X

What nerve or nerves supply general sensation

and taste to the posterior third of the tongue?

834. CN XII

Name the structure that enters or exits the

following foramina: Hypoglossal canal

835. CN XI, vertebral arteries

Name the structure that enters or exits the

following foramina: Foramen magnum

836. CN X (Remember, the vagus nerve supplies the

parasympathetic information from the tip of the pharynx
to the end of the midgut and all between.)

What CN carries preganglionic

parasympathetic fibers that innervate the
viscera of the neck, thorax, foregut, and
midgut?

837. CO

Cherry red intoxication is associated with what

form of poisoning?

838. Coagulative

What is the most common one? Form of

necrosis

839. Coagulative necrosis

Name the type of necrosis. The most common

form of necrosis; denatured and coagulated
proteins in the cytoplasm

840. Coarctation of the aorta

What is the most common one? Cardiac

anomaly in Turner syndrome

841. Cocaine

What is the only local anesthetic to produce

vasoconstriction?

842. Cocaine

What illegal drug can cause rhabdomyolysis,

MI, cerebral infarct, and lethal cardiac
arrhythmias?

843. Coccidioides immitis

Which dimorphic fungus is found as

Arthroconidia in desert sand of the
southwestern United States (e.g., San Joaquin
Valley)?

844. The coding strand is

identical to mRNA, and the
template strand is
complementary and
antiparallel.

Is the coding or the template strand of DNA identical to mRNA (excluding

the T/U difference)?

845. Cohort studies determine

incidence and causality, not
prevalence.

Can incidence, prevalence, and cause and effect be assessed in Cohort

studies?

846. Collecting ducts, which

make them readily
permeable to water
reabsorption.

What area of the nephron is sensitive to the effects of ADH?

847. Coma, convulsions, and

cardiotoxicity

What are the three C's of a TCAD overdose?

848. Combined metabolic and

respiratory acidosis

If the pH is low with increased CO2 levels and decreased HCO3- levels,
what is the acid-base disturbance?

849. Common peroneal nerve

What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? Loss
of eversion; inversion, dorsiflexion, and plantarflexion of the foot

850. Common peroneal nerve

Fracture of the fibular neck, resulting in foot drop, is an injury of what

nerve?

851. Competitive antagonist

Is the following description characteristic of competitive or noncompetitive

antagonists: parallel shift to the right on a dose-response curve, complete
reversibility with increase of the dose of the agonist drug, and capacity to
decrease the potency of the agonist drug?

852. Complex 4

What complex of the ETC contains Cu2+?

853. Complex I

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? Barbiturates

854. Complex I

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? Rotenone

855. Compliance; the more compliant a

lung is, the easier it is to inflate.

What term is an index of the effort needed to expand the lungs

(i.e., overcomes recoil)?

856. Compliance (think of it as

distensibility)

What is the term to describe how easily a vessel stretches?

857. Compulsions. They are actions done

to fix the bad thoughts. Obsessions
are the thoughts.

What is the term for repetitive actions blocking recurring bad

thoughts?

858. Concentration force and electrical

force

What two forces affect movement of ions across a membrane?

859. The concentration of plasma proteins

determines effective osmolarity
because capillary membranes are
freely permeable to all substances
except proteins.

What determines the effective osmolarity of the ICF and the ECF
compartments?

860. Concrete operations (6-12 years)

At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do

children See death as irreversible?

861. Conduction aphasia

Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: Lesion is in

the parietal lobe or arcuate fibers because the connection
between Broca's and Wernicke's area is severed; word
comprehension preserved; inability to write or speak the
statement (can't tell you what you said)

862. Cones (C for color and cones)

What cells of the retina sees in color and needs bright light to be
activated?

863. Confabulation; it is commonly seen in

Korsakoff's syndrome.

What is the term for making up stories regarding past experiences

because of an inability to retrieve them?

864. Confidence interval. It is a way of

admitting estimation for the
population.

What specifies how accurately the sample values and the true
values of the population lie within a given range?

865. Confounding bias

When more than one explanation can account for the end result,
what form of bias occurs?

866. Congenital heart disease

Name the most common type or cause. Childhood heart disease

in the United States

867. Conidia

What type of spore is asexual and formed of hyphae?

868. Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia

What type of jaundice is seen in Rotor's syndrome?

869. Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia, a

transport defect

What type of jaundice is seen in Dubin-Johnson

syndrome?

870. Conn syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)

What syndrome that is due to an adrenal gland

adenoma produces excess aldosterone resulting in
HTN, hypokalemia, and low rennin levels?

871. Constipation and miosis

What are the two side effects of opioids to which the

user will not develop tolerance?

872. Constriction of afferent arteriole

What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the

following changes in the GFR, RPF, FF, and
glomerular capillary pressure? GFR , RPF , FF
normal, capillary pressure

873. Constriction of efferent arteriole

What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the

following changes in the GFR, RPF, FF, and
glomerular capillary pressure? GFR , RPF , FF ,
capillary pressure

874. Constrictor pupillae and ciliary muscles

Which muscles of the eye are under parasympathetic

control?

875. Contralateral loss below and bilateral loss at the

level of the lesion

Describe the loss for each of the following in a

hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown-Sequard
syndrome) Spinothalamic tract?

876. Contralateral muscle weakness when above the

decussation, whereas an UMN injury below the
pyramidal decussation results in ipsilateral
muscle weakness.

What sided muscle weakness is seen in an UMN

corticospinal tract injury above the pyramidal
decussation?

877. Contralateral. The spinothalamic tract enters the spinal

cord and immediately synapses in the dorsal horn, crosses
over, and ascends contralateral in the spinal cord,
brainstem, thalamus, and postcentral gyrus.

Will a unilateral lesion in the spinothalamic

tract result in a contralateral or ipsilateral
loss of pain and temperature?

878. Conus arteriosus of the right ventricle and right and left
auricles

What part of the heart forms Superior

border?

879. The conus medullaris terminates at the level of the second

lumbar vertebra.

In an adult, where does the spinal cord

terminate and what is it called?

880. Convergence

Contracting both medial rectus muscles

simultaneously makes the images of near
objects remain on the same part of the
retina. What term describes this process?

881. Conversion disorder

What somatoform disorder is described as

La belle indiffrence, suggestive of true
physical ailment because of alteration of
function?

882. The conversion of CHO to pregnenolone via the enzyme

desmolase

What is the rate-limiting step in the

production of steroids?

883. The conversion of tyrosine to dopamine in the cytoplasm

What is the rate-limiting step in the synthetic

pathway of NE at the adrenergic nerve
terminal?

884. Coombs test

What test is used to detect anti-RBC Abs

seen in hemolytic anemia?

885. Copper

Leukopenia, neutropenia, and mental

deterioration are signs of what mineral
deficiency?

886. Copper

What mineral is a component of cytochrome

a/a3?

887. Copper (Cu+)

What element is needed for the proper

alignment of tropocollagen molecules?

888. Copper deficiency

What mineral deficiency involves blood vessel fragility?

889. Coprophilia

What paraphilia is defined as Combining sex with

defecation?

890. Cori cycle

What cycle is responsible for converting to glucose in the

liver the lactate produced in the RBCs?

891. Coronary circulation

Where are the lowest resting PO2 levels in a resting

individual?

892. Coronavirus

Name the most common cause. A cold in the winter and

summer

893. Correlation. No, correlation does not imply

causation.

What is the degree to which two measures are related?

Does it imply causation?

894. Corticospinal tract

What tract is responsible for voluntary refined

movements of distal extremities?

895. Corticosteroid

What is the DOC for the treatment of the late phase

response in an asthmatic attack?

896. Cortisol, a 21-carbon steroid, has a -OH

group at position 17.

What is the only 17-hydroxysteroid with hormonal

activity?

897. Cortisol levels increase. Lymphocyte levels

decrease in sleep-deprived individuals.

What happens to cortisol levels in sleep-deprived

individuals?

898. Cortisol Remember, from the outer cortex to

the inner layer, Salt, Sugar, Sex. The adrenal
cortex gets sweeter as you go deeper.

What is the major hormone produced in the following

areas of the adrenal cortex? Zona fasciculata

899. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

What non-spore-forming gram-positive aerobic rod

produces bull neck, sore throat with pseudomembranes,
myocarditis, and sometimes respiratory obstructions?

900. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment

production? Black-gray pigmentation

901. The courts. These are legal, not medical

terms.

Who decides competency and sanity?

902. Courvoisier's law

What law states that an enlarged, palpable

gallbladder is more likely due to cancer than stone
obstruction?

903. Coxiella burnetii

What organism causes Q fever?

904. Coxiella burnetii

What is the only Rickettsia that is stable in the

environment?

905. Coxsackie A

What picornavirus is associated with hand-footand-mouth disease?

906. Coxsackie B

What is the most common one? Viral cause of

myocarditis

907. C-peptide levels

What serves as a marker of endogenous insulin

secretion?

908. Craniopharyngioma

What CNS tumor arises from Rathke's pouch?

909. Creatinine

Serum concentration of what substance is used as

a clinical measure of a patient's GFR?

910. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

What prion-associated CNS pathology produces

rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus,
involuntary movements, and death within 6 to 12
months?

911.

What form of dementia is characterized by onset at

age 40 to 50, rapid progression, infection by a
prion, and death within 2 years?

Creutzfeldt-Jakob's disease. Patients first develop

vague somatic complaints and anxiety, rapidly
followed by dysarthria, myoclonus, ataxia, and
choreoathetosis.

912. Cricothyroid muscle; all other laryngeal muscles are

innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

What is the only laryngeal muscle innervated by

the external laryngeal nerve?

913. Cricothyroid muscles

Name the laryngeal muscle described by the

following: Tenses the vocal ligaments, increasing
the distance between the cartilages, thereby
increasing the pitch

914. Crigler-Najjar syndrome

In what disease is there a genetic absence of UDP-glucuronate transferase,

resulting in an increase in free unconjugated bilirubin?

915. Criterion-referenced
tests. You need a
certain number correct
to pass (e.g., the
USMLE).

Objective tests that base the result of the examination on a preset standard use
what form of reference?

916. Crohn disease

What transmural inflammatory bowel disease can be found from the mouth to
anus, has noncaseating granulomas, is discontinuous (skip lesions), and has a
cobblestone appearance, thickening of the bowel wall, linear fissures, and
aphthous ulcers with normal mucosa between?

917. Crohn disease

What GI pathology is associated with a positive string sign, an increase in the

number of bloody stools, RLQ pain, skip lesions, terminal ileum most
commonly affected, occurrence in women more than men, and an increased
thickness of the bowel?

918. Crossover study

In what study, for ethical reasons, is no group left out of intervention?

919. Cross-sectional studies

determine prevalence,
not incidence or cause
and effect.

Can incidence, prevalence, and cause and effect be assessed in Crosssectional studies?

920. Crude mortality rate

What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths In the

population?

921. Cryptococcus

What is the MCC of the following meningitides? In patients who have AIDS or
are immunocompromised

922. Cryptococcus

What is the only encapsulated fungal pathogen?

923. Cryptococcus

What fungus is urease positive?

924. Cryptococcus
neoformans

Which encapsulated fungus is found in soil enriched with pigeon droppings?

925. Cryptococcus
neoformans

What fungus is characterized by India ink staining of the CSF that produces
colorless cells with a halo on a black background?

926. Cryptorchidism; normally the testes descend into the scrotum within
3 months of birth.

What is the term for failure of the

testes to descend into the scrotum?

927. CSF H+ levels, with acidosis being the main central drive, resulting
in hyperventilation (the opposite being true with alkalosis)

What is the central

chemoreceptor's main drive for
ventilation?

928. The cupola of the lung is posterior to the subclavian artery and vein.
It is the reason one must be cautious when performing subclavian
venipuncture.

Where is the cupola of the lung in

relation to the subclavian artery
and vein?

929. Curling ulcers (think curling iron = burn)

What is the term for gastric ulcers

associated with severely burned or
traumatic patients?

930. Cushing's disease (pituitary) has elevated ACTH and cortisol

suppression with dexamethasone, whereas Cushing's syndrome
(adrenal adenoma) has decreased ACTH and no cortisol
suppression with dexamethasone.

Does Cushing syndrome or

Cushing disease have elevated
ACTH levels and cortisol
suppression with dexamethasone?

931. Cushing's ulcers

What is the term for gastric ulcers

associated with increased
intracranial pressure?

932. Cut down (ever tried and failed?) Annoyed (criticism makes angry?)
Guilty (about drinking behavior?) Eye opener (drinking to shake out
the cobwebs?)

What are the CAGE questions?

933. C wave

What wave is the cause of the

following venous pulse deflections?
The bulging of the tricuspid valve
into the right atrium

934. Cyanide

What form of poisoning is

associated with bitter almondscented breath?

935. Cyanocobalamin (B12)

What vitamin requires IF for

absorption?

936. Cyanocobalamin (B12)

deficiency (Folic acid
deficiency has only
homocystinuria as a sign.)

What vitamin deficiency produces homocystinuria and methylmalonic

aciduria?

937. Cyclothymia (nonpsychotic

bipolar). Patients are ego
syntonic.

What disorder is characterized by an alternating pattern of depressed

mood with periods of hypomania for more than 2 years?

938. Cyproheptadine

What antihistamine is used in the treatment of serotonergic crisis?

939. Cystadenocarcinoma

What is the most common one? Malignant carcinoma of the ovaries

940. Cystadenocarcinoma

What ovarian carcinoma is characterized by psammoma bodies?

941. Cystadenoma

What is the most common one? Benign ovarian tumor

942. Cysticerci

What is the term for cestode-encysted larvae found in intermediate hosts?

943. Cystic fibrosis

What is the most common lethal AR disorder affecting white Americans?

944. Cystic fibrosis. (Parents are

usually the first to find out
because the baby tastes
salty.)

What AR disease involves a defect in AA 508 on chromosome 7, causing

a defect in Cl- transportation that leads to recurrent pulmonary infections
and an increase in viscid mucoid secretions along with pancreatic
insufficiencies?

945. Cytochrome a/a3

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? Azide

946. Cytochrome a/a3

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? CO

947. Cytochrome a/a3

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? Cyanide

948. Cytochrome b/c1

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? Antimycin A

949. Cytochrome c

What is released from the mitochondria to trigger apoptosis?

950. Cytokine. If a cytokine

affects another class of
leukocytes, it is called an
interleukin.

What is the term for a substance secreted by a leukocyte in response to a

stimulus?

951. Cytosine

What pyrimidine base is found In both DNA and RNA?

952. D1 receptor; inhibition of the direct pathway occurs

through the D2 receptors.

Which dopamine receptor excites the direct

pathway of the basal ganglia?

953. D2 and 5HT3 receptors

What two receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger

zone lead to vomiting when stimulated?

954. Dantrolene

Which antispasmodic blocks the release of Ca

2+from the SR and is used in the treatment of
malignant hyperthermia?

955. Dapsone

Which bacteriostatic drug whose major side

effect is the lepra reaction inhibits folic acid
synthesis?

956. Day 14

What day of the menstrual cycle does ovulation

take place?

957. The DCML system. (Remember, everything but pain

and temperature.)

What ascending sensory system carries joint

position, vibratory and pressure sensation, and
discriminative touch from the trunk and limbs?

958. The death of a spouse. The higher the score, the

greater the risk of developing an illness in the next 6
months.

What is the most stressful event as determined

by the Holmes and Rahe scale?

959. Decrease (5-HT and dopamine levels do the same)

What happens to NE levels in Major

depression?

960. Decreased pulmonary arterial pressure (low

perfusion) and less-distensible vessels (high
resistance) result in decreased blood flow at the apex.

What two factors result in the apex of the lung

being hypoperfused?

961. Decreased REM sleep and REM rebound during

withdrawal

How is sleep affected in a person with alcohol

intoxication?

962. A decrease in Ca2+ and an increase in PO4-

What two factors cause PTH to be secreted?

963. A decrease in cutaneous blood flow results from

constriction of the arterioles, and decreased
cutaneous blood volume results from constriction of
the venous plexus.

How does sympathetic stimulation to the skin

result in decreased blood flow and decreased
blood volume? (Hint: what vessels are
stimulated, and how?)

964. Decrease in surface area and increase in membrane thickness

(Palv O2 > PaO2)

What are two causes of diffusion

impairment in the lungs?

965. Decreases

With a decrease in arterial

diastolic pressure, what happens
to Stroke volume?

966. Decreases

With a decrease in arterial

diastolic pressure, what happens
to Heart rate?

967. Decreases

With a decrease in arterial

diastolic pressure, what happens
to TPR?

968. Decreases

With an increase in arterial systolic

pressure, what happens to
Vessel compliance?

969. Decreases

With an increase in arterial systolic

pressure, what happens to Heart
rate?

970. Decreases Remember, the carotid sinus reflex attempts to

compensate by increasing both TPR and heart rate.

When a person goes from supine

to standing, what happens to the
following? Cardiac output

971. Decreases Remember, the carotid sinus reflex attempts to

compensate by increasing both TPR and heart rate. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------

When a person goes from supine

to standing, what happens to the
following? BP

972. Decreasing potassium conductance, which results in increased

excitability

What triggers phase 4 of the action

potential in a ventricular
pacemaker cell?

973. The deepest sleep levels (stage 3 and 4) occur mostly in the first
half of sleep.

When does most of the NREM

sleep (stage 3 and 4) occur, in the
first or second half of sleep?

974. Deferoxamine, penicillamine

Name the antidote. Iron

975. Deficiency in surfactant

What protein deficiency results in respiratory distress

syndrome of newborns?

976. delta-Cells; somatostatin has an inhibitory

effect on alpha- and Beta-islet cells.

What pancreatic islet cell secretes somatostatin?

977. Deltoid

What muscle acts in all ranges of motion of the arm?

978. Demeclocycline

Which tetracycline is used in the treatment of SIADH?

979. Dementia Urinary incontinence Gait apraxia

(NPH wet, wacky, wobbly)

What is the triad of NPH?

980. Dendrites receive information, whereas axons

send information.

What part of a neuron receives information?

981. Dendritic cells, macrophages, and thymic

epithelial cells

What three cells are essential for T-cell differentiation in

the thymus?

982. Denial

Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: Not

allowing reality to penetrate because afraid of becoming
aware of painful aspect of reality.

983. Denial Anger Bargaining Depression

Acceptance No, they can be skipped,
repeated, and completed out of sequence.

What are the five Kbler-Ross stages of death and

dying? Must they be completed in order?

984. The dentate nucleus

What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell

projections in The intermediate hemispheres?

985. Dependent

Name the cluster C personality disorder: Gets others

to assume responsibility, is subordinate, and is fearful of
being alone and caring for self

986. Depolarization (i.e., Na+ influx)

What is the term for the negative resting membrane

potential moving toward threshold?

987. Depolarization is from apex to base and from

endocardium to epicardium.

How does ventricular depolarization take place, base to

apex or vice versa?

988. Depression

Name the most common cause. Insomnia

989. de Quervain thyroiditis

What thyroiditis presents as a tender, enlarged,

firm thyroid gland, usually preceded by an
upper respiratory viral illness?

990. Desipramine

What TCAD causes sudden cardiac death in

children?

991. DHEA (androgens) Remember, from the outer cortex to

the inner layer, Salt, Sugar, Sex. The adrenal cortex
gets sweeter as you go deeper.

What is the major hormone produced in the

following areas of the adrenal cortex? Zona
reticularis

992. Diabetes mellitus

Name the most common cause. Blindness in

the United States

993. Diacylglycerols and phosphatidic acid

From which two substances are phospholipids

made?

994. Diastole. During systole the left ventricle contracts,

resulting in intramyocardial vessel compression and
therefore very little blood flow in the coronary
circulation.

Is most of the coronary artery blood flow during

systole or diastole?

995. Diazepam is longest acting and midazolam is shortest

acting.

What are the longest-acting and shortestacting benzodiazepines?

996. Diazoxide

Which direct-acting vasodilator is used

clinically to treat hypertensive emergencies,
insulinomas, and as a uterine smooth muscle
relaxant?

997. Diethylcarbamazine

What is the drug of choice for filariasis and

onchocerciasis?

998. Diffuse proliferative GN

What is the most common one? Renal

pathology in patients with SLE

999. Diffusion rate is indirectly proportional to membrane

thickness and is directly proportional to membranes
surface area.

To what is the diffusion rate indirectly

proportional?

1000.

DiGeorge's syndrome

What immunologic syndrome is due to a

pharyngeal pouch 3 and 4 failure?

1001.

DiGeorge syndrome

What syndrome is characterized by

embryologic failure of the third and fourth
pharyngeal pouches resulting in
hypocalcemia, tetany, and T-cell
deficiency?

1002.

DiGeorge syndrome, which is due to a failure of the third

and fourth pharyngeal pouch development. Remember, B
cell deficiencies are associated with extracellular infection.
T cell deficiencies are associated with intracellular
infections

What T cell deficiency syndrome is

associated with facial anomalies,
hypoparathyroidism, thymic hypoplasia,
and recurrent viral and fungal infections?

1003.

Digoxin is renally eliminated; digitoxin is hepatically

eliminated.

Is digoxin or digitoxin renally eliminated?

1004.

Dihydrofolate reductase

What enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis is

inhibited by the following? Methotrexate

1005.

Dihydrofolate reductase

What enzyme is blocked by methotrexate/

trimethoprim?

1006.

Dihydrofolate reductase

What enzyme is inhibited by trimethoprim?

1007.

Dihydropteroate synthetase

What enzyme is inhibited by

sulfonamides?

1008.

Dihydrotestosterone

What is the most potent male sex

hormone?

1009.

Dilation of afferent arteriole

What has occurred to the renal arterioles

based on the following changes in the
GFR, RPF, FF, and glomerular capillary
pressure? GFR , RPF , FF normal,
capillary pressure

1010.

Dilation of efferent arteriole

What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the

following changes in the GFR, RPF, FF, and glomerular
capillary pressure? GFR , RPF , FF , capillary pressure

1011.

Dilation of the internal mammary

arteries results in erosions on the inner
surface of the ribs and is seen as
notching.

Notching of the ribs, seen on chest radiograph in patients with

postductal coarctation of the aorta, is due to collateralization of
what arteries?

1012.

Dilator pupillae muscle

Which muscle of the eye is under sympathetic control?

1013.

Dimercaprol

Name the antidote. Gold

1014.

Dimercaprol, D-penicillamine

Name the antidote. Arsenic

1015.

Dimercaprol, penicillamine

Name the antidote. Mercury

1016.

Dimorphic

What is the term for fungi that can convert from hyphal to
yeast forms?

1017.

Diphenhydramine

What agent is used IM to treat acute dystonias?

1018.

Diphyllobothrium latum

What parasite found in raw fish can produce vitamin B12

deficiency?

1019.

Diphyllobothrium latum

What organism is associated with megaloblastic anemia?

1020.

Direct; in males less than 50 years old

indirect hernias are the most common
type.

What is the most common one? Type of hernia seen in

males more than 50 years old

1021.

Direct pathway; a good example is

Parkinson's disease.

In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result in an

underactive cortex with hypokinetic, slow, or absent
spontaneous movement?

1022.

Disorganized schizophrenia

What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by Childlike

behaviors, unorganized speech and behaviors, poor
grooming, incongruous smiling and laughter, and the worst
prognosis?

1023.

Displacement

Use of an outlet for emotions (stuff flows downhill).

1024.

Dissecting aortic aneurysm. MI is also

high on the list, but these are buzzwords
to look for dissection.

A marfanoid patient presents with tearing retrosternal chest

pain radiating to her back. What is your first diagnosis?

1025.

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

(DIC)

What disorder is associated with decreased platelet count,

prolonged PT and PTT, decreased fibrinogen, and increased
fibrin split products (D-dimers)?

1026.

Dissociation

Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: Separating

oneself from the experience. The facts are accepted but the
form is changed for protection.

1027.

Dissociative fugue. (Patients are

unaware of memory loss.)

What is the term to describe inability to recall the past and

possible assumption of a completely new identity?

1028.

Distal convoluted tubules

What is the site of action of the following? Aldosterone

antagonists

1029.

Disulfiram

What drug is used to prevent alcohol consumption by

blocking aldehyde dehydrogenase?

1030.

Diverticulosis

Name the most common type or cause. Rectal bleeding

1031.

DLCO, an index of lung surface area and membrane thickness, is

decreased in fibrosis because of increased membrane thickness and
decreased in emphysema because of increased surface area without
increase in capillary recruitment; in exercise there is an increase in surface
area due to capillary recruitment.

Why does carbon

monoxide diffusion in the
lung (DLCO) decrease in
emphysema and fibrosis
but increase during
exercise?

1032.

DM, hypercholesterolemia, smoking, and HTN are major risk factors.

Being male, obesity, sedentary lifestyle, homocysteine elevation, oral
contraceptive pills, and genetics are minor risk factors for atherosclerosis.

Name four major risk

factors for atherosclerosis.

1033.

DNA ligase

What protein catalyzes the

formation of the last PDE
bond between the Okazaki
fragments to produce a
continuous strand?

1034.

DNA polymerase I

What enzyme has a 5' to 3'

synthesis of the Okazaki
fragments, 3' exonuclease
activity, and 5'
exonuclease activity?

1035.

DNA polymerase-

Name the eukaryotic DNA

polymerase based on the
following information:
Synthesizes the lagging
strand during replication

1036.

DNA polymerase-

Name the eukaryotic DNA polymerase based on the following information:

Replicates mitochondrial DNA

1037.

DNA polymerase-

Name the eukaryotic DNA polymerase based on the following information:

Synthesizes the leading strand during replication

1038.

Dominant parietal lobe

(Gerstmann's
syndrome)

Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects,
symptoms, and results of the lesion. Agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, rightleft disorientation

1039.

Dominant temporal
lobe

Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects,
symptoms, and results of the lesion. Euphoria, delusions, thought disorders,
Wernicke's aphasia, auditory hallucinations (Hint: the lesion is in the left
hemisphere)

1040.

Dopamine is converted
into NE in the vesicle
via the enzyme
dopamine-Betahydroxylase.

In an adrenergic nerve terminal, where is dopamine converted to NE? By what

enzyme?

1041.

Dopamine levels rise

with waking; dopamine
is associated with
wakefulness.

What happens to dopamine levels when we awaken?

1042.

Dorsal motor nucleus

of CN X

What parasympathetic nucleus is found on the floor of the fourth ventricle and
supplies preganglionic fibers innervating the terminal ganglias of the thorax,
foregut, and midgut?

1043.

Dorsal prefrontal
cortex

Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects,
symptoms, and results of the lesion. Apathy, poor grooming, poor ability to
think abstractly, decreased drive, poor attention span (Hint: if the lesion is in the
dominant hemisphere, the patient will develop Broca's aphasia)

1044.

Dorsal spinocerebellar tract; the

accessory cuneate nucleus is the second
nucleus for the cuneocerebellar tract.

Clarke's nucleus is the second ascending sensory neuron

of which spinocerebellar tract?

1045.

The dose of glipizide must be decreased

in hepatic dysfunction. Glyburide's dose
must be decreased in renal dysfunction.

The dose of which second-generation sulfonylurea agent

must be decreased for patients with hepatic dysfunction?

1046.

Double-blind study. It is the most

scientifically rigorous study known.

What type of random controlled test is least subjective to

bias?

1047.

Down syndrome

What is the most common chromosomal disorder?

1048.

Down syndrome

What is the MCC of inherited mental retardation?

1049.

Down syndrome (it is slightly more

common than fragile X syndrome.)

What is the most common genetic cause of mental

retardation?

1050.

Down syndrome (trisomy 21)

Name the most common one. Chromosomal disorder

1051.

Down syndrome (trisomy 21)

What disease that involves mental retardation, flat face,

muscle hypotonia, and a double-bubble sign on radiograph
poses an increased risk of Alzheimer's disease and ALL?

1052.

Doxacurium

What is the most potent NMJ blocker and also has no

cardiovascular side effects?

1053.

Doxycycline

Which tetracycline is used to treat prostatitis because it

concentrates strongly in prostatic fluid?

1054.

Doxycycline and minocycline

Which two tetracyclines have the highest plasma binding?

1055.

D-Penicillamine

Name the antidote. Copper

1056.

d-Tubocurarine

Which nicotinic receptor antagonist causes hypotension

and is associated with malignant hyperthermia?

1057.

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Calf pseudohypertrophy

1058.

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

What disease is seen in children younger than 5 years of age

and is characterized by X-linked recessive cardiac
myopathies, calf pseudohypertrophy, lordosis, protuberant
belly, an increase then a decrease in CPK, and death
commonly in the second decade of life?

1059.

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

What is the most common one? Form of muscular dystrophy

1060.

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

(Remember, Becker's is slower in
progress, less severe, later in onset,
and lacks cardiac involvement.)

What X-linked recessive disorder that is due to an abnormality

in the dystrophin gene, has onset by age 5 with progressive
proximal muscle weakness, calf pseudohypertrophy, and
elevated CPK levels?

1061.

Duct cells secrete HCO3-, electrolytes,

and water. The acini secrete the
enzymes necessary for carbohydrate,
nucleic acid, protein cleavage, and
emulsification of fats.

Do the duct or the acini cells of the pancreas secrete HCO3-?

1062.

Ductus epididymis, which is lined by

pseudostratified epithelium with
stereocilia.

Where do sperm go for maturation?

1063.

Duodenal atresia

What is the name for failed recanalization of the duodenum

resulting in polyhydramnios, bile-containing vomitus, and a
distended stomach?

1064.

Duodenal ulcer

What type of PUD is classically described by the onset of

burning epigastric pain 1 to 3 hours after eating that is
relieved by food?

1065.

Duodenal ulcers (4 times as common

as gastric)

What is the most common one? Type of PUD

1066.

Duodenum

In what area of the GI tract are water-soluble vitamins

absorbed?

1067.

Duodenum

In what area of the GI tract does iron get absorbed?

1068.

Duodenum

What segment of the small intestine is associated with

Brunner's glands?

1069.

. Duodenum (all but the first part) 2. Ascending Colon 3.

Ureters 4. Pancreas 5. Supra renal glands (adrenals) 6.
Descending colon 7. Aorta 8. Kidneys 9. Rectum 10. IVC D
CUPS DAKRI is the mnemonic, everything else is covered
with peritoneum

Name the 10 retroperitoneal organs.

1070.

During a lumbar puncture the needle passes through the

interlaminar space in the midline of L3-L4, with the tip of the
iliac crest in the flexed position as the landmark. Order of
puncture: 1. Skin 2. Superficial fascia 3. Deep fascia 4.
Supraspinous ligament 5. Interspinous ligament 6. Interlaminar
space 7. Epidural space 8. Dura mater 9. Arachnoid mater 10.
Subarachnoid space. (They ask this in some variation every
year, so know it.)

Arrange the following layers in the

correct sequence through which a
needle must pass in a lumbar
puncture. Skin Subarachnoid space
Interspinous ligament Dura mater
Deep fascia Epidural space
Superficial fascia Interlaminar space
Supraspinous ligament Arachnoid
mater

1071.

During REM sleep

In what stage of sleep is it easiest to

arouse a sleeping individual?

1072.

During stage 3 and 4 (remember, it is called deep sleep.)

In what stage of sleep is it hardest to

arouse a sleeping individual?

1073.

Dynorphin

What is the neurotransmitter at the Kreceptor?

1074.

Dysgerminoma

What is the most common one?

Germ cell tumor of the ovary

1075.

Dyslexia

Name the most common type.

Learning disability

1076.

Dysmetria; this is seen in a finger-to-nose test.

What is the name for inability to stop a

movement at the intended target?

1077.

Dyspareunia. It is a common complaint in women who have

been raped or sexually abused.

What is the term for recurrent and

persistent pain before, after, or during
sexual intercourse?

1078.

Dysplasia

What is the term for nonneoplastic abnormal

proliferation of cell size, shape, and cellular
organization?

1079.

Dysthymia, which is also known as nonpsychotic

depression. (Think of it as the car running but not
well.)

What disorder is characterized by a depressed

mood and a loss of interest or pleasure for more
than 2 years?

1080.

Dystrophic calcification

What is the term for precipitation of calcium

phosphate in dying or necrotic tissue?

1081.

Ea (activation energy)

What is the only factor of enzyme kinetics that the

enzyme affects?

1082.

Early collecting duct

What is the site of action of the following? K+sparing diuretics

1083.

Early distal tubule

What is the site of action of the following?

Thiazide diuretics

1084.

Eaton-Lambert syndrome

What syndrome is due to Abs directed to calcium

channels and causes muscle weakness that
improves with repeated use?

1085.

EBV

What virus is associated with both nasopharyngeal

carcinoma and Burkitt lymphoma?

1086.

EBV

With what virus are Downey type II cells

associated?

1087.

EBV

What virus is associated with the endemic form of

Burkitt lymphoma?

1088.

EBV infections resulting in infectious

mononucleosis can be diagnosed by the
Monospot test. (Remember, it may be negative in
the first week of the illness, so retest if you have a
high index of suspicion.)

A 20-year-old college student has fever, grey-white

membranes over the tonsils, posterior auricular
lymphadenitis, and hepatosplenomegaly. What is
your diagnosis? What test do you order to confirm
your diagnosis?

1089.

The ECF compartment always enlarges when there is a net gain

in total body water and decreases when there is a loss of total
body water. Hydration status is named in terms of the ECF
compartment.

What happens to extracellular

volume with a net gain in body fluid?

1090.

Echinococcus multilocularis

Which cestode infection results in

alveolar hydatid cyst disease?

1091.

Eclipse period

What is the term of the viral growth

period when no viruses can be found
intracellularly?

1092.

Edinger-Westphal nucleus (via CN III)

What nucleus supplies the

preganglionic parasympathetic fibers
to the ciliary ganglion?

1093.

Edrophonium

What drug is used to differentiate a

cholinergic crisis from myasthenia
gravis?

1094.

Edward syndrome (trisomy 18)

In what disease do you see

horseshoe kidneys, rockerbottom
feet, low-set ears, micrognathia, and
mental retardation?

1095.

eEF-1

What eukaryotic translation enzyme

is associated with the following:
Elongation

1096.

eEF-2 is the site where Pseudomonas and Diphtheria toxins

work.

What elongation factor is inactivated

by ADP ribosylation, preventing
translation?

1097.

EF-1 and GTP

What factors are needed for

elongation in eukaryotes?

1098.

EF-2 and GTP

What factors are needed for

translocation in eukaryotes?

1099.

Effective dose for 50% of drug takers

(median effective dose)

What do the following values indicate? ED50

1100.

Efficacy

What is the term for how well a drug produces its desired
response?

1101.

EF-G of the 50S subunit

What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation is blocked

by the following? Erythromycin

1102.

EF-Tu and EF-Ts of the 30S ribosomal

subunit

What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation is blocked

by the following? Tetracycline

1103.

EF-Tu or EF-ts and GTP

What factors are needed for elongation in prokaryotes?

1104.

Ego

What Freudian psyche component is described as Reality,

rationality, language basis?

1105.

Ego dystonic

What is the term to describe homosexuals who Are

uncomfortable with their own person and disagree with their
sense of self?

1106.

Ego syntonic

What is the term to describe homosexuals who Are

comfortable with their own person and agree with their sense
of self?

1107.

eIF-2 in the P site

What eukaryotic translation enzyme is associated with the

following: Initiation

1108.

Eight pairs through seven cervical

vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal
nerves.

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with Cervical

vertebrae?

1109.

Eisenmenger's syndrome

After a longstanding left-to-right shunt reverses, causing

cyanosis, and becomes a right-to-left shunt, what is it termed?

1110.

Eisenmenger syndrome, which can

also occur with any left-to-right shunt

What is the term for a large VSD that leads to pulmonary HTN,
RVH, and cyanosis due to right-to-left reversal of the shunt?

1111.

ELISA is used as a screening test because it is

very sensitive; Western blot is used as a
confirmatory test because it detects antibodies
(protein) to the HIV virus.

What is the primary screening test used to detect

HIV-infected individuals? Confirmatory test?

1112.

ELISA. It detects anti-p24 IgG.

What test is used to screen for HIV?

1113.

ELISA screens and Western blot confirms the

diagnosis.

Does ELISA or Western blot confirm whether a

patient is HIV-positive?

1114.

ELISA test

What test uses p24 protein when diagnosing HIV?

1115.

Elongation factor-G and GTP

What factors are needed for translation in

prokaryotes?

1116.

Embolic

Are hemorrhagic cerebral infarcts more commonly

associated with embolic or thrombotic occlusions?

1117.

Embolism

What is the term for occlusion of a blood vessel due

to an intravascular mass that has been carried
downstream?

1118.

Emphysema

What pulmonary disease, most commonly associated

with smoking, results in enlarged, overinflated lungs
owing to the destruction of the alveolar walls with
diminished elastic recoil?

1119.

Emphysematous bleb

Name the most common type or cause.

Spontaneous pneumothorax

1120.

Empyema

What is the term for pus in the pleural space?

1121.

Encapsulated bacteria

Patients with sickle cell anemia are at increased risk

for infection from what type of organisms?

1122.

Endocardial cushion defect

Name the most common one. Heart defect in Down

syndrome

1123.

Endometrial cancer

What is the most common one? Malignancy of the

female genital tract

1124.

Endometriosis

What female pathology is associated with endometrial glands and stroma outside
the uterus commonly affecting the ovaries as chocolate cysts?

1125.

The energy of
activation

What determines the rate of reaction?

1126.

The energy of
activation (Ea)

What determines the rate of a reaction?

1127.

Enkephalin

What is the neurotransmitter at the -receptor?

1128.

Enkephalins

What naturally occurring substances mimic the effects of opioids?

1129.

Entamoeba
histolytica

What is the most common one? Organism associated with liver abscesses

1130.

Entamoeba
histolytica (treat
with
metronidazole)

What protozoal parasite results in dysentery with blood and pus in the stool, is
transmitted via fecal-oral route, is diagnosed by cysts or trophozoites in the stool,
and forms liver abscesses and inverted flask-shaped lesions in the large intestine?

1131.

Enterobius
vermicularis

What is the most common one? Helminth parasitic infection in the United States

1132.

Enterobius
vermicularis; the
treatment is
albendazole.

What nematode is known as pinworms? What is the treatment?

1133.

Enterococcus
faecalis

What is the MCC of the following endocarditis scenarios? Following biliary

infections

1134.

Enterococcus
(Streptococcus
faecalis)

Which streptococcal species is characterized by being catalase negative, turning

bile esculin agar black, producing a positive PYR test, and resulting in biliary and
urinary tract infections?

1135.

Enteroendocrine
(EE) cells; they
also secrete
secretin.

What cell of the duodenum secretes CCK?

1136.

Enterohemorhagic
Escherichia coli

What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea? Bloody diarrhea
associated with hamburger ingestion

1137.

Enterohepatic
cycling

How are drugs that are excreted via the biliary system resorbed by the GI tract?

1138.

Enterokinase

What enzyme is needed to

activate the following reactions?
Trypsinogen to trypsin

1139.

Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli (Rotavirus is the MCC overall.)

Name the most common type or

cause. Infantile bacterial
diarrhea

1140.

The entire tubule barring the thick ascending limb

What is the site of action of the

following? Osmotic diuretics

1141.

env structural protein

What HIV structural gene

produces GP120 and GP41?

1142.

The enzyme lysyl oxidase requires Cu2+and O2 to function properly.

What mineral is required for

cross-linking of collagen
molecules into fibrils?

1143.

The enzyme phenyl ethanolamine N-methyltransferase (PNMT),

used in the conversion of epinephrine, is regulated by cortisol.
Removing the anterior pituitary gland decreases ACTH and therefore
cortisol.

Why is there a decrease in the

production in epinephrine when
the anterior pituitary gland is
removed?

1144.

Eosin

Do the following structures pick

up stain from hematoxylin or
eosin? Cytoplasm

1145.

Eosin

Do the following structures pick

up stain from hematoxylin or
eosin? RBCs

1146.

Eosin

Do the following structures pick

up stain from hematoxylin or
eosin? Collagen

1147.

Eosin

Do the following structures pick

up stain from hematoxylin or
eosin? Fibrin

1148.

Eosin

Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? Thyroid

colloid

1149.

Eosinophil

What cell type is commonly elevated in asthma?

1150.

Eosinophil chemotactic
factor A

What mast cell mediator is a chemotactic agent?

1151.

Eosinophilic exudates

Name the type of exudate, given the following examples. Parasitic infection

1152.

Eosinophils

What chronic inflammatory WBC is associated with IgE-mediated allergic

reactions and parasitic infections?

1153.

Ependymal cells

What cells lining the ventricles have cilia on their luminal surface to move
CSF?

1154.

Ependymoma

What is the most common one? Intraspinal tumor

1155.

Ependymoma

What is the most common one? Intramedullary spinal cord tumor in adults

1156.

Ephedrine

What drug that penetrates the blood-brain barrier is found in asthma

preparations and used as a nasal decongestant?

1157.

Epidermophyton

Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with the following sites of

infection? Nails and skin only

1158.

Epidural hematoma

Lucid interval

1159.

Epinephrine

What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? Chromaffin

cells of the adrenal medulla

1160.

Epinephrine

Name the hormoneglucagon, insulin, or epinephrine: Glycogenolytic,

gluconeogenic, lipolytic, glycolytic, and stimulated by hypoglycemia

1161.

Epispadia

What is the term for the external urethra opening onto the dorsal surface of
the penis?

1162.

Epstein-cardiac anomaly
of the tricuspid valve

What is the teratogenic effect associated with lithium?

1163.

Erectile dysfunction

What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with Neuroleptics?

1164.

Ergosterol

What is the major cell membrane sterol found in fungi?

1165.

Erythema marginatum

What type of erythema do you see in Rheumatic fever?

1166.

Erythema multiforme

What type of erythema do you see in StevensJohnson syndrome?

1167.

Erythema nodosum

What type of erythema do you see in Ulcerative

colitis?

1168.

Erythromycin

Which macrolide is used in the treatment of

gastroparesis?

1169.

Erythromycin

Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side

effect is listed. Cholestatic hepatitis

1170.

Escherichia coli

What facultative gram-negative anaerobic rod is

motile, ferments lactose, and is the MCC of UTIs?

1171.

Escherichia coli

Name the most common type or cause. UTIs

1172.

Escherichia coli

What is the most common one? Organism that

causes pyelonephritis

1173.

Escherichia coli

Name the most common type or cause. Cystitis

1174.

Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas sp.

What are the two MCC of acute epididymitis in

males? More than 35 years old

1175.

Esophagus and esophageal nerve plexus (CN X)

Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at T12

What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at

T10 level?

1176.

Esophagus, SVC, vagus nerve, azygos vein,

thoracic duct, thymus, and phrenic nerve

What seven structures are found in more than one

mediastinum?

1177.

Estradiol

What hormone level peaks 1 day before the surge of

LH and FSH in the female cycle?

1178.

Estriol

What form of estrogen is of placental origin?

1179.

Estrogen

Circulating levels of what hormone cause the

cervical mucus to be thin and watery, allowing sperm
an easier entry into the uterus?

1180.

Estrogen can result in a hypercoagulable state

because of the decrease in AT III and increase in
factors II, VII, IX, and X.

What components of the coagulation cascade are

affected by estrogen?

1181.

Estrogens are 18-carbon

steroids. (Removal of one carbon
from an androgen produces an
estrogen.)

How many carbons do estrogens have?

1182.

Estrogen; the first 14 days of the

female reproductive cycle mark
the proliferative phase.

What hormone, produced by the granulose cell, stimulates the

endometrium to enter the proliferative phase?

1183.

Estrone

What type of estrogen is produced in peripheral tissues from

androgens?

1184.

Ethacrynic acid

Irreversible ototoxicity is associated with which loop diuretic?

1185.

Ethambutol

What antitubercular agent causes loss of red-green visual

discrimination?

1186.

Ethyl alcohol

Name the antidote. Ethylene glycol

1187.

Ethyl alcohol

Name the antidote. Methyl alcohol

1188.

Euchromatin, the dark stuff in the

nucleus on an electron
microscope image.

What type of chromatin is transcriptionally active?

1189.

Ewing sarcoma

Pseudorosettes

1190.

Ewing's sarcoma

What malignant neoplasm of the bone is associated with HomerWright pseudorosettes; onion skinning of the periosteum on
radiographs of the femur, pelvis, and tibia; and chromosome 11;22
translocation?

1191.

Excess estradiol in the blood

What is a sign of a Sertoli cell tumor in a man?

1192.

Excision endonuclease, which

removes thiamine dimers from
DNA

What DNA excision and repair enzyme is deficient in patients with

xeroderma pigmentosum?

1193.

Excretion is greater than filtration

for net secretion to occur.

Is excretion greater than or less than filtration for net secretion to

occur?

1194.

Exhibitionism

What paraphilia is defined as Having a recurrent desire to expose

the genitals to strangers?

1195.

Exogenous steroids suppress LH release and

result in Leydig cell atrophy. Testosterone,
produced by Leydig cells, is needed for
spermatogenesis.

Why is spermatogenesis decreased with anabolic

steroid therapy?

1196.

Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

Name the lung measurement based on the following

descriptions: Additional volume that can be expired
after normal expiration

1197.

Exposure

What classical conditioning therapy or modification is

described as Forcing patients to confront their fears by
being exposed to them until they are extinguished?

1198.

Expressive aphasia

What aphasia produces a nonfluent pattern of speech

with the abilty to understand written and spoken
language seen in lesions in the dominant hemisphere?

1199.

External 3', 5' PDE bonds

What bonds are broken by exonucleases?

1200.

External abdominal oblique

What abdominal muscle contributes to the anterior layer

of the rectus sheath, forms the inguinal ligament, and in
men gives rise to the external spermatic fascia of the
spermatic cord?

1201.

Extinction

Based on operant conditioning, what type of

reinforcement is described when Removing a stimulus
stops a behavior?

1202.

Extinction

What operant conditioning therapy or modification is

described as Stopping the reinforcement that is
leading to an undesired behavior?

1203.

Extrahepatic biliary atresia

What disorder is associated with jaundice, white stools,

and dark urine due to biliary duct occlusion secondary to
incomplete recanalization?

1204.

Extravascular hemolysis if it occurs in the

spleen; if in the liver, it results in
hepatomegaly.

Is splenomegaly more commonly associated with

intravascular or extravascular hemolysis?

1205.

Facial expression (the second is vocal intonation)

What is the primary method of nonverbal

communication of emotional states?

1206.

Factitious disorder

What disorder is described as having Conscious

symptoms with unconscious motivation?

1207.

Factors II, VII, IX, and X and proteins C and S.

Name the six vitamin K-dependent coagulation

factors.

1208.

Factors II, VII, IX, X, and proteins C and S

What are the vitamin K-dependent coagulation

factors?

1209.

Factor XII for the intrinsic; factor VII for the extrinsic
pathway

What factor gets activated in the intrinsic pathway

of the coagulation cascade? Extrinsic pathway?

1210.

Fading

What operant conditioning therapy or modification

is described as Removing a reinforcement
(without the patient knowing) gradually over time
to stop a condition?

1211.

FALSE

True or false? Miniature end-plate potentials

(MEPPs) generate action potentials.

1212.

FALSE

True or false? Bile pigments and bile salts are

reabsorbed in the gallbladder.

1213.

FALSE

True or false? Pregnancy ensures emancipation.

1214.

False. Adenovirus vaccine is a live pathogenic virus

in an enteric coated capsule. All of the others are
inactivated vaccines.

True or false? All of the following are inactivated

vaccines available in the United States: influenza,
Vibrio cholera, hepatitis A, rabies, and
adenovirus.

1215.

False. All except multiparity are risk factors for

breast cancer. Nulliparity, increasing age, and family
history in first-degree relative are also risk factors.
Memorize this list!

True or false? All of the following are risk factors

for breast cancer: early menses, late menopause,
history of breast cancer, obesity, and multiparity.

1216.

False. ASO titers are elevated, but serum complement levels

are decreased.

True or false? Elevated ASO titers and

serum complement levels are
associated with poststreptococcal GN.

1217.

False. Atelectasis is a reversible collapse of a lung.

True or false? Atelectasis is an

irreversible collapse of a lung.

1218.

False. Bacteriocidals kill; bacteriostatics slow growth.

True or false? Antimicrobial agents

that slow bacterial growth are
bactericidal.

1219.

False. B cells recognize unprocessed Ags, but T cells can

recognize only processed Ags.

True or false? T cells can recognize,

bind, and internalize unprocessed
Ags.

1220.

False. Cardiac output refers to circulating blood volume. The

blood in the systemic veins and the pulmonary circuits are
storage reserves and therefore are not considered in cardiac
output.

True or false? The blood stored in the

systemic veins and the pulmonary
circuit are considered part of the
cardiac output.

1221.

False. Childbirth carries five times as much risk of serious

psychiatric illness as abortion.

True or false? Serious psychiatric

illness is more common after abortion
than childbirth.

1222.

False. CSF is a clear isotonic solution with lower

concentrations of K+ and HCO3-. It does have higher
concentrations of Cl- and Mg2+.

True or false? CSF is a clear,

hypertonic solution with higher
concentrations of K + and HCO3-,
than the serum.

1223.

False. Direct tests detect Ags; indirect tests detect Abs.

True or false? Direct fluorescent Ab

test is used to detect Abs in a patient?

1224.

False. Dopamine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS.

True or false? Dopamine is an

excitatory neurotransmitter in the
CNS.

1225.

False. Elevated calcitonin levels are seen in medullary

carcinoma of the thyroid. Psammoma bodies are seen in
papillary carcinoma of the thyroid and ovaries, as well as
meningiomas.

True or false? Psammoma bodies are

seen in medullary carcinoma of the
thyroid.

1226.

False. Ergotamines are used in the treatment of migraines for

their vasoconstrictive action in the cerebral circulation.

True or false? Ergotamines, because

of their vasodilation action, cause
migraines.

1227.

False. Females are more likely to develop femoral hernias then

males (remember Female's Femoral).

True or false? Males are more likely to

develop femoral hernias than females.

1228.

False. Fewer Ags are needed to trigger a secondary response.

True or false? More Ag is needed to

produce a secondary immune
response than a first immune
response.

1229.

False. Flumazenil is unable to block the effects of barbiturates.

True or false? Flumazenil is used in

the treatment of barbiturate overdose.

1230.

False. Glutamic acid is excitatory, but GABA is inhibitory.

True or false? Both GABA and

glutamic acid are excitatory
neurotransmitters in the CNS.

1231.

False. Histidine operon is activated when there are low

intracellular levels of histidine.

True or false? Histidine activates the

histidine operon.

1232.

False. hyperkalemia decreases digoxin's activity, while

hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypercalcemia all
increase digoxin toxicity.

True or false? Hyperkalemia increases

the effect of digoxin.

1233.

False. Increased LAP is seen in stress reactions and helps

differentiate benign conditions from CML, which has low LAP
levels.

True or false? Increased leukocyte

alkaline phosphatase (LAP) is
associated with CML.

1234.

False. Interferons are produced by virally infected cells to

inhibit viral replication via RNA endonucleases. They do not act
directly on the virus, nor are they virus specific.

True or false? Interferons are

eukaryotic proteins that inhibit viral
replication by being virus specific.

1235.

False. It closes just after birth because the change in

pulmonary circulation causes increased left atrial pressure.

True or false? The foramen ovale

closes just prior to birth.

1236.

False. It does increase uterine synthesis of prostaglandins,

which increase uterine contractions.

True or false? Oxytocin initiates

rhythmic contractions associated with
labor.

1237.

False. It has glycogenolytic and lipolytic actions but

not proteolytic.

True or false? Epinephrine has proteolytic

metabolic effects.

1238.

False. It is an enzyme secreted by the lining of the

small intestine.

True or false? Enterokinase is a brush border

enzyme.

1239.

False. It is a passive process due to decreased sex

hormones.

True or false? Menstruation is an active process

due to increased gonadal sex hormones?

1240.

False; it is for the production of toxic metabolites.

True or false? The increased oxygen consumption

after phagocytosis is for ATP production.

1241.

False. It is reversible because the Ags and Abs are

not linked covalently.

True or false? Ag-Ab binding is irreversible

1242.

False. Meningococcus is encapsulated;

Gonococcus is not.

True or false? Gonococcus is encapsulated.

1243.

False. Metformin does not have weight gain as a

potential side effect (unlike sulfonylureas).

True or false? Metformin is contraindicated in

obese patients because of weight gain as its side
effect.

1244.

False-negative rate

What rate is indicated by 1- sensitivity?

1245.

False-positive rate

What rate is indicated by 1-specificity?

1246.

False. Right-sided valves are the first to open and

last to close.

True or false? Right-sided valves close before the

valves on the left side of the heart.

1247.

False. Risk of breast and endometrial cancer but

not ovarian cancer increases with the use of
estrogen.

True or false? Estrogen use increases the risk of

developing ovarian cancer.

1248.

False. Separation, divorce, being widowed, and

unemployment increase your risk, but being single
does not.

True or false? Being single increases your risk of

suicide.

1249.

False. Staphylococci have catalase; streptococci do

not.

True or false? Streptococci have catalase.

1250.

False. That is precisely where COMT is found; it is

not found in adrenergic nerve terminals.

True or false? Catechol-O-methyl transferase

(COMT) is not found in smooth muscle, liver, and
the kidneys.

1251.

False. The disease has no associated pathology; the

phenomenon is arterial insufficiency due to an underlying
disease.

True or false? Raynaud's phenomenon has

no underlying pathology.

1252.

False. The faster the rate of absorption, the smaller the

Tmax and larger the Cmax (bioinequivalence). The
slower the rate of absorption, the larger the Tmax and
smaller the Cmax.

True or false? The faster the rate of

absorption, the smaller the time of maximum
concentration (Tmax) and the maximum
concentration (Cmax).

1253.

False. The gallbladder does not produce bile, but it

concentrates bile via active sodium transport; water
follows the sodium.

True or false? The gallbladder functions to

produce bile.

1254.

False. The PPD tests exposure to TB.

True or false? A positive PPD skin test

indicates the patient has active pulmonary
disease.

1255.

False. These beliefs are characteristic of people with an

external locus of control.

True or false? According to social learning

theory, people who believe that luck, chance,
or the actions of others control their fate
have an internal locus of control.

1256.

False. They are all risk factors for endometrial carcinoma

except multiparity. Nulliparity, estrogen-producing tumors,
and estrogen replacement therapy are also risk factors
for endometrial carcinoma.

True or false? Obesity, DM, HTN, multiparity,

early menarche, and late menopause are all
risk factors for endometrial carcinoma.

1257.

False. They are bacteriostatic.

True or false? Tetracyclines are bactericidal.

1258.

False. Thyroid size is a measure of TSH levels (which

are goitrogenic).

True or false? Thyroid size is a measure of

its function.

1259.

False. Water readily diffuses across the blood-brain

barrier, but glucose requires carrier-mediated transport.

True or false? Glucose readily diffuses

across the blood-brain barrier.

1260.

False. You need clear evidence the patient is not

competent; if you are unsure, assume the patient is
competent.

True or false? A patient has to prove his or

her competency.

1261.

Familial hypercholesterolemia

What AD disease associated with chromosome 19 involves

a defect in the LDL receptors that leads to skin and tendon
xanthomas?

1262.

Familial polyposis coli

What AD syndrome involves 1000 or more edematous

polyps, most commonly affects the colorectal area, and is
associated with chromosome 5q21?

1263.

Fanconi-like syndrome

What syndrome is characterized by the triad of renal tubular

acidosis, nephrosis, and amino aciduria?

1264.

Farnesyl pyrophosphate (FPP)

What intermediate of cholesterol synthesis anchors proteins

in the membranes and forms CoA?

1265.

The fasciculus cuneatus

What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column fibers from

the upper limbs in the spinal cord?

1266.

The fasciculus gracilis (Graceful), which

lies closest to the midline of the spinal
cord.

What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column fibers from

the lower limbs in the spinal cord?

1267.

The fast component is directed toward

the affected side of a cerebellar lesion.

If a patient with a cerebellar lesion has nystagmus, which

way is the fast component directed, toward or away from the
lesion?

1268.

The fastigial nucleus

What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections

in The vermis?

1269.

Fat necrosis

Name the type of necrosis. Due to lipase activity and has a

chalky white appearance

1270.

Fatty acids cannot cross the blood-brain

barrier; therefore, they cannot be used as
an energy source.

During a prolonged fast, why is the brain unable to use fatty

acids?

1271.

Fc portion of IgG, C3b, and mannosebinding proteins

Name three opsonins.

1272.

The Fc region of IgG and C3b

What are the two opsonizing factors?

1273.

Female pseudohermaphrodite

What condition results from a 46XX karyotype and female

internal organs with virilized external genitalia?

1274.

Femoral nerve

What lower extremity nerve is described by the following

motor loss? Loss of knee extension, weakened hip flexion

1275.

Fentanyl

What drug is given transdermally for chronic pain but can

cause chest wall rigidity if given IV?

1276.

Ferritin

What is the physiologic storage form of iron?

1277.

Ferrochelatase

What enzyme is deficient in hereditary protoporphyria?

1278.

Fetal alcohol syndrome

Name the most common type. Mental retardation

1279.

Fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis

What is the classic triad of TB?

1280.

Fibrillary protein, amyloid protein, and

glycosaminoglycans (heparin sulfate
mainly)

What are the three main components of amyloid?

1281.

Fibrinoid necrosis

Name the type of necrosis. Histologically resembles fibrin

1282.

Fibrinous exudates

Name the type of exudate, given the following examples.

Uremic pericarditis

1283.

Fibroadenoma

What is the most common one? Benign breast tumor in

females less than 35 years old

1284.

Fibroadenoma

What is the most common one? Benign tumor of the

breast

1285.

Fibrocystic change of the breast

Blue-domed cysts

1286.

Fibrocystic change of the breast

Name the most common type or cause. Breast lump in

females

1287.

Fibrocystic change of the breast

What is the most common one? Benign lesion that affects

the breast

1288.

Fibrocystic change of the breast. This highlights

the distinguishing features from breast cancer,
which is commonly unilateral, single nodule, no
variation with pregnancy.

A 30-year-old woman goes to your office with

bilateral multiple breast nodules that vary with
menstruation and have cyclical pain and
engorgement. What is your diagnosis?

1289.

Fibrous pericardium

What portion of the pericardium adheres to the

tunica adventitia of the great vessels?

1290.

Fifth MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch

derivatives

From what aortic arch are the following structures

derived? Degenerates

1291.

Filiform papillae

What papillae are touch receptors on the tongue

and send their sensations via CN V3 (mandibular
division)?

1292.

Filovirus

What family do the following viruses belong to?

Ebola

1293.

Filtered and secreted: Cx > Cin (i.e., PAH). Filtered

and reabsorbed: Cx < Cin (i.e., glucose), where Cx
= clearance of a substance and Cin = clearance of
inulin.

Is the clearance for a substance greater than or

less than for inulin if it is freely filtered and
secreted? If it is freely filtered and reabsorbed?

1294.

Filtration; if hydrostatic pressure is less than

oncotic pressure, reabsorption is promoted.

If capillary hydrostatic pressure is greater than

oncotic pressure, is filtration or reabsorption
promoted?

1295.

Filtration is greater than excretion for net

reabsorption to occur.

Is filtration greater than or less than excretion for

net reabsorption to occur?

1296.

Finasteride

What agent used in the treatment of BPH and

baldness is a 5--reductase inhibitor?

1297.

First M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives

From what pharyngeal pouch is the following

structure derived? Middle ear

1298.

First MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch

derivatives

From what aortic arch are the following structures

derived? Maxillary artery

1299.

First-order elimination

What type of drug

elimination is
characterized by the
following? Elimination
directly proportional to
plasma level; constant
fraction eliminated per unit
time; fixed half-life

1300.

First-pass effect

When a drug is
administered orally and
enters into portal
circulation, it undergoes
hepatic metabolism. What
is the name of this effect?

1301.

First-pass metabolism and acid lability

What two factors influence

low oral bioavailability?

1302.

First pharyngeal groove; all others degenerate.

From what pharyngeal

groove is the external
auditory meatus derived?

1303.

The first sensory neuron is in the dorsal root ganglia. It carries ascending
sensory information in the dorsal root of a spinal nerve, eventually
synapsing with second sensory neuron. In the brainstem (DCML) and the
spinal cord (spinothalamic) the second neuron cell body sends its axons to
synapse in the thalamus. The third sensory neuron cell body is a thalamic
nuclei that sends its fibers to the primary somatosensory cortex.

Where are the cell bodies

for the DCML and
spinothalamic sensory
systems?

1304.

The first trimester

In what trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to congenital rubella

syndrome?

1305.

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

What syndrome occurs when pelvic inflammatory disease

ascends to surround the liver capsule in violin string adhesions?

1306.

Five pairs through five lumbar

vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal
nerves.

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with Lumbar

vertebrae?

1307.

Five pairs through five sacral

vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal
nerves.

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with Sacral

vertebrae?

1308.

Fixation (arrested development)

What is the term for failure to give up infantile patterns of behavior

for mature ones?

1309.

Fixed interval

What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired

response, the reinforcement is given On a set time schedule?

1310.

Fixed ratio (rewards set behaviors)

What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired

response, the reinforcement is given After a set number of
responses?

1311.

Flea-bitten kidney (can also be seen

in pyelonephritis)

What is the term for the appearance of the kidney in malignant

hypertension (it has petechiae on its surface)?

1312.

Flocculonodular lobe (one of my

favorite words in all of medicine!)

In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus

map, what area or lobe Controls balance and eye movements?

1313.

Flow cytometric analysis

What test, by using specific Abs to different receptors, allows for

rapid analysis of cell types in a blood sample?

1314.

Fluconazole

What is the only antifungal agent to penetrate CSF?

1315.

Fluconazole

What is the DOC for coccidioidomycosis?

1316.

Fluconazole

What is the DOC for esophageal candidiasis?

1317.

Flucytosine

What antifungal agent is activated by fungal cytosine deaminase

to form 5-FU?

1318.

Flumazenil

What is the name of the benzodiazepine antagonist used in the

treatment of an overdose?

1319.

Flumazenil

Name the antidote. Benzodiazepines

1320.

Flurazepam

Which benzodiazepine has the longest half-life?

1321.

Flutamide

What androgen receptor blocker is used in the treatment of

prostatic cancer?

1322.

F-Met-Peptides

What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from

Bacteria?

1323.

Fo/F1 complex

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following?

Oligomycin

1324.

Folate deficiency (very common

in the elderly)

The "tea-and-toast" diet is classically associated with what cause of

megaloblastic anemia?

1325.

Folate, vitamin B12, and vitamin

B6

What three vitamin deficiencies are associated with

homocystinemia?

1326.

The folding of an AA chain

What is determined by the secondary structure of an AA?

1327.

Folic acid

What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency is associated with neural

tube defects in the fetus?

1328.

Folic acid deficiency

Megaloblastic anemia and thrombocytopenia are signs of what

vitamin deficiency?

1329.

Follicular adenoma

What is the most common one? Thyroid adenoma

1330.

Follicular lymphoma

What is the most common form of non-Hodgkin lymphoma in the

United States?

1331.

Follicular phase

What phase of the female cycle occurs during days 1 to 15?

1332.

Follicular phase is estrogen-dependent with increased FSH

levels, while the luteal phase is progesterone-dependent.

What phase of the menstrual cycle is

dominated by estrogen?
Progesterone?

1333.

Foods rich in tyramine (e.g., cheese, dried fish, sauerkraut,

chocolate, avocados, and red wine) should be avoided.
Hypertensive crisis occurs when tyramine and MAOIs are
mixed.

What type of foods should patients

taking MAOIs avoid? Why?

1334.

Foramen of Monro

What connects the lateral ventricles

to the third ventricle?

1335.

Foramen of Winslow

What foramen must be traversed for

entry into the lesser peritoneal sac?

1336.

For males, HTN; for females, pregnancy.

What is the most common primary

diagnosis resulting in an office visit
for males? For females?

1337.

For males it's prostate cancer, and for females it's breast cancer.

What is the second leading cause of

cancer deaths in males? In females?

1338.

Formal operations (> 12 years)

At what stage of cognitive

development (according to Piaget) do
children Have abstract thinking?

1339.

Formation of an identity through issues of independence and

rebellion; they define who they are.

What is the key issue surrounding

teenagers' maturation?

1340.

For the USMLE Step 1 the answer is no, but if the information
would do more harm than good, withhold. This is very rare but it
does occur.

If the family member of a patient

asked you to withhold information,
would you?

1341.

Foscarnet

What antiviral agent for ganciclovirresistant infections has limited utility

because of its nephrotoxic side
effect?

1342.

Fossa ovale

What are the adult remnants of the following

structures? Foramen ovale

1343.

Four

How many mature sperm are produced by one type B

spermatogonium?

1344.

Four high energy bonds, two from ATP in AA

activation and two from GTP

How many high-energy bonds does the cycle of

elongation cost?

1345.

Four Ms and a U 1. Median 2. Medial

antebrachial 3. Medial pectoral 4. Medial
brachial cutaneus 5. Ulnar

What are the five branches of the median cord of the

brachial plexus?

1346.

Fourth M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives

From what pharyngeal pouch is the following

structure derived? Superior parathyroid gland and
ultimobranchial body of the thyroid

1347.

Fourth MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic

arch derivatives

From what aortic arch are the following structures

derived? Arch of the aorta and right subclavian
artery

1348.

Fovea

What area of the retina consists of only cones and

has the greatest visual acuity?

1349.

Fragile X syndrome

What disease with familial mental retardation

produces large, everted ears and macro-orchidism?

1350.

Frameshift

Name the type of mutation: The deletion or addition

of a base

1351.

Francisella tularensis

What small gram-negative facultative intracellular rod

is transmitted to human host by Dermacentor tick
bite?

1352.

Free form determines hormone activity and is

responsible for the negative feedback loop.

Is the bound form or free form of a lipid-soluble

hormone responsible for the negative feedback
activity?

1353.

Free hormone levels remain constant, and the

bound hormone level changes with a decrease
in binding hormones.

What happens to free hormone levels when the liver

decreases production and release of binding
proteins?

1354.

Free ionized Ca2+

What is the physiologically active form of Ca2+?

1355.

Free polysomes. Membraneassociated polysomes are

the site of protein synthesis
destined to leave the cell.

What organelle synthesizes proteins that are intended to stay within the
cell?

1356.

Free, unprocessed Ag

What type of Ag do B cells recognize?

1357.

Friedreich ataxia

What AR CNS disorder presents early in childhood with gait ataxia, loss
of deep tendon reflexes, impaired vibratory sensation, hand clumsiness,
and loss of position sense?

1358.

From age 5 onward IQ

stabilizes.

At what age does IQ stabilize?

1359.

From the adrenal medulla;

NE is mainly derived from
the postsynaptic sympathetic
neurons.

Where does most circulating plasma epinephrine originate?

1360.

From the wall of the yolk sac

Where do the primordial germ cells arise?

1361.

Frontal eye field (Brodmann

area 8)

What area of the brain acts as the center for contralateral horizontal
gaze?

1362.

Frontal lobe

Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described:
Speech; critical for personality, concentration, initiating and stopping
tasks (do one thing and begin a new without completion of the first),
abstract thought, and memory and higher-order mental functions

1363.

Frontal lobe syndrome

(lesion in the prefrontal
cortex)

What syndrome causes inability to concentrate, easy distractibility,

apathy, and regression to an infantile suckling or grasping reflex?

1364.

Frotteurism

What paraphilia is defined as A male rubbing his genitals on a fully

clothed female to achieve orgasm?

1365.

Fructose-1, 6bisphosphatase

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in gluconeogenesis?

1366.

Fructose; both glucose and galactose are

actively absorbed via secondary active
transport.

Which CHO is independently absorbed from the small

intestine?

1367.

FSH

What hormone acts on Granulosa cells?

1368.

FSH and testosterone

What two substances stimulate Sertoli cells?

1369.

Functionally they are part of the left lobe of

the liver because they receive their blood
supply from the left hepatic artery.
Anatomically they are considered part of the
right lobe of the liver.

Are the quadrate and caudate lobes of the liver

functionally part of the left or right lobe?

1370.

Functional residual capacity (FRC)

Name the lung measurement based on the following

descriptions: Volume in the lungs at the end of passive
expiration

1371.

Fungi

Which of the following characteristics accurately describe

fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites? Eukaryotic cell; 3
to 10 microns; 80S ribosomes; chitinous cell wall;
ergosterol in cell membrane; replicate via cytokinesis
with mitosis and meiosis

1372.

Fungiform papillae

What papillae send their senses via chorda tympani of

CN VII?

1373.

Fusobacterium

Which organism causes trench mouth?

1374.

G0 phase

What phase of the cell cycle are the following

antineoplastic agents specific for? Nitrosoureas

1375.

G0 phase

What phase of the cell cycle are the following

antineoplastic agents specific for? Cisplatin

1376.

G0 phase

What phase of the cell cycle are the following

antineoplastic agents specific for? Dacarbazine

1377.

G0 phase

What phase of the cell cycle are the following

antineoplastic agents specific for? Alkylating agents

1378.

G0 phase

Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: Cells cease replicating (i.e., nerve
cell)

1379.

G1 phase; G2 and S
phase are diploid
(2N).

What phase of Interphase is haploid (N)?

1380.

G1 phase (gap 1)

Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: Period of cellular growth
(translation and transcription) before DNA synthesis

1381.

G2 phase

What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for?
Bleomycin

1382.

G2 phase (gap 2)

Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: Period of cellular growth
(translation and transcription) after DNA synthesis

1383.

G-6-PD

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of the HMP shunt?

1384.

G-6-PD deficiency

Heinz bodies

1385.

G-6-PD deficiency

In what X-linked recessive disease is there a decrease in the HMP shunt, along
with Heinz body formation?

1386.

G-6-PD deficiency

Eating fava beans can produce the Mediterranean type of what deficiency?

1387.

G-6-PD deficiency;
pyruvate kinase
deficiency is second.

What is the most common genetic deficiency resulting in hemolytic anemia?

1388.

Gabapentin

Which anticonvulsant is used in the treatment of bipolar disorder and neuropathic

pain?

1389.

GABA, quantitatively

What is the most common one? Neurotransmitter in the brain

1390.

gag gene

HIV's capsid, core nucleocapsid, and matrix proteins are products of what
structural gene?

1391.

Gain of hypertonic
fluid (mannitol or
hypertonic saline)

Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost with the following changes in
body hydration for the ECF volume, ICF volume, and body osmolarity,
respectively: ECF, increase; ICF, decrease; body, increase

1392.

Gain of hypotonic
fluid (water
intoxication or
hypotonic saline)

Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost with the following changes in
body hydration for the ECF volume, ICF volume, and body osmolarity, respectively:
ECF, increase; ICF, increase; body, decrease

1393.

Gain of isotonic
fluid (isotonic
saline)

Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost with the following changes in
body hydration for the ECF volume, ICF volume, and body osmolarity, respectively:
ECF: increase; ICF: no change; body: no change

1394.

Galactitol

To what does aldose reductase convert galactose?

1395.

Galactose and
glucose

What two monosaccharides are produced when lactose is hydrolyzed?

1396.

Galactoside
permease

Regarding the Lac operon, for what do the following genes code? Y gene

1397.

Gametocytes

What form of the Plasmodium species is ingested by mosquitoes?

1398.

gamma and delta

chains

What are the two chains of the TCR that are mainly found on the skin and mucosal
surfaces?

1399.

Ganciclovir

What is the DOC for CMV retinitis?

1400.

Ganglioside

What sphingolipid cannot be produced without sialic acid and amino sugars?

1401.

Gangrenous
necrosis

Name the type of necrosis. Seen as dead tissue with coagulative necrosis

1402.

Gap junctions

What is the name of hydrophilic pores that allow the direct passage of ions and
particles between two adjacent cells?

1403.

Gardnerella
vaginalis

Clue cells are associated with which organism that causes vaginal discharge?

1404.

Gardner
syndrome

What AD GI neoplasia produces multiple adenomatous polyps, osteomas, fibromas,

and epidural inclusion cysts?

1405.

Gastric cancer

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have
more than one answer.) Nitrosamines

1406.

Gastric carcinoma

Signet ring cells

1407.

Gastric carcinoma

A Japanese man has weight loss, anorexia, early satiety, epigastric abdominal pain,
and a palpable left supraclavicular lymph node. On endoscopy you find a large,
irregular ulcer with elevated margins on the lesser curvature of the stomach. What
is your diagnosis?

1408.

Gastric ulcer

What type of peptic ulcer disease is characterized by the onset of

burning epigastric pain immediately after eating?

1409.

Gastrinoma

What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with MEN I

syndrome?

1410.

Gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP)

stimulates G cells to release
Gastrin. (All G's)

What parasympathetic neurotransmitter of the GI tract stimulates

the release of gastrin?

1411.

Gaucher disease

What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme

glucocerebrosidase?

1412.

Gaucher disease

What is the most common lysosomal storage disorder?

1413.

G-C rich sequences, because they

have 3 hydrogen bonds, where A-T
has 2 hydrogen bonds, resulting in
higher melting points.

Would a G-C or an A-T rich dsDNA sequence have a higher

melting point? Why?

1414.

A gene (a rather simple definition

but accurate)

What is the term for a unit of DNA that encodes a particular protein
or RNA molecule?

1415.

Generalized anxiety disorder

What disorder, experienced more than half of the time for a 6month period, is described as being fearful, worrisome, or
impatient and having sleep disturbances, poor concentration,
hyperactivity, and an overall sense of autonomic hyperactivity?

1416.

Genomic libraries are made from

nuclear DNA, are fragmented, and
contain all sequences found in the
particular genome copied.

Do genomic or cDNA libraries contain introns, exons, promoters,

enhancers, and are they fragmented?

1417.

Gerstmann's syndrome; spoken

language is usually understood.

What syndrome is described by a lesion in the angular gyrus (area

39) resulting in alexia, agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, and
right-left disorientation?

1418.

Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia

(GTN or choriocarcinoma)

What malignant tumor of the trophoblast causes high levels of

hCG and may occur after a hydatidiform mole, abortion, or normal
pregnancy?

1419.

GH

T3 increases bone ossification through synergistic effect with what

hormone?

1420.

GH and prolactin are produced by

acidophils; all others are by
basophils.

What two pituitary hormones are produced by acidophils?

1421.

GH deficiency

Insulin-induced hypoglycemia is the most reliable (by far not the

safest) test for what hormone deficiency?

1422.

GH, especially IGF-1. GH also

increases the incorporation of
thymidine in DNA synthesis and
uridine in RNA synthesis.

What hormone has the following effects: chondrogenic in the

epiphyseal end plates of bones; increases AA transport for protein
synthesis; increases hydroxyproline (collagen); and increases
chondroitin sulfate synthesis?

1423.

A Ghon focus is a TB tubercle,

whereas a Ghon complex is a focus
with hilar lymph node involvement.

What is the difference between a Ghon focus and a Ghon

complex?

1424.

GH-producing adenoma

With which pituitary adenoma is an elevated somatomedin C level

associated?

1425.

GH. The largest output of GH in a

24-hour period is during stage 4
sleep.

What hormone's release is strongly associated with stage 4

sleep?

1426.

Giant cell bone tumor

(osteoclastoma)

What malignant neoplasm of the bone has a soap bubble

appearance on radiograph?

1427.

Giant cell tumor of the bone

Soap bubble appearance on radiograph

1428.

Giardia lamblia (treat with

metronidazole)

What protozoal parasite forms flasked-shaped lesions in the

duodenum, is transmitted via fecal-oral route, and is commonly
seen in campers who drank stream water?

1429.

Gigantism

What does prepubertal hypersecretion of growth hormone lead

to?

1430.

Gilbert's syndrome

What disease has a genetically low level of UDPglucuronate

transferase, resulting in elevated free unconjugated bilirubin?

1431.

Glanzmann syndrome

What AR disorder is due to a deficiency in glycoprotein IIb-IIIa,

resulting in a defect in platelet aggregation?

1432.

Glioblastoma multiforme

What is the most common one? Primary CNS tumor

1433.

Glioblastoma multiforme

Pseudopalisades

1434.

Glioblastoma multiforme

What is the most common one? Primary CNS tumor in adults

1435.

Global aphasia

Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: Both Broca's

and Wernicke's areas damaged by lesion in the presylvian speech
area; trouble repeating statements; poor comprehension with
telegraphic speech

1436.

Glomerular capillary pressure

(increased glomerular capillary
pressure, increased GFR and
vice versa)

What is the main factor determining GFR?

1437.

Glossopharyngeal nerve

What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of

Oropharynx?

1438.

Glucagon

Name the hormoneglucagon, insulin, or epinephrine:

Glycogenolytic, gluconeogenic, lipolytic, glycolytic, proteolytic, and
stimulated by hypoglycemia and AAs

1439.

Glucagon and epinephrine

What two stress hormones are under the permissive action of

cortisol?

1440.

Glucocerebrosidase

What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in Gaucher's disease?

1441.

Glucocorticoids and
amphetamines

What two classes of drugs can cause schizoid behavior?

1442.

Glucokinase

What glycolytic enzyme has a high Vmax, high Km, and low affinity
for glucose?

1443.

Glucose-6-phosphatase

What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen storage disease?

von Gierke's disease

1444.

Glucose-6-phosphatase

What gluconeogenic enzyme is absent in muscle, accounting for its

inability to use glycogen as a source for blood glucose?

1445.

Glucose and galactose

What two sugars can be used to produce cerebrosides?

1446.

Glucosyl cerebroside

What substrate gets built up in Gaucher's disease?

1447.

Glucuronidation

What enzyme system is the most common form of phase II

biotransformation?

1448.

GLUT 2

Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: Found in liver

and pancreatic -cells

1449.

GLUT 3 and 4

Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: Found in most

tissues, including brain and RBCs

1450.

GLUT 4

Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: Found in

skeletal muscle and adipose tissues

1451.

Glutamate

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? GABA

1452.

Glutamate

What neurotransmitter inhibits the optic nerve bipolar cell and shuts
off in response to light?

1453.

Glutamate dehydrogenase

What enzyme catalyzes the reversible oxidative deamination of

glutamate and produces the TCA cycle intermediate ketoglutarate?

1454.

Glutamine

What AA is the major carrier of nitrogen byproducts from most

tissues in the body?

1455.

Glutamine and aspartate

What two AAs act as excitatory transmitters in the CNS, generating

EPSPs?

1456.

Gluteus maximus

What is the largest muscle in the body?

1457.

Glyceraldehyde dehydrogenase

What is the enzyme for the oxidative reaction in glycolysis?

1458.

Glycerol kinase

What liver enzyme, for triglyceride synthesis, converts glycerol to

glycerol-3-phosphate?

1459.

Glycine and succinyl-CoA

What are the two precursors of heme?

1460.

Glycine/arginine

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? Creatine

1461.

Glycogen phosphorylase

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in glycogenolysis?

1462.

Glycogen synthase

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of glycogen synthesis?

1463.

GM2 ganglioside Caused by a

deficiency of -hexosaminidase
A

What substrate builds up in Tay-Sachs disease?

1464.

GnRH

What hypothalamic hormone is synthesized in

the preoptic nucleus?

1465.

GnRH constant infusion

What hormone disorder is characterized by the

following abnormalities in sex steroids, LH,
and FSH? Sex steroids , LH , FSH ?

1466.

GnRH pulsatile infusion

What is it called when levels of sex steroids

increase, LH increases, and FSH increases?

1467.

Golgi tendon organs are stimulated by Ib afferent

neurons in response to an increase in force or
tension. The inverse muscle reflex protects muscle
from being torn; it limits the tension on the muscle.

What encapsulated group of nerve endings seen

at the muscle-tendon junction responds to an
increase in tension generated in that muscle?
(This is dropping a box that is too heavy to carry.)

1468.

Gonads

What embryonic structure forms the adult male

structure? Testes, seminiferous tubules, and
rete testes

1469.

Gonads

What embryonic structure forms the adult female

structures? Ovary, follicles, rete ovarii

1470.

Gonorrhea

Name the most common reported STD. In

males

1471.

Goodpasture disease

Name the nephritic disease based on the

immunofluorescent staining. Smooth and linear
pattern of IgG and C3 in the GBM

1472.

Goodpasture syndrome

What syndrome is due to anti-GBM Abs directed

against the lung and kidneys?

1473.

Goodpasture syndrome

What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined

as Autoantibodies against the type IV collagen
in the basement membrane of the kidneys and
lungs?

1474.

Good Samaritan Law. (Physicians are not required to

stop and help.)

What law was adopted to shield physicians from

liability when helping at the scene of an
accident?

1475.

Gout

What pathology is associated with podagra,

tophi in the ear, and PMNs with monosodium
urate crystals?

1476.

Gout

Upon seeing negatively birefringent needleshaped crystals from a joint aspiration of the
great toe, what form of arthritis do you diagnose?

1477.

GP41

What glycoprotein in the HIV virus is used for

fusion?

1478.

GP120

What glycoprotein in the HIV virus attaches to

CD4?

1479.

gp120

What CD4 T-cell receptor does the HIV virus

bind to?

1480.

GP Ib

What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to

von Willebrand factor?

1481.

GP IIb and IIIa receptors

What are the glycoprotein receptors that

platelets and fibrinogen cross-link to when
forming a thrombus?

1482.

GP IIb/IIIa, which is why GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors are

used in the treatment of acute coronary syndromes

What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to

each other through the use of fibrinogen?

1483.

Gradient-time system

What form of renal tubular reabsorption is

characterized by high back leak, low affinity for
substance, and absence of saturation and is
surmised to be a constant percentage of a
reabsorbed filtered substance?

1484.

The granule cell is the only excitatory neuron in the

cerebellar cortex, and it uses glutamate as its
neurotransmitter. All the other cells in the cerebellum
are inhibitory neurons, and they use GABA as their
neurotransmitter.

What is the only excitatory neuron in the

cerebellar cortex, and what is its
neurotransmitter?

1485.

The granule cell. Its neurotransmitter is

glutamic acid, which is also the principal
neurotransmitter of the visual pathways.

What is the most abundant neuron in the cerebellum?

1486.

Granulosa cell

What cell converts androgens to estrogens?

1487.

Granulosa cells

What follicular cell possesses FSH receptors and converts

androgens into estradiol?

1488.

Granulosa cell tumor of the ovary

What estrogen-producing tumor of the female genital tract

is characterized by Call-Exner bodies?

1489.

Granulosa/thecal cell tumor of the ovary

Call-Exner bodies

1490.

Granulose cells secrete progesterone.

After fertilization the granulose cells form
from follicular cells.

After fertilization, what cells of the corpus luteum Secrete

progesterone?

1491.

Grasp proceeds release

In regard to motor development during infancy, choose the

motor response that happens first. Release or grasp

1492.

Graves disease

What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as

Autoantibodies directed against the TSH receptor?

1493.

Graves disease

What disease has IgG autoantibodies, occurs in women

more than men, and includes exophthalmos, pretibial
myxedema, nervousness, heart palpitations, and fatigue?

1494.

Graves disease

What disorder leads to IgG autoantibodies to the TSH

receptor?

1495.

Graves disease (Increased T4 decreases

TRH and TSH through negative feedback.)

What thyroid abnormality has the following? TRH

decreased, TSH decreased, T4 increased

1496.

The greater the cell diameter, the greater

the conduction velocity.

How does cell diameter affect the conduction velocity of an

action potential?

1497.

The greater the myelination, the greater

the conduction velocity.

How does myelination affect conduction velocity of an

action potential?

1498.

Griseofulvin

What oral antifungal agent is used to treat dermatophyte infections

by disrupting microtubule structure and depositing keratin?

1499.

Group A -hemolytic streptococci

Rheumatic fever most commonly follows pharyngeal infections with

what bacteria?

1500.

Guanethidine and bretylium

What two drugs inhibit the release of neurotransmitters from

storage granules?

1501.

Gubernaculum

What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure?

Gubernaculum testes

1502.

Gubernaculum

What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures?

Ovarian and round ligaments

1503.

Guillain-Barr syndrome

What syndrome has loss of deep tendon reflexes, muscle

weakness, and ascending paralysis preceded by a viral illness?

1504.

The gut rotates clockwise around

the superior mesenteric artery.

What direction does the primitive gut rotate? What is its axis of
rotation?

1505.

H1

Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2

receptor activation? Bronchial smooth muscle activity

1506.

H1

Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2

receptor activation? Pain and pruritus

1507.

H1

Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2

receptor activation? Edema

1508.

H1 histones

What histone binds two nucleosomes together?

1509.

H2

Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2

receptor activation? Inotropic action and automaticity

1510.

H2

Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2

receptor activation? SA nodal activity

1511.

H2

Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2

receptor activation? Gastric acid secretion

1512.

H2PO4- (dihydrogen phosphate)

What is the titratable acid form of H+ in the urine?

1513.

Haemophilus ducreyi

Name the most common type or cause.

Chancre

1514.

Haemophilus influenzae type B

What is the MCC of the following

meningitides? In those 12 months to 6
years of age

1515.

Haemophilus influenzae type B

Name the MCC. Epiglottitis in an

unvaccinated child

1516.

The hairpin loop made by reverse transcriptase at the 3' end

of the first strand is the primer.

What is the primer for the synthesis of the

second strand in production of cDNA from
mRNA?

1517.

Hairy cell leukemia

What B-cell neoplasm is seen in males

with massive splenomegaly, produces dry
tap on bone marrow aspirations, and
stains positive for tartrate-resistant acid
phosphatase (TRAP)?

1518.

The hallmarks of LMN lesion injury are absent or decreased

reflexes, muscle fasciculations, decreased muscle tone, and
muscle atrophy What two areas of the skin do flaccid
paralysis). Don't forget, LMN lesions are ipsilateral at the
level of the lesion!

What happens to muscle tone and stretch

reflexes when there is a LMN lesion?

1519.

Hallucinations are sensory impressions (without a stimulus);

illusions are misperceptions of real stimuli; and delusions
are false beliefs that are not shared by the culture.

How do delusions, illusions, and

hallucinations differ?

1520.

Haloperidol and fluphenazine (but use of any high-potency

phenothiazine runs the risk of EPS)

Which two antipsychotic drugs create a

high risk for developing extrapyramidal
syndrome (EPS) side effects?

1521.

The Halsted-Reitan battery. It consists of finger oscillation,

speech sound perception, rhythm, tactual, and category
testing.

What neuropsychologic test has five

basic scales testing for the presence and
localization of brain dysfunction?

1522.

Hapten; if it is coupled with a

carrier, it may become
immunogenic.

What is the term for an immunogenic agent that is too small to elicit an
immune response?

1523.

Hapten (not immunogenic)

What is the term for a single isolated antigenic determinant?

1524.

Hashimoto thyroiditis

Name the most common type or cause. Noniatrogenic hypothyroidism

in the United States

1525.

HBc Ab

What Ab is an indication of recurrent disease for hepatitis?

1526.

HBcAb and HBeAb. You see

the antibodies c and e.

In the window phase of a hepatitis B infection, which Abs do you see?

1527.

HBcAb IgG and HBsAb IgG

Which hepatitis B serology markersHBcAb IgG, HBcAb IgM, HBeAg,

HBsAb IgG, HBsAg, HBV-DNAare associated with the following
periods? Prior infection

1528.

HBcAb IgG, HBV-DNA,

HBeAg, HBsAg

Which hepatitis B serology markersHBcAb IgG, HBcAb IgM, HBeAg,

HBsAb IgG, HBsAg, HBV-DNAare associated with the following
periods? Chronic infection

1529.

HBcAb IgM

Which hepatitis B serology markersHBcAb IgG, HBcAb IgM, HBeAg,

HBsAb IgG, HBsAg, HBV-DNAare associated with the following
periods? Window period

1530.

HBcAb IgM, HBV-DNA,

HBeAg, HBsAg

Which hepatitis B serology markersHBcAb IgG, HBcAb IgM, HBeAg,

HBsAb IgG, HBsAg, HBV-DNAare associated with the following
periods? Acute infection

1531.

HBeAb

What Ab is an indication of low transmissibility for hepatitis?

1532.

HBeAb

Which hepatitis B Ab indicates low transmissibility?

1533.

HBeAg

What Ag is needed to diagnose an infectious patient with hepatitis B?

1534.

HBeAg

Which hepatitis B Ag correlates with infectivity and viral proliferation?

1535.

HBsAb IgG

Which hepatitis B serology markersHBcAb IgG, HBcAb IgM, HBeAg,

HBsAb IgG, HBsAg, HBV-DNAare associated with the following
periods? Immunization

1536.

HBsAg and HBeAg

What two Ags must be positive for a patient to have

chronic active hepatitis?

1537.

HBsAg as its envelope

What does hepatitis D virus need from hepatitis B

virus to be infective?

1538.

HBsAg (incubation period)

What is the first Ag seen in an individual with

hepatitis?

1539.

hCG

What hormone, produced by the syncytiotrophoblast,

stimulates the production of progesterone by the
corpus luteum?

1540.

hCG can be detected in the blood by day 8 and

in the urine by day 10.

How early can a pregnancy be detected by hCG

assays in the blood? In urine?

1541.

hCS and serum estriol, which are produced by

the fetal liver and placenta, respectively, are
used as estimates of fetal well-being.

What hormones, secreted in proportion to the size of

the placenta, are an index of fetal well-being?

1542.

HDL

Name the lipoprotein based on the following

characteristics. apo A-1, apo E, apo C-II

1543.

Head of the pancreas

What is the most common one? Site of pancreatic

cancer

1544.

Healing by secondary intention

What is characterized by an intense inflammatory

reaction, an increase in the amounts of granulation
tissue and wound contraction by myofibroblasts?

1545.

Heart disease

What is the MCC of death in the United States?

1546.

Heart, esophagus, and colon. Remember, you

get megas: cardiomegaly, megaesophagus,
and megacolon.

What three organs can be affected by Trypanosoma

cruzi?

1547.

Heart rate determines the diastolic interval, and

contractility determines the systolic interval.

Does the heart rate determine the diastolic or systolic

interval?

1548.

Heinz bodies

Oxidation of Hgb forms what bodies in patients with G6-PD deficiency?

1549.

Helicase (requires ATP for energy)

What DNA replication enzyme breaks the hydrogen

bond of base pairing, forming two replication forks?

1550.

Helicobacter pylori

What motile, gram-negative spiral bacillus with flagella is oxidase

positive, urease positive, and associated with gastritis, peptic
ulcer disease, and stomach cancer?

1551.

Helicobacter pylori, which is also

associated with an increased risk of
gastric carcinoma

What urease-producing gram-negative curved rod is associated

with PUD and chronic gastritis?

1552.

Hemangioblastoma

What vascular tumor associated with von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

involves the cerebellum, brainstem, spinal cord, and retina?

1553.

Hemangioma (benign)

What is the most common one? Primary tumor of the liver

1554.

Hematogenous

What is the most common one? Route of spread in pyogenic

osteomyelitis

1555.

Hematogenous

What is the most common one? Route for infectious arthritis

1556.

Hematoxylin

Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or

eosin? Nuclei

1557.

Hematoxylin

Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or

eosin? Calcium

1558.

Hematoxylin

Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or

eosin? Bacteria

1559.

Hematoxylin

Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or

eosin? Nucleoli

1560.

Hemiazygous vein

What vein drains the lower third of the thoracic wall?

1561.

Hemiballismus

What is the name of violent projectile movements of a limb

resulting from a lesion in the subthalamic nuclei of the basal
ganglia?

1562.

Hemochromatosis

What is the term for increased iron deposition resulting in

micronodular cirrhosis, CHF, diabetes, and bronzing of the skin?

1563.

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

What platelet disorder is characteristically seen in children

following a bout of gastroenteritis with bloody diarrhea?

1564.

Hemophilia A

What form of hemophilia is X-linked recessive and due to a

deficiency in factor VIII?

1565.

Hemophilia B

What form of hemophilia is X-linked recessive and is due to a

deficiency in factor IX?

1566.

Hemorrhagic exudates

Name the type of exudate, given the following examples.

Rickettsial infection

1567.

Hemosiderin

What Hgb-derived endogenous pigment is found in areas of

hemorrhage or bruises?

1568.

Hemostasis

What is the term for formation of a stable fibrin-platelet plug to

stop bleeding?

1569.

Henoch-Schnlein purpura

With what disease do you see IgA deposits in small vessels of

the skin and the kidneys?

1570.

Hepadnavirus

What is the only DNA virus that has the reverse transcriptase
enzyme?

1571.

Hepadnavirus

Name the DNA virus: Partially dsDNA circular; enveloped;

virion-associated polymerases; has RNA intermediate;
replicates in the nucleus

1572.

Heparin, intrinsic pathway, PTT;

warfarin, extrinsic pathway, PT
(mnemonic: hPeT, wPiTT)

Do you monitor heparin's therapeutic levels by PT or PTT?

1573.

Hepatic adenomas

What liver tumor is associated with oral contraceptive pill

use?

1574.

Hepatic glycogen phosphorylase

What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen storage

disease? Hers' disease

1575.

Hepatitis A

Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information.

Naked capsid RNA picornavirus

1576.

Hepatitis A

Which hepatitis virus is in the Picornaviridae family?

1577.

Hepatitis A (infectious)

Which type of hepatitis is a picornavirus?

1578.

Hepatitis B

Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information.

Enveloped DNA hepadnavirus

1579.

Hepatitis B

Which type of hepatitis can cause hepatocellular carcinoma?

1580.

Hepatitis B and hepatitis C

What are the two hepatitis viruses that can be chronic and can
lead eventually to hepatocellular carcinoma?

1581.

Hepatitis C

Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information.

Enveloped RNA flavivirus

1582.

Hepatitis C

Which hepatitis virus is in the Flaviviridae family?

1583.

Hepatitis D

Which hepatitis strain is a defective virus that can replicate only

inside HBV-infected cells?

1584.

Hepatitis D

Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information.

Small circular RNA virus with defective envelope

1585.

Hepatitis E

What type of hepatitis has the highest mortality rate among

pregnant women?

1586.

Hepatitis E

Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information.

Naked capsid RNA calicivirus

1587.

Hepatitis E (enteric)

Which type of hepatitis is a calicivirus?

1588.

Hepatitis, with or without necrosis

What toxicities are caused by the following agents? Halothane

1589.

Hepatocellular carcinoma

What is the most common one? Primary malignant tumor in

the liver

1590.

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical

agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) Aromatic
amines and azo dyes

1591.

Hepatocellular carcinoma is
associated with hepatitis B and C
infections, not with EBV.

Which carcinomaBurkitt's lymphoma, nasopharyngeal

carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, or thymic carcinomais
not associated with EBV?

1592.

Hepatocytes lack the enzyme succinyl

CoA acetoacetyl CoA transferase
(thiophorase).

Why is the liver unable to metabolize ketone bodies?

1593.

Hepatoma and nonseminomatous

testicular germ cell tumors

Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers.

(Some may have more than one answer.) alpha-Fetoprotein

1594.

Hereditary spherocytosis

What normochromic, normocytic AD anemia has

splenomegaly and increased osmotic fragility?

1595.

Heroin

What illicit drug can cause amyloidosis and focal

segmental glomerulosclerosis in the kidney?

1596.

Herpes I

What virus lies dormant in the Trigeminal ganglia?

1597.

Herpes II

What virus lies dormant in the Sensory ganglia of S2

and S3?

1598.

Herpesvirus

Cowdry type A bodies

1599.

Herpes virus

Name the DNA virus Linear dsDNA; nuclear envelope;

icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus

1600.

Herpes virus I and II

What viruses are associated with Cowdry type A

intranuclear inclusions?

1601.

Heterochromatin, the light stuff in the nucleus

on an electron microscope image.

What type of chromatin is transcriptionally inactive?

1602.

Hexosaminidase A

What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in Tay-Sachs

disease?

1603.

Hgb F

What type of Hgb is increased in patients with sickle cell

anemia who take hydroxyurea?

1604.

HGPRT

What enzyme of the purine salvage pathway is deficient

in the following? Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

1605.

HHV 6

What DNA virus is associated with exanthem subitum

(roseola)?

1606.

HHV-8

What virus is associated with body cavity large B-cell

lymphomas?

1607.

HHV 8

What herpes virus is associated with Kaposi sarcoma?

1608.

High average

What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is

110 to 119

1609.

A high-resistance system is formed when

resistors are added in a series.

What type of resistance system, high or low, is formed

when resistors are added in a series?

1610.

High volume, watery solution;

sympathetic stimulation results
in thick, mucoid saliva.

What type of saliva is produced under parasympathetic stimulation?

1611.

Hirschsprung disease

Name the most common type or cause. Neonatal bowel obstruction

1612.

Hirschsprung disease
(aganglionic megacolon)

What is the term for a congenital absence of the ganglionic cells of the
Auerbach and Meissner plexus in the rectum and sigmoid colon?

1613.

Hirschsprung's disease
(colonic gangliosus)

What disease results in a failure of neural crest cells to migrate to the

myenteric plexus of the sigmoid colon and rectum?

1614.

Histamine

What neurotransmitter is associated with sedation and weight gain?

1615.

Histamine

What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? The

hypothalamus

1616.

Histamine

IgE-mediated mast cell release, C3a and C5a, and IL-1 all trigger the
release of what vasoactive amine?

1617.

Histidine

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? Histamine

1618.

Histidine, because of the

imidazole ring found in the R
group, is basic.

What AA is classified as basic even though its pK is 6.5 to 7?

1619.

Histiocytes

Name the macrophage based on its location: Connective tissue

macrophages

1620.

Histiocytosis X

Birbeck granules

1621.

Histiocytosis X

What malignant tumor of the skin is associated with Birbeck granules?

1622.

Histone acetylases is a
regulator favoring gene
expression. All of the others
favor inactivation.

Which of the followingDNA methylating enzymes, scaffolding

proteins, histone acetylases, or deacetylasesis a regulator of
eukaryotic gene expression?

1623.

Histoplasma capsulatum

Which dimorphic fungus is endemic in the Ohio, Mississippi, Missouri,

and Eastern Great Lakes, is found in soil with bird and bat feces, and
is associated with infections in spelunkers and chicken coop cleaners?

1624.

Histoplasma capsulatum infects the cells of

the RES and can result in
hepatosplenomegaly.

What facultative intracellular fungus is associated with

hepatosplenomegaly?

1625.

Histrionic

Name the cluster B personality disorder: Colorful,

dramatic, extroverted, seductive, and unable to hold longterm relationships

1626.

HIV

What enveloped RNA retrovirus infects CD4 T cells and

uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase?

1627.

HIV and poxvirus

What two viruses get their envelope not from budding but
from coding?

1628.

HMG CoA reductase

What is the rate-limiting step of the following? Cholesterol

synthesis

1629.

HMG-CoA reductase

What enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is inhibited by the

statins?

1630.

HMG-CoA reductase

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in cholesterol

metabolism?

1631.

HMG CoA synthase

What is the rate-limiting step of the following?

Ketogenolysis

1632.

HMP shunt

What cytoplasmic pathway produces NADPH and is a

source of ribose 5-phosphate?

1633.

HMP shunt

Via what pathway is glycolysis increased after

phagocytosis?

1634.

hnRNA

Name the RNA subtype based on the following: Found

only in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and are precursors
of mRNA

1635.

Hodgkin lymphoma

Reed-Sternberg cells

1636.

Homeodomain proteins

What group of eukaryotic regulatory proteins has a major

factor in controlling the gene expression embryonically?

1637.

Homicide. It is also the leading cause of

death in black females aged 15 to 24.

What is the MCC of death in black males aged 15 to 24?

1638.

Homocysteine methyl transferase

What is the only enzyme in the body that uses N-5-methyl

folate?

1639.

Homocysteine methyl transferase and methylmalonyl

CoA transferase

What two enzymes are vitamin B12-dependent

1640.

Homogentisate oxidase deficiency is seen in patients

with alcaptonuria.

What enzyme deficiency results in darkening of

the urine when exposed to air?

1641.

Homogentisic oxidase

What enzyme is deficient in alkaptonuria?

1642.

Hormone secretion for T-cell differentiation and T-cell

education to recognize self from nonself

What are the two functions of the thymus in Tcell differentiation?

1643.

Hormone-sensitive lipase

What hormone is activated in adipose tissue

when blood glucose levels decrease?

1644.

Hormone-sensitive lipase, which breaks down

triglyceride into glycerol and free fatty acid

What hormone, stimulated by epinephrine,

results in an increase in lipolysis?

1645.

Hot pink with PAS and grey to black with silver stain

What color do fungi stain with PAS? Silver

stain?

1646.

Housemaid's knee

What is the name of inflammation of the

prepatellar bursa?

1647.

Howell-Jolly bodies

What is the term for RBC remnants of nuclear

chromatin in asplenic patients?

1648.

HPV

What virus produces koilocytic cells on a

Papanicolaou (Pap) smear?

1649.

HPV

What is the most common STD?

1650.

HPVs 16 and 18

What viruses are associated with cervical

carcinoma?

1651.

HPV serotypes 1 and 4

Which serotypes of HPV are associated with

plantar warts?

1652.

HPV serotypes 6 and 11

Which HPV serotypes are associated with

condyloma acuminatum?

1653.

HPV serotypes 16, 18, 31, and 33

What HPV serotypes are associated with

increased risk of cervical cancer?

1654.

HTLV-1

What retrovirus is associated with adult T-cell leukemia?

1655.

HTN

What is the most common condition leading to an intracerebral

bleed?

1656.

Human chorionic
somatomammotropin (hCS) or
human placental lactogen (hPL)

What hormone is secreted by the placenta late in pregnancy,

stimulates mammary growth during pregnancy, mobilizes energy
stores from the mother so that the fetus can use them, and has an
amino acid sequence like GH?

1657.

Humerus (between the medial

epicondyle and the trochlea)

What bone houses the ulnar groove?

1658.

Humerus with ulna (major) and

radius (minor)

Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be specific.

Elbow

1659.

Humor

Name these mature defense mechanisms: Easing anxiety with

laughter

1660.

Huntington disease

What AD disease is associated with chromosome 4p; does not

present until the person is in his or her 30s; and involves atrophy of
the caudate nucleus, dilatation of the lateral and third ventricles, and
signs of extrapyramidal lesions?

1661.

Huntington disease

What AD disorder is characterized by degeneration of GABA

neurons in the caudate nucleus resulting in atrophy, chorea,
dementia, and personality changes?

1662.

Huntington's chorea. (Death in

15-20 years, often via suicide.)

What AD dementia has a defect in chromosome 4, onset between

the ages of 30 and 40, choreoathetosis, and progressive
deterioration to an infantile state?

1663.

Huntington's chorea; patients

have chorea, athetoid
movements, progressive
dementia, and behavioral
problems.

What chromosome 4, AD disorder is a degeneration of GABA

neurons in the striatum of the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia?

1664.

Hurler syndrome and Hunter

syndrome, respectively

What syndrome results if the enzyme -1-iduronidase is deficient? Liduronate sulfatase deficiency?

1665.

Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind

to the core protein)

What is the only glycosaminoglycan (GAG) that binds to the linker

portion of the proteoglycan?

1666.

Hydatidiform mole

Preeclampsia in the first trimester, hCG levels above 100,

00 mIU/mL, and an enlarged bleeding uterus are clinical
signs of what?

1667.

Hydatidiform mole

What cystic swelling of the chorionic villi is the most

common precursor of choriocarcinoma?

1668.

Hydralazine

Which direct-acting vasodilator is associated with SLE-like

syndrome in slow acetylators?

1669.

Hydralazine, isoniazid, and procainamide

(HIP)

What three drugs are associated with SLE-like syndrome

in slow acetylators?

1670.

Hydrolysis

What form of oxidation takes place with the addition of a

water molecule and breakage of bonds?

1671.

Hydrophobic (water-insoluble) end faces

the aqueous environment and the
hydrophilic (water-soluble) end faces the
interior of the cell.

Is the hydrophobic or hydrophilic end of the phospholipids

of the cell membrane facing the aqueous environment?

1672.

Hydrostatic pressure of the glomerular

capillaries (promotes filtration)

Under normal conditions, what is the main factor that

determines GFR?

1673.

Hydroxyapatite

What is the major inorganic component of bone?

1674.

Hydroxyproline

What form of AA is found only in collagen?

1675.

Hydroxyproline

Increased urinary excretion of what substance is used to

detect excess bone demineralization?

1676.

Hydroxyproline (breakdown product of

collagen)

Excess bone demineralization and remodeling can be

detected by checking urine levels of what substance?

1677.

Hyperacute rejection

Based on the following information, is the renal

transplantation rejection acute, chronic, or hyperacute?
Immediately after transplantation; seen as a neutrophilic
vasculitis with thrombosis

1678.

Hypercortisolism (Cushing
syndrome)

Thin extremities, fat collection on the upper back and abdomen,

hypertension, hypokalemic alkalosis, acne, hirsutism, wide purple
striae, osteoporosis, hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia with insulin
resistance, and protein depletion are all characteristics of what
disorder?

1679.

Hypermyelination of the
corpus striatum and the
thalamus (seen in cerebral
palsy)

What causes slow writhing movements (athetosis)?

1680.

Hyperplasia

What is the term for an increase in the number of cells in a tissue?

1681.

Hyperpolarization (i.e., K+
influx)

What is the term for the negative resting membrane potential becoming
more negative?

1682.

Hypersegmented neutrophils

What is the first sign of megaloblastic anemia on a peripheral blood

smear?

1683.

Hypertension

What is the primary predisposing factor for vascular dementia?

1684.

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
(hypertrophic subaortic
stenosis, or IHSS)

What cardiomyopathy is due to a ventricular outflow obstruction as a

result of septal hypertrophy and leads to sudden cardiac death in young
athletes?

1685.

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

due to hypertrophy of the
muscularis externa, resulting
in a narrowed pyloric outlet

Projectile nonbilious vomiting and a small knot at the right costal margin
(olive sign) are hallmarks of what embryonic disorder?

1686.

Hypertrophic scar

What is the term for excessive production of collagen that flattens out
and does not extend beyond the site of the injury?

1687.

Hypertrophy

What is the term to describe the increase in organ size due to the
increase in cell size and function?

1688.

Hypervariable region

What region of the Ig does not change with class switching?

1689.

Hypervariable region (three

per light chain; three per
heavy chain)

Which region of the variable domain comprises the Ag-binding site of

the Ab?

1690.

Hyperventilation, which decreases CO2, shifting

the reaction to the left and decreasing H+

What is the respiratory compensation mechanism

for metabolic acidosis?

1691.

Hypnopompic hallucinations occur during

awakening, whereas hypnagogic hallucinations
occur while one is falling asleep.

What type of hallucination occurs during

awakening?

1692.

Hypnozoite

What form of Plasmodium species affects the liver?

1693.

Hypoactive sexual desire disorder

What is the term for a deficiency or absence of

sexual fantasies or desires?

1694.

Hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia

1--Hydroxylase activity is increased in response

to what two physiologic states? (hint: think of
vitamin D activity)

1695.

Hypochondriasis (they will begin with "I think I

have...")

What somatoform disorder is described as

Preoccupied with illness or death, persisting
despite reassurance, lasting longer than 6
months?

1696.

Hypoglycemia for secretion and hyperglycemia for

inhibition

What is the most potent stimulus for glucagon

secretion? Inhibition?

1697.

Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis occurs in colonic

diarrhea because of the net secretion of HCO3and potassium into the colonic lumen.

What acid-base disturbance occurs in colonic

diarrhea

1698.

Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis occurs from

vomiting because of the loss of H+, K+, and Cl-.

What acid-base disturbance is produced from

vomiting?

1699.

Hypoparathyroidism

What do low levels of Ca2+ and PO4- along with

neuromuscular irritability indicate?

1700.

Hypospadia

What is the term for the external urethra opening

onto the ventral surface of the penis?

1701.

Hypothyroidism. (TSH levels must be monitored.)

What is associated with prolonged lithium use?

1702.

Hypotonia (rag doll

appearance)

What is the term to describe the soft, flabby feel and diminished
reflexes seen in patients with acute cerebellar injury to the deep
cerebellar nuclei?

1703.

Hypotonic, because NaCl is

reabsorbed in the salivary
ducts

Are salivary secretions hypertonic, hypotonic, or isotonic?

1704.

Hypoventilation results in an
increase in PCO2 levels and
therefore an increase in blood
flow.

What is the effect of hypoventilation on cerebral blood flow?

1705.

Hypoventilation, which
increases CO2, shifting the
reaction to the right and
increasing H+

What is the respiratory compensation mechanism for metabolic

alkalosis?

1706.

Hypoxanthine (remember, IMP

is a precursor for AMP and
GMP)

What purine base is contained in inosine monophosphate?

1707.

Hypoxia

Name the most common type or cause. Cellular injury

1708.

Iatrogenesis

Name the most common type or cause. Hypothyroidism in the United

States

1709.

I-cell disease is a result of a

genetic defect affecting the
phosphorylation of mannose
residues.

What genetic defect is characterized by coarse facial features, gingival

hyperplasia, macroglossia, psychomotor and growth retardation, club
foot, claw hand, cardiorespiratory failure, and death in the first decade
of life?

1710.

ICF volume decreases when

there is an increase in
osmolarity and vice versa.

What happens to intracellular volume when there is an increase in

osmolarity?

1711.

Id

Per Freud, with what part of the unconscious are sex and aggression
(instincts) associated?

1712.

Idiotypes

What are defined by Ag-binding specificity?

1713.

IDL

Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics. apo E

1714.

Id (pleasure principle)

What Freudian psyche component is

described as The urges, sex
aggression, and "primitive"
processes?

1715.

IF-2 of the 30S subunit

What prokaryotic positioning

enzyme in translation is blocked by
the following? Streptomycin

1716.

If a carboxyl group is the R group, it is acidic; if an amino group is

the R group, it is said to be basic.

What is found in the R group if the

AA is acidic? Basic?

1717.

IF and GTP (eIF for eukaryotes)

What is needed to initiate

translation?

1718.

If positive, hypotonic urine (osmolarity <300 mOsm/L); if

negative, hypertonic urine (osmolarity > 300 mOsm/L)>>

If free water clearance (CH2O) is

positive, what type of urine is
formed? And if it is negative?

1719.

If the polyuria begins before the collecting ducts, the patient is

dehydrated and electrolyte depleted. If the polyuria originates
from the collecting ducts, the patient is dehydrated with normal
electrolytes.

What is the origin of the polyuria if a

patient is dehydrated and electrolyte
depleted?

1720.

If the ratio of the filtrate to plasma concentration of a substance is

equal, the substance is freely filtered by the kidney.

If the ratio of a substance's filtrate

and plasma concentrations are
equal, what is that substance's affect
on the kidney?

1721.

IgA

What Ig is associated with mucosal

surfaces and external secretions?

1722.

IgA

What is the major Ig of the

secondary immune response in the
mucosal barriers?

1723.

IgA

Which immunoglobulin is secreted by the plasma cells in the

gastrointestinal tract?

1724.

IgA

What Ig prevents bacterial adherence to mucosal surfaces?

1725.

IgA

What Ig activates the alternate pathway, neutralizes bacterial

endotoxins and viruses, and prevents bacterial adherence?

1726.

IgA

What Ig is the major protective factor in colostrum?

1727.

IgA deficiency; patients commonly

present with recurrent
sinopulmonary infections and GI
disturbances.

What is the most common Ig deficiency?

1728.

IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM

What are the five Ig isotypes?

1729.

IgA nephropathy

Name the most common type or cause. GN in the world

1730.

IgA nephropathy

What form of nephritic syndrome is associated with celiac sprue

and Henoch- Schnlein purpura?

1731.

IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)

Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent

staining. Mesangial deposits of IgA and C3

1732.

IgD; IgM is also correct.

What Ig is associated with Ag recognition receptor on the surface

of mature B cells?

1733.

IgE

What Ig is responsible for Antibody-Dependent Cell-mediated

Cytotoxicity of parasites, has a high-affinity Fc receptor on mast
cells and basophils, and is responsible for the allergic response?

1734.

IgE

What Ig is associated with ADCC for parasites?

1735.

IgE. It attaches via receptor for the

Fc region of the heavy epsilon chain

What Ig is associated with mast cell and basophil binding?

1736.

IGF-1

What is the major stimulus for cell division in chondroblasts?

1737.

IGF-1 (somatomedin C)

What somatomedin serves as a 24-hour marker of GH secretion?

1738.

IgG

What Ig mediates ADCC via K cells, opsonizes, and is the Ig of

the secondary immune response?

1739.

IgG

What is the major Ig of the secondary immune response?

1740.

IgG

What is the only Ig that crosses the placenta?

1741.

IgG

What Ig is responsible for activation of complement,

opsonization, and ADCC and is actively transported across the
placenta?

1742.

IgG

What is the most common circulation Ig in the plasma?

1743.

IgG3

What subtype of IgG does not bind to staphylococcal A protein?

1744.

IgG4

What subtype of IgG does not activate complement cascade?

1745.

IgG4

Which IgG cannot activate complement?

1746.

IgM

What is the Ig associated with the primary immune response?

1747.

IgM

What is the first Ab a baby makes?

1748.

IgM

What Ig activates the complement cascade most efficiently?

1749.

IgM

What is the major Ab of the primary immune response?

1750.

IgM; IgD follows shortly thereafter.

What is the first membrane-bound Ig on B cell membranes?

1751.

IL-2. T cells express IL-2 receptors on

their surface to induce self-expression.

What IL do T cells secrete to induce T-and B-cell division?

1752.

IL-3 (3 face down is an M)

What IL is important in myeloid cell development?

1753.

IL-4

Which IL is associated with increases of IgG and IgE?

1754.

IL-4, IL-10, and IL-13

What cytokines do Th2 cells secrete to inhibit Th1 cell

function?

1755.

IL-4 is secreted to activate B cells. This begins the

second step in the immune response, known as
Activation. CD4 T cells secrete INF-alpha to activate
macrophages

What cytokine do CD4 T cells secrete to

activate B cells when the specific peptide in
the groove of the MHC II molecule interacts
with the TCR?

1756.

IL-5. It also stimulates eosinophil proliferation.

Which IL increases IgA synthesis?

1757.

IL-7 (A 7 upside down is an L; L is for Lymphoid)

What IL is essential for lymphoid cell

development?

1758.

IL-8 (IL-1 and TNF-gamma also)

What is the name of the major chemotactic

agent released from Macrophages?

1759.

IL-8. It not only is chemotactic, it also acts as an

adhesive for neutrophils.

What IL, produced by macrophages, is

chemotactic for neutrophils?

1760.

IL-10

What IL down-regulates cell mediated

immunity?

1761.

Ileum

What area of the small intestine is

characterized by Peyer's patches?

1762.

Imipenem and meropenem

What bactericidal agents are resistant to lactamases and are used to treat in-hospital
life-threatening infections?

1763.

Immature B cells

During what stage of B-cell development is

IgM first seen on the surface?

1764.

Immunogenicity; antigenicity refers to Ab/lymphocyte

reaction to a specific substance.

What is the term for the inherent ability to

induce a specific immune response?

1765.

Impaired ejaculation

What are the pharmacologic effects seen

sexually with 1-Blockers?

1766.

Impotence

What are the pharmacologic effects seen

sexually with -Blockers?

1767.

Inactivated

Do local anesthetics bind to the activated or

inactivated sodium channels?

1768.

Inactivated; glucose results in decreased cAMP levels and

therefore blocks protein binding between cAMP and CAP.

Is the Lac operon activated or

inactivated in the presence of both
glucose and lactose?

1769.

In bone; nearly 99% of Ca2+ is stored in the bone as

hydroxyapatite.

Where is most of the body's Ca2+

stored?

1770.

In children, the fourth ventricle; in adults, the lateral ventricle

or spinal cord

What is the most common one?

Location of ependymomas in children

1771.

Incidence rate

What is the term for the number of new

events occurring in a population divided
by the population at risk?

1772.

Increase (5-HT and dopamine levels do the same)

What happens to NE levels in Bipolar

disorder?

1773.

Increased ACh to decreased NE levels. (NE pathway begins in

the pons and regulates REM sleep.)

What is the biochemical trigger for REM

sleep?

1774.

Increased androgen secretion at puberty drives the increased

GH secretion.

During puberty, what is the main drive

for the increased GH secretion?

1775.

Increased CO2, H+, temperature, and 2, 3-BPG levels all shift

the curve to the right, thereby making the O2 easier to remove
(decreased affinity) from the Hgb molecule.

What four factors shift the Hgb-O2

dissociation curve to the right? What is
the consequence of this shift?

1776.

Increased erection and libido

What are the pharmacologic effects

seen sexually with Dopamine
agonists?

1777.

Increased GABA levels decrease the likelihood of learned

helplessness.

Increased levels of what

neurotransmitter, in the hippocampus,
decrease the likelihood of learned
helplessness?

1778.

The increased H+ moves intracellularly and is buffered

by K+ leaving the cells, resulting in intracellular depletion
and serum excess. (Intracellular hypokalemia is the
reason you supplement potassium in diabetic
ketoacidosis, even though the serum levels are
elevated.)

Why is there a transcellular shift in K+ levels

in a diabetic patient who becomes acidotic?

1779.

Increased pulmonary arterial pressure (high perfusion)

and more distensible vessels (low resistance) result in
increased blood flow at the base.

What two factors result in the base of the

lung being hyperperfused?

1780.

Increased REM sleep, decreased REM latency, and

decreased stage 4 sleep, leading to early morning
awakening

What happens to REM, REM latency, and

stage 4 sleep during major depression?

1781.

Increased secretion of GH postpuberty leading to

acromegaly.

What hormone excess brings about

abnormal glucose tolerance testing, impaired
cardiac function, decreased body fat,
increased body protein, prognathism, coarse
facial features, and enlargements of the
hands and feet?

1782.

Increase enzyme concentrations

What is the only way to increase maximum

velocity (Vmax)?

1783.

Increase in ECF osmolarity means a in decrease in ICF

osmolarity, so cells shrink.

When the ECF osmolarity increases, what

happens to cell size?

1784.

Increase in erythropoietin and increase in 2, 3-BPG, also

called 2, 3-diphosphoglycerate (2, 3-P2Gri) (increase in
glycolysis)

What two compensatory mechanisms occur

to reverse hypoxia at high altitudes?

1785.

An increase in serum glucose levels

What is the most important stimulus for the

secretion of insulin?

1786.

An increase in the afterload decreases velocity; they are

inversely related. (V equals 1 divided by afterload.)

Regarding skeletal muscle mechanics, what

is the relationship between velocity and
afterload?

1787.

Increase in urinary excretion of HCO3-, shifting the

reaction to the right and increasing H+

What is the renal compensation mechanism

for alkalosis?

1788.

Increases

With an increase in arterial systolic

pressure, what happens to Stroke
volume?

1789.

Increases Remember, the carotid sinus reflex attempts to

compensate by increasing both TPR and heart rate. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------

When a person goes from supine to

standing, what happens to the following?
Dependent venous blood volume

1790.

Increases Remember, the carotid sinus reflex attempts to

compensate by increasing both TPR and heart rate. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------

When a person goes from supine to

standing, what happens to the following?
Dependent venous pressure

1791.

Increase the concentration of enzymes

What is the only way to increase the Vmax

of a reaction?

1792.

Increasing blood flow is the only way to increase O2

delivery in the coronary circulation because extraction is
nearly maximal during resting conditions.

What is the only way to increase O2

delivery in the coronary circulation?

1793.

Indirect hernia passes in the inguinal canal; a direct hernia

passes directly through Hesselbach's triangle.

What type of hernia is described as

passing through the deep lateral ring of the
inguinal canal?

1794.

Indirect or unconjugated

What type of bilirubin is found in neonatal

jaundice?

1795.

Indirect pathway (Tourette syndrome for example)

In what pathway of the basal ganglia do

lesions result in hyperactive cortex with
hyperkinetic, chorea, athetosis, tics, and
dystonia?

1796.

In early-morning sleep, usually between the sixth and

eighth hours

When does cortisol secretion peak?

1797.

In eukaryotes transcription occurs in the nucleus and

translation in the cytoplasm.

Why are eukaryotes unable to perform

transcription and translation at the same
time like prokaryotes?

1798.

Infant Doe. Generally, parents cannot forego lifesaving

treatment, but this case states that there are exceptions to
the rule.

What case is known as "let nature take its

course"?

1799.

Infection

Name the most common type or

cause. Hematuria

1800.

Inferior Oblique (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3

What ocular muscle Elevates and

abducts the eyeball?

1801.

Inferior pancreaticoduodenal, middle colic, right colic, ileocolic,

and 10 to 15 intestinal arteries

What are the five branches of the

superior mesenteric artery?

1802.

Inferior phrenic artery

What is the first branch of the

abdominal artery?

1803.

Inferior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3

What ocular muscle Depresses and

adducts the eyeball?

1804.

INF-gamma

What cytokine do Th1 cells secrete to

inhibit Th2 cell function?

1805.

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

What is the most common one?

Histologic variant of breast cancer

1806.

Infliximab

What is the name of the monoclonal

antibody used in the treatment of
Crohn disease and rheumatoid
arthritis?

1807.

Infrapatellar bursa

What bursa is inflamed in clergyman's

knee?

1808.

Inhaled anesthetics with low lipid solubility have low potency

(directly related), so they have rapid induction and rapid
recovery; vice versa for drugs with high lipid solubility.

How are lipid solubility and potency

related for inhaled anesthetics? How
do they affect onset and recovery?

1809.

Inhibin, mllerian-inhibiting factor, and androgen binding

protein

What three factors do Sertoli cells

produce for normal male
development?

1810.

Inhibited orgasm

What are the pharmacologic effects

seen sexually with Serotonin?

1811.

Initiate and manage gross skeletal muscle movement control

What is the function of the basal

ganglia?

1812.

In men it is prostate cancer, and

in women it is breast cancer.

What is the most common cancer diagnosed in men? In women?

1813.

The inner cortex (paracortex)

contains the T cells, so it is
considered the thymic-dependent
area.

What area of the lymph node is considered the thymic-dependent

area?

1814.

The inner membrane of the

mitochondria (cristae)

Where are the enzymes for the ETC and oxidative phosphorylation
found?

1815.

Inspiratory capacity

Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions:

The maximal volume inspired from FRC

1816.

Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions:

Additional air that can be taken in after normal inspiration

1817.

Insulin

What hormone is secreted into the plasma in response to a meal

rich in protein or CHO?

1818.

Insulin

Name the hormoneglucagon, insulin, or epinephrine:

Glycogenic, gluconeogenic, lipogenic, proteogenic, glycolytic, and
stimulated by hyperglycemia, AAs, fatty acids, ketosis, ACh, GH,
and Beta-agonist

1819.

Insulin increases intracellular K+

stores while decreasing serum K+
levels.

What is the effect of insulin on intracellular K+ stores?

1820.

Insulin increases total body stores

of protein, fat, and CHOs. When
you think insulin, you think
storage.

What is the effect of insulin on protein storage?

1821.

Insulinoma

What is the most common one? Pancreatic islet cell tumor

1822.

Insulinoma

What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with hypoglycemia,

sweating, hunger, confusion, and increased C-peptide levels?

1823.

Integrase

What enzyme does HIV use to integrate the proviral dsDNA into the
host?

1824.

Integument (skin and its derivatives)

What is the largest organ in the body?

1825.

Intellectualization

Replacing normal affect with "brain power"

1826.

Intention tremor; it is a sign of

cerebellar lesions. A tremor at rest (i.e.,
pill rolling) is seen in basal ganglia
lesions.

What is the name of the tremor that occurs during movements

and is absent while the person is at rest?

1827.

Intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM)

1

Which integrin mediates adhesion by binding to lymphocyte

function- associated Ag 1 (LFA-1) and MAC-1 leukocyte
receptors?

1828.

Intermediate part of the hemispheres

In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus

map, what area or lobe Controls distal musculature?

1829.

Internal 3', 5' PDE bonds

What bonds are broken by endonucleases?

1830.

Internal abdominal oblique

What abdominal muscle runs in a posteroinferior direction,

splits to contribute to the rectus sheath, contributes to the
formation of the conjoint tendon, and in men gives rise to the
middle spermatic fascia and the cremasteric muscle of the
spermatic cord?

1831.

Internal carotid artery

Ophthalmic artery is a branch of what artery?

1832.

Internal carotid artery

The ophthalmic artery is a branch of what vessel?

1833.

Internal carotid artery and sympathetic

plexus

Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina:

Carotid canal

1834.

An internal elastic lamina

What does the tunica intima of arteries have that veins do not?

1835.

Internal iliac nodes

What is the lymphatic drainage of the pelvic organs?

1836.

The internal laryngeal nerve supplies

sensory information from above the
vocal cords while the recurrent
laryngeal nerve supplies sensory
information below.

What nerves provide sensory innervation above the vocal

cords? Below the vocal cords?

1837.

The interposed nucleus

What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje

cell projections in The lateral cerebellar
hemispheres?

1838.

Interval scale (a ruler, for example)

What type of scale is graded into equal

increments, showing not only any difference but
how much?

1839.

In the cytoplasm of the presynaptic nerve terminal; it is

catalyzed by choline acetyltransferase.

Where does the synthesis of ACh occur?

1840.

In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord on the primary

afferent neurons

Where in the spinal cord are the presynaptic

opioid receptors?

1841.

In the first 3 months

When do hCG concentrations peak in

pregnancy?

1842.

In the first and second bronchi

Where is most of the airway resistance in the

respiratory system?

1843.

In the JG cells of the kidney

Where is renin produced?

1844.

In the medulla; all the other structures are cortical.

Where in the kidney are the long loops of Henle

and the terminal regions of the collecting
ducts?

1845.

In the mouth with salivary -amylase (ptyalin)

Where does CHO digestion begin?

1846.

In the peroxisome until it is 10 carbons long; the rest is

completed in the mitochondria.

Where does Beta-oxidation of very long chain

fatty acids begin?

1847.

In the PNS, myelin is produced by Schwann cells, in

the CNS by oligodendrocytes.

Myelin is produced by which cells in the PNS?

In the CNS?

1848.

In the RBC; remember, you need carbonic anhydrase

for the conversion, and plasma does not have this
enzyme.

Where does the conversion of CO2 into HCO3take place?

1849.

In the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus; it is

stored in the posterior pituitary gland.

Where is ADH synthesized?

1850.

In the tuberoinfundibular pathway, dopamine

release will decrease prolactin release, which is
why dopamine agonists are used in the
treaatment of hyperprolactinemic states.

What hormone can be affected by dopamine

release in the tuberoinfundibular pathway?

1851.

In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. UMN cell

bodies are in the precentral gyrus of the frontal
lobe.

Where are the LMN cell bodies of the corticospinal

tract?

1852.

Intraductal papilloma

What benign solitary papillary growth within the

lactiferous ducts of the breast commonly produces
bloody nipple discharge?

1853.

Intrapleural pressure at the base is -2.5 cm H2O

(more positive than the mean), resulting in a force
to collapse the alveoli.

At the base of the lung, what is the baseline

intrapleural pressure, and what force does it exert
on the alveoli?

1854.

Intrapleural pressure decreases (becomes more

negative).

What happens to intrapleural pressure when the

diaphragm is ontracted during inspiration?

1855.

Intrinsic factor (IF)

What substance is secreted by parietal glands and

is required for life?

1856.

Intrinsic. The extrinsic pathway is activated by the

release of tissue factors.

What pathway of the coagulation cascade is

activated when it is in contact with foreign
surfaces?

1857.

Introjection (a sports fan is a good example)

Name these immature defense mechanisms:

Taking others' beliefs, thoughts, and external stimuli
and making them part of the self. (Hint: if it's done
consciously, it is called imitation.)

1858.

Intussusception

What is the term for telescoping of the proximal

bowel into the distal segment presenting as
abdominal pain, currant jelly stools, and intestinal
obstruction?

1859.

Inulin

The clearance of what substance is the gold

standard of GFR?

1860.

Invariant chain

Which protein prevents internal binding of self proteins

within an MHC class II cell?

1861.

Invariant chain. This is essential because the

CD4 T cells have antigen receptors only for
peptides bound to the MHC II molecule.
(MHC restriction)

In MHC class II molecules, what chain blocks access to

the peptide-binding groove during transportation within
the cell, ensuring that the MHC class II-peptide complex
is transported to the surface?

1862.

Invasive ductal carcinoma

What is the most common one? Malignant tumor of the

breast

1863.

Inversely proportional: the higher the

potency, the lower the anticholinergic side
effects.

Regarding neuroleptics, what is the relationship between

potency and anticholinergic side effects?

1864.

Iodine (I)

What mineral is associated with hypothyroidism?

1865.

Iodine, resulting in congenital hypothyroidism

What intrauterine deficiency leads to failure to thrive,

mental retardation, motor incoordination, and stunted
growth?

1866.

Ionized drugs are water soluble, and since

only lipid-soluble drugs can cross
biomembranes, an ionized drug cannot cross
them without the help of a carrier.

If a drug is ionized, is it water or lipid soluble? Can it

cross a biomembrane?

1867.

Ions diffuse in the direction to bring the

membrane potential toward the equilibrium
potential.

In reference to membrane potential (Em) and equilibrium

potential (Ex), which way do ions diffuse?

1868.

Ipratropium

What is the DOC for -blocker-induced

bronchospasms?

1869.

Ipratropium

What antimuscarinic is used as an inhalant for asthma?

1870.

Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis

Describe the loss for each of the following in a

hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown-Sequard
syndrome) LMN?

1871.

Ipsilateral loss at and below the level of the

lesion

Describe the loss for each of the following in a

hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown-Sequard
syndrome) Dorsal column tract?

1872.

Ipsilateral loss below the level of the

lesion

Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of

the spinal cord. (Brown-Sequard syndrome) Corticospinal
tract?

1873.

IQ

What is defined as a general estimate of the functional

capacities of a human?

1874.

Iron deficiency anemia

Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the

following laboratory values. Decreased iron, percent saturation,
and ferritin; increased TIBC

1875.

Iron (Fe)

What mineral, via excessive depositions in the liver, causes

hemochromatosis?

1876.

Ischemia

Name the most common type or cause. Hypoxia

1877.

Ischemic

Name the most common type or cause. Acute tubular necrosis

1878.

Ischemic heart disease (MIs)

Name the most common type or cause. Death in the United

States

1879.

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in the TCA cycle?

1880.

Isocitrate dehydrogenase, ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, and

malate dehydrogenase

What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the production of the

following: NADH (hint: 3 enzymes)

1881.

Isograft

Name the type of graft described by these transplants: Between

genetically identical individuals

1882.

Isolation of affect

Fact without feeling (la belle indiffrence)

1883.

Isoleucine, leucine, and valine

What three AAs must patients with maple syrup urine disease
not eat?

1884.

Isoleucine, threonine, tryptophan,

tyrosine, and phenylalanine

What are the five AAs that are both ketogenic and glucogenic?

1885.

Isoniazid

What antitubercular agent requires vitamin B6 supplementation?

1886.

Isoniazid treatment

What is the most common cause of vitamin B6 deficiency?

1887.

Isotonic contraction

What type of muscle contraction occurs when the muscle

shortens and lifts the load placed on it?

1888.

Isotypes

What is the term for different classes and subclasses of the

same gene products?

1889.

Isovolumetric contraction

What is the most energydemanding phase of the

cardiac cycle?

1890.

It both begins and ends at T4 (sternal angle [of Louis]).

At what vertebral levels does

the aortic arch begin and end?

1891.

It causes a buildup of dATP, which inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

and leads to a decrease in deoxynucleoside triphosphate, a precursor
of DNA, resulting in overall bone marrow suppression.

How can a deficiency in

adenosine deaminase be a
bone marrow suppressor?

1892.

It decreases insulin secretion.

How does the sympathetic

nervous system affect insulin
secretion?

1893.

It forms a germinal tube at 37C.

What does Candida albicans

do that distinguishes it from
other fungi?

1894.

It increases Ca2+ excretion from the kidney and increases bone

mineralization.

What are the two actions of

calcitonin?

1895.

It increases REM and total sleep time.

How does L-tryptophan affect

sleep?

1896.

It is best to begin with open-ended questions, allowing patients to

describe in their own words what troubles them. You can then move to
closed-ended questions when narrowing the diagnosis.

What type of questions should

you begin with when a patient
seeks your medical opinion?

1897.

It is produced by the preload on the muscle prior to contraction.

Regarding muscle mechanics,

how is passive tension
produced?

1898.

It is rare with normal grief; however, it is relatively common in

depression

Is suicidal ideation a
component of normal grief?

1899.

It normally does not play a role in filtration but

becomes important when there is an obstruction
downstream.

When does the hydrostatic pressure in

Bowman's capsule play a role in opposing
filtration?

1900.

Itraconazole

What is the DOC for blastomycoses and

sporotrichoses?

1901.

It repeats every 90 to 120 minutes and correlates with

elevated levels of motilin.

A migrating myoelectric complex is a propulsive

movement of undigested material of undigested
material from the stomach to the small intestine
to the colon. During a fast, what is the time
interval of its repeats?

1902.

IVC Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at T12

What structure or structures cross the

diaphragm at T8 level?

1903.

Ixodes (also the vector for Lyme disease)

What tick is the vector for babesiosis?

1904.

Janeway lesions

Name the following descriptions associated with

bacterial endocarditis: Painless hyperemic
lesions on the palms and soles

1905.

JC virus

What virus is associated with progressive

multifocal leukoencephalopathy?

1906.

Jejunum (upper)

What area of the GI tract has the highest

activity of brush border enzymes?

1907.

The JG cells

What modified smooth muscle cells of the

kidney monitor BP in the afferent arteriole?

1908.

Job syndrome

What disease involves cold skin abscesses due

to a defect in neutrophil chemotaxis and a
serum IgE level higher than 2000?

1909.

The junction where the anterior communicating and

anterior cerebral arteries join. As the aneurysm
expands, it compresses the fibers from the upper
temporal fields of the optic chiasm, producing
bitemporal inferior quadrantanopia

What is the most common site for an aneurysm

in cerebral circulation?

1910.

Juxtaglomerular (JG) cell

What cell of the nephron is responsible for renin production

and secretion?

1911.

K1 capsule

What capsular serotype is associated with Escherichia

coli- induced meningitis?

1912.

Kartagener's syndrome (also known as

immotile cilia syndrome) ------------------------------------------------------------------------------

What syndrome is characterized by dynein arm

abnormality resulting in chronic sinusitis, recurrent
pulmonary infections, and infertility?

1913.

Kawasaki disease

What coronary artery vasculitis is seen in Japanese infants

and children less than 4 years old with acute febrile illness,
conjunctivitis, maculopapular rash, and lymphadenopathy?

1914.

Kayser-Fleischer ring

What is the name of a thin brown ring around the outer

edge of the cornea, seen in Wilson's disease?

1915.

Kayser-Fleischer rings

What is the term for the copper corneal deposits found in

Wilson's disease?

1916.

Keloid

What is the term for an abnormal amount of collagen type

III that produces a large bulging scar, seen primarily in
blacks?

1917.

Keratinocytes, the most numerous cells in

the epidermis, carry melanin and produce
keratin.

What cells of the epidermis carry the pigment melanin?

1918.

Ketamine

What is the only anesthetic that causes cardiovascular

stimulation?

1919.

Ketoconazole

What antifungal agent is used in the treatment of androgen

receptor-positive cancers?

1920.

Kidney

What is the most common one? Organ involved in

amyloidosis

1921.

Kidney

What is the most common organ involved in amyloidosis?

1922.

The kidneys excrete the excess nitrogen

from the body as urea in the urine.

What organ is responsible for the elimination of excess

nitrogen from the body?

1923.

Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease

What renal disease in diabetic patients is seen as a halo of

capillaries around the mesangial nodules?

1924.

Kinesins. Dynein
generates retrograde
transportation of
information.

What generate anterograde transport of information in a neuron?

1925.

Klatskin tumor

What is the tumor at the bifurcation of the right and left hepatic ducts?

1926.

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Name the MCC. Aspiration pneumonia in an alcoholic

1927.

Klebsiella pneumoniae

What encapsulated gram-negative, lactose-fermenting rod is associated

with pneumonia in patients with alcoholism, diabetes, and chronic lung
disease?

1928.

Klinefelter syndrome

What syndrome has elevated FSH and LH levels with decreased

testosterone levels and 47XXY karyotype?

1929.

Klinefelter syndrome

Name the most common one. Chromosomal disorder involving sex

chromosomes

1930.

Klver-Bucy syndrome

What syndrome is described as bilateral lesions of the amygdala and the

hippocampus resulting in placidity, anterograde amnesia, oral exploratory
behavior, hypersexuality, and psychic blindness?

1931.

Klver-Bucy syndrome

What syndrome is characterized by bilateral medial temporal lobe lesion,

placidity, hyperorality, hypersexuality, hyperreactivity to visual stimuli, and
visual agnosia?

1932.

Knee

What is the most common one? Joint affected in pseudogout

1933.

Krukenberg tumor

What is the name of the tumor when gastric carcinoma spreads to the
ovaries?

1934.

Kupffer cells

Name the macrophage based on its location: Liver macrophages

1935.

Kupffer cells

Name the macrophages by location: Liver

1936.

L2 to L4 (L2 to L4, thigh;

L4 to S3, leg)

What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves?

Femoral nerve

1937.

L2 to L4 (L2 to L4, thigh;

L4 to S3, leg)

What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves?

Obturator nerve

1938.

L4 to S3 (L2 to L4, thigh;

L4 to S3, leg)

What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves?

Common peroneal nerve

1939.

L4 to S3 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, leg)

What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form

the following nerves? Tibial nerve

1940.

Labetalol

What -blocker is also an -blocker?

1941.

Labile

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable,

or permanent) based on the following examples.
Epidermis

1942.

Labile

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable,

or permanent) based on the following examples.
Mucosal epithelium

1943.

Labile

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable,

or permanent) based on the following examples.
Hematopoietic cells

1944.

Labioscrotal swelling

What embryonic structure forms the adult female

structures? Labia majora

1945.

Labioscrotal swelling

What embryonic structure forms the adult male

structure? Scrotum

1946.

The lack of glutathione peroxidase activity results in

a decrease in NADPH production, leaving
glutathione in the reduced state.

What causes the lysis of RBCs by oxidizing

agents in a G-6-PD deficiency?

1947.

Lac repressor protein

Regarding the Lac operon, for what do the

following genes code? I gene

1948.

Lactose must be present and glucose must be

absent

What two requirements must be met for the Lac

operon to be activated?

1949.

Lactulose

Which laxative is used in the treatment of hepatic

encephalopathy ?

1950.

"Lady between two Majors": latissimus dorsi,

pectoralis major, and teres major

What muscles insert in or on the intertubercular

groove of the humerus?

1951.

Laminin

What component of the basement membrane binds to

collagen type IV and heparin sulfate and is a cell surface
receptor?

1952.

Langerhans cells

Name the macrophage based on its location: Epidermal

macrophages

1953.

Langerhans cells (found in the stratum

spinosum)

What cell type of the epidermis functions as antigenpresenting cells?

1954.

Large intestine. Water is passively removed

from the lumen.

What segment of the gastrointestinal tract lacks villi, has

crypts, and actively transports sodium out of its lumen?

1955.

The larger the volume of distribution, the

lower the plasma concentration of a drug.

What happens to plasma concentration of a drug if there

is a large volume of distribution?

1956.

Large segment deletions

Name the type of mutation: Unequal crossover in

meiosis with loss of protein function

1957.

LARP: Left goes Anterior and Right goes

Posterior (because of the rotation of the gut;
remember your embryology!)

What is the anatomic positioning of the right and left

gastric nerve plexus of the esophagus as they pass
through the diaphragm?

1958.

Latency stage (6-12 years)

In what stage of psychosexual development, according to

Freud, do children resolve the Oedipus complex?

1959.

Lateral collateral ligament

What structure of the knee is described thus? Prevents

adduction

1960.

Lateral compartment of the leg, superficial

peroneal nerve

Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the

nerve based on its movements. Plantar flex the foot and
evert the foot

1961.

Lateral cricoarytenoid muscles

Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following:

Adducts the vocal ligaments, closes the air passageway
during swallowing, and allows phonation

1962.

Lateral fissure (fissure of

Sylvius)

What fissure of the cerebral cortex separates the frontal and temporal
lobes rostrally and partially separates the parietal and temporal lobes?

1963.

Lateral hypothalamic zone;

lesions here result in aphagia.
(Notice the difference between
the feeding center and the
satiety center; they are in
different zones.)

What area of the hypothalamus is the feeding center?

1964.

Lateral medullary
(Wallenberg's) syndrome

What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions?

Occlusion of the PICA, resulting in ipsilateral limb ataxia, ipsilateral
facial pain and temperature loss, contralateral pain and body
temperature loss, ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, and ipsilateral
paralysis of the vocal cords, palate droop, dysphagia, nystagmus,
vomiting, and vertigo

1965.

Lateral part of the hemispheres

In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map,

what area or lobe Is involved in motor planning?

1966.

Lateral pontine syndrome

What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions?

AICA or superior cerebellar artery occlusion, resulting in ipsilateral
limb ataxia, ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, contralateral
loss of pain and temperature to the body, ipsilateral Horner's
syndrome, ipsilateral facial paralysis, and hearing loss

1967.

Lateral rectus (CN VI) (LR6

SO4)3

What ocular muscle Abducts the eyeball and is involved in horizontal

conjugate gaze?

1968.

The lateral vestibular nucleus

What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in The

flocculonodular lobe?

1969.

Latissimus dorsi

What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves?

Thoracodorsal nerve

1970.

LC4, LD4, and LE 4

What three LTs are associated with bronchospasms and an increase

in vessel permeability and vasoconstriction?

1971.

LDL

Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics.

apo B-100

1972.

LDL

What lipoprotein is formed if an IDL particle acquires

cholesterol from a HDL particle?

1973.

Lead

What type of metal poisoning causes mental retardation,

somnolence, convulsions, and encephalopathy?

1974.

Lead

Name the most common type or cause. Chronic metal

poisoning

1975.

Lead poisoning

What metal poisoning produces microcytic anemia with

basophilic stippling?

1976.

Lead-time bias (remember, patients don't

live longer with the disease; they are
diagnosed sooner.)

What form of bias is due to false estimates of survival

rates?

1977.

Left abducens nerve

Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a

patient is asked to look to the left? Left eye can't look to
the left

1978.

Left abducens nucleus or right cerebral

cortex

Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a

patient is asked to look to the left? Neither eye can look left
with a slow drift to the right

1979.

Left anterior descending artery

What artery travels with the following veins? Great cardiac

vein

1980.

Left atrial myxoma

What is the most common one? Cardiac tumor

1981.

Left atrium

What part of the heart forms Posterior wall?

1982.

Left atrium and tip of the right atrium

What part of the heart forms Base?

1983.

Left CN XII lesion would result in the

tongue pointing to the left (points at the
affected side).

What direction would the tongue protrude in a left CN XII

lesion?

1984.

A left CN X lesion results in the uvula

deviating to the right. (Uvula points away
from the affected side.)

Which direction does the uvula deviate in a left vagus nerve

lesion?

1985.

Left colic, superior rectal, and sigmoidal

arteries

What are the three branches of the inferior mesenteric

artery?

1986.

Left coronary artery

What artery supplies the left ventricle, left atrium, and

interventricular septum?

1987.

Left eye anopsia (left nasal and temporal

hemianopsia)

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. Left optic nerve

lesion

1988.

The left gastric, splenic, and common hepatic

arteries

What are the three branches of the celiac trunk?

1989.

Left heart failure

Name the most common type or cause. Right heart

failure

1990.

Left homonymous hemianopsia

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. Right calcarine

cortex lesion

1991.

Left homonymous hemianopsia

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. A right LGB lesion

(in the thalamus)

1992.

Left homonymous hemianopsia

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. Left Meyer's loop

lesion of the optic radiations.

1993.

The left is a branch of the aortic arch, while

the right is a branch of the brachiocephalic
trunk.

The left subclavian artery is a branch of what artery?

1994.

Left posterolateral side of the diaphragm,

usually resulting in pulmonary hypoplasia.

What is the most common one? Site of congenital

diaphragmatic hernias

1995.

Left: stomach, spleen, and left kidney; right:

liver, duodenum, and right kidney

What three structures are in contact with the left colic

flexure? With the right colic flexure?

1996.

Left ventricle and auricle of left atrium

What part of the heart forms Left border?

1997.

Left ventricle and tip of right ventricle

What part of the heart forms Diaphragmatic wall?

1998.

Legionella

What bacterium is diagnosed using the Dieterle silver

stain?

1999.

Legionella (think air conditioners)

What water-associated organism is a weakly stained

gram-negative rod that requires cysteine and iron for
growth?

2000.

Leiomyoma

What is the most common one? Tumor of the female

genitourinary tract

2001.

Leiomyoma

What is the most common one? Benign GI tumor

2002.

Leiomyoma (fibroids)

What is the most common one? Tumor of the female genital tract

2003.

Leishmania donovani (kala azar

is also known as visceral
leishmaniasis)

Which hemoflagellate species causes kala azar?

2004.

Lente insulin and either NPH or

protamine zinc insulin (PZI)

What two forms of insulin, if mixed together, precipitate zinc?

2005.

Lente or NPH insulin (neutral

protamine Hagedorn insulin)

Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of
action. Peak, 8 to 12 hours; duration, 18 to 24 hours

2006.

Lentigo maligna melanoma

Which form of melanoma carries the best prognosis?

2007.

Leptospira

Which organism causes Weil's disease?

2008.

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

What X-linked recessive disease involves mental retardation, selfmutilation, choreoathetosis, spasticity, a decrease in HGPRT, and an
increase in uricemia?

2009.

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

What X-linked recessive disorder is characterized by hyperuricemia,

spastic cerebral palsy, mental retardation, and self-mutilation?

2010.

Lesser curvature of the antrum

of the stomach

What is the most common one? Location of a gastric ulcer

2011.

Lethal dose for 50% of drug

takers (median lethal dose)

What do the following values indicate? LD50

2012.

Leucine and lysine

What are the two ketogenic AAs?

2013.

Leukemias

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents.

(Some may have more than one answer.) Benzenes

2014.

Leukemias and lymphomas

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents.

(Some may have more than one answer.) Alkylating agents

2015.

Leukotriene B4 (LTB4)

What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from

Neutrophils?

2016.

Leuprolide

What GnRH analog is used as a repository form of treatment in

prostatic cancer?

2017.

Levator palpebrae superioris

What muscle is most superior in the orbit?

2018.

Lewy bodies

What is the term for the round intracytoplasmic eosinophilic

inclusions containing -synuclein found in the dopaminergic
neurons of the substantia nigra?

2019.

Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH

stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with
L.)

What cell of the male reproductive system produces

testosterone?

2020.

Leydig cell tumor

What stromal tumor in males is characterized histologically

with crystalloids of Reinke?

2021.

Leydig cell tumor

What sex cell tumor causes precocious puberty,

masculinization, gynecomastia in adults, and crystalloids of
Reinke?

2022.

Leydig cell tumor

Reinke crystals

2023.

LGB (think EYES)

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output.

Input from the optic tract; output projects to the primary
visual cortex of the occipital lobe

2024.

LH

The surge of what hormone induces ovulation?

2025.

LH

For what hormone do Leydig cells have receptors?

2026.

LH has no effect on the production of

adrenal androgens; ACTH stimulates
adrenal androgen production.

What is the effect of LH on the production of adrenal

androgens?

2027.

Libman-Sacks endocarditis

What form of endocarditis do patients with SLE commonly

encounter?

2028.

Libman-Sacks endocarditis

What is the most common one? Cardiac pathology in

patients with SLE

2029.

Ligament of Treitz

The duodenal-jejunal flexure is suspended from the

posterior abdominal wall by what?

2030.

Ligament teres

What are the adult remnants of the following structures?

Left umbilical vein

2031.

Ligamentum arteriosum

What are the adult remnants of the following structures?

Ductus arteriosus

2032.

Ligamentum venosum

What are the adult remnants of the following structures? Ductus

venosus

2033.

Light regulates the activity of the

pineal gland via the retinalsuprachiasmatic- pineal pathway.

Does light or darkness regulate the pineal gland?

2034.

Limbic system

Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described:
Motivation, memory, emotions, violent behaviors, sociosexual
behaviors, conditioned responses

2035.

Limbic system

Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of

the effects, symptoms, and results of the lesion. Apathy,
aggression, inability to learn new material, and memory problems

2036.

The limbic system

What area of the brain is responsible for emotion, feeding, mating,

attention, and memory?

2037.

Lingual nerve of CN V3

What nerve supplies general sensation to the anterior two-thirds of

the tongue?

2038.

Linoleic acid and linolenic acid

What are the two essential fatty acids?

2039.

Lipid-soluble hormones are

considered slow-acting
hormones.

What type of hormone is described as having intracellular receptors,

being synthesized as needed, mostly bound to proteins, and having
its activity determined by free hormone levels?

2040.

Lipoid nephrosis

Name the most common type or cause. Nephrotic syndrome in

children

2041.

Lipoprotein lipase

What enzyme, induced by insulin and activated by apo C-II, is

required for chylomicron and VLDL metabolism?

2042.

Lipoxygenase pathway, from

arachidonic acid

What is the name of the pathway that produces leukotrienes?

2043.

Liquefaction necrosis

Name the type of necrosis. Seen as dead tissue with liquefactive

necrosis?

2044.

Liquids, CHO, protein, fat

Place in order from fastest to slowest the rate of gastric emptying for
CHO, fat, liquids, and proteins.

2045.

Lisch nodules

What is the term for pigmented iris hamartomas seen in patients

with neurofibromatosis type 1?

2046.

Lispro insulin

Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of
action. Peak, 0.3 to 2 hours; duration, 3 to 4 hours

2047.

Listeria

What gram-positive rod is distinguished by its tumbling motility?

2048.

Listeria monocytogenes

What small gram-positive, non-spore-forming rod is a facultative

intracellular parasite that grows in the cold and is associated with
unpasteurized milk products?

2049.

Listeria monocytogenes

What is the MCC of the following meningitides? In renal transplant

patients

2050.

Listeria monocytogenes

Name the most common type or cause. Meningitis in renal transplantation

patients

2051.

Lithium

What is the DOC for bipolar disorder?

2052.

Lithium

Which medication used in the treatment of bipolar disorder decreases the

release of T 4 from the thyroid gland?

2053.

Liver

What organ functions to keep blood glucose levels normal through both
well-fed and fasting states and produces ketones in response to increased
fatty acid oxidation?

2054.

Liver

What organ must metastasize for carcinoid heart disease to occur?

2055.

Liver (hepatocytes)

What is the primary target for the action of glucagon?

2056.

The liver (in the

mitochondria)

What is the only organ in the body that can produce ketone bodies?

2057.

Liver, kidney, and GI

epithelium

What are the three glycogenic organs?

2058.

Liver, kidneys, and

pituitary gland via 5'
deiodinase enzyme

What three organs are responsible for peripheral conversion of T4 to T3?

2059.

Log-kill hypothesis
(follows first order
kinetics)

What hypothesis states that an antineoplastic agent kills a fixed percentage

of tumor cells, not a fixed number?

2060.

Long-term memory is impaired in

hippocampal lesions; it is spared in
medial temporal lobe lesions.

How can you differentiate between a medial temporal lobe

and a hippocampal lesion based on memory impairment?

2061.

Long thoracic nerve. To avoid confusing

long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic
artery: long has an n for nerve; lateral
has an a for artery.

Damage to what nerve will give you winged scapula?

2062.

Look for broken blood vessels in the

baby's eyes.

In what organ system would you attempt to localize a sign for

shaken baby syndrome"? What do you look for?

2063.

Loose association

What is the term to describe jumping from one topic to the

next without any connection?

2064.

A loss of afferent activity indicates a

decrease in BP, and an increase in
afferent activity indicates an increase in
BP.

What does a loss of afferent activity from the carotid sinus

onto the medulla signal?

2065.

Loss of hypotonic fluid (alcohol,

diabetes insipidus, dehydration)

Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost with the

following changes in body hydration for the ECF volume, ICF
volume, and body osmolarity, respectively: ECF, decrease;
ICF, decrease; body: increase

2066.

Loss of isotonic fluid (diarrhea, vomiting,

hemorrhage)

Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost with the

following changes in body hydration for the ECF volume, ICF
volume, and body osmolarity, respectively: ECF, decrease;
ICF, no change; body, no change

2067.

Low average

What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is 80 to 89

2068.

Lower extremity and lower trunk information travels in the

dorsal spinocerebellar tract. The upper trunk and extremity
information travels in the cuneocerebellar tract.
(Cuneocerebellar and fasciculus cuneatus both apply to
upper extremities.)

What tract carries unconscious

proprioceptive information from the Golgi
tendon organs and muscle spindles to the
cerebellum, helping monitor and modulate
muscle movements?

2069.

Lower lobe

In which region of the lung are 75% of the

pulmonary infarcts seen?

2070.

Low interstitial free Ca2+ concentrations

What is the only important physiological

signal regulating the release of PTH?

2071.

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)

What class of heparin is active against

factor Xa and has no effect on PT or PTT?

2072.

A low-resistance system is formed by resistors added in

parallel.

What type of resistance system (i.e., high

or low) is formed when resistors are added
in parallel?

2073.

LTB4

Name the product or products of

arachidonic acid: Chemotactic for
neutrophils

2074.

LTB4

Which leukotrieneLTA4, LTB4, LTC4, or

LTD4is not associated with anaphylaxis
and bronchoconstriction?

2075.

LTB4

Which leukotriene is chemotactic for

neutrophils?

2076.

LTC4 and LTD4

Which leukotrienes are associated with

the late-phase inflammatory response?

2077.

LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4

Name the product or products of

arachidonic acid: Vasodilation,
bronchospasm, and increased vascular
permeability

2078.

Lumbar splanchnics

What preganglionic sympathetic fibers are responsible for

innervating the smooth muscle and glands of the pelvis and
the hindgut?

2079.

Lung and bronchus cancer

What is the second most common cancer diagnosed in both

males and females?

2080.

Lung cancer

What is the MCC of cancer mortality in males and females?

2081.

Lung cancer

Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes.

(Some may have more than one answer) Ki-ras and erb-2

2082.

Lung recoil, being a force to collapse the

lung, increases as the lung enlarges
during inspiration.

What is the name of the force that develops in the wall of the
lungs as they expand?

2083.

The lung will expand; also the opposite

is true.

What happens to the lung if the intrapleural pressure exceeds

lung recoil?

2084.

Luteal phase

What is the term for days 15 to 28 in the female cycle?

2085.

LVEDV and LVEDP (left ventricular enddiastolic volume and end-diastolic

pressure, respectively)

What are the two best indices of left ventricular preload?

2086.

Lymph nodes

What lymphoid organ has the following characteristics: outer

and inner cortical areas, encapsulation, germinal centers,
and high endothelial venules?

2087.

Lymphoblastic lymphoma

What rapidly progressive and aggressive T-cell lymphoma

affects young males with a mediastinal mass (thymic)?

2088.

Lysine and arginine

What are the two most common AAs found in histones?

2089.

Lysine and tyrosine

What two AAs have a pKa of 10?

2090.

Lysosomal -1, 4-glucosidase

What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen storage

disease? Pompe's disease

2091.

M 1 and nicotinic receptors are

excitatory in the CNS and M 2 receptor
is inhibitory.

Which CNS ACh receptor or receptors are excitatory?

Inhibitory?

2092.

M2

Which muscarinic receptor uses a decrease

in adenyl cyclase as its second messenger?

2093.

M3 (promyelocytic leukemia)

Which subtype of AML is most commonly

associated with Auer rods?

2094.

M12 strains

Which M-protein strain of Streptococcus

pyogenes is associated with acute
glomerulonephritis?

2095.

(MA/CA) x 100 = IQ score, where MA = mental age and

CA = chronological age

What is the formula to calculate IQ?

2096.

Macrophages

What cell in chronic inflammation is derived

from blood monocytes?

2097.

Macula densa

What cells of the kidney are extravascular

chemoreceptors for decreased Na+, Cl-, and
NaCl?

2098.

Macula densa

What cells of the nephron function as

sodium concentration sensors of the tubular
fluid?

2099.

Macula densa

Which extravascular chemoreceptor detects

low NaCl concentrations?

2100.

Macule (e.g., a freckle)

What is flat, circumscribed nonpalpable

pigmented change up to 1 cm?

2101.

Magnesium

What is the DOC for treating torsade de

pointes?

2102.

Magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite)

What renal calculus is associated with ureasplitting bacteria?

2103.

The main drive shifts from central chemoreceptors (CSF

H+) to peripheral chemoreceptors monitoring low PO2
levels.

In high altitudes, what is the main drive for

ventilation?

2104.

Major

Are the following major or minor Jones

criteria of rheumatic fever? Erythema
marginatum

2105.

Major

Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever?

Sydenham chorea

2106.

Major

Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever?

Pericarditis

2107.

Major

Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever?

Subcutaneous nodules

2108.

Major

Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever?

Migratory polyarthritis

2109.

Major basic protein

What substance found in eosinophils is toxic to parasitic worms?

2110.

Malassezia furfur (treat with

selenium sulfide)

What fungus is characterized by hypopigmented spots on the thorax,

spaghetti-and-meatball KOH staining, and pityriasis or tinea versicolor?

2111.

Male pseudohermaphrodite
(dude looks like a lady!)

What condition is characterized by a 46XY karyotype, testes present, and

ambiguous or female external genitalia?

2112.

Male pseudo-intersexuality
(hermaphrodite); these
individuals are 46XY.

What disorder is due to a 5--reductase deficiency, resulting in testicular

tissue and stunted male external genitalia?

2113.

Malignancy

What disorder is associated with loss of polarity, anaplasia,

pleomorphism, discohesiveness, increase in the nuclear:cytoplasmic
ratio, hyperchromasia, and increase in the rate of mitosis?

2114.

Malignant mesothelioma

In what rare lung malignancy have 90% of patients had an occupational

exposure to asbestos?

2115.

Malingering

What disorder is described as having Conscious symptoms with

conscious motivation?

2116.

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

What is the term for severe and protracted vomiting resulting in linear
lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction?

2117.

Malpighian layer (made up

of the stratum basale and
stratum spinosum)

On what layer of the epidermis does all mitosis occur?

2118.

Mannitol

What IV-only agent inhibits water reabsorption in the PCTs and is used to
treat increased intracranial pressure, increased intraocular pressure, and
acute renal failure?

2119.

Mantle cell lymphoma

Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may
have more than one answer) cyclin D

2120.

Mantle cell lymphoma

What lymphoma is characterized by CD19, CD20, CD5; CD23-negative;

and chromosome 11;14 translocations?

2121.

Marfan syndrome

Name the AD disease associated with chromosome 15 in which the patient

has long extremities, lax joints, pigeon chest, and posterior mitral leaflet
prolapse and is prone to developing dissecting aortic aneurysm.

2122.

Marfan syndrome

What syndrome arises from mutation in the fibrillin gene (FBN1) on

chromosome 15q21?

2123.

Marijuana

What drug causes a sixfold increase in schizophrenia, can impair motor

activity, and can cause lung problems?

2124.

Marrow failure, cancer,

and leukemia

What are the three causes of normochromic normocytic anemia with a

normal MCV and a low reticulocyte count?

2125.

Masochism

What paraphilia is defined as Deriving sexual pleasure from being abused

or in pain?

2126.

Massive influx of calcium

Influx of what ion is associated with irreversible cell injury?

2127.

Mast cells

What is the term to describe basophils that have left the bloodstream and
entered a tissue?

2128.

Mast cells

What is the term for tissue-based basophils?

2129.

Mature B cell; the

memory B cell can have
IgG, IgA, or IgE on its
surface.

At what stage of B-cell development can IgM or IgD be expressed on the cell
surface?

2130.

Maxillary division of CN V
and glossopharyngeal
nerves

What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of Nasopharynx?

2131.

McArdle's syndrome

What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies?

Muscle phosphorylase

2132.

M-cells

What cell transports IgA, is secreted by plasma cells, and is in Peyer's patches to
the gastrointestinal lumen?

2133.

Mean

What is the term to describe the average?

2134.

Mean corpuscular
hemoglobin
concentration
(MCHC)

What is the name for the following RBC indices? Average Hgb concentration/given
volume of packed RBCs

2135.

Mean corpuscular
hemoglobin
(MCH)

What is the name for the following RBC indices? Average mass of the Hgb
molecule/RBC

2136.

Mean corpuscular
volume (MCV)

What is the name for the following RBC indices? Average volume of a RBC

2137.

Measles (rubeola)

What negative sense RNA virus is associated with cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis
with photophobia?

2138.

Measurement bias

What type of bias is it when the information is distorted because of the way it is
gathered?

2139.

Mebendazole

What inhibitor of microtubule synthesis is the drug of choice for whipworm and
pinworm?

2140.

Meckel
diverticulum

What congenital small bowel outpouching is a remnant of the vitelline duct?

2141.

Meclizine

Which antihistamine is one of the DOCs for treatment of vertigo?

2142.

Medial collateral
ligament

What structure of the knee is described thus? Prevents abduction

2143.

Medial
compartment of
the thigh,
obturator nerve

Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its
movements. Adduct the thigh and flex the hip

2144.

Medial medullary
syndrome

What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? Vertebral

artery or anterior spinal artery occlusion, resulting in contralateral corticospinal tract
and medial lemniscus tract deficits and an ipsilateral CN XII lesion

2145.

Medial meniscus

What structure of the knee is described thus? C-shaped shock absorber; aids in
attachment of the tibia to the femur via the medial collateral ligament

2146.

Medial
midbrain
(Weber's)
syndrome

What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? Posterior cerebral
artery occlusion resulting in a contralateral corticospinal tract signs, contralateral
corticobulbar signs to the lower face, and ipsilateral CN III palsy

2147.

Medial
nuclear group
(limbic
system)

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. Input from the amygdala,
prefrontal cortex, and temporal lobe; output to the prefrontal lobe and the cingulated
gyrus

2148.

Medial
pontine
syndrome

What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? Contralateral

corticospinal and medial lemniscus tract deficits and an ipsilatera medial strabismus
secondary to a lesion in CN VI

2149.

Medial rectus
(CN III) (LR6
SO4)3

What ocular muscle Adducts the eyeball and is involved in horizontal conjugate gaze?

2150.

Medial
umbilical
ligaments

What are the adult remnants of the following structures? Right and left umbilical
arteries

2151.

Median nerve

What nerve is compromised in carpal tunnel syndrome?

2152.

Median nerve

What nerve is associated with the following functions? Flex the wrist and digits,
pronate the wrist and the LOAF (Lumbricales, Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis
brevis, Flexor pollicis brevis) muscles of the hand

2153.

Median nerve
lesion

What nerve lesion presents with ape or simian hand as its sign?

2154.

Median (think
of it as the
halfway point)

What is the term for the point on a scale that divides the population into two equal parts?

2155.

Medulla
blastoma

What is the most common one? Primary CNS tumor in children

2156.

Medullary
carcinoma of
the thyroid

What thyroid carcinoma secretes calcitonin and arises from the parafollicular C cells?

2157.

Medullary
carcinoma of
the thyroid

Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more
than one answer.) Calcitonin

2158.

Mees lines

What is the term for transverse bands on the fingernails seen in

patients with chronic arsenic poisoning?

2159.

Megaloblastic anemia (decreased

absorption of vitamin B12 and folic
acid)

What blood disorder is a side effect of metformin?

2160.

Megaloblasts

Macro-ovalocytes in the peripheral blood smear are formed from

what cell in the bone marrow?

2161.

Meiosis I; disjunction with

centromere splitting occurs during
meiosis II.

The separation of 46 homologous chromosomes without splitting

of the centromeres occurs during what phase of meiosis?

2162.

Melanin

What endogenous pigment found in the substantia nigra and

melanocytes is formed by the oxidation of tyrosine to
dihydroxyphenylalanine?

2163.

Melanocytes

What cell type of the epidermis originates from the neural crest?

2164.

Melanoma

Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some

may have more than one answer) CDK4

2165.

Melanoma, cancer of the stomach

and bladder

Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some

may have more than one answer) hst-1 and int-2

2166.

Melanosis coli

What is the term for black pigmentation of the colon associated

with laxative abuse?

2167.

Melasma

What skin condition has irregular blotchy patches of

hyperpigmentation on the face commonly associated with OCP
use and pregnancy?

2168.

Melatonin. It is a light-sensitive
hormone that is associated with
sleepiness.

What pineal hormone's release is inhibited by daylight and

increased dramatically during sleep?

2169.

Melatonin, serotonin, and CCK

Name the three hormones produced by pinealocytes.

2170.

Membrane conductance (think

conductance = channels open)

What is the term that refers to the number of channels open in a

cell membrane?

2171.

Membrane depolarization is the stimulus to

open these channels, which are closed in
resting conditions.

What is the signal to open the voltage-gated

transmembrane sodium channels?

2172.

Membrane depolarization is the stimulus to

open these slow channels, and if they are
prevented from opening, it will slow down
the repolarization phase.

What is the signal to open the voltage-gated

transmembrane potassium channels?

2173.

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
(MGN)

Name the most common type or cause. Nephrotic

syndrome

2174.

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
(MPGN)

What GN is highly associated with hepatitis B and C

infections?

2175.

Membranous glomerulonephritis

What renal pathology involves uniform thickening of the

glomerular capillary wall, granular appearance under the
microscope, and effacement of foot processes?

2176.

Membranous septal defects are

interventricular; a persistent patent ovale
results in an interatrial septal defect.

Is a membranous septal defect more commonly

interventricular or interatrial?

2177.

Mntrier's disease

What protein-losing enteropathy has grossly enlarged

rugal fold in the body and fundus of the stomach in
middle-aged males, resulting in decreased acid
production and an increased risk of gastric cancer?

2178.

MEN II and III syndromes

Name the cancer associated with the following

oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) et

2179.

MEN IIa (or Sipple syndrome)

Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the

following? Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid,
pheochromocytoma, and parathyroid adenomas (or
hyperplasia)

2180.

MEN III (or IIb)

Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the

following? Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid,
pheochromocytoma, and mucocutaneous neuromas

2181.

Meningioma

What slow-growing primary CNS tumor that affects mostly

females is associated with psammoma bodies?

2182.

Meningocele All except occulta cause

elevated-fetoprotein levels.

Name the form of spina bifida. Meninges project through a

vertebral defect

2183.

Meningococcus (Gonococcus does

not)

Which gram-negative diplococcus ferments maltose?

2184.

Meningococcus grows on chocolate

agar, and Gonococcus grows on
Thayer-Martin medium.

Which gram-negative diplococcus grows on chocolate agar?

Thayer- Martin medium?

2185.

Meningomyelocele All except occulta

cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.

Name the form of spina bifida. Meninges and spinal cord

project through a vertebral defect

2186.

MEN I (or Wermer syndrome)

Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the

following? Parathyroid, pancreatic, and pituitary gland tumors
and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

2187.

Menses

What is the term for days 1 to 7 of the female cycle?

2188.

Menses. (Ovulation occurs 14 days

before the beginning of menses.)

What is the term for the first 3 to 5 days of the female

reproductive cycle?

2189.

Mentally disabled

What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is Below 69

2190.

Mercury

What type of acute metal poisoning involves stomach and colon

erosion and acute tubular necrosis?

2191.

Merkel cells (Merkel's tactile cells)

What cells of the epidermis, derived from the neural crest, act
as mechanoreceptors?

2192.

Mesangial macrophages

Name the macrophages by location: Kidney

2193.

Mesencephalic nucleus

What component of the trigeminal nuclei Forms the sensory

component of the jaw jerk reflex?

2194.

Mesencephalon

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). Midbrain

2195.

Mesencephalon

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). Cerebral
aqueduct

2196.

Mesocortical area

In what area of the brain can an excess of dopamine lead to psychotic

symptoms?

2197.

Mesolimbic system

What area of the brain is linked to emotion and movement?

2198.

Mesonephric duct

What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? Epididymis,

ductus deferens, seminal vesicle, and ejaculatory duct

2199.

Mesonephric duct

What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? Gartner's

duct

2200.

Mesonephric duct (ureteric

bud)

What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures?

Collecting ducts, calyces, renal pelvis, and ureter

2201.

Mesothelioma and
bronchogenic carcinoma

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some
may have more than one answer.) Asbestos

2202.

Metabolic acidosis (summary:

low pH, high H+, and low
HCO3-)

What primary acid-base disturbance is caused by a gain in fixed acid

forcing the reaction to shift to the left, decreasing HCO3- and slightly
increasing CO2?

2203.

Metabolic alkalosis
(summary: high pH, low H+
and high HCO3-)

What primary acid-base disturbance is caused by a loss in fixed acid

forcing the reaction to shift to the right, thereby increasing HCO3levels?

2204.

Metabolic rate and alveolar

ventilation (main factor)

What are the two factors that affect alveolar PCO2 levels?

2205.

Metanephros

What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures?

Nephrons, kidney

2206.

Metaphase II

At ovulation, in what stage of meiosis II is the secondary oocyte

arrested?

2207.

Metaphase of meiosis II (in

the oocyte of the graafian
follicle)

What is the second arrested stage of development in the female

reproductive cycle?

2208.

Metaplasia (usually to a more protective

cell type)

What is the term for a reversible change in one cell type to

another?

2209.

Metaproterenol and albuterol

What two 2-agonists are used to produce bronchodilation?

2210.

Metaraminol (1, 1 )

What 1-agonist is used to treat paroxysmal atrial

tachycardia with hypotension?

2211.

Metastatic

What is the most common one? Brain tumor

2212.

Metastatic

What is the most common one? Bone tumor

2213.

Metastatic calcification

What is the term for hypercalcemia resulting in precipitation

of calcium phosphate in normal tissue?

2214.

Metastatic carcinoma

What is the most common one? Liver tumor

2215.

Metastatic carcinomas

What is the most common one? Neoplastic tumor in the

lungs

2216.

Metformin

What oral hypoglycemic agent should be used with caution

in patients with CHF because it causes lactic acidosis?

2217.

Methanol

Which form of alcohol toxicity results in ocular damage?

2218.

Methanol (wood alcohol)

What form of alcohol causes blindness?

2219.

Methicillin

Which penicillin can cause interstitial nephritis?

2220.

Methionine (start) and tryptophan are the

only two AAs with only one codon.

What two AAs do not have more than one codon?

2221.

Methyldopa

Which centrally acting 2-adrenergic agonist is safe for use

in renal dysfunction and in HTN during pregnancy?

2222.

Methylene blue

Name the antidote. Nitrates

2223.

Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

What is the drug of choice for treating ADHD?

2224.

Metronidazole

Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is

listed. Teratogenicity

2225.

Metronidazole

What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections?

Trichomoniasis

2226.

Metronidazole

What is the DOC for the following

protozoal infections? Giardiasis

2227.

Metronidazole

What is the DOC for the following

protozoal infections? Amebiasis

2228.

Metronidazole

What is the DOC for treating Entamoeba

histolytica, Giardia, Trichomonas, Bacillus
fragilis, and Clostridium difficile infections?

2229.

M:F 4:1 committing, but M:F ratio of attempts is 1:3 (males

commit more but females try it more)

What is the male-to-female ratio for

committing suicide?

2230.

MGB

Which thalamic nucleus receives auditory

input from the inferior colliculus?

2231.

MGB (think EARS)

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its

input and output. Input from inferior
colliculus; output to primary auditory
cortex

2232.

MGN

Name the most common type or cause.

Nephritic syndrome in adults

2233.

MHC class I Ags (the endogenous pathway). This allows

the body to eliminate tumor cells, virus-infected cells
anything the body recognizes as nonself via CD8+ T cells.

What MHC class functions as a target for

elimination of abnormal host cells?

2234.

MHC class I antigens; they are also found on the surface of

platelets.

What MHC class of antigens do all

nucleated cells carry on their surface
membranes?

2235.

MHC class II Ags. This is accomplished via CD4 T cells.

What MHC class acts to remove foreign

Ags from the body?

2236.

MI

Name the MCC of death. In diabetic

individuals

2237.

Microcytotoxic assay

What assay is used to identify MHC class

I molecules?

2238.

Microglia

Name the macrophage based on its location: Brain macrophages

2239.

Microglia. All others are

neuroectodermal derivatives.

What is the only neuroglial cell of mesodermal origin?

2240.

Microglial cells

Name the macrophages by location: CNS

2241.

Microglia (Microglia and

mesoderm both begin with M)

What glial cell is derived from mesoderm and acts as a scavenger,

cleaning up cellular debris after injury?

2242.

Microsporum

Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with the following sites of

infection? Hair and skin only

2243.

Microvillus

What cell membrane structure increases the surface area of a cell and
has actin randomly assorted within its structure?

2244.

Midazolam

Which benzodiazepine is most commonly used IV in conscious

sedation protocols?

2245.

Middle

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the

following thoracic structures: Heart and pericardium

2246.

Middle

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the

following thoracic structures: Ascending aorta

2247.

Middle

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the

following thoracic structures: IVC

2248.

Middle

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the

following thoracic structures: Pulmonary artery and veins

2249.

Middle cerebral artery

What artery supplies most of the lateral surfaces of the cerebral

hemispheres?

2250.

Middle cerebral artery

What is the most common one? Site of a cerebral infarct

2251.

Middle meningeal artery

Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina:

Foramen spinosum

2252.

Middle meningeal artery

Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular

pathologies. Epidural hemorrhage

2253.

Middle meningeal artery

What vessel is lacerated in an epidural hematoma?

2254.

MIF

What hormone, produced by Sertoli cells, if absent would result in the formation of
internal female structures?

2255.

Mikulicz syndrome

What condition is manifested by bilateral sarcoidosis of the parotid glands,

submaxillary gland, and submandibular gland with posterior uveal tract
involvement?

2256.

Mild (50-70)

What level of mental retardation is characterized by Being self-supportive with

minimal guidance and able to be gainfully employed (includes 85% of the mentally
retarded)?

2257.

Minimal change
disease

Name the most common type or cause. Nephritic syndrome in children

2258.

Minimal change
disease

What nephrotic syndrome has effacement of the epithelial foot processes without
immune complex deposition?

2259.

Minocycline

What tetracycline is associated with vestibular toxicity?

2260.

Minor

Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? Elevated acute
phase reactants (e.g., ESR)

2261.

Minor

Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? Arthralgias

2262.

Minor

Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? Fever

2263.

Minoxidil (orally
and topically,
respectively!)

Which -blocking agent is used to treat refractory hypertension and baldness?

2264.

Misoprostol

What medication is a PGE1 analog that results in increased secretions of mucus

and HCO3-in the GI tract?

2265.

Missense

Name the type of mutation: New codon specifies a different AA

2266.

Mitochondria

In what organelle does the TCA cycle occur?

2267.

Mitochondria

What organelles make ATP, have their own dsDNA, and can synthesize protein?

2268.

Mitochondrial
inheritance

What pattern of genetic transmission is characterized by no transmission from M,

maternal inheritance, and the potential for the disease to affect both sons and
daughters of affected F?

2269.

Mitochondria-linked disorders are

always inherited from the mother.

Who is responsible for passing on mitochondrial DNA genetic

disorders?

2270.

Mitosis

What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic

agents specific for? Vincristine

2271.

Mitosis

What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic

agents specific for? Vinblastine

2272.

Mitosis

What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic

agents specific for? Paclitaxel

2273.

Mitral (bicuspid) valve

What is the only valve in the heart with two cusps?

2274.

Mitral insufficiency

Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria:

Back-filling into the left atrium during systole; increased v-wave,
preload, left atrial volume, and left ventricular filling

2275.

Mitral stenosis

Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria:

Diastolic murmur, increased right ventricular pressure, left atrial
pressure, and atrial to ventricular pressure gradient; decreased left
ventricular filling pressure

2276.

Mitral valve closure indicates the

termination of the ventricular filling
phase and beginning of
isovolumetric contraction.

The closure of what valve indicates the beginning of isovolumetric

contraction?

2277.

Mitral valve prolapse

What is your diagnosis of a young, thin asymptomatic female with

a midsystolic click on cardiac auscultation?

2278.

Mitral valve stenosis

What is the most common one? Valve abnormality associated

with rheumatic fever

2279.

Mixed (both cholesterol and

calcium)

What is the most common one? Stone type associated with

cholecystitis

2280.

Mode

The most frequent number occurring in a population is what?

2281.

Moderate (35-49)

What level of mental retardation is characterized by Can

work in sheltered workshops and learn simple tasks but need
supervision?

2282.

Molindone

What is the only neuroleptic that does not cause an increase

in weight or appetite?

2283.

Molluscum contagiosum

What virus causes small pink benign wartlike tumors and is

associated with HIV-positive patients?

2284.

Molybdenum (Mb)

What mineral is an important component of the enzyme

xanthine oxidase?

2285.

Monosodium urate crystals

What type of crystals are associated with gout?

2286.

More Ab is produced in less time in a

secondary immune response (shorter
lag period).

Are more Abs produced in a primary or a secondary immune

response?

2287.

More than 75% of the vessel

How much of a vessel must be stenosed to cause sudden

cardiac death?

2288.

Motilin

What hormone causes contractions of smooth muscle,

regulates interdigestive motility, and prepares the intestine for
the next meal?

2289.

Motor

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor,

sensory, or both) Ventral root?

2290.

Motor aspect

What component of the corneal reflex is lost in a CN VII

deficit?

2291.

Motor nucleus of CN V

What component of the trigeminal nuclei Supplies the

muscles of mastication?

2292.

The mouth

What structure is derived from the prochordal plate?

2293.

Moving objects, along with large bright

objects with curves and complex
designs.

Do newborns have a preference for still or moving objects?

2294.

mRNA

Name the RNA subtype based on the following: Only type of

RNA that is translated

2295.

MstII; changing codon 6 (from A to T)

destroys the restriction site.

What restriction endonuclease site is destroyed in sickle globin allele?

2296.

Multiple myeloma

What is the most common one? Tumor arising within the bone

2297.

Multiple myeloma

Bence-Jones proteinuria

2298.

Multiple myeloma

Russell bodies

2299.

Multiple myeloma

A 60-year-old man has back pain (compression spinal fracture), hypercalcemia,

increased serum protein, Bence- Jones proteinuria, and monoclonal M-spike on
serum electrophoresis. What is your diagnosis?

2300.

Multiple sclerosis

What CNS demyelinating disease is characterized by diplopia, ataxia,

paresthesias, monocular blindness and weakness, or spastic paresis?

2301.

Mumps

Name the most common cause. Infectious pancreatitis

2302.

Mumps

What negative sense RNA virus is associated with parotitis, pancreatitis, and
orchitis?

2303.

Mumps and
influenza virus

Which two negative sense RNA viruses have neuraminidase enzymes?

2304.

Mnchhausen's
syndrome
(factitious
disorder)

In which syndrome does a person present with intentionally produced physical

ailments with the intent to assume the sick role?

2305.

Mural infarct

What is the term for hypoperfusion of an area involving only the inner layers?

2306.

Muscle glycogen
phosphorylase

What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen storage disease? McArdle's

disease

2307.

The muscle's
ATPase activity

What determines the Vmax of skeletal muscle?

2308.

Muscles of the
internal eye

What adult structures are derived from preotic somites?

2309.

Musculocutaneous
nerve

What nerve is associated with the following functions? Flex the shoulder, flex the
elbow, and supinate the elbow

2310.

Musculophrenic
and superior
epigastric arteries

At the level of rib 6, the internal thoracic artery divides into what two arteries?

2311.

Myasthenia gravis

What myopathy due to autoantibodies to ACh receptors can present with thymic
abnormalities, red cell aplasia, and muscle weakness?

2312.

Myasthenia gravis

What autoimmune disorder is due to Abs directed to ACh receptors at the NMJ?

2313.

Myasthenia gravis

A 20-year-old woman goes to the ER with ptosis, diplopia, weakness in

her jaw muscles when chewing, and muscle weakness with repeated
use. What is your diagnosis?

2314.

Myasthenia gravis

What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as Autoantibodies

directed against ACh receptors?

2315.

Mycobacterium leprae

Which acid-fast rod is an obligate intracellular parasite?

2316.

Mycobacterium marinum

A tropical fish enthusiast has granulomatous lesions and cellulitis; what

is the most likely offending organism?

2317.

Mycoplasma

What genus is known as the smallest free living bacteria? (hint: has no
cell wall and has sterols in the membrane)

2318.

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Name the MCC. Walking pneumonia, seen in teens and military

recruits

2319.

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

What atypical pneumonia can be diagnosed with elevated cold

agglutinin titers?

2320.

Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous

T-cell lymphoma)

What skin carcinoma is a superficial dermal infiltrate of T lymphocytes

seen in males more than 40 years old and presents as scaly red
patches or plaques?

2321.

Myelofibrosis with myeloid

metaplasia

What myeloid disorder is characterized by dry bone marrow

aspirations, splenomegaly, leukoerythroblastosis, teardrop RBCs, and
hyperuricemia due to increased cell turnover?

2322.

Myeloperoxidase

What oxygen-dependent killing enzyme requires hydrogen peroxide

and halide (Cl-) to produce hypochlorous acid?

2323.

Myeloschisis All except occulta

cause elevated-fetoprotein
levels.

Name the form of spina bifida. An open neural tube lying on the
surface of the back

2324.

The myotatic reflex is

responsible for the tension
present in all resting muscle.

What basic reflex regulates muscle tone by contracting muscles in

response to stretch of that muscle?

2325.

N-5-methyl THF

In what form is excess folate stored in the body?

2326.

N-Acetylcysteine

Name the antidote. Acetaminophen

2327.

NaCl is removed from the lumen to

dilute the fluid leaving the loop of
Henle.

What is pumped from the lumen of the ascending loop of Henle

to decrease the osmolarity?

2328.

NADPH and molecular O 2

What are the two absolute requirements for the cytochrome

P450 enzyme system?

2329.

NADPH, O2, and cytochrome b5

What three things are needed to produce a double bond in a

fatty acid chain in the endoplasmic reticulum?

2330.

NADPH oxidase

What enzyme is deficient in chronic granulomatous disease of

childhood?

2331.

NADPH oxidase is deficient, resulting

in an inability to produce toxic
metabolites.

What enzyme is deficient in patients with CGD?

2332.

Naloxone, naltrexone

Name the antidote. Opioids

2333.

Naloxone or naltrexone

Which drug is used to treat respiratory depression associated

with an overdose of opioids?

2334.

Narcissistic

Name the cluster B personality disorder: Grandiose sense of

self-importance; demands constant attention; fragile selfesteem; can be charismatic

2335.

Nasal polyps, rhinitis, and aspirin

hypersensitivity

What are the three components to the asthma triad?

2336.

Nasopharynx

What region of the pharynx does the eustachian tube enter?

2337.

Native Americans

What ethnic group has the highest adolescent suicide rate?

2338.

NAVEL: Femoral Nerve, Artery, Vein,

Empty space, and
Lymphatics/Lacunar ligament

Name the components of the femoral canal, working laterally to

medially.

2339.

NE

What neurotransmitter is presynaptically inhibited by reserpine

and guanethidine?

2340.

NE

What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites?

Postganglionic sympathetic neurons

2341.

Nearly 25% of patients taking lithium develop polyuria and

polydipsia.

What renal side effect is

commonly seen in patients taking
lithium?

2342.

Nearly 50% of all reported cases of elderly abuse are due to

neglect. Physical, psychological, and financial are other forms of
elderly abuse with an overall prevalence rate of 5% to 10%.

What is the most common form of

elderly abuse?

2343.

Necator americanus is treated with mebendazole and iron therapy.

What nematode is known as

hookworms? What is the
treatment?

2344.

Necrophilia

What paraphilia is defined as

Having sex with cadavers?

2345.

Necrotizing enterocolitis

What is the most common one?

Acquired GI emergency of infancy

2346.

Need 3 panic attacks over 3 weeks (remember, they come out of

the blue.)

How many attacks are needed

over how much time before panic
disorder is diagnosed?

2347.

nef and tat genes

What two HIV regulatory genes

down-regulate MHC class I
expression in the host?

2348.

Negative

Are the following conditions

associated with a negative or
positive nitrogen balance?
Kwashiorkor

2349.

Negative

Are the following conditions

associated with a negative or
positive nitrogen balance?
Infection

2350.

Negative

Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive

nitrogen balance? AA deficiency

2351.

Negative

Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive

nitrogen balance? Starvation

2352.

Negative

Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive

nitrogen balance? Uncontrolled DM

2353.

The negative charge inhibits the

filtration of protein anions.

What is the role of the negative charge on the filtering membrane of

the glomerular capillaries?

2354.

Negative correlation

What type of correlation is defined as One variable that diminishes

in the presence of the other?

2355.

Negative predictive value

The probability that a person with a negative test result is truly

disease free refers to what value?

2356.

Negative reinforcement

Based on operant conditioning, what type of reinforcement is

described when Removing a stimulus reinforces a behavior?

2357.

Negative selection. This helps to

prevent autoimmune diseases.

What is the term for thymic induction of T cells with high-affinity Ag

receptors for self that are programmed to undergo apoptosis?

2358.

Neisseria gonorrhea (history of

STD in patient with monoarticular
infectious arthritis: think
gonococcus)

A 20-year-old woman who was recently diagnosed with a sexually

transmitted disease goes to the ER with a tender, painful, swollen,
and erythematous knee (monoarticular). What organism is the likely
culprit?

2359.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A urethral swab of a patient shows gram-negative diplococci in

PMNs; what organism do you diagnose?

2360.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae and

Chlamydia trachomatis

What are the two MCC of acute epididymitis in males? Less than
35 years old

2361.

Neisseria meningitides

What is the MCC of the following meningitides? In military recruits

2362.

Neisseria meningitidis

Which organism releases endotoxins prior to cell death?

2363.

Neologisms. Thomas Jefferson noted,

"Necessity obliges us to neologize."
(Abnormal use of neologisms is known as
neolalism.)

What is the term for new made-up words?

2364.

Neomycin

Which aminoglycoside is used only topically because it is

too toxic for systemic use?

2365.

Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

(NRDS)

Name the MCC of death. In neonates

2366.

Nephroblastoma

What is the most common one? Solid tumor in the body

2367.

Nephrotoxicity

What toxicities are caused by the following agents?

Methoxyflurane

2368.

Nephrotoxic oxylate stones

What type of damage to the kidneys is caused by drinking

ethylene glycol (antifreeze)?

2369.

Nerve fibers with small diameter and high

firing rates are most sensitive to local
blockade

Which size nerve fibers (small or large diameter) are more

sensitive to local anesthetic blockade?

2370.

Neuroblastoma

What is the most common one? Solid tumor in children

2371.

Neuroblastoma

Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes.

(Some may have more than one answer) N-myc

2372.

Neuroblastoma

What disease arises from the adrenal medulla, displaces

and crosses the midline, metastasizes early, is the most
common solid tumor, and is seen in the 2-to 4-year-old age
group?

2373.

Neuroblastoma

Homer-Wright rosettes

2374.

Neurofibromatosis

Caf-au-lait spot on the skin

2375.

Neurofibromatosis I (chromosome 22q is

with neurofibromatosis II and no Lisch
nodules)

What disease has multiple schwannomas, caf-au-lait

spots on the skin, and Lisch nodules and is associated with
chromosome 17q?

2376.

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a potentially lifethreatening condition which is treated with

symptomatic support, bromocriptine, and dantrolene.

A schizophrenic patient who is taking haloperidol

is brought to your ER with muscle rigidity, a
temperature of 104 F, altered mental status,
and hypotension. What is your diagnosis and
what is the treatment?

2377.

Neurologic symptoms Renal failure

Thrombocytopenia Fever Microangiopathic hemolytic
anemia (Don't forget it. When I was an intern, my
senior resident asked me this question more times
than I would like to remember.)

What is the pentad of TTP?

2378.

Neutropenia, splenomegaly, and rheumatoid arthritis

What is the triad of Felty syndrome?

2379.

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

What are the three polymorphonuclear

leukocytes? Be specific.

2380.

NE, via its vasoconstrictive action on blood vessels

What neurotransmitter is essential for

maintaining a normal BP when an individual is
standing?

2381.

Nevirapine; it cuts the rate from 20% to 10%. AZT is

also used, cutting the rate from 20% to 10%.

What drug is being given to HIV-positive

mothers during labor and to the children after
birth to decrease the risk of mother-to-child HIV
transmission?

2382.

N-formyl-methionine LTB4 C5a IL-8

Name four chemotactic factors for neutrophils.

2383.

NH4+(ammonium)

What acid form of H+ in the urine cannot be

titrated?

2384.

Niacin (B3)

What water-soluble vitamin deficiency results in

pellagra?

2385.

Niclosamide

What is the drug of choice, which inhibits

oxidative phosphorylation in cestodes, for
taeniasis?

2386.

Nicotine (but it sure has a nasty withdrawal!)

What is the only drug that does not have an

intoxication?

2387.

Nicotinic acid, because its side effects

include hyperuricemia and exacerbation of
ulcers.

Which antihyperlipidemic agent would you not prescribe

for a patient with a history of gout or PUD?

2388.

Niemann-Pick and Tay-Sachs diseases

What two lysosomal storage diseases have cherry-red

spots on the retina?

2389.

Niemann-Pick disease

What AR disease involves a decreased amount of

sphingomyelinase, massive organomegaly, zebra bodies,
and foamy histiocytes and is associated with chromosome
11p?

2390.

Nigrostriatal pathways (basal ganglia)

Movement disorders are associated with what dopamine

pathway (what part of the brain)?

2391.

Nimodipine

Which calcium channel blocker is used to treat

subarachnoid hemorrhages by preventing
posthemorrhagic vasospasms?

2392.

Nissl substances; there is a great deal of

RER in neuron cell bodies, indicating high
protein synthesis.

What is the name of RER in neurons?

2393.

Nitrates

What class of antianginal activates the NO pathway to

produce endothelial vasodilation?

2394.

Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT).

It is negative in patients with CGD because
there is no production of oxygen radicals.

What test is done to diagnose CGD?

2395.

Nitrofurantoin

Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is

listed. Hemolytic anemia

2396.

Nitroprusside

What antihypertensive agent produces cyanide and

thiocyanate as byproducts?

2397.

No, but it does interfere with performing

complex tasks and decreases attention to
detail. (Be careful post call!)

Does REM deprivation interfere with performance on

simple tasks?

2398.

Nocardia asteroides

What aerobic branching rod that is gram positive and

partially acid-fast is associated with cavitary
bronchopulmonary disease in immunosuppressed
patients?

2399.

No change in length

What happens to the following during skeletal muscle

contraction? Actin and myosin lengths

2400.

No change in length

What happens to the following during skeletal muscle

contraction? A band

2401.

No CHO, AA, ketones, or peptides are left in

the tubular lumen.

What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid

by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron?
Concentration of CHO, AA, ketones, peptides

2402.

Nodes of Ranvier

What is the region of an axon where no myelin is found?

2403.

Nodular melanoma

Which form of melanoma carries the worst prognosis?

2404.

Nodular sclerosis

What is the only subtype of Hodgkin's lymphoma that is

most commonly seen in females?

2405.

Nodular sclerosis

What is the most common one? Subtype of Hodgkin

lymphoma

2406.

No enzymes are needed. When the stop

codon reaches the A site, it results in
termination.

What eukaryotic translation enzyme is associated with

the following: Termination

2407.

No. Heparin is safe in pregnancy, but

warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy
because of its ability to cross the placenta.

Is heparin contraindicated in pregnancy?

2408.

No. It is abnormal only if it interferes with

normal sexual or occupational function.

Is masturbation considered an abnormal sexual practice?

2409.

No, it is never acceptable to lie.

Is it acceptable to lie, even if it protects a colleague from

malpractice?

2410.

No, it is not a mandatory reportable

offense (if you can believe it). Child and
elderly abuse are mandatory reportable
offenses.

Is spousal abuse a mandatory reportable offense?

2411.

No, it is used in chronic treatment of

gout to decrease the uric acid pools in
the body.

Is allopurinol used in the acute treatment of gout?

2412.

Nominal scale (categorical, e.g., male or

female)

What scale separates things into groups without defining the

relationship between them?

2413.

Nondominant parietal lobe

Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the

description of the effects, symptoms, and results of the lesion.
Denial of illness, hemineglect, construction apraxia (can't
arrange matchsticks)

2414.

Nondominant temporal lobe

Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the

description of the effects, symptoms, and results of the lesion.
Dysphoria, irritability, musical and visual abilities decreased

2415.

None. Denaturation of dsDNA breaks

hydrogen bonds, not covalent bonds.

How many covalent bonds per purine-pyrimidine base pairing

are broken during denaturation of dsDNA?

2416.

None; it degenerates.

What CN is associated with the Fifth pharyngeal arch?

2417.

None; they are not formed until a girl

reaches puberty.

How many oogonia are present at birth?

2418.

None; they are the storage sites for

ADH and oxytocin.

What hormones are produced in the median eminence region

of the hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary gland?

2419.

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

What hematologic malignancy is treated with the monoclonal

antibody rituximab?

2420.

Nonsense

Name the type of mutation: New codon specifies for a stop

codon

2421.

No. Prions are infectious proteins, so

antibiotics are useless.

Are antibiotics helpful in treating a disease caused by a

prion?

2422.

NO!! Remember, only a judge can commit a patient. A physician can

detain a patient (maximum is for 48 hours).

Can a physician commit a

patient?

2423.

No. Remember, tests do not diagnose, they confirm or refute your

diagnosis. Also, diagnosis of MI requires two of three criteria: chest
pain consistent and characteristic of MI, elevated cardiac enzymes
consistent with MI, and ST segment elevation of 2 mm or more in at
least two contiguous leads.

Can an acute MI be diagnosed

only by looking at an ECG?

2424.

Normally corticobulbar fiber innervation of the CNs is bilateral (the LMN

receives information from both the left and right cerebral cortex), but
with CN VII the LMN of the upper face receives bilateral input but the
lower facial LMNs receive only contralateral input. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------

How do the corticobulbar

fibres of CN VII differ from the
rest of the CNs?

2425.

Normal thyroid hormones levels in the plasma are necessary for proper
secretion of GH. Hypothyroid patients have decreased GH secretions.

What hormone is necessary

for normal GH secretion?

2426.

Normal values

What condition results in the

following CSF results?
Opening pressure 70 to 180
mm H2O; 0-10 WBCs
(monocytes); glucose 45 to 85,
protein 15 to 45

2427.

Norm reference (i.e., 75% of the students in the class will pass)

When the results of a test are

compared to findings for a
normative group, what form of
reference does the objective
test use?

2428.

Northern blot

What blotting technique uses

the following for analysis?
RNA

2429.

No, therapeutic indices can tell which drug is safer, not more toxic.

Can you tell which drug is

more toxic based on
therapeutic indices alone?

2430.

The notochord

What embryonic structure, around day 19, tells the ectoderm

above it to differentiate into neural tissue?

2431.

No, unsaturated fatty acids have double

bonds.

Does a saturated fatty acid have double bonds?

2432.

No, you never refuse to treat a patient

simply because he or she can't pay.
You are a patient advocate.

If a patient cannot pay, can you refuse services?

2433.

NREM sleep. Night terrors are dreams

that we are unable to recall.

With what stage of sleep are night terrors associated?

2434.

NREM sleep. Remember awake body,

sleeping brain

What general pattern of sleep is described by slowing of EEG

rhythms (high voltage and slower synchronization), muscle
contractions, and lack of eye movement or mental activity?

2435.

Nucleolus. Ribosomal assembly also

takes place in the nucleolus.

What organelle is responsible for ribosomal RNA synthesis?

2436.

Nucleus ambiguus, resulting in the

uvula deviating away from the side of
the lesion.

A unilateral lesion in what nucleus will produce ipsilateral

paralysis of the soft palate?

2437.

Nucleus pulposus

What portion of the intervertebral disk is a remnant of the

notochord?

2438.

Null hypothesis (what you hope to

disprove)

What hypothesis states that the findings of a test are a result

of chance?

2439.

The number of Ags that the Ab can bind

What is the valence of an Ig molecule equal to?

2440.

The number of cross-bridges cycling

during contraction: the greater the
number, the greater the force of
contraction.

What determines the overall force generated by the

ventricular muscle during systole?

2441.

Nystagmus and ataxia

What are the first signs of phenobarbital overdose?

2442.

Nystagmus and ataxia

What are the first signs of overdose from phenobarbitals?

2443.

Nystagmus is named by the fast component, which is the

corrective attempt made by the cerebral cortex in response to
the initial slow phase.

Is nystagmus defined by the fast or slow

component?

2444.

O2 affinity increases with a decrease in the p50, making O2

more difficult to remove from the Hgb molecule.

What happens to O2 affinity with a

decrease in p50?

2445.

O2 has a higher driving force but is only one-twenty-fourth as

soluble as CO2. CO 2 has a very small partial pressure
difference across the alveolar membrane (47-40 = 7 mmHg),
but it is extremely soluble and therefore diffuses readily
across the membrane.

Does O2 or CO2 have a higher driving

force across the alveolar membrane?

2446.

Obsessive-compulsive

Name the cluster C personality disorder:

Orderly, inflexible, perfectionist; makes
rules, lists, order; doesn't like change,
has a poor sense of humor, and needs
to keep a routine

2447.

Obstructive lung disorders. The opposite changes (where you

see decrease exchange it for increase and vice versa) are
seen in a restrictive pattern.

Are the following parameters associated

with an obstructive or restrictive lung
disorder: decreased FEV1, FVC, peak
flow, and FEV1/FVC; increased TLC,
FRC, and RV?

2448.

Obturator nerve

What lower extremity nerve is described

by the following motor loss? Loss of
adduction of the thigh

2449.

Occipital lobe

Name the area of the cerebral cortex

with the function described: Recall of
objects, distances, and scenes; visual
input processed here

2450.

Occipital lobe (Anton's syndrome if it is due to

bilateral posterior cerebral artery occlusions)

Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the

description of the effects, symptoms, and results of
the lesion. Denies being blind, cortical blindness

2451.

Occulta All except occulta cause elevatedfetoprotein levels.

Name the form of spina bifida. Defect in the

vertebral arch

2452.

Oddly enough, it is true. Cryptorchidism,

Klinefelter syndrome, testicular feminization, and
family history of testicular cancer are all risk
factors.

True or false? Being a white male increases your

risk factor for testicular cancer.

2453.

Odds ratio. (Case control studies deal with

prevalence.)

What statistical method do you use when analyzing

Case control studies?

2454.

Oligodendroglioma

What slow-growing CNS tumor in 30-to 50-year-old

patients with a long history of seizures has fried egg
cellular appearance in a network of chicken wire?

2455.

Omega-3 fatty acids

What type of fatty acid is associated with a decrease

in serum triglycerides and cardiovascular disease?

2456.

Omega-3; linoleic is omega-6

Is linolenic acid an omega-3 or omega-6 fatty acid?

2457.

Omphalocele and gastroschisis

What two pathologic conditions occur when the gut

does not return to the embryo?

2458.

Oncotic pressure increases because of the

removal of water.

What happens to capillary oncotic pressure with

dehydration?

2459.

The oncotic pressure of plasma promotes

reabsorption and is directly proportional to the
filtration fraction.

Does the oncotic pressure of plasma promote

filtration or reabsorption?

2460.

One, and it provides the energy for mechanical

contraction.

How many ATPs are hydrolyzed every time a

skeletal muscle cross-bridge completes a single
cycle?

2461.

One day after the LH surge and 2 days after the

estrogen peak.

How many days after the LH surge is ovulation?

2462.

One pair with three to five coccygeal vertebrae.

Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with

Coccygeal vertebrae?

2463.

The one start codon, AUG, in eukaryotes codes

for methionine and in prokaryotes
formylmethionine.

What is the start codon, and what does it code for in

eukaryotes? Prokaryotes?

2464.

One-way ANOVA

What statistical test compares the means of many

groups (>2) of a single nominal variable by using an
interval variable?

2465.

Onion skinning

What is the term for fibrinoid necrosis of the arterioles

in the kidney secondary to malignant hypertension?

2466.

Onset of bleeding

What event signifies the first day of the menstrual

cycle?

2467.

The onset of symptoms for Neisseria gonorrhea

conjunctivitis is 2 to 5 days, whereas onset of
symptoms for Chlamydia trachomatis is 5 to 10
days.

Based on the onset of the symptoms, how are

bacterial conjunctivitis from Neisseria and Chlamydia
differentiated?

2468.

On the superior body of the posterior wall of the

uterus

What is the most common site for implantation of the

blastocyst?

2469.

Opening of the aortic valve terminates the

isovolumetric phase and begins the ejection
phase of the cardiac cycle.

The opening of what valve indicates the beginning of

the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle?

2470.

Opening of the mitral valve indicates the

termination of the isovolumetric relaxation
phase and the beginning of the ventricular filling
phase.

The opening of what valve indicates the termination of

isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle?

2471.

Operant conditioning (reinforcement is after a

response)

What form of conditioning is defined as a new

response to an old stimulus resulting in a
consequence?

2472.

Operon

In prokaryotes, what is the term for a set of structural

genes that code for a select group of proteins and the
regulatory elements required for the expression of
such gene?

2473.

Opioids cause cerebral

vasodilation and can result in
increased intracerebral
pressure.

Why should opioid analgesics be avoided for patients with head

trauma?

2474.

Opposite the second upper

molar tooth

Where does the parotid (Stensen's) duct enter the oral cavity?

2475.

Opsonization

By which process do Abs make microorganisms more easily ingested

via phagocytosis?

2476.

The optic disk is the blind spot.

What area of the posterior aspect of the eye has no photoreceptors?

2477.

Orbitomedial frontal lobe

Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the
effects, symptoms, and results of the lesion. Withdrawn, fearful,
explosive moods, violent outbursts, and loss of inhibitions

2478.

Order of attachment is site 1, 2,

3, 4, and for release is 4, 3, 2,
1.

What is the order of attachment of O2 to Hgb-binding sites in the lung?

Order of release from the binding sites in the tissue?

2479.

Ordinal scale (e.g.,

faster/slower, taller/shorter)

What scale assesses a rank order classification but does not tell the
difference between the two groups?

2480.

Orotic acid (purine metabolism)

What is the pyrimidine intermediate that joins PRPP (5Phosphoribosyl-1-Pyrophosphate)?

2481.

Osler nodes

Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis:

Painful subcutaneous nodules on fingers and toes

2482.

Osmosis; water will diffuse

from higher to lower water
concentrations.

What is the term for diffusion of water across a semipermeable or

selectively permeable membrane?

2483.

Osteitis fibrosa cystica (von

Recklinghausen disease)

What bone disorder is characterized by brown tumors, bone pain,

deformities, and fractures due to excessive PTH?

2484.

Osteoarthritis

What is the most common one? Form of arthritis

2485.

Osteoarthritis

What disorder causes joint stiffness that worsens

with repetitive motion, crepitus, effusions, and
swelling and commonly affects the knees, hips, and
spine?

2486.

Osteoblast (Remember, blasts make, clasts take)

What cell type in the bone is responsible for bone

deposition?

2487.

Osteoblasts (Remember, they modulate the

function of osteoclasts.)

What bone cell has receptors for PTH?

2488.

Osteoblasts, which in turn stimulate osteoclasts

to break down bone, releasing Ca2+ into the
interstitium. (Remember, blasts make, clasts
take.)

What cell type of the bone has PTH receptors?

2489.

Osteoclasts

What cell in bone is a part of the mononuclear

phagocytic system?

2490.

Osteoclasts

Name the macrophage based on its location: Bone

macrophages

2491.

Osteocyte

What type of cell is surrounded by mineralized

bone?

2492.

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Blue sclera is seen in what hereditary bone

disorder?

2493.

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Blue sclera

2494.

Osteoma

What benign bone tumor is associated with Gardner

syndrome?

2495.

Osteomalacia. Osteoporosis has normal levels of

calcium, phosphorus, and alkaline phosphatase.

Are elevated alkaline phosphatase and decreased

phosphorus and calcium levels more consistent with
osteoporosis or osteomalacia?

2496.

Osteopetrosis (Albers-Schnberg disease)

What hereditary bone disorder is due to decreased

osteoclast function, resulting in thick, sclerotic
bones that fracture easily?

2497.

Osteoporosis

What is the most common one? Bone disorder in

the United States

2498.

Osteosarcoma

What malignant bone tumor is characterized by

Codman triangle (periosteal elevation) on
radiograph?

2499.

Osteosarcoma

What is the most common one? Malignant

tumor in the bone of teenagers

2500.

Osteosarcoma

Codman triangle on radiograph

2501.

Osteosarcoma

What malignant bone tumor is associated with

familial retinoblastoma?

2502.

Osteosarcoma

What is the most common primary malignant

tumor in bone?

2503.

Ostium secundum defects

What is the most common one? Type of ASD

2504.

The otic ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN IX.

Remember it like this: the -oti-is in both otic ganglion
and parotid gland.)

What is the name of the postganglionic

parasympathetic ganglion that innervates The
parotid gland?

2505.

The outer cortex contains most of the germinal

centers and therefore also most B cells.

What area of the lymph node contains germinal

centers?

2506.

Outside the cell

Where is tropocollagen aggregated to form a

collagen fibril?

2507.

Ovarian cancer

What is the most common one? Female

genital tract malignancy resulting in death

2508.

Ovarian cancer

Name the cancer associated with the following

tumor markers. (Some may have more than
one answer.) CA-125

2509.

Ovarian fibroma

What is the most common one? Stromal

tumor of the ovary

2510.

Ovulation

What is the term for the day after the LH surge

in the female cycle?

2511.

Oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam (OTL)

(mnemonic: Outside The Liver). They undergo
glucuronide conjugation, not via the cytochrome
p450 system.

What are the three benzodiazepines that do not

undergo microsomal oxidation?

2512.

Oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam ( OTL,

Outside The Liver)

Name the three benzodiazepines that are not

metabolized by the cytochrome P450 enzyme
system.

2513.

Oxygen

Name the antidote. Carbon monoxide (CO)

2514.

Oxytocin

Near the end of pregnancy, what hormone's

receptors increase in the myometrium because of
elevated plasma estrogen levels?

2515.

Oxytocin

What hormone causes milk letdown?

2516.

P = .05; P < .05 rejects the null hypothesis

What P value defines whether the hull hypothesis

should or should not be rejected?

2517.

P1 protein

What protein allows Mycoplasma to attach to the

respiratory epithelium?

2518.

P24

What protein of the HIV virus does ELISA detect to

determine whether a patient is HIV positive?

2519.

The p50 value does not change in either anemia or

polycythemia; the main change is the carrying
capacity of the blood.

Is there a shift in p50 values with anemia?

Polycythemia?

2520.

p-53

What gene stimulates apoptosis when DNA repair

is unable to be done?

2521.

Paget disease of the breast

What breast malignancy has tumor cells with a

halo surrounding the nucleus and is an ulceration
of the nipple and areola with crusting, fissuring,
and oozing?

2522.

Paget disease of the breast

What breast pathology involves malignant cells

with halos invading the epidermis of the skin?

2523.

Paget disease (osteitis deformans)

What disorder of bone remodeling results in

thick, weak bones and is associated with highoutput cardiac failure?

2524.

Palatoglossus muscle is innervated by CN X; all

other tongue muscles are innervated by CN XII.

What is the only tongue muscle innervated by

CN X?

2525.

Palindrome

What is the term to describe the 5'-3' sequence

of one strand being the same as the opposite 5'3' strand?

2526.

The Palmar interosseus ADducts, whereas the Dorsal

interosseus ABducts (PAD and DAB)

What muscles in the hand adduct the fingers?

2527.

Palmitate

Name the end product or products: Fatty acid

synthesis

2528.

Palms and soles of the feet. Sebaceous glands are

associated with hair follicles, which are lacking on the
palms and soles of the feet.

What two areas of the skin do not contain

sebaceous glands?

2529.

Palms-up before palms-down maneuvers

In regard to motor development during infancy,

choose the motor response that happens first.
Palms up or down

2530.

PALS

What is the T-cell area of the spleen?

2531.

PALS (Parietolateral lymphocytic sheath)

What is the name of the T cell-rich area of the

spleen?

2532.

Panacinar

Which form of emphysema is associated with an

alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency?

2533.

Pancreas and colon

Name the cancer associated with the following

oncogenes. (Some may have more than one
answer) Ki-ras

2534.

Pancreatic cancer

Name the cancer associated with the following

tumor markers. (Some may have more than one
answer.) CA-19.9 and CEA

2535.

Paneth cells

What cell of the duodenum contains high concentrations

of lysozymes and has phagocytic activity?

2536.

Pantothenic acid

What vitamin is a component of the enzymes fatty acid

synthase and acyl CoA?

2537.

Papillary carcinoma

What is the most common one? Thyroid cancer

2538.

Papillary carcinoma of the ovary

Orphan Annie cells

2539.

Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

What is the most common one? Malignant thyroid

tumor

2540.

Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

What thyroid carcinoma is associated with radiation

exposure, psammoma bodies, and Orphan Annie eye
nuclei?

2541.

Papovavirus

Name the DNA virus: Circular dsDNA; naked;

icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus

2542.

Papule

What is a palpable, elevated solid mass up to 0.5 cm?

2543.

Para-aminohippurate (PAH)

The clearance of what substance is the gold standard of

renal plasma flow?

2544.

Paracortex

What is the name of the T cell-rich area of the lymph

node?

2545.

Paradoxic emboli most commonly enter the

arteries through a patent septal defect in the
heart.

What is the term for a venous embolus in the arterial

system?

2546.

Parafollicular C cells

What cells of the thyroid gland secrete calcitonin?

2547.

The parafollicular cells of the thyroid (C cells)

release calcitonin in response to
hypercalcemia.

What cells of the thyroid gland are stimulated in

response to hypercalcemia?

2548.

Parainfluenza virus

Name the most common cause. Croup

2549.

Parallel circuit

In what type of circuit is the total resistance always less

than that of the individual resistors?

2550.

Paramesonephric ducts

What embryonic structure forms the adult female

structures? Uterine tube, uterus, cervix, and upper third
of the vagina

2551.

Paramyxovirus

What family do the following viruses belong to? RSV

2552.

Paramyxovirus

What family do the following viruses belong to? Measles

2553.

Paranoid

Name these cluster A personality disorders: Baseline

mistrust; carries grudges; afraid to open up; uses projection
as defense mechanism; lacks hallucinations or delusions

2554.

Paranoid schizophrenia

What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by

Delusions of persecution and/or grandeur, auditory
hallucinations, late onset, and the best prognosis?

2555.

Parasites

Which of the following characteristics accurately describe

fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites? Eukaryotic cell, 15 to
25 microns, 80S ribosomes, no cell walls, replicates via
cytokinesis with mitosis and meiosis

2556.

Parasympathetic

What part of the ANS (i.e., PNS or CNS) controls the

constriction of the pupil in response to light?

2557.

Parasympathetics (parasympathetics
point, sympathetics shoot)

What component of the ANS is responsible for dilation of the

blood vessels in the erectile tissue of the penis, resulting in
an erection?

2558.

Parasympathetic stimulation, via the

vagus nerve, results in
bronchoconstriction, whereas
sympathetic stimulation results in
bronchodilation.

What component of the ANS, when stimulated, results in

bronchoconstriction?

2559.

Parental assignment and culture (not

biology)

What are the strongest determinants of gender identity?

2560.

Parietal cells (Remember, they secrete

HCl, too.)

What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach secretes

IF?

2561.

Parietal lobe

Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function

described: Intellectual processing of sensory information,
with the left (dominant) processing verbal information, the
right processing visual-spatial orientation

2562.

Parkinson disease

Lewy bodies

2563.

Parkinson's disease

Shuffling gait, cogwheel rigidity, masklike facies, pill-rolling tremor, and

bradykinesia describe what form of dementia?

2564.

Parkinson's disease (I can't

underestimate all of the
buzzwords in this question.
Remember it.)

What direct-pathway basal ganglia disease is described by masklike

facies, stooped posture, cogwheel rigidity, pill-rolling tremor at rest,
and a gait characterized by shuffling and chasing the center of
gravity?

2565.

Paroxysmal nocturnal
hemoglobinuria

What form of anemia is diagnosed with sucrose lysis test and Ham
test?

2566.

Parvovirus

Name the DNA virus: ssDNA; naked; icosahedral; replicates in the

nucleus

2567.

Parvovirus B 19

What viral infection in patients with sickle cell anemia results in

aplastic crisis?

2568.

Parvovirus B-19

What DNA viral disease is associated with aplastic crisis in patients

with sickle cell anemia?

2569.

Parvovirus (it is the only ssDNA

virus)

What ssDNA virus must make dsDNA before it makes mRNA?

2570.

Passive-aggressive

Setting up to be let down (it is unconscious; if conscious, you're just

rude)

2571.

Pasteurella, Brucella,
Legionella, and Francisella (all
of the-ellas)

Which four bacteria require cysteine for growth?

2572.

Pasteurella multocida

What organism is commonly associated with a cellulitis from an

animal bite?

2573.

Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)

What disease involves microcephaly, mental retardation, cleft lip or

palate, and dextrocardia?

2574.

A patent processus vaginalis

What remains patent in a hydrocele of the testis, allowing peritoneal

fluid to form into a cyst?

2575.

Patent urachus

What is the name for failure of the allantois to close, resulting in a

urachal fistula or sinus?

2576.

The pathologic problem with CO poisoning is that CO has 240

times as much affinity for Hgb molecule as does O2, reducing the
carrying capacity and shifting the curve to the left, making it difficult
to remove the CO molecule from Hgb.

Which way does the Hgb-O2

dissociation curve shift in patients
with CO poisoning?

2577.

The patient decides about the health care she does or does not get
even if it harms the fetus. This also means she can refuse blood
transfusions even if it harms the fetus.

What is the central issue

regarding the Roe vs. Wade
decision (legalization of abortion)?

2578.

Patients with cystic fibrosis have a mutation in the chloride channel

protein in the CFTR gene on chromosome 7.

What chromosome is mutant in

patients with cystic fibrosis?

2579.

Patients with unilateral cerebellar lesions fall toward the side of the
lesion.

Will a patient with a unilateral

lesion in the cerebellum fall
toward or away from the affected
side?

2580.

PCR

What test uses very small

amounts of DNA that can be
amplified and analyzed without
the use of Southern blotting or
cloning?

2581.

PCT

What is the longest and most

convoluted segment of the
nephron?

2582.

PDA

What is the most common one?

Cardiac anomaly in children

2583.

Pearson correlation

What type of correlation compares

two interval variables?

2584.

Peau d'orange

What is the term for inflamed,

thickened skin on the breast with
dimpling associated with cancer?

2585.

Pedophilia

What paraphilia is defined as Sexual urges toward children?

2586.

Pedophilia

What is the most common sexual assault?

2587.

Pelvic splanchnics (They all begin

with P.)

What splanchnic carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that

innervate the hindgut and the pelvic viscera?

2588.

Penicillamine, EDTA (calcium

disodium edetate), or dimercaprol

Name the antidote. Lead

2589.

Penicillin G (benzylpenicillin)

What form of penicillin is used in the treatment of life-threatening

illnesses?

2590.

Penicillin V

What form of penicillin is stable in acid environments?

2591.

Pentoxifylline

What hematologic agent is used in the treatment of intermittent

claudication because it decreases blood viscosity and increases
RBC membrane flexibility and stability?

2592.

Pergolide

What is the DOC for hyperprolactinemia?

2593.

Periaortic lymph nodes

What is the most common one? Lymph node affected in nonHodgkin lymphoma

2594.

Permanent

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent)

based on the following examples. Skeletal muscle

2595.

Permanent

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent)

based on the following examples. CNS neurons

2596.

Permanent

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent)

based on the following examples. Cardiac muscle

2597.

Pernicious anemia

What disorder is characterized by autoantibodies to IF?

2598.

Pernicious anemia (secondary to

a lack of vitamin B12 absorption)

What type of anemia is the result of a deficiency in intrinsic factor?

2599.

Peroxidase, which is also needed

for iodination and coupling inside
the follicular cell

What thyroid enzyme is needed for oxidation of I- to I'?

2600.

Persistent truncus arteriosus

What right-to-left shunt occurs when only

one vessel receives blood from both the
right and left ventricles?

2601.

Pertussis toxin

What toxin ADP-ribosylates via Gi to

increase cAMP?

2602.

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

What AD syndrome produces

hamartomatous polyps in the small
intestine and pigmentation of the lips and
oral mucosa?

2603.

Peyer's patch

What lymphoid organ is characterized by

germinal centers, plasma cells that
secrete IgA, and no encapsulation?

2604.

PGD2, PGE2, and PGF 2

Name the product or products of

arachidonic acid: Vasodilation

2605.

PGE 1, PGI 2 (most potent), and TXA 2

What three PGs are potent platelet

aggregators?

2606.

PGE2

Name the product or products of

arachidonic acid: Pain and fever

2607.

PGE2 and PGF2

What two PGs are used to induce labor?

2608.

PGE (along with low oxygen tension)

What prostaglandin is associated with

maintaining patency of the ductus
arteriosus?

2609.

PGE and intrauterine or neonatal asphyxia maintain patency

of the ductus arteriosus. Indomethacin, ACh, and
catecholamines promote closure of the ductus arteriosus.

Which PG is associated with maintaining

a PDA?

2610.

PGI 2

Which PG maintains patency of the

ductus arteriosus and is used in the
treatment of primary pulmonary HTN?

2611.

PGI2

Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: Vasodilation and inhibition of

platelet aggregation produced by vascular endothelium

2612.

Phallic stage (46 years)

At what stage of psychosexual development (according to Freud) do children fear

castration?

2613.

Phallus

What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? Glans clitoris, corpus
cavernosus, and spongiosum

2614.

Phallus

What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? Corpus cavernosus,
corpus spongiosum, and glans and body of the penis

2615.

Phallus,
urogenital folds,
and labioscrotal
swellings

What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? External genitalia

2616.

Phase 0

Name the phase of the ventricular muscle action potential based on the following
information: Fast channels open, then quickly close, and sodium influx results in
depolarization

2617.

Phase 1

Name the phase of the ventricular muscle action potential based on the following
information: Slight repolarization secondary to potassium and closure of the sodium
channels

2618.

Phase 1

Testing of a drug in a small group of volunteers without the disease is a component of

which phase of clinical drug testing?

2619.

Phase 2

Name the phase of the ventricular muscle action potential based on the following
information: Slow channels open, allowing calcium influx; voltage-gated potassium
channels closed; potassium efflux through ungated channels; plateau stage

2620.

Phase 3

Name the phase of the ventricular muscle action potential based on the following
information: Slow channels close, voltage-gated potassium channels reopen with a
large influx of potassium, and the cell quickly repolarizes

2621.

Phase 4

Which phase of clinical drug testing includes postmarket reporting of adverse

reactions?

2622.

Phase 4; ACh hyperpolarizes the cell via

increasing potassium conductance, taking
longer to reach threshold and slowing the
rate of firing.

In a ventricular pacemaker cell, what phase of the action

potential is affected by ACh?

2623.

Phase 4; NE increases the slope of the

prepotential, allowing threshold to be
reached sooner, and increases the rate of
firing.

In a ventricular pacemaker cell, what phase of the action

potential is affected by NE?

2624.

Phase I

What phase of Food and Drug Administration approval

tests The safety in healthy volunteers?

2625.

Phase I

Are hydrolysis, oxidation, and reduction phase I or II

biotransformations?

2626.

Phase II

What phase of Food and Drug Administration approval

tests The protocol and dose levels in a small group of
patient volunteers?

2627.

Phase III. It is considered the definitive test.

What phase of Food and Drug Administration approval

tests The efficacy and occurrence of side effects in
large group of patient volunteers?

2628.

Phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine

What mixed -antagonists are used for patients with

pheochromocytoma?

2629.

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

What enzyme is deficient in patients with PKU?

2630.

Phenylephrine

What 1-agonist, not inactivated by catechol-O-methyl

transferase (COMT), is used as a decongestant and for
treatment of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia?

2631.

Phenytoin

A patient with a history of epilepsy goes to the ER with

sedation, gait ataxia, diplopia, and vertical nystagmus.
Which anticonvulsant overdose resulted in the patient's
symptoms?

2632.

Phenytoin (cyclosporine and nifedipine also

result in gingival hyperplasia)

Which anticonvulsant causes gingival hyperplasia?

2633.

Pheochromocytoma

What catecholamine-hypersecreting tumor, a secondary cause of

HTN, results in headache, diaphoresis, anxiety, tachycardia, and
palpitations?

2634.

pH of 2 and 9

All AAs have titration plateaus at what pH values?

2635.

The pH of CSF is 7.33, acidotic.

Is the pH of CSF acidotic, alkalotic, or neutral?

2636.

Phosphofructokinase-1 and costs

1 ATP

What is the rate-limiting enzyme on glycolysis?

2637.

Phosphorylation of mannose
residues

What signals are used to direct an enzyme to a lysosome?

2638.

Phototherapy

What is the treatment for physiologic jaundice of newborns?

2639.

Physiologic antagonism

Are two different receptors with two different agonists characteristic

of pharmacologic or physiologic antagonism?

2640.

Physiologic dead space is the

total dead space of the respiratory
system.

Anatomical and alveolar dead spaces together constitute what

space?

2641.

Physostigmine

Name the antidote. Anticholinergics

2642.

Physostigmine

Name the antidote. Atropine

2643.

Pia mater

What protective covering adheres to the spinal cord and CNS

tissue?

2644.

PICA

What branch off the vertebral artery supplies The cerebellum and
the dorsolateral part of the medulla?

2645.

Pick's disease

What rare form of dementia is associated with personality changes

and affects the frontal and temporal lobes?

2646.

Picornaviridae

To what viral family does the polio virus belong?

2647.

pI (isoelectric point)

What is the term for the pH at which the structure carries no

charge?

2648.

Pimozide

What is the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome?

2649.

Pinpoint pupils, decreased

respiratory rate, and coma

What are the three signs of morphine overdose?

2650.

Pirenzepine

What drug is an M1-specific antispasmodic?

2651.

Pituitary adenoma

Name the most common type or cause. Cushing syndrome

2652.

Pituitary hypogonadism

What hormone disorder is characterized by the following

abnormalities in sex steroids, LH, and FSH? Sex
steroids , LH , FSH

2653.

pK (think of it as where half is base and half is

acid)

What is the term for the pH range where the

dissociation of H+ occurs?

2654.

PKU

What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme

phenylalanine hydroxylase?

2655.

The placenta

From the fourth month of fetal life to term, what secretes

the progesterone and estrogen to maintains the uterus?

2656.

Placental alkaline phosphatase

What tumor marker is associated with seminomas?

2657.

Planning and fine-tuning of voluntary skeletal

muscle contractions. (Think coordination.)
Remember, the function of the basal ganglia
is to initiate gross voluntary skeletal muscle
control.

What is the function of the cerebellum?

2658.

Plasma cell

What type of cell can never leave the lymph node?

2659.

Plasma cell (mature B lymphocyte)

What is the name of the B cell that secretes Ig?

2660.

Plasma concentration and excretion rate

What two factors determine the clearance of a

substance?

2661.

Plasmin

What protein causes fibrinolysis?

2662.

Plasmodium falciparum

What type of Plasmodium affects RBCs of all ages?

2663.

Plasmodium falciparum

Name the Plasmodium species based on the following

information: No persistent liver stage or relapse; blood
smear shows multiple ring forms and crescent-shaped
gametes; irregular febrile pattern; associated with
cerebral malaria

2664.

Plasmodium malariae

What type of Plasmodium affects Only mature RBCs?

2665.

Plasmodium
malariae

Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information:No persistent liver
stage or relapse; blood smear shows rosette schizonts; 72-hour fever spike pattern

2666.

Plasmodium
malariae; the
others are
tertian.

What is the only Plasmodium that is quartan?

2667.

Plasmodium
ovale

Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information:Persistent

hypnozoite liver stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites with
oval, jagged infected RBCs; 48-hour fever spike pattern

2668.

Plasmodium
vivax

What type of Plasmodium affects Only reticulocytes?

2669.

Plasmodium
vivax

Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information: Persistent

hypnozoite liver stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites; 48hour fever spike pattern; the most prevalent form worldwide

2670.

PlummerVinson
syndrome

What syndrome is seen in iron-deficient middle-aged women with esophageal webs?

2671.

Pneumococcus

Name the most common type or cause. Meningitis in adults

2672.

Pneumococcus

Name the most common type or cause. Sinusitis and otitis media in children

2673.

Pneumococcus
(Streptococcus
pneumoniae)

Describe the organism based on the following information: Alpha-Hemolytic

Streptococcus; lysed by bile; sensitive to Optochin

2674.

Pneumocystis
carinii

Name the MCC. Pneumonia in an HIV-positive patient with CD4 less than 200

2675.

Pneumocystis
carinii

What obligate extracellular fungus is silver stain-positive and is associated with

pneumonia in patients with AIDS?

2676.

Pneumocystis
carinii

What is the most common infectious agent in HIV?

2677.

Pneumotaxic
center (short,
fast breaths)

What respiratory center in the rostral pons has an inhibitory affect on the apneustic
center?

2678.

Pneumothorax

What is the term for air in the pleural space?

2679.

Poliomyelitis; it is a bilateral
LMN lesion.

What is the name of bilateral flaccid paralysis, hyporeflexia, and

hypotonia due to a viral infection of the ventral horn of the spinal cord?

2680.

Polyarteritis nodosa

What vasculitis is characterized by systemic vasculitis in small to

medium- size vessels (except the lung); affecting young males; 30%
HBsAg-positive; P-ANCA and autoantibodies against myeloperoxidase?

2681.

The poly(A) site on the DNA

What causes transcription to stop in eukaryotes?

2682.

Polycystic kidney disease of

childhood

What bilateral AR disorder seen in infancy as progressive renal failure

has multiple small cysts at right angles to the cortical surface?

2683.

Polycystic ovaries

Name the most common type or cause. Anovulation

2684.

Polycystic ovary disease

(Stein-Leventhal syndrome)

What female genital tract disorder is characterized by obesity, hirsutism,

infertility, amenorrhea, elevated LH and testosterone levels, and low FSH
levels?

2685.

Polycythemia vera
(Remember, polycythemia
vera is a risk factor for acute
leukemias.)

What myeloid disorder is characterized by increased hematocrit, blood

viscosity, basophils, and eosinophils; intense pruritus; and gastric ulcers
due to histamine release from basophils, increased LAP, and plethora?

2686.

Polysome. Ribosomes read

from the 5' to the 3' end of
the mRNA.

A single mRNA strand translated by a ribosome is termed what?

2687.

Pompe's disease

What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme

deficiencies? Lysosomal glucosidase (acid maltase)

2688.

Pons

Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described:
Important for REM sleep; origin of NE pathway

2689.

Pontocerebellar angle
syndrome

What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions?

Slow-growing acoustic neuroma producing CN VII deficiencies

2690.

The popliteal artery, the deepest structure in the

popliteal fossa, risks injury in a supracondylar
fracture of the femur.

What vascular injury may result from a

supracondylar fracture of the femur?

2691.

Popliteus

What muscle laterally rotates the femur to unlock

the knee?

2692.

Porcelain gallbladder

What is the term for calcification of the

gallbladder seen on radiograph due to chronic
cholecystitis or adenocarcinoma of the
gallbladder?

2693.

Positive

Are the following conditions associated with a

negative or positive nitrogen balance?
Pregnancy

2694.

Positive

Are the following conditions associated with a

negative or positive nitrogen balance? Growth

2695.

Positive

Are the following conditions associated with a

negative or positive nitrogen balance?
Recovery from injury

2696.

A positive AV difference indicates that a substance is

extracted by the organ, and a negative difference
indicates that it is produced by the organ.

If the AV difference is positive, is the substance

extracted or produced by the organ?

2697.

Positive correlation

What type of correlation is defined as Two

variables that go together in the same direction?

2698.

Positive predictive value

The probability that a person with a positive test

result is truly positive refers to what value?

2699.

Positive reinforcement

Based on operant conditioning, what type of

reinforcement is described when Adding a
stimulus reinforces a behavior?

2700.

Positive sense RNA can be used as mRNA. Negative

sense RNA cannot be used as mRNA; it requires
special RNA-dependent RNA polymerases.

If a virus has positive sense RNA, can it be used

as mRNA or is a template needed?

2701.

Positive sense RNA means it can serve as mRNA

and therefore has 5'-3' polarity

What is the polarity (i.e., 5'-3' or 3'-5') of a

positive sense RNA?

2702.

Postductal coarctation of the aorta (adult)

What vascular pathology is associated with HTN

in the upper extremities, hypotension in the lower
extremities, and a radial-femoral delay?

2703.

Posterior

Name the compartment of the mediastinum

associated with the following thoracic structures:
Descending aorta

2704.

Posterior

Name the compartment of the mediastinum

associated with the following thoracic structures:
Splanchnic nerves

2705.

Posterior

Name the compartment of the mediastinum

associated with the following thoracic structures:
Vagus nerve

2706.

Posterior chamber

What chamber of the eye lies between the iris

and the lens?

2707.

Posterior compartment of the leg, tibial nerve

Name the compartment of the lower extremity

and the nerve based on its movements. Plantar
flex the foot, flex the toes, and invert the foot

2708.

Posterior compartment of the thigh, tibial nerve

Name the compartment of the lower extremity

and the nerve based on its movements. Extend
the hip and flex the knee

2709.

Posterior cricoarytenoid muscles

Name the laryngeal muscle described by the

following: Only muscle to abduct the vocal
cords

2710.

Posterior cruciate ligament

What structure of the knee is described thus? Prevents posterior

displacement and has medial-to-lateral attachment on the tibia

2711.

Posterior hypothalamic zones;

lesions here result in
poikilothermy (environmental
control of one's body
temperature).

What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for recognizing a

decrease in body temperature and mediates the response to
conserve heat?

2712.

Posterior interventricular artery

What artery travels with the following veins? Middle cardiac vein

2713.

Postinfectious GN

What type of GN occurs most commonly in children after a

pharyngeal or skin infection; is immune complex-mediated; and is
seen as lumpy-bumpy subepithelial deposits?

2714.

Postinfectious GN

Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent

staining. Granular deposits of IgG, IgM, and C3 throughout the
glomerulus

2715.

Poststreptococcal GN

Two weeks after her son has a throat infection, a mother takes the
boy to the ER because he has fever, malaise, HTN, dark urine, and
periorbital edema. What is your diagnosis?

2716.

Posttraumatic stress disorder.

(Important: symptoms must be
exhibited for longer than 1
month.)

What is the term for headaches, inability to concentrate, sleep

disturbances; avoidance of associated stimuli; reliving events as
dreams or flashbacks following a psychologically stressful event
beyond the normal range of expectation?

2717.

Potency

What is the term for the amount of a drug that is needed to produce
the desired effect?

2718.

Pott disease

What is the term for the collapse of the vertebral body due to TB?

2719.

Potter facies

What is the term for flattened nose, low-set ears, and recessed chin
seen in patients with bilateral renal agenesis?

2720.

Poxvirus

Name the DNA virus Linear dsDNA; enveloped; virion-associated

polymerases; replicates in the cytoplasm :

2721.

Poxvirus

What is the only DNA virus that is not icosahedral?

2722.

Poxvirus replicates its DNA in the cytoplasm.

What is the only DNA virus that does not replicate its
DNA in the nucleus of the host cell?

2723.

PPRF

What area of the brain acts as the center for

ipsilateral horizontal gaze?

2724.

Prader-Willi syndrome and Angelman

syndrome, respectively

What syndrome results when there is a deletion to

paternal chromosome 15? Maternal?

2725.

Preductal (infantile)

What form of coarctation of the aorta is associated

with Turner syndrome?

2726.

Prefrontal cortex; it is in front of the premotor

area.

What frontal lobe cortex is associated with organizing

and planning the intellectual and emotional aspect of
behavior?

2727.

Preganglionic sympathetic neurons

What neuronal cell bodies are contained in the

intermediate zone of the spinal cord? (T1-L2)

2728.

Pregnancy

What is the leading cause of school dropout?

2729.

Preload. It is the load on a muscle Prior to

contraction.

What is the term for the load on a muscle in the

relaxed state?

2730.

Preload (the load on the muscle in the relaxed

state)

What term is described as the prestretch on the

ventricular muscle at the end of diastole?

2731.

Premature ejaculation

What is the term for ejaculation before or immediately

after vaginal penetration on a regular basis?

2732.

Preoperational (2-6 years)

At what stage of cognitive development (according to

Piaget) do children Lack law of conservation and be
egocentric?

2733.

Preoptic area of the hypothalamus; if the lesion

occurs after puberty, amenorrhea or impotence
will be seen.

If a lesion occurs before the onset of puberty and

arrests sexual development, what area of the
hypothalamus is affected?

2734.

Prevalence increases.

What happens to prevalence as incidence increases?

2735.

Prevalence increases. (Note:

Incidence does not change.)

What happens to prevalence as duration increases?

2736.

Prevalence increases. (Remember,

prevalence can decrease in only
two ways, recovery and death.)

What happens to prevalence as the number of long-term survivors

increases?

2737.

Prevalence rate

What is the term for the number of individuals who have an

attribute or disease at a particular point in time?

2738.

Previous suicide attempt

What is the primary risk factor for suicide?

2739.

Priapism

What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with

Trazodone?

2740.

Primary biliary cirrhosis

What autoimmune liver disease is characterized by affecting a

middle-aged woman with jaundice, pruritus, fatigue, xanthomas,
increased direct bilirubin levels, and antimitochondrial Abs?

2741.

Primary erectile disorder

What is the term to describe a man who has Never been able to
achieve an erection?

2742.

Primary follicle (in the white pulp)

What is the name of the B cell-rich area of the spleen?

2743.

Primary follicle of the cortex

What is the name of the B cell-rich area in the lymph node?

2744.

Primary Hemochromatosis

What disease is associated with the HLA-A3 allele

2745.

Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn

syndrome)

What disorder of aldosterone secretion is characterized by

Increased total body sodium, ECF volume, plasma volume, BP,
and pH; decreased potassium, renin and AT II activity; no edema?

2746.

Primary hypercortisolism

What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following

changes in cortisol and ACTH? Cortisol increased, ACTH
decreased

2747.

Primary hyperparathyroidism

What pathology is associated with elevated levels of Ca2+, cardiac

arrhythmias, bone resorption, kidney stones, and metastatic
calcifications?

2748.

Primary hyperparathyroidism

What endocrine abnormality is characterized by

the following changes in PTH, Ca2+, and
inorganic phosphate (Pi)? PTH increased, Ca2+
increased, Pi decreased

2749.

Primary hypoaldosteronism (Addison's disease)

What disorder of aldosterone secretion is

characterized by Decreased total body sodium,
ECF volume, plasma volume, BP, and pH;
increased potassium, renin, and AT II activity; no
edema?

2750.

Primary hypocortisolism (Addison's disease)

What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized

by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH?
Cortisol decreased, ACTH increased

2751.

Primary hypogonadism (postmenopausal women)

What hormone disorder is characterized by the

following abnormalities in sex steroids, LH, and
FSH? Sex steroids , LH , FSH ?

2752.

Primary hypoparathyroidism

What endocrine abnormality is characterized by

the following changes in PTH, Ca2+, and
inorganic phosphate (Pi)? PTH decreased, Ca2+
decreased, Pi increased

2753.

Primary hypothyroidism (Low T4 has a decreased

negative feedback loop, resulting in both the
hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland to
increase TRH and TSH release, respectively.)

What thyroid abnormality has the following? TRH

increased, TSH increased, T4 decreased

2754.

Primary intention

What type of healing occurs in a clean surgical

incision?

2755.

Primary polydipsia; patients with diabetes insipidus

will continue to produce large volumes of dilute
urine.

In the water deprivation test, does a patient with

reduced urine flow have primary polydipsia or
diabetes insipidus?

2756.

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

What chronic liver disease has a beaded

appearance of the bile ducts on cholangiogram?

2757.

Primary spermatocyte

Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm
development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary),
spermatogonia (type A or B): 46/4n

2758.

Primase

What enzyme produces an RNA primer in the 5'-3' direction and is

essential to DNA replication because DNA polymerases are unable to
synthesize DNA without an RNA primer?

2759.

Primitive atrium

From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived?

The right and left atria

2760.

Primitive neuroectodermal
tumors (i.e., medulloblastomas
and retinoblastomas)

What highly undifferentiated aggressive CNS tumor of primordial

neuroglial origin develops in children and is associated with
pseudorosettes?

2761.

The primitive streak grows

caudal to rostral.

What is the direction of growth for the primitive streak, caudal to rostral
or rostral to caudal?

2762.

Primitive ventricle

From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived?

The right and left ventricles

2763.

PR interval

What component of an ECG is associated with the following?

Conduction delay in the AV node

2764.

Prinzmetal variant angina

What form of angina is characterized by Coronary artery vasospasm,

symptom occurrence at rest, ST segment elevation (during episode),
and no signs on ECG?

2765.

Probenecid, a uricosuric agent

What is the drug of choice in treating a patient with hyperuricemia due

to underexcretion of uric acid?

2766.

Procainamide

What class 1A antiarrhythmic agent has SLE-like syndrome side effect

in slow acetylators?

2767.

Processed antigenic peptides

bound in the groove of the
MHC molecule

What type of Ag do T cells recognize?

2768.

Prodrugs

What class of pharmaceuticals are inactive until they are metabolized

to their active products?

2769.

Production of HCO3-, shifting the

reaction to the left and thereby
decreasing H+

What is the renal compensation mechanism for acidosis?

2770.

Production of oxygen free radicals

From what do catalase, superoxide dismutase, and glutathione

peroxidase defend the cell?

2771.

Proencephalon

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
Telencephalon

2772.

Proencephalon

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). Lateral
ventricles

2773.

Proencephalon

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
Thalamus

2774.

Proencephalon

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). Third
ventricle

2775.

Proencephalon

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
Cerebral hemispheres

2776.

Proencephalon

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
Diencephalon

2777.

Proencephalon diencephalon
derivative

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
Neurohypophysis

2778.

Proencephalon diencephalon
derivative

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). Pineal
gland

2779.

Proencephalon diencephalon
derivative

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). Eye

2780.

Proencephalon diencephalon
derivative

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived

from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
Hypothalamus

2781.

Profound (I.Q. range < 20)

What level of mental retardation is characterized by Needing a

highly structured environment with constant supervision?

2782.

Progestin

Is hirsutism a side effect of estrogen or progestin therapy?

2783.

Progressive multifocal
leukoencephalopathy

What encephalitis is associated with the JC virus?

2784.

Projection

Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: Person takes his

or her own feelings, beliefs, wishes, and so on and thinks they
are someone else's. (e.g., a cheating man thinks his wife is
unfaithful)

2785.

Projective drawing. The artistic form

is irrelevant, but the size, placement,
erasures, and distortions are
relevant.

What type of test asks a patient to draw a scene, attempting to

find out the individual's unconscious perceptions in his or her
life?

2786.

Projective test. Most tests with a

wide range of possibilities for the
answers are projective.

What type of personality test is the Rorschach inkblot test,

objective or projective?

2787.

Prokaryotes. Polycistronic and

prokaryotes both start with P.

Which organisms have polycistronic mRNA?

2788.

Prolactin

What hormone level increases in the first 3 hours of sleep?

2789.

Prolactinoma

What is the most common one? Pituitary adenoma

2790.

Proline and lysine

What two AAs require vitamin C for hydroxylation?

2791.

Prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases

What two post-transcriptional enzymes in collagen synthesis

require ascorbic acid to function properly?

2792.

The promoter indicates where

transcription will begin.

What is the binding site for RNA polymerase?

2793.

Promotes systemic venous return into the

chest and increases the caliber and volume
of the pulmonary vessels

What changes does more negative intrathoracic

pressure cause to systemic venous return and to the
pulmonary vessels?

2794.

Pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC) is cleaved

into ACTH and -lipotropin.

Corticotropin-releasing hormone promotes the synthesis

and release of what prohormone?

2795.

Prophase of meiosis I (between 12th and

22nd week in utero)

When is the first arrested stage of development in the

female reproductive cycle?

2796.

Propionibacterium acnes

What is the most common causative organism of acne

vulgaris?

2797.

Propionic acid

What is the only fatty acid that is gluconeogenic?

2798.

Propofol

Which IV agent has the lowest incidence of postoperative

emesis and has the fastest rate of recovery?

2799.

Proportionate mortality rate

What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of

deaths From a specific cause per all deaths?

2800.

Propranolol

What -blocker is also a membrane stabilizer?

2801.

Prostate and lung cancer, respectively

What are the two leading causes of cancer-related death

in men?

2802.

Prostate cancer

Name the cancer associated with the following tumor

markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) PSA
and prostatic acid phosphatase

2803.

Prostatic carcinoma

What adenocarcinoma presents with elevated levels of

acid phosphatase, dihydrotestosterone, PSA, and bone
pain?

2804.

Prostatic carcinoma

What cancer of the male genitourinary system is

associated with osteoblastic bony metastasis?

2805.

Protamine sulfate

What agent antagonizes the effects of heparin?

2806.

Protamine sulfate

Name the antidote. Heparin

2807.

Protease, integrase, and reverse

transcriptase

Name three products of HIV's pol gene.

2808.

Protein A

What Staphylococcus aureus protein inhibits phagocytosis?

2809.

Proteus

What urease-positive non-lactose-fermenting gram-negative rod with swarmingtype motility is associated with staghorn renal calculi?

2810.

Proton pump
inhibitors

What class of drugs are the DOCs for peptic ulcer disease, Zollinger-Ellison
syndrome, and gastroesophageal reflux disease?

2811.

Proto-oncogenes

What is the term for normal cellular genes associated with growth and
differentiation?

2812.

Proud flesh

What is the term for excessive amounts of granulation tissue that can block reepithelialization and wound healing?

2813.

Proximal to distal
progression

In regard to motor development during infancy, choose the motor response that
happens first. Proximal or distal progression

2814.

Proximal tubule

What is the site of action for carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

2815.

PRPP
aminotransferase

What enzyme of purine synthesis is inhibited by allopurinol and 6mercaptopurine?

2816.

PRPP
aminotransferase

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in purine synthesis?

2817.

Pseudogout

What pathology is associated with deposition of calcium pyrophosphate in

patients older than 50 years?

2818.

Pseudogout

What form of arthritis is associated with calcium pyrophosphate crystals?

2819.

Pseudohyphae

What is the term for hyphae with constrictions at each septum that are commonly
seen in Candida albicans?

2820.

Pseudomembranous
colitis

What GI pathology can be caused by a patient taking clindamycin or lincomycin

or by Clostridium difficile, ischemia, Staphylococcus, Shigella, or Candida
infection?

2821.

Pseudomembranous
exudates

Name the type of exudate, given the following examples. Diphtheria infection

2822.

Pseudomonas

What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis In drug addicts?

2823.

Pseudomonas
aeruginosa

Name the most common type or cause. Infection in a patient on a ventilator

2824.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

What is the most likely causative organism for a patient

with folliculitis after spending time in a hot tub?

2825.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

What bacterium is a gram-negative, oxidase-positive

aerobic rod that produces a grapelike odor and pyocyanin
pigmentation?

2826.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment

production? Pyocyanin (blue-green)

2827.

Pseudomonas sp.

Name the MCC. Pneumonia in a neutropenic burn

patient

2828.

Psoas major

What muscle is the chief flexor of the hip?

2829.

Psoriasis

What diagnosis ensues from finding well-demarcated

erythematous plaques with silvery scales on the knees,
elbows, and scalp along with nail bed pitting and
discoloration?

2830.

Psoriasis, ankylosing spondylitis,

inflammatory bowel disease, and Reiter's
syndrome

What diseases are associated with the HLA-B27 allele

2831.

Pterygopalatine ganglion (I remember this

as the only ganglion left.)

What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic

ganglion that innervates The lacrimal gland and oral and
nasal mucosa?

2832.

PT for extrinsic and PTT for intrinsic

(remember: wPeT and hPiTT, which means
warfarin, extrinsic, PT; heparin, intrinsic,
PTT)

Does PT or PTT test the extrinsic coagulation pathway?

2833.

PTH

What hormone is characterized by the following renal

effects? Calcium reabsorption, phosphate excretion

2834.

PTH

What hormone is required for 1, 25-dihydroxy-vitamin D (1,

25-diOH-D) to have bone resorbing effects?

2835.

PTH increases Ca2+ reabsorption in the DCT of

the kidney and decreases PO4- reabsorption in
the PCT.

What are effects of PTH in the kidney?

2836.

Ptosis (eyelid drooping), miosis (pupillary

constriction), and anhydrosis (lack of sweating)
occur when the preganglionic sympathetic fibers
from T1-to T4 are obstructed.

What is the triad of Horner's syndrome?

2837.

Puberty

What stage of male development is characterized by

the following LH and testosterone levels? LH
pulsatile amplitude and levels increase, with
increased testosterone production.

2838.

Pubis, ilium, and ischium

What bones make up the acetabulum?

2839.

Public speaking (Remember: stage fright)

Name the most common type. Specific phobia

2840.

Puborectalis

What component of the pelvic diaphragm forms the

rectal sling (muscle of continence)?

2841.

Pulmonary alveolar macrophages

Name the macrophage based on its location: Lung

macrophages

2842.

Pulmonary embolism due to a DVT; this is not

absolute but a classic description.

After traveling in a plane across the Atlantic Ocean,

an obese male goes to the ER with swollen right leg
and sudden onset of shortness of breath. What do
you immediately diagnose?

2843.

Pulmonary infections

Name the MCC of death. In patients with cystic

fibrosis

2844.

Pulmonary shunt (i.e., pulmonary embolism)

What does failure of PaO2 to increase with

supplemental O2 indicate?

2845.

The pulmonary vein, which carries oxygenated

blood from the lung to the left atrium.

What is the only vein in the body with a high O2

content?

2846.

The pulsatile release of GnRH

What prevents the down-regulation of the receptors

on the gonadotrophs of the anterior pituitary gland?

2847.

Pulse pressure

What is the term for the difference between systolic and diastolic
pressures?

2848.

Punishment

Based on operant conditioning, what type of reinforcement is described

when Adding a stimulus stops a behavior?

2849.

Purine nucleoside
phosphorylase

What enzyme is deficient in selective T cell immunodeficiency?

2850.

Purine nucleoside
phosphorylase

What enzyme of the purine salvage pathway is deficient in the

following? Selective T-cell immunodeficiency

2851.

The Purkinje cell

What cell's axons are the only ones that leave the cerebellar cortex?

2852.

Purkinje cell is the fastest,

and the AV node is the
slowest.

What is the fastest-conducting fiber of the heart? Slowest conduction

fiber in the heart?

2853.

Purulent exudates

Name the type of exudate, given the following examples.

Meningococcal infection

2854.

P wave

What component of an ECG is associated with the following? Atrial

depolarization

2855.

Pyelonephritis

What is the term for ascending bacterial infection of the renal pelvis,
tubules, and interstitium causing costovertebral angle tenderness, fever,
chills, dysuria, frequency, and urgency?

2856.

Pyelonephritis

In what condition do you see dimpling on the kidney's surface?

2857.

Pygmalion effect
(experimenter expectancy).
This can be eliminated with
double-blind studies.

What form of bias occurs when the experimenter's expectation

inadvertently is expressed to the subjects, producing the desired
effects? How can it be eliminated?

2858.

Pyloric stenosis

A mother takes her 2-week-old infant to the ER because the baby

regurgitates and vomits after eating and has peristaltic waves visible on
the abdomen and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. What is
your diagnosis?

2859.

Pyrantel pamoate

What drug of choice for ascaris causes neuromuscular blockade of the

worm?

2860.

Pyridoxal phosphate is derived from vitamin B6

and is needed to transfer the amino groups of one
carbon skeleton to another.

What vitamin is necessary for the transfer of one

amino group from a carbon skeleton to another?

2861.

Pyridoxine

Name the antidote. Isoniazid

2862.

Pyridoxine (B6)

What vitamin is needed for the production of heme?

2863.

Pyridoxine (B6) deficiency

What vitamin deficiency causes a glove-andstocking neuropathy seen in alcoholics?

2864.

Pyruvate, acetyl CoA, and propionyl CoA

carboxylase

What are the three carboxylase enzymes that

require biotin?

2865.

Pyruvate carboxylase

What gluconeogenic mitochondrial enzyme requires

biotin?

2866.

QRS complex

What component of an ECG is associated with the

following? Ventricular depolarization

2867.

Quaternary structure

What structure of a protein describes the interaction

among subunits?

2868.

Quinolones

Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side

effect is listed. Cartilage abnormalities

2869.

Rabies

What negative sense RNA virus is associated with

intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies called Negri
bodies?

2870.

Radial Immuno Diffusion (RID) for Ig levels.

What is the most common precipitin test used in

clinical medicine?

2871.

Radial nerve

What nerve is associated with the following

functions? Supinate the wrist, extend the wrist and
digits, extend the shoulder and elbow

2872.

Radial nerve and the profunda brachii artery

What nerve and artery could be affected in a

midshaft humeral fracture?

2873.

Radius with scaphoid and lunate and ulna with

triquetrum and pisiform (Remember, for major
articulations, wrist/radius and humerus/ulna = elbow)

Name the bony articulations of the following

sites. Be specific. Wrist

2874.

Raloxifene

What estrogen receptor agonist in bone is

used in the treatment and prevention of
osteoporosis?

2875.

Range

What is the term for the difference between

the highest and the lowest score in a
population?

2876.

The raphe nuclei

What reticular nuclei synthesize serotonin

from L-tryptophan and plays a role in mood,
aggression, and inducing sleep?

2877.

Rapid cycling bipolar disorder

What is the name of depression and mania

alternating within a 48-to 72-hour period?

2878.

Rapid efflux of potassium

What triggers phase 3 of the action potential

in a ventricular pacemaker cell?

2879.

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)

What form of GN is characteristically

associated with crescent formation?

2880.

The rate of infusion

What determines the plasma level at steady

state?

2881.

The rate of -oxidation

What regulates the rate of ketone body

formation?

2882.

Rathke's pouch; they can result in compression of the

optic chiasm.

Craniopharyngiomas are remnants of what?

2883.

Rationalization

Name these anxiety defense mechanisms:

Use of explanations to justify unacceptable
behaviors.

2884.

Ratio scale

What scale has a true zero point, graded into

equal increments, and also orders them?

2885.

RBCs. That is why it is called red pulp.

Which major cell type is found in the red pulp of the

spleen?

2886.

Reaction formation

A complete opposite expression of your inward feeling

(e.g., arguing all the time with someone you are attracted
to when your feelings are not known)

2887.

Recall bias. These problems arise in

retrospective studies.

Failure to accurately recall the past leads to what form of

bias?

2888.

Receptive aphasia is due to a lesion in

Brodmann areas 22, 39, and 40; generally
the patient is unaware of the deficit.

What aphasia is seen as an inability to comprehend

spoken language and speaking in a word salad?

2889.

Recovery and death

What are the two ways to leave the prevalence pot?

2890.

The rectouterine pouch (of Douglas)

What is the most common one? Site for an ectopic

abdominal pregnancy

2891.

Rectum

What is the most common one? Site of ulcerative colitis

2892.

Red blood cell distribution width index (RDW)

What is the name for the following RBC indices? The

coefficient of variation of the RBC volume

2893.

Red muscle

What muscle type is characterized by low ATPase

activity, aerobic metabolism, myoglobin, association with
endurance, and small muscle mass?

2894.

Red pulp (Remember, Red pulp and RBCs

begin with R.)

What area of the spleen consists of splenic cords of

Billroth and phagocytoses RBCs?

2895.

The reduviid bug

What is the vector for Chagas disease?

2896.

Regardless of the rate of infusion, it takes 4

to 5 half-lives to reach steady state.

If you double the infusion rate of a drug, how long will it

take to reach steady state?

2897.

Regression

Name these immature defense mechanisms: Returning

to an earlier stage of development (e.g., enuresis)

2898.

Regular insulin

Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect

and duration of action. Peak, 0.5 to 3 hours; duration, 5
to 7 hours

2899.

Reinforcement

What is the term for any stimulus that

increases the probability of a response
happening?

2900.

Reiter syndrome

What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is

seen in HLA-B27-positive young females
and presents with the triad of conjunctivitis,
urethritis, and arthritis affecting the knees
and ankles?

2901.

Reject it

If the P value is less than or equal to .05,

what do you do to the null hypothesis?

2902.

Relative refractory period

What period is described when a largerthan-normal stimulus is needed to produce

an action potential?

2903.

Relative risk and/or attributable risk. (Cohort studies deal

with incidence.)

What statistical method do you use when

analyzing Cohort studies?

2904.

Relaxation of the diaphragm increases the intrapleural

pressure (becomes more positive).

What happens to the intrapleural pressure

when the diaphragm relaxes?

2905.

Reliability (think of it as "nice grouping" or "precise")

What is the term for the ability of a test to

measure something consistently?

2906.

REM

Name the stages of sleep with these EEG

patterns: Sawtooth waves, random low
voltage pattern

2907.

REM and stage 4 sleep; they decrease.

What aspects of sleep are affected during

benzodiazepine use?

2908.

Remember the mnemonic PAM SMIDT P, (hyper)

Parathyroid/ Paget disease A, Addison's disease M, Milkalkali syndrome/metastatic cancer S, Sarcoidosis M,
Multiple myeloma I, Immobilization/idiopathic D, Vitamin D
intoxication T, Tumors

Name at least three causes of metastatic

calcification.

2909.

REM latency; normally it is about 90 minutes.

What is the period between falling asleep

and REM sleep called?

2910.

The removal of Na+ results in the renal tubule becoming

negatively charged. The negative luminal charge attracts
both K+ and H+ into the renal tubule and promotes
HCO3- to enter the ECF and results in hypokalemic
alkalosis.

By removing Na+ from the renal tubule and

pumping it back into the ECF compartment,
what does aldosterone do to the body's
acid-base stores?

2911.

REM sleep. Nightmares are frightening dreams that we

recall.

With what stage of sleep are nightmares

associated?

2912.

REM sleep occurs more often in the second half of sleep.

The amount of REM sleep increases as the night goes on.

When does most REM sleep occur, in the

first or second half of sleep?

2913.

REM sleep. Remember, awake brain in a sleeping body.

Aroused EEG pattern (fast low voltage and

desynchronization), saccadic eye
movements, ability to dream, and sexual
arousal are all associated with what general
pattern of sleep?

2914.

Renal cell carcinoma

Name the most common type or cause.

Painless hematuria

2915.

Renal circulation

Where is the greatest venous PO2 in

resting tissue?

2916.

The renal circulation has the smallest AV O2 (high venous

PO2) difference in the body because of the overperfusion
of the kidneys resulting from filtration.

What organ of the body has the smallest AV

oxygen difference?

2917.

Renal failure

Name the MCC of death. In SLE

2918.

Renal plasma flow (decrease flow, increase FF)

What is the main factor determining FF?

2919.

Renin

What substance do the JG cells of the

kidney secrete in response to low blood
pressure?

2920.

Renshaw neuron

What is the term for an inhibitory

interneuron?

2921.

Reovirus

What is the only dsRNA virus?

2922.

Repaglinide

What oral hypoglycemic agent stimulates

pancreatic -cell release of insulin and is given
just prior to meals because of its short halflife?

2923.

Repolarization is from base to apex and from

epicardium to endocardium.

How does ventricular repolarization take place,

base to apex or vice versa?

2924.

Repression

Unconsciously forgetting(forgetting that you

forgot something!)

2925.

Reserpine

What drug blocks intragranular uptake of NE?

2926.

Residual volume

What is the term for the amount of blood in the

ventricle after maximal contraction?

2927.

Residual volume (RV)

Name the lung measurement based on the

following descriptions: Amount of air in the
lungs after maximal expiration

2928.

Resistance and vessel length are proportionally

related. The greater the length of the vessel, the
greater the resistance is on the vessel.

How are resistance and length related

regarding flow?

2929.

Resistance decreases as resistors are added in

parallel.

In a parallel circuit, what happens to

resistance when a resistor is added in parallel

2930.

The resistance increases 16-fold.

If the radius of a vessel is decreased by half,

what happens to the resistance?

2931.

Resistance increases as resistors are added to the

circuit.

When referring to a series circuit, what

happens to resistance when a resistor is
added?

2932.

Resistance of the system increases. (Remember, when

resistors are connected in a series, the total of the
resistance is the sum of the individual resistances.)

What happens to the resistance of the system

when a resistor is added in a series?

2933.

The resistance will decrease onesixteenth of the original resistance.

If the radius of a vessel doubles, what happens to resistance?

2934.

Resorb CSF into the blood

What is the function of the arachnoid granulations?

2935.

Respiratory acidosis (summary:

high CO2, high H+, slightly high
HCO3-)

What primary acid-base disturbance is cause by a decrease in

alveolar ventilation (increasing CO2 levels) resulting in the
reaction shifting to the right and increasing H+ and HCO3- levels?

2936.

Respiratory alkalosis (summary: low

CO2, low H+, slightly low HCO3-)

What primary acid-base disturbance is caused by an increase in

alveolar ventilation (decreasing CO2 levels) resulting in the
reaction shifting to the left and decreasing both H+ and HCO3levels?

2937.

Respiratory depression

What is the major pulmonary side effect of -activators?

2938.

Respiratory distress syndrome;

treatment with cortisol and
thyroxine can increase production
of surfactant.

What syndrome is due to a deficiency of surfactant?

2939.

RES(Reticular endothelial system)

Where in the body is heme converted to bilirubin?

2940.

The resting membrane potential of

the cell is -90 mV because of the
intracellular proteins.

Why is the cell's resting membrane potential negative?

2941.

Reticulocyte

What is the term for a large, immature RBC that is spherical, blue,
and without a nucleus?

2942.

Retinoblastoma

What is the most common one? Eye tumor in children

2943.

Reverse transcriptase

What is the term for RNA-dependent DNA polymerase?

2944.

Reverse transcriptase

What HIV enzyme produces a dsDNA provirus?

2945.

Reverse transcription

What is the term for production of a DNA copy from an RNA

molecule?

2946.

Reye syndrome

What potentially fatal disease occurs in children who are given

aspirin during a viral illness?

2947.

Rhabdomyoma

What benign cardiac tumor is associated with tuberous

sclerosis?

2948.

Rhabdomyoma

What is the most common one? Cardiac tumor of infancy

2949.

Rhabdovirus

What is the name of the bullet-shaped virus?

2950.

Rhabdovirus

What family do the following viruses belong to? Rabies

2951.

Rheumatic fever

Aschoff bodies

2952.

Rheumatoid arthritis

What is the most common one? Inflammatory arthritis

2953.

Rheumatoid arthritis

What chronic systemic inflammatory disease commonly seen

in women aged 20 to 50 is a progressive, symmetric arthritis
affecting the hands, wrists, knees, and ankles that improves
with increased activity?

2954.

Rheumatoid arthritis and type 1

diabetes (with HLA-DR3)

What diseases are associated with HLA-DR4

2955.

Rhinovirus

Name the most common cause. A cold in the spring and fall

2956.

Rhinovirus and hepatitis A virus

What are the only two picornaviruses that do not lead to

aseptic meningitis?

2957.

Rhinoviruses for summer and fall;

coronaviruses for winter and spring

Which virus is the MCC of a cold in the summer and fall?

Winter and spring?

2958.

Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM),

an anti-RhD IgG antibody, prevents
generation of RhD-specific memory B
cells in the mother.

What is given to pregnant women within 24 hours after birth to

eliminate Rh+ fetal blood cells from their circulation?

2959.

Rhombencephalon

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived

from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
Pons

2960.

Rhombencephalon

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived

from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
Myelencephalon

2961.

Rhombencephalon

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are

derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
rhombencephalon). Medulla

2962.

Rhombencephalon

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are

derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
rhombencephalon). Metencephalon

2963.

Rhombencephalon

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are

derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
rhombencephalon). Cerebellum

2964.

Rib 7 articulates with T7 and T8. Each rib

articulates with the corresponding numerical
vertebral body and the vertebral body below it.

With what thoracic vertebra or vertebrae does rib 7

articulate?

2965.

Ribavirin

What antiviral agent is used to treat RSV, influenza A

and B, Lassa fever, and hantavirus and as an adjunct to
IFN-in hepatitis C?

2966.

Riboflavin (B2)

What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency is associated

with cheilosis and magenta tongue?

2967.

Riboflavin (B2) deficiency

What vitamin deficiency produces angular stomatitis,

glossitis, and cheilosis?

2968.

Ribonucleotide reductase

What enzyme is blocked by hydroxyurea?

2969.

Ribonucleotide reductase

What enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis is inhibited by the

following? Hydroxyurea

2970.

Ribozymes

Name the RNA subtype based on the following: RNA

molecules with enzymatic activity

2971.

Rickets

What childhood pathology involves anterior bowing of

the tibia, epiphyseal enlargements, and costochondral
widening, with the endochondral bones being affected?

2972.

Rickets prior to fusion, osteomalacia if the

deficiency occurs after epiphyseal fusion.

What is the term for vitamin D deficiency prior to epiphyseal

fusion?

2973.

Riedel thyroiditis

What rare disorder presents as a large, hard, irregular

thyroid gland due to fibrous proliferation of connective tissue
in the thyroid gland and extends to adjacent structures?

2974.

Rifampin

What is the drug of choice for asymptomatic meningitis

carriers?

2975.

Rifampin

What antitubercular agent causes a red-orange tinge to

tears and urine?

2976.

The right and left pulmonary arteries, the

only arteries that carry deoxygenated
blood

What vessels carry deoxygenated blood into the lungs from

the right ventricle?

2977.

Right atrium

What part of the heart forms The right border?

2978.

Right brachiocephalic artery

Name the correct artery. The right recurrent laryngeal

nerve passes around it.

2979.

A right CN V lesion results in weakened

muscles of mastication, and the jaw
deviates to the right.

A motor lesion to the right CN V results in deviation of the

jaw to which side?

2980.

Right coronary artery

What artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle,

sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes?

2981.

Right coronary artery

What artery travels with the following veins? Small cardiac

vein

2982.

The right gonadal vein drains into the

inferior vena cava directly, and the left
gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein.

What vessel does the right gonadal vein drain into?

2983.

The right kidney is lower in the abdominal

cavity because of the amount of space the
liver occupies.

Which kidney is lower? Why?

2984.

Right medial longitudinal

fasciculus

Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is

asked to look to the left? Right eye can't look left, left eye
nystagmus, and convergence is intact

2985.

Right nasal hemianopsia

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. A right lateral compression of

the optic chiasm (as in aneurysms in the internal carotid artery)

2986.

Right-sided

Is jugular venous distention a presentation of isolated left or right

heart failure?

2987.

Right vagus innervates the SA

node and the left vagus
innervates the AV node

Does the left or right vagus nerve innervate the SA node?

2988.

Right ventricle

What part of the heart forms Anterior wall?

2989.

Rigors, leukopenia, decrease in

blood pressure, and increase in
temperature

What is the tetrad of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

2990.

Risperidone

What neuroleptic agent is also considered to be an antihistamine?

2991.

Ristocetin

What substance is used to test platelets' response in patients with

von Willebrand disease?

2992.

Ritodrine and terbutaline

What two 2-agonists cause myometrial relaxation?

2993.

RNA polymerase I

Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the following:

Synthesizes 28S, 18S and 5.8S rRNAs

2994.

RNA polymerase II

Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the following:

Synthesizes hnRNA, mRNA, and snRNA

2995.

RNA polymerase III

Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the following:

Synthesizes tRNA, snRNA, and the 5S rRNA

2996.

Rochalimaea quintana (now

called Bartonella quintana)

Which organism causes trench fever?

2997.

Rods

What cells of the retina see in black and white and are used for night
vision?

2998.

The Romberg sign is present if the patient sways or loses

balance when standing with eyes open. In a dorsal column
lesion, patients sway with eyes closed. (Don't forget this one.)

What bedside test is used to

differentiate a dorsal column lesion
from a lesion in the vermis of the
cerebral cortex?

2999.

Rotavirus

Name the most common type or

cause. Infantile diarrhea

3000.

Rotavirus

Name the most common type or

cause. Diarrhea in children

3001.

Rotavirus

What organism is associated with the

following types of diarrhea? Day careassociated diarrhea in infants

3002.

Roth spots

Name the following descriptions

associated with bacterial endocarditis:
Retinal emboli

3003.

Roth spots, and they are seen in bacterial endocarditis.

What is the term for white retinal spots

surrounded by hemorrhage? In what
condition are they seen?

3004.

Round and ovarian ligaments

What two ligaments of the uterus are

remnants of the gubernaculum?

3005.

rRNA

Name the RNA subtype based on the

following: The most abundant form of
RNA in the cell

3006.

RSV

Name the most common type or

cause. Bronchiolitis in children

3007.

RSV

Name the most common cause.

Hospitalization in children younger
than 1 year of age

3008.

RSV

Which virus is treated with the monoclonal antibody

palivizumab?

3009.

RSV

Name the most common type or cause. Viral pneumonia

leading to death

3010.

RU 486

What drug, if given during pregnancy, would cause the

uterus to exhibit signs of progesterone withdrawal and induce
an abortion?

3011.

Rubor (red), dolor (pain), calor (heat),

tumor (swelling); also sometimes there is
loss of function

What are the four signs of acute inflammation?

3012.

S1 nuclease

What enzyme is used to remove the hairpin loop during

production of cDNA from mRNA?

3013.

S2, S3, S4keeps the pee-pee off the

floor!

What spinal nerves contribute to the pelvic splanchnic

(parasympathetic) nerves that innervate the detrusor muscle
of the urinary bladder?

3014.

Saccule and utricle

What part of the inner ear contains the gravity receptors for
changes in the position of the head?

3015.

Sacrococcygeal teratoma

What tumor is derived from primitive streak remnants and

often contains bone, hair, or other tissue types?

3016.

Sad but true. Some women can have

multiple successive orgasms.

True or false? Only men have refractory sexual periods.

3017.

Sadism

What paraphilia is defined as Deriving sexual pleasure from

other peoples' pain?

3018.

Salmeterol

What 2-agonist is used as a prophylactic agent in the

treatment of asthma?

3019.

Salmonella

What Enterobacteriaceae are prone to produce osteomyelitis

in sickle cell patients?

3020.

Salmonella typhi

What Vi-encapsulated gram-negative motile anaerobic rod

that produces H2S is associated with enteric fever,
gastroenteritis, and septicemia?

3021.

Salpingitis

What is the term for pelvic inflammatory disease of the fallopian

tubes?

3022.

Saltatory conduction

What term describes how an action potential is propagated along an

axon?

3023.

The sandfly

What is the vector for Leishmania infections?

3024.

SA node; it is the reason it is

the primary pacemaker of the
heart.

What cell in the heart has the highest rate of automaticity?

3025.

Sarcoidosis

A 25-year-old black woman presents with nonproductive cough,

shortness of breath, fatigue, and malaise; she has bilateral hilar
lymphadenopathy on chest radiography and elevated ACE levels.
What do you diagnose?

3026.

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

What is the name of the SER of striated muscle?

3027.

The scaphoid is the most

commonly fractured and the
lunate is the most commonly
dislocated.

What carpal bone is most commonly fractured? Dislocated?

3028.

Scavenger receptor (SR-B1)

Via what cell surface receptor does HDL cholesterol from the periphery
enter hepatoceles?

3029.

Schatzki ring

What ring is a weblike narrowing of the gastroesophageal junction?

3030.

Schedule dependent;
antineoplastic agents that work
on nonproliferating cells are
dose dependent

Are antineoplastic agents that work on actively proliferating cells

schedule or dose dependent?

3031.

Schistocytes

What is the term for RBC fragments?

3032.

Schistosoma haematobium

What parasite is associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the

urinary bladder?

3033.

Schistosoma haematobium

Which trematode is associated with bladder carcinoma in Egypt and

Africa?

3034.

Schistosoma have separate

males and females.

What is the only trematode that is not hermaphroditic?

3035.

Schizoid

Name these cluster A personality disorders: Socially withdrawn, seen

as eccentric but happy to be alone

3036.

Schizotypal

Name these cluster A personality disorders: Odd, strange; has magical

thinking; socially isolated, paranoid, lacks close friends; has incongruous
affect

3037.

School phobia

To what does failure to resolve separation anxiety lead?

3038.

Schwannoma

What CNS tumor commonly produces tinnitus and hearing loss?

3039.

Sciatic nerve

What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss?

Loss of flexion of the knee and all function below the knee, weakened
extension of the thigh

3040.

Scleroderma

What pathology involves excessive fibrosis throughout the body via

increased fibroblast activity, occurs in women more than men, and is
most commonly seen in the third to the fifth decade?

3041.

Scleroderma

What disease is diagnosed by findings of ANAs and anti-SCL-70

antibodies?

3042.

Scrofula

What is the term for TB with the cervical lymph node involved?

3043.

Scrotal cancer, due to the

high exposure to polycyclic
aromatic hydrocarbons

What cancer is particularly likely to affect English chimney sweeps?

3044.

Seasonal affective disorder

(treat with bright light
therapy)

What form of depression is due to abnormal metabolism of melatonin?

3045.

Secondary erectile disorder

(Male erectile disorder is the
same as impotence.)

What is the term to describe a man who has Used to be able to achieve
an erection but now cannot?

3046.

Secondary hypercortisolism
(pituitary)

What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following

changes in cortisol and ACTH? Cortisol increased, ACTH increased

3047.

Secondary
hyperparathyroidism (vitamin
D deficiency, renal disease)

What endocrine abnormality is characterized by the following changes in

PTH, Ca2+, and inorganic phosphate (Pi)? PTH increased, Ca2+
decreased, Pi decreased

3048.

Secondary hyperthyroidism (Increased TSH results

in increased T4 production and increased negative
feedback on to hypothalamus and decreased
release of TRH.)

What thyroid abnormality has the following? TRH

decreased, TSH decreased, T4 increased

3049.

Secondary hypocortisolism (pituitary)

What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized

by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH?
Cortisol decreased, ACTH decreased

3050.

Secondary hypoparathyroidism (vitamin D toxicity)

What endocrine abnormality is characterized by

the following changes in PTH, Ca2+, and inorganic
phosphate (Pi)? PTH decreased, Ca2+
increased, Pi increased

3051.

Secondary hypothyroidism/pituitary (Low TSH

results in low T4 and increased TRH because of
lack of a negative feedback loop.)

What thyroid abnormality has the following? TRH

increased, TSH decreased, T4 decreased

3052.

Secondary lysosome (think of the primary as

inactive and secondary as active)

What type of lysosome is formed when lysosome

fuses with a substrate for breakdown?

3053.

Secondary spermatocyte

Match the chromosome and haploid number with

the stage of sperm development, spermatid,
spermatocyte (primary or secondary),
spermatogonia (type A or B): 23/2n

3054.

Second M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives

From what pharyngeal pouch is the following

structure derived? Palatine tonsil

3055.

Second MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic

arch derivatives

From what aortic arch are the following structures

derived? Stapes artery

3056.

The second pharyngeal pouch and groove

What pharyngeal pouch and groove persist when

a pharyngeal fistula is formed?

3057.

Secretin stimulates the pancreas to secrete a

HCO3--rich solution to neutralize the acidity of the
chyme entering the duodenum.

What is secretin's pancreatic action?

3058.

The secretory phase is progesteronedependent and 14 days long, whereas the

length of the proliferative phase varies

What phase of the female reproductive cycle is 14 days

long?

3059.

Selection bias

What type of bias is it when the sample population is not

a true representative of the population?

3060.

Selective erectile disorder

What is the term to describe a man who has The ability

to have an erection sometimes and other times not?

3061.

Selegiline

What MAOI does not cause a hypertensive crisis?

3062.

Selegiline

What is the drug of choice for early Parkinson's disease?

3063.

Selegiline

What is the monoamine oxidase B (MAOB) inhibitor?

3064.

Selenium (Se)

What mineral is an important component of glutathione

peroxidase?

3065.

Semicircular canal

What component of the inner ear Contains perilymph

and responds to angular acceleration and deceleration of
the head?

3066.

Semicircular duct

What component of the inner ear Contains endolymph

and responds to head turning and movement?

3067.

Seminoma

What germ cell tumor is seen in the 15-to 35-year-old

age group, peaks when the person is 35 years of age,
and is a bulky mass that spreads via the lymphatic
system?

3068.

Seminoma

What is the most common one? Germ cell tumor in

men

3069.

Seminoma

Name the cancer associated with the following tumor

markers. (Some may have more than one answer.)
Placental alkaline phosphatase

3070.

Semipermeable membrane; a selectively

permeable membrane allows both water and
small solutes to pass through its membrane.

What type of membrane is characterized as being

permeable to water only?

3071.

Senile plaques, neurofibrillary

tangles, and granulovascular
changes in neurons

What are the three microscopic pathologic changes seen in

Alzheimer's disease?

3072.

Sensitivity (it deals with the sick)

The proportion of truly diseased persons in the screened

population who are identified as diseased refers to?

3073.

Sensory

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor,

sensory, or both) Dorsal root ganglion?

3074.

Sensory

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor,

sensory, or both) Dorsal root?

3075.

The sensory component is through

the superior laryngeal nerve, and the
motor limb is via the recurrent
laryngeal nerve.

What branches of CN X are the sensory and motor components

of the cough reflex? Be specific.

3076.

The sensory limb is via CN IX, and

the motor limb is from CN X.

Which CNs act as the sensory and motor components of the gag
reflex?

3077.

Separation anxiety

Name the reaction that appears in babies who are temporarily

deprived of their usual caretaker. (This reaction usually begins
around 6 months of age, peaks around 8 months, and
decreases at 12 months.)

3078.

SER

What cytoplasmic organelle carries the enzymes for elongation

and desaturation of fatty acyl CoA?

3079.

Series circuit

What type of circuit is described when the total resistance is

always greater than the sums of the individual resistors?

3080.

Serocystadenocarcinoma

What ovarian disease involves psammoma bodies?

3081.

Serocystadenocarcinoma

What is the most common one? Primary malignant tumor of the

ovary

3082.

Serocystadenoma

What is the most common one? Benign tumor of the ovary

3083.

Serotonergic crisis may be precipitated when an

SSRI is mixed with MAOIs, TCADs,
dextromethorphan, and meperidine. Treat it with
cyproheptadine.

A depressive patient who is taking paroxetine

goes to the ER with pain and is given meperidine.
Shortly afterward she develops diaphoresis,
myoclonus, muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, and
seizures. What is your diagnosis?

3084.

Serotonin

What are the primary neurotransmitters at the

following sites? Brainstem cells

3085.

Serotonin syndrome. It is also associated with high

doses and MAOI and synthetic narcotic
combinations (Ecstasy). Treatment consists of
decreasing SSRI dosage, removing the causative
agent, and giving cyproheptadine.

What syndrome is characterized by sweating,

insomnia, nausea, diarrhea, cramps, delirium,
and general restlessness secondary to MAOI and
SSRI in combination?

3086.

Serous exudates

Name the type of exudate, given the following

examples. Sunburn

3087.

Serratia

Which bacteria are associated with the following

pigment production? Red pigmentation

3088.

Serratus anterior

What muscle or muscles are innervated by the

following nerves? Long thoracic nerve

3089.

Sertoli cell

What cell is under control of FSH and

testosterone; secretes inhibin, MIF, and
androgen-binding protein; and phagocytizes the
excess cytoplasm of the spermatid?

3090.

Serum 25-hydroxy-vitamin D (25-OH-D)

What is the best measure of total body vitamin D

if you suspect a deficiency?

3091.

Seven-eighths of nephrons are cortical, with the

remainder juxtamedullary.

What percentage of nephrons is cortical?

3092.

Severe combined immunodeficiency disease

What disease involves a lack of both T cellmediated and humoral immune responses that
can be either X-linked or AR?

3093.

Severe (range 20-34)

What level of mental retardation is characterized by Having

the ability to communicate and learn basic habits but training
is usually not helpful?

3094.

Sexual aversion disorder

What is the term for a complete aversion to all sexual

contact?

3095.

Shaping (successive approximation)

What operant conditioning therapy or modification is

described as Reinforcing successive attempts that lead to
the desired goal (gradual improvement)?

3096.

Sheehan syndrome

Name the most common type or cause. Panhypopituitarism

3097.

Sheehan syndrome

What is the term for panhypopituitarism secondary to

ischemic necrosis and hypotension postpartum?

3098.

Shifts it to the right

Which way will the O2 dissociation curve shift with the

addition of 2, 3-bisphosphoglycerate (2, 3-BPG) to adult
hemoglobin (Hgb)?

3099.

Shiga toxin (enterohemorrhagic

Escherichia coli produces Vero toxin,
which is quite similar to shiga toxin)

What is the name of the exotoxin Shigella dysenteriae

produces, which interferes with the 60S ribosomal subunit
and results in eukaryotic protein synthesis inhibition?

3100.

Shigella

What nonmotile gram-negative, non-lactose-fermenting

facultative anaerobic rod uses the human colon as its only
reservoir and is transmitted by fecal-oral spread?

3101.

Shine-Dalgarno sequence

In prokaryotes, what is the name of the RNA sequence that

ribosomes bind to so translation can occur?

3102.

SHIP: Shifting of the aorta, Hypertrophy

of the right ventricle, Interventricular
septal defect, Pulmonary stenosis

What is the tetrad of tetralogy of Fallot?

3103.

The short arm of chromosome 6

What chromosome codes for HLA gene products?

3104.

Short-chain fatty acids

What must be supplemented in patients with medium-chain

acyl CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD) deficiency?

3105.

Short-chain fatty acids

What forms of fatty acids are absorbed from the small

intestine mucosa by simple diffusion?

3106.

Shortens

What happens to the following during skeletal muscle

contraction? Sarcomere

3107.

Shortens

What happens to the following during skeletal muscle

contraction? I band

3108.

Shortens

What happens to the following during skeletal muscle

contraction? H zone

3109.

Sickle cell disease

Name the most common type or cause. Hematologic

cause of papillary necrosis

3110.

Sideroblastic anemia

Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the

following laboratory values. Increased iron, decreased
TIBC, increased percent saturation, increased ferritin

3111.

Sigma factor

What protein is required by prokaryotic RNA polymerases

to initiate transcription at the promoter region of DNA?

3112.

Sigmoid colon

What is the most common one? Site for colonic

diverticula

3113.

Silent

Name the type of mutation: New codon specifies for the

same AA

3114.

Silicosis Note: Coal worker's

pneumoconiosis is synonymous with black
lung disease, an upper lobe occupational
disorder

What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the

following occupations or materials? Miners, metal
grinders, and sandblasters

3115.

Simon focus

What is the term for granuloma at the lung apex in TB?

3116.

Simple diffusion; it does not use proteinmediated transport

What is the main mechanism for exchange of nutrients

and gases across a capillary membrane?

3117.

Since CO2 is 24 times as soluble as O2, the rate at which

CO2 is brought to the membrane determines its rate of
exchange, making it perfusion-limited a gas. For O2 the more
time it is in contact with the membrane, the more likely it will
diffuse, making it diffusion-limited.

Is CO2 a perfusion-or diffusion-limited

O2 gas?

3118.

Since they are independent events, their probabilities would

be multiplied.

If the occurrence of one event had

nothing to do with the occurrence of
another event, how do you combine
their probabilities?

3119.

Single-strand DNA binding protein

What protein prevents ssDNA from

reannealing during DNA replication?

3120.

Sinus venosus

From what embryonic structure are the

following structures derived? The
sinus venarum, coronary sinus, and the
oblique vein of the left atrium

3121.

Site 1

Name the Hgb-O2 binding site based

on the following information: Remains
attached under most physiologic
conditions

3122.

Site 2

Name the Hgb-O2 binding site based

on the following information: Greatest
affinity of the three remaining sites for
attachment; requires PO2 levels of 26
mm Hg to remain attached

3123.

Site 3

Name the Hgb-O2 binding site based

on the following information: Requires
a PO2 level of 40 mm Hg to remain
attached

3124.

Site 4

Name the Hgb-O2 binding site based on the following information:

Least affinity for O2; requires the highest PO 2 levels for attachment
(approx. 100 mm Hg)

3125.

SITSSubscapularis,
Infraspinatus, Teres minor,
Supraspinatus

What muscles make up the rotator cuff?

3126.

Sixth MS CARD is my mnemonic

for the aortic arch derivatives

From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? Right
and left pulmonary arteries and the ductus arteriosus

3127.

Sjgren disease

For what disease are SS-A(Ro), SS-B(La), and R-ANA diagnostic

markers?

3128.

Sjogren's syndrome, active

hepatitis, systemic lupus
erythematosus (with HLA-DR2)
and type 1 diabetes (with HLADR4)

What diseases are associated with the HLA-DR3 allele

3129.

Sjgren's syndrome; SS-A (Ro)

and SS-B (La)

What autoimmune syndrome is characterized by keratoconjunctivitis,

corneal ulcers, xerostomia, and an increased risk of high-grade Bcell lymphomas? What two Ab tests are used in making the
diagnosis?

3130.

Skeletal muscle

Name the muscle type based on the histological features: Actin and
myosin in sarcomeres; striated; multinuclear; lacks gap junctions;
troponin:calcium binding; T tubules and SR forming triadic contacts;
highest ATPase activity; no calcium channels

3131.

Skeletal muscles

Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: Discontinuous

voluntary contraction, multinuclear striated unbranched fibers, actin
and myosin overlapping for banding pattern, triadic T tubules,
troponin and desmin as Z disc intermediate filament.

3132.

Skin, liver, and kidneys

What three organs are necessary for the production of vitamin

D3(cholecalciferol)?

3133.

SLE; ANA, anti-dsDNA

and anti-Sm (anti-Smith)

A 20-year-old black woman goes to you with nonspecific joint pain, fever, and
a malar rash over the bridge of her nose and on her cheeks. This is a classic
example of what autoimmune disease? What are three autoantibody tests
you could order to make the diagnosis?

3134.

Sleep latency

What is the period between going to bed and falling asleep called?

3135.

Sleepwalking is
associated with stage 4
and occurs most often
in the first third of sleep.

What stage of sleep is associated with somnambulism?

3136.

Small cell cancer of the

lung

Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have
more than one answer) L-myc

3137.

Small cell carcinoma

(oat cell)

What very aggressive lung cancer metastasizes early and is associated with
smoking and paraneoplastic syndromes?

3138.

The small subunit (40S)

binds first.

What ribosomal subunit binds first to the mRNA strand?

3139.

Small to medium-sized
cerebral vessels

What cerebral vessel size is affected in patients with vascular dementia?

3140.

Smoking

What is the leading cause of preventable premature death and illness in the
United States?

3141.

Smooth muscle

Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: Involuntary contraction,

uninuclear nonstriated fibers, actin and myosin not forming banding pattern;
lack of T tubules, gap junctions, and calmodulin.

3142.

Smooth muscle

Name the muscle type based on the histological features: Actin and myosin
not in sarcomeres; nonstriated; uninuclear; gap junctions; calmodulin:calcium
binding; lacks T tubules; voltage-gated calcium channels

3143.

Snails

What are the first intermediate hosts for trematodes?

3144.

snRNA

Name the RNA subtype based on the following: Found only in the nucleus of
eukaryotes and functions to remove introns from mRNA

3145.

Solved as 30% T + 30% A = 60%;

therefore, C + G = 40%; then C = 20% and
G = 20% (example of Chargaff's rule)

If a sample of DNA has 30% T, what is the percent of C?

3146.

Somatization

Name these immature defense mechanisms: Psychic

feelings converted to physical symptoms

3147.

Somatization disorder

What somatoform disorder is described as Having a F:M

ratio of 20:1, onset before age 30, and having 4 pains (2
gastrointestinal, 1 sexual, 1 neurologic)?

3148.

Somatoform disorder

What disorder is described as having Unconscious

symptoms with unconscious motivation?

3149.

Somatoform pain disorder

What somatoform disorder is described as Severe,

prolonged pain that persists with no cause being found,
disrupts activities of daily living?

3150.

Somatomedins

What are the growth factors released from the liver

called?

3151.

Somatomedins (IGF-1)

What growth factors are chondrogenic, working on the

epiphyseal end plates of bone?

3152.

Somatotrophins are stimulated by IGF-1,

and they inhibit GH secretion. GHRH
stimulates GH secretion.

How do elevated blood glucose levels decrease GH

secretion? (Hint: what inhibitory hypothalamic hormone is
stimulated by IGF-1?)

3153.

Sorbitol (resulting in cataracts)

In a diabetic patient, to what does aldose reductase

convert glucose?

3154.

Southern blot

What blotting technique uses the following for analysis?

DNA

3155.

Spasms of the uterus, bladder, and the

biliary tree occur with all of the opioids
except meperidine.

A patient goes to the ER with signs and symptoms of

biliary colic. Which opioid analgesic do you choose?

3156.

Spearman correlation

What type of correlation compares two ordinal variables?

3157.

Specificity (it deals with the healthy)

What is the statistical term for the proportion of truly

nondiseased persons in the screened population who are
identified as nondiseased?

3158.

Specific rate (e.g.,

men aged 55-60)

What is the term for the rate measured for a subgroup of a population?

3159.

Spectinomycin

What is the drug of choice for penicillin-resistant gonococcal infections?

3160.

Spermatid

Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm
development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia
(type A or B): 23/1n

3161.

Spermatogonia (type
A)

Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm
development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia
(type A or B): 46/2n (divide meiotically)

3162.

Spermatogonia (type
B)

Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm
development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia
(type A or B): 46/2n (divide mitotically)

3163.

S phase

What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific
for? Hydroxyurea

3164.

S phase

What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific
for? 6-Mercaptopurine

3165.

S phase

DNA replication occurs during what phase of the cell cycle?

3166.

S phase

Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: Period of DNA replication
(preparing for mitosis)

3167.

S phase

What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific
for? 6-Thioguanine

3168.

S phase

What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific
for? Cytarabine

3169.

Sphingomyelin

What substrate is built up in Niemann-Pick disease?

3170.

Sphingomyelinase

What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in Niemann-Pick disease?

3171.

Sphingomyelin
(lecithin also, but it is
not a sphingolipid)

What is the only sphingolipid that contains choline and PO4?

3172.

Sphingosine

What sphingolipid is formed by the union of serine and palmitoyl CoA?

3173.

Spinal trigeminal nucleus

What component of the trigeminal nuclei

Receives sensory input (all but pain and
temperature) from the face, scalp, dura, and the
oral and nasal cavities?

3174.

Spinothalamic tract (anterolateral system)

In what tract does pain, temperature, and crude

touch sensory information ascend to the
postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe?

3175.

Spironolactone

Which diuretic is used as an adrenal steroid

antagonist?

3176.

Spironolactone

Which potassium-sparing drug is an aldosterone

receptor antagonist ?

3177.

Spironolactone (binds to aldosterone receptors)

What is the only diuretic that works on the blood

side of the nephron?

3178.

Spleen

What is the only organ supplied by the foregut

artery that is of mesodermal origin?

3179.

Splenic flexure

What is the most common one? Site of ischemia

in the GI tract

3180.

The splenic vein

The inferior mesenteric artery drains into it.

3181.

Splenomegaly and anemia (with a high index of

suspicion)

What are the two most important features in the

diagnosis of malaria?

3182.

Splitting

Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms:

Everything in the world is perceived as either good
or bad . No middle ground; it is all extremes.

3183.

Splitting of the first heart sound occurs during

inspiration because of the increased output of the
right ventricle, delaying the closure of the pulmonic
valve.

Does physiologic splitting of the first heart sound

occur during inspiration or expiration? Why?

3184.

Sporothrix schenckii

Which fungus is found worldwide on plants, is a

cigar-shaped yeast in tissue form, and results in
rose gardener's disease?

3185.

Sporozoites

What form of the Plasmodium species are injected into humans by mosquitoes?

3186.

Squamous cell
carcinoma

What is the most common one? Cancer of the esophagus in the world

3187.

Squamous cell
carcinoma

What is the most common one? Malignant tumor of the esophagus

3188.

Squamous cell
carcinoma

Keratin pearls

3189.

Squamous cell
carcinoma

What type of skin carcinoma occurring on sun-exposed sites has a low level of
metastasis?

3190.

Squamous cell
carcinoma

What bronchogenic carcinoma is associated with an elevated level of Ca2+,

involves keratin pearls, occurs in men more than women, is associated with
smoking, occurs in the major bronchi, and is seen in the central areas of the
lung?

3191.

Squamous cell
carcinoma

What malignant neoplasm of the skin is associated with keratin pearls?

3192.

Squamous cell
carcinoma

What is the most common one? Esophageal carcinoma

3193.

Squamous cell
carcinoma

What is the most common one? Cancer of the vulva

3194.

Squamous cell
carcinoma of the lung

Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have
more than one answer) erb-1

3195.

Squamous cell
carcinoma (skin, lung)
and angiosarcoma of
the liver

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may
have more than one answer.) Arsenic

3196.

SSRIs

What is the most widely used class of antidepressants?

3197.

Stable

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent) based on the
following examples. Pancreas

3198.

Stable

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent) based on the
following examples. Liver

3199.

Stable

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable,

or permanent) based on the following examples.
Smooth muscle

3200.

Stable

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable,

or permanent) based on the following examples.
Kidney

3201.

Stable

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable,

or permanent) based on the following examples.
Fibroblasts

3202.

Stable angina

What form of angina is characterized by

Coronary artery luminal narrowing, symptom
occurrence during exertion, ST segment
depression on ECG?

3203.

Stable (Labile cells proliferate throughout life; stable

cells have a low level of proliferation; and
permanent cells as the name states, do not
proliferate.)

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable,

or permanent) based on the following examples.
Osteoblasts

3204.

Stage 1

Name the stages of sleep with these EEG

patterns: Disappearance of alpha waves,
appearance of theta waves

3205.

Stage 2

Name the stages of sleep with these EEG

patterns: Sleep spindles, K-complexes

3206.

Stage 2, which accounts for approximately 45% of

total sleep time, with REM occupying 20%.

Most sleep time is spent in what stage of sleep?

3207.

Stage 3 and 4

Name the stages of sleep with these EEG

patterns: Delta waves

3208.

Stage 3 and 4 most commonly. It can occur at any

stage in the sleep cycle and is usually associated
with a major stressor being introduced into the
home.

With what stage of sleep is enuresis associated?

3209.

Stage 4

At what stage of sleep is GH output elevated?

3210.

Stage fright (discrete performance

anxiety)

Name the most common type. Phobia

3211.

Stages 3 and 4 (NREM)

In what stage of sleep is GH secreted?

3212.

Standardized rate

What rate removes any difference between two populations,

based on a variable, to makes groups equal?

3213.

Stanford-Binet Scale, developed in

1905, is useful in the very bright, the
impaired, and children less than 6
years old.

What is the first formal IQ test used today for children aged 2
to 18?

3214.

Stapedius muscle

What muscle keeps the stapes taut against the oval window?

3215.

The stapedius muscle

What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by CN VII?

3216.

Staphylococcus

What genus of bacteria is described by catalase-positive,

gram-positive cocci in clusters?

3217.

Staphylococcus aureus

What staphylococcal species is positive for Beta-hemolysis

and coagulase?

3218.

Staphylococcus aureus

Name the most common type or cause. Acute bacterial

endocarditis

3219.

Staphylococcus aureus

What is the most common one? Organism associated with

mastitis

3220.

Staphylococcus aureus

A patient goes to the ER with abdominal cramps, vomiting,

diarrhea, and sweating less than 24 hours after eating potato
salad at a picnic; what is the most likely responsible
organism?

3221.

Staphylococcus aureus

Name the most common type or cause. Pyogenic

osteomyelitis

3222.

Staphylococcus aureus

Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment

production? Yellow pigmentation

3223.

Staphylococcus aureus

What is the MCC of the following endocarditis scenarios?

Non-IV drug user

3224.

Staphylococcus aureus

What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis Overall?

3225.

Staphylococcus aureus (but they are

more prone to salmonella infections)

What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis In

patients with sickle cell disease?

3226.

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Name the most common type or cause. Urethritis in a

young, newly sexually active individual

3227.

STARS 1. Upper Subscapularis 2.

Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary 4. Radial 5. Lower
Subscapularis

What are the five branches of the posterior cord of the

brachial plexus?

3228.

Stercobilin

What bile pigment is formed by the metabolism of

bilirubin by intestinal bacteria, giving stool its brown
color?

3229.

Stereocilia

What are the long microvilli in the inner ear and male
reproductive tract called?

3230.

Steroid synthesis, drug detoxification,

triglyceride resynthesis, and Ca2+handling

What are the four functions of SER?

3231.

Stibogluconate

What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections?

Leishmaniasis

3232.

Stimulus control

What operant conditioning therapy or modification is

described as Having a stimulus take over the control of
the behavior (unintentionally)?

3233.

Stimulus generalization must stop. (Pairing

of the unconditioned stimulus and the
conditioned stimulus must cease.)

In the classical conditioning model, when a behavior is

learned, what must occur to break the probability that a
response will happen?

3234.

The stomach

What is the only site in the body that uses M1 receptors?

3235.

Stranger anxiety

What form of anxiety, appearing at 6 months, peaking at

8 months, and disappearing by 1 year of age, is seen in
the presence of unfamiliar people?

3236.

Stratified squamous nonkeratinized

epithelium, which has cilia that beat toward
the oropharynx.

What is the epithelial cell lining the nasopharynx?

3237.

Stratum corneum (keratinized)

What is the most superficial layer of the epidermis?

3238.

Stratum granulosum

What epidermal layer's function is to release lipids to act

as a sealant?

3239.

Stratum lucidum

What is the first epidermal layer without

organelles and nuclei

3240.

Stratum spinosum

In what layer of the epidermis is melanin

transferred from melanocytes to
keratinocytes?

3241.

Streptococcus agalactiae

Describe the organism based on the

following information: Beta-Hemolytic
Streptococcus; positive cAMP test;
hydrolyzes hippurate

3242.

Streptococcus agalactiae

What are the most common causes of

osteomyelitis In neonates?

3243.

Streptococcus agalactiae and Escherichia coli

What is the MCC of the following

meningitides? In neonates to 3 months of
age

3244.

Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus, or

GBS)

Name the most common type or cause.

Neonatal septicemia and meningitis

3245.

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Name the most common type or cause.

Lobar pneumonia

3246.

Streptococcus pneumoniae

What is the MCC of the following

meningitides? In adults

3247.

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Name the MCC. Pneumonia in adults

3248.

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Klebsiella pneumoniae,

Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and
Neisseria meningitidis; also Cryptococcus neoformans, a
fungus

Name at least three bacteria that use

capsules to prevent immediate destruction
from the host's defense system.

3249.

Streptococcus pyogenes

Name the most common type or cause.

Erysipelas

3250.

Streptococcus pyogenes

Describe the organism based on the

following information: Beta-hemolytic
Streptococcus sensitive to bacitracin

3251.

Streptococcus viridans

Which streptococcal species is associated with dental caries

and infective endocarditis in patients with poor oral hygiene?

3252.

Streptococcus viridans

What is the MCC of the following endocarditis scenarios?

Post dental work

3253.

Streptococcus viridans

Name the most common type or cause. Subacute bacterial

endocarditis

3254.

Streptococcus viridans

Describe the organism based on the following information:

Alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus; not lysed by bile; not sensitive
to Optochin

3255.

Streptokinase

What thrombolytic agent is derived from -hemolytic

streptococci, is antigenic, and produces depletion of circulating
fibrinogen, plasminogen, and factors V and VII?

3256.

Streptolysin O

Which Streptococcus pyogenes toxin is immunogenic?

3257.

Streptomycin

What aminoglycoside causes disruption of CN I?

3258.

Streptomycin

Which aminoglycoside is the DOC for tularemia and the

bubonic plague?

3259.

Stretch receptors prevent

overdistension of the lungs during
inspiration.

What receptor is in the smooth muscle cells of the small

bronchi, is stimulated during inflation, and inhibits inspiration?

3260.

Stroke volume

What is the term for the amount of blood expelled from the
ventricle per beat?

3261.

Strongyloides stercoralis is treated with

thiabendazole.

What nematode is known as threadworms? What is the

treatment?

3262.

Stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated

by CN IX; all other pharyngeal muscles
are innervated by CN X.

What is the only pharyngeal muscle not innervated by CN X?

3263.

Subacute bacterial endocarditis

What is the most common one? Complication of PDA

3264.

Subacute combined degeneration of the

spinal cord is treated with IM vitamin
B12 injections. If treatment is working,
you will see an increased reticulocyte
count on the peripheral smear in about 5
days.

A chronic alcohol abuser goes to the ER with weakness, a

sore, beefy red tongue, loss of vibration and position sense,
arm and leg dystaxia, elevated levels of methylmalonic acid
in the urine, and anemia with an MCV above 105 fL. What is
your diagnosis, and how will you monitor his response to
treatment?

3265.

Subacute combined degeneration,

which is bilateral below the level of the
lesion.

What is the name of demyelination of the corticospinal tract

and the dorsal column in the spinal cord due most commonly
to a vitamin B12 deficiency?

3266.

Subarachnoid hematoma

What type of cerebral bleed is due to a rupture of a berry

aneurysm in the circle of Willis?

3267.

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Bloody tap on lumbar puncture

3268.

Subatmospheric pressure acts to

expand the lung; positive pressure acts
to collapse the lung.

Does subatmospheric pressure act to expand or collapse the

lung?

3269.

The subclavian artery

The vertebral artery is a branch of what artery?

3270.

Subclavian vein

What vessel can be found atop the scalene anterior?

3271.

Subdural hematoma is a rupture of the

cerebral veins where they enter the
superior sagittal sinus.

Is a subdural hematoma an arterial or venous bleed?

3272.

Sublimation

Name these mature defense mechanisms: Converting an

unacceptable impulse to a socially acceptable form (Hint: it is
the most mature of all defense mechanisms)

3273.

The submandibular ganglion.

(Submandibular ganglion innervates the
submandibular gland; easy enough.)

What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic

ganglion that innervates The submandibular and sublingual
glands?

3274.

Submandibular gland produces mainly

serous and the sublingual gland produces
mainly mucous secretions.

Both submandibular and sublingual glands are innervated

by CN VII (facial) and produce mucous and serous
secretions. Which one mainly produces serous secretions?

3275.

Subscapularis

What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following

nerves? Upper subscapularis nerve

3276.

Substance P. (Opioids relieve pain in part

by blocking substance P.)

What 11-amino acid peptide is the neurotransmitter of

sensory neurons that conveys pain from the periphery to the
spinal cord?

3277.

Substantia nigra

In Parkinson's disease, what area of the basal ganglia has

a decreased amount of dopamine?

3278.

The substantia nigra is the largest

nucleus in the midbrain. It contains
melanin and uses GABA and dopamine
as its neurotransmitters.

What is the largest nucleus in the midbrain?

3279.

Substituted judgment. It is made by the

person who best knows the patient, not
the closest relative.

What judgment states that the decision, by rights of

autonomy and privacy, belongs to the patient, but if the
patient is incompetent to decide, the medical decision is
based on subjective wishes?

3280.

Subthreshold potential

What type of potential is characterized as graded,

decremental, and exhibiting summation?

3281.

Succinate dehydrogenase

What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the production of

the following: FADH2

3282.

Succinate dehydrogenase

What enzyme of the TCA cycle also acts as complex II of

the ETC?

3283.

Succinylcholine and halothane (Treatment

is with dantrolene.)

What two drugs, when mixed, can lead to malignant

hyperthermia?

3284.

Succinyl CoA

What intermediate enables propionyl CoA to enter into the

TCA cycle?

3285.

Succinyl CoA synthetase

What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the production of

the following: GTP

3286.

Succinyl CoA
synthetase

What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the substrate level phosphorylation?

3287.

Sucralfate

Which medication requires an acidic gastric pH for activation to form a protective

gel-like coating over ulcers and GI epithelium?

3288.

Sulfonamides

What class of antimicrobial agents should be avoided in patients with a history of

GPDH deficiency?

3289.

Superego

According to Freud, what facet of the psyche represents the internalized ideals
and values of one's parents?

3290.

Superego

What Freudian psyche component is described as The conscience, morals,

beliefs (middle of the road)?

3291.

Superficial
spreading
melanoma

What is the most common one? Type of melanoma

3292.

Superior

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic
structures: Brachiocephalic vein

3293.

Superior

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic
structures: Left common carotid artery

3294.

Superior

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic
structures: Trachea

3295.

Superior

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic
structures: Left subclavian artery

3296.

Superior

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic
structures: Aortic arch

3297.

Superior

What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is 120 to 129

3298.

Superior and
anterior

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic
structures: Thymus

3299.

Superior and
middle

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic
structures: SVC

3300.

Superior and
middle

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic
structures: Phrenic nerve

3301.

Superior and
posterior

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic
structures: Thoracic duct

3302.

Superior and
posterior

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic
structures: Esophagus

3303.

Superior and posterior

Name the compartment of the

mediastinum associated with the
following thoracic structures: Azygos
vein

3304.

The superior border of the inferior intercostal rib is your

landmark for a pleural tap because along the inferior border
of each rib is the neurovascular bundle, and you would risk
injury if you went below the rib.

If inserting a needle to perform a pleural

tap or insertion of a chest tube, do you
use the inferior or the superior border of a
rib as your landmark? Why?

3305.

Superior cerebellar peduncle; the inferior and the middle

consist mainly of incoming (afferent) tracts and fibers.

Which one of the cerebellar peduncles is

mainly responsible for outgoing (efferent)
information?

3306.

Superior colliculus (Remember S for Superior and Sight).

The inferior colliculus processes auditory information from
both ears.

Which of the colliculi help direct the

movement of both eyes in a gaze?

3307.

Superior gluteal nerve

What lower extremity nerve is described

by the following motor loss? Loss of
abduction of the hip resulting in
Trendelenburg gait

3308.

The superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein (after it

receives the inferior mesenteric vein) join to form the portal
vein.

What two veins form the portal vein?

3309.

Superior Oblique (CN IV) (LR6 SO4)3

What ocular muscle Depresses and

abducts the eyeball?

3310.

Superior olivary nucleus

What CN nucleus receives auditory

information from both ears via the
cochlear nuclei?

3311.

Superior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3

What ocular muscle Elevates and

adducts the eyeball?

3312.

Superior vena cava

What vein is formed by the union of the

right and left brachiocephalic veins?

3313.

Superoxide dismutase,
glutathione peroxidase,
catalase

Name the three enzymes that protect the cell from oxygen-derived
free radicals.

3314.

Suppression

Name these mature defense mechanisms: Forgetting on purpose (so

you can actually remember it)

3315.

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

What nucleus of the hypothalamus receives visual input from the

retina and helps set the circadian rhythm?

3316.

Supraoptic nuclei; lesions here

result in diabetes insipidus.

What hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for the production of ADH?

3317.

Supraspinatus and
infraspinatus

What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves?

Suprascapular nerve

3318.

The surface of the medulla

What region of the brain houses the central chemoreceptors

responsible for control of ventilation?

3319.

Surface tension; in the alveoli,

it is a force that acts to collapse
the lung.

What is the greatest component of lung recoil?

3320.

Surface tension, the force to

collapse the lung, is greatest at
the end of inspiration.

When is the surface tension the greatest in the respiratory cycle?

3321.

Swan-neck deformities

What is the term for hyperextension of the PIP and flexion of the DIP
joints in rheumatoid arthritis?

3322.

Sympathetic chain ganglion

What ganglion receives preganglionic sympathetic fibers from T1 to

L1-2 and innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, head,
thoracic viscera, and blood vessels of the body wall and limbs?

3323.

Sympathetic nervous system

What component of the ANS is responsible for movement of semen

from the epididymis to the ejaculatory ducts?

3324.

Syncytiotrophoblast. (The
cytotrophoblast gets
incorporated into the
syncytiotrophoblast.)

Which trophoblast layer of the placenta remains until the end of

pregnancy?

3325.

Syphilitic

What form of vasculitis involves the ascending arch and causes

obliterative endarteritis of the vasa vasorum?

3326.

Syringomyelia

What disease is a cavitation of the spinal cord causing

bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the level of the
lesion?

3327.

Systematic desensitization

What classical conditioning therapy or modification is

described as Triage of a hierarchy of fears (from least
to most), then teaching muscle relaxation techniques in
the presence of those fears until the subject is not afraid
anymore?

3328.

Systemic lupus erythematosus

What disease is associated with the HLA-DR2 and

HLA-DR3 alleles

3329.

The systemic veins have the largest blood

volume, and the pulmonary veins have the
second largest blood volume in the
cardiovascular system. They represent the
reservoirs of circulation.

What component of the cardiovascular system has the

largest blood volume? Second largest blood volume?

3330.

Systolic interval decreases secondary to

increased contractility; diastolic interval
decreases secondary to an increase in heart
rate.

What happens to diastolic and systolic intervals with an

increase in sympathetic activity?

3331.

T3

What is the bioactive form of thyroid hormone?

3332.

T3 has a greater affinity for the nuclear

receptor and therefore is considered the
active form.

Does T3 or T4 have a greater affinity for its nuclear

receptor?

3333.

T3 increases both heart rate and cardiac

output by increasing the number of Betareceptors and their sensitivity to
catecholamines.

What is the effect of T3 on heart rate and cardiac

output?

3334.

T4, as long as T4 levels remain constant,

TSH will be minimally effected by T3.

Is T3 or T4 responsible for the negative feedback loop

on to the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland?

3335.

T4; because of the greater affinity for the binding

protein, T4 has a significantly (nearly fifty times)
longer half-life than T3.

Is there more circulating T3 or T4 in plasma?

3336.

T4 vertebral level posteriorly and anteriorly at

the sternal angle (angle of Louis).

At what vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate?

3337.

T9

What vertebral level is marked by the xiphoid

process?

3338.

Taenia saginata

Which cestode in raw or rare beef containing

cysticerci results in intestinal tapeworms?

3339.

Taenia solium

What cestode causes cysticercosis?

3340.

Takayasu arteritis (medium-size to large

vessels)

What vasculitis affects a 30-year-old Asian female

having visual field deficits, dizziness, decreased
blood pressure, and weakened pulses in the upper
extremities?

3341.

Tamoxifen

What competitive estrogen receptor antagonist is

used in the treatment of breast cancer?

3342.

T and B-cells belong to the adaptive branch,

whereas PMNs, NK cells, eosinophils,
macrophages, and monocytes belong to the
innate branch.

What two cell lines of the immune system do not

belong to the innate branch?

3343.

Tardive dyskinesia. It persists even after

treatment is discontinued and has no treatment.
Focus is on monitoring for side effects and
prevention.

What major side effect of neuroleptics is

characterized by pill rolling, shuffling gait, and
tremors that abate during sleep?

3344.

Target cell

What is the term for a RBC that has a peripheral rim

of Hgb with a dark central Hgb-containing area?

3345.

TAT (Thematic apperception test)

What projective test asks the patient to tell a story

about what is going on in the pictures, evaluating the
conflicts, drives, and emotions of the individual?

3346.

Tay-Sachs disease

What condition results from a deficiency in the enzyme

hexosaminidase A?

3347.

TB meningitis

What condition results in the following CSF results?

Opening pressure 250 mm H2O; WBCs 250 (90%
lymphocytes); glucose 35; protein 100

3348.

T cells, B cells, and macrophages

What three major cell lines participate in the acquired

immune system?

3349.

T cells, not B cells

What cells are atypical on a peripheral blood smear in

heterophil-positive mononucleosis?

3350.

TCR

What T-cell surface projection recognizes and reacts to

foreign Ags (presented by APCs)?

3351.

Teeth grinding is associated with stage 2

sleep.

With what stage of sleep are bruxisms associated?

3352.

Temporal arteritis

What is the most common one? Form of vasculitis

3353.

Temporal arteritis

What is the most common one? Vasculitis

3354.

Temporal arteritis (giant cell arteritis)

An 80-year-old woman presents to you with right-sided

temporal headache, facial pain and blurred vision on the
affected side, and an elevated ESR. Your diagnosis?

3355.

Temporal lobe

Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function

described: Language, memory, and emotion (Hint:
herpesvirus infects here commonly)

3356.

Temporal lobes

What cerebral lobes are most commonly affected in

herpes encephalitis?

3357.

Tensor tympani

What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by the

mandibular division of CN V?

3358.

The tensor veli palatine is innervated by the

mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve;
all others are innervated by CN X.

What is the only muscle of the soft palate that is

innervated by CN V3?

3359.

Teratoma

What tumor constitutes 40% of testicular tumors in

children?

3360.

Teratoma (dermoid cyst)

What is the name of the ovarian cyst containing

ectodermal, endodermal, and mesodermal elements (i.e.,
skin, hair, teeth and neural tissue)?

3361.

Terbinafine

What antifungal agent is used to treat dermatophyte

infections by inhibiting squalene epoxidase?

3362.

Terminal bronchioles. (No gas exchange

occurs here.)

Where is the last conducting zone of the lungs?

3363.

Terminal collecting duct has the highest

concentration and Bowman's capsule has
the lowest concentration of inulin.

What segment of the nephron has the highest concentration

of inulin? Lowest concentration of inulin?

3364.

Terminal ileum

What is the most common one? Site of Crohn disease

3365.

Tertiary hypothyroidism/hypothalamic
(Low TRH causes all the rest to be
decreased because of decreased
stimulation.)

What thyroid abnormality has the following? TRH

decreased, TSH decreased, T4 decreased

3366.

Testicular feminization syndrome (Dude

looks like a lady!)

What syndrome occurs when a 46XY fetus develops testes

and female external genitalia?

3367.

Testicular lymphoma

What is the most common one? Testicular tumor in men

over 50 years old

3368.

Testicular tumors

What is the most common one? Tumor in men aged 15 to

35

3369.

Testosterone

Circulating levels of what hormone in men is responsible for

the negative feedback loop to the hypothalamus and the
anterior pituitary gland regulating the release of LH?

3370.

Test-retest reliability

What is the term for the same results achieved again on

testing a subject a second or third time?

3371.

Tetanospasmin (also called tetanus toxin)

What toxin, produced by Clostridium tetani, binds to

ganglioside receptors and blocks the release of
glycine and GABA at the spinal synapse?

3372.

Tetany

What is the term for the summation of mechanical

stimuli due to the skeletal muscle contractile unit
becoming saturated with calcium?

3373.

Tetracycline

Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side

effect is listed. Dental staining in children

3374.

Tetracycline

Which antimicrobial class may cause tooth enamel

dysplasia and decreased bone growth in children?

3375.

Tetralogy of Fallot

Name the most common type or cause. Cyanotic

heart disease

3376.

Th1; they are also responsible for delayed-type

hypersensitivity (type IV)

What subset of CD4 helper T-cell function is helping

the development of CD8 T cells?

3377.

Th2

What subset of CD4 helper T cells stimulate B-cell

division and differentiation?

3378.

Th2 cells

What subset of CD4 T cells is responsible for mast

cell and eosinophil precursor proliferation?

3379.

The thalamus (I like to think of the thalamus as

the executive secretary for the cerebral cortex. All
information destined for the cortex has to go
through the thalamus.)

What area of the brain serves as the major sensory

relay center for visual, auditory, gustatory, and tactile
information destined for the cerebral cortex,
cerebellum, or basal ganglia?

3380.

Thalassemia minor

Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on

the following laboratory values. Normal iron, TIBC,
percent saturation, and ferritin

3381.

Theca cell

What female follicular cell is under LH stimulation

and produces androgens from cholesterol?

3382.

Theca cells secrete estrogen. After fertilization the theca

cells form from the theca interna.

After fertilization, what cells of the corpus

luteum Secrete estrogen?

3383.

There are 10 bronchopulmonary segments on the right

and 8 on the left.

How many bronchopulmonary segments

are on the right lung? Left lung?

3384.

There are no valves and no smooth muscle in the walls of

the veins in the face.

What is the major difference between the

veins in the face and the veins in the rest of
the body?

3385.

There are two bacterial promoter regions upstream. The

TATA box is - 10 base pairs upstream, and the -35
promoter site is self-explanatory.

How many base pairs upstream is the

prokaryotic TATA box promoter?

3386.

There are two eukaryotic upstream promoters. The TATA

box is -25 base pairs upstream; the CAAT box is -75
bases upstream.

How many bases upstream is the

eukaryotic TATA box promoter?

3387.

There is a difference; it takes about 7 to 8 half-lives to

reach mathematical steady state and 4 to 5 half-lives to
reach clinical steady state.

Is there a difference between mathematical

and clinical steady states? If so, what are
their values (half-lives)?

3388.

There would be a Fab' region; thus, it would still be able to

participate in precipitation and agglutination.

What would be the result if an Ab were

cleaved with pepsin?

3389.

There would be two Fab and Fc regions.

What would be the result if an Ab were

cleaved with papain?

3390.

They are all formed by the fifth month of fetal life.

All primary oocytes in females are formed

by what age?

3391.

They are directly related; the greater the preload, the

greater the passive tension in the muscle and the greater
the prestretch of a sarcomere.

What is the relationship between preload

and the passive tension in a muscle?

3392.

They are in ganglia in the PNS.

Where are the postganglionic neuron cell

bodies, the CNS or the PNS?

3393.

They are in the grey matter of the CNS.

Where are the preganglionic neuron cell

bodies, the CNS or the PNS?

3394.

They are inversely proportional to each other; as pulse

pressure increases, compliance decreases.

How are pulse pressure and compliance

related?

3395.

They are inversely related. If ventilation increases, there will

be a decrease in PCO2 levels and vice versa.

What is the relationship between

ventilation and PCO2 levels?

3396.

They are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are white

because they are myelinated.

What is the function of white rami

communicantes?

3397.

They block the midcycle surge of LH.

What is the physiologic basis for the

actions of birth control pills?

3398.

They chronically inhibit ADH secretion; when there is a

decrease in the blood volume, the stretch receptors send
fewer signals, and ADH is secreted.

What is the venous and arterial stretch

receptors' function regarding the
secretion of ADH?

3399.

They innervate LMNs.

What do UMNs innervate?

3400.

They innervate skeletal muscle.

What do LMNs innervate?

3401.

They prevent mast cell degranulation.

What cell type do cromolyn and

nedocromil affect for prophylactic
management of asthma via blockade?

3402.

Thiabendazole

What is the drug of choice for

threadworm, trichinosis, and larva
migrans?

3403.

Thiamine

What vitamin deficiency can result in

high-output cardiac failure?

3404.

Thiamine and folate

What two vitamins are inactivated when

they come in contact with acetaldehyde?

3405.

Thiazide diuretics

Which group of antihypertensive agents

best decreases left ventricular
hypertrophy?

3406.

Thick skin

What skin type on the palms and soles is characterized

by the absence of hair follicles and presence of stratum
lucidum?

3407.

Thiogalactoside transacetylase

Regarding the Lac operon, for what do the following

genes code? A gene

3408.

Thioridazine

What neuroleptic agent causes retinal deposits,

hypotension, and torsades de pointes?

3409.

Third aortic arch MS CARD is my mnemonic

for the aortic arch derivatives

From what aortic arch are the following structures

derived? Common and internal carotid arteries

3410.

Third M PITS for pharyngeal pouch

derivatives

From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure

derived? Inferior parathyroid gland and thymus

3411.

Third week

During what embryonic week do somites begin to form?

3412.

Third week

What embryonic week sees the formation of the

notochord and the neural tube?

3413.

Third week

During what embryonic week does the intraembryonic

coelom form?

3414.

Third week; they are derived from the wall of

the yolk sac.

Blood and its vessels form during what embryonic

week?

3415.

This is the triad of renal cell carcinoma

What carcinoma produces hematuria, flank pain, and a

palpable mass?

3416.

Thoracic and sacral

What two regions of the vertebral column are

considered primary curvatures?

3417.

Thoracic splanchnic fibers

What preganglionic sympathetic fibers are responsible

for innervating the foregut and the midgut?

3418.

Thrombocytopenia, eczema, and

immunodeficiency is the triad of this X-linked
recessive disorder.

What is the triad of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?

3419.

Thrombus

What type of hemostasis in an intravascular space

consists of fibrin, platelets, RBCs, and WBCs?

3420.

Thrush

What is the term for Candida infection of the oral mucosa?

3421.

Thymic epithelial cells, dendritic cells,

and macrophages

What three cells are essential for T-cell maturation?

3422.

Thymidylate synthase

What enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis is inhibited by the

following? 5-FU

3423.

Thymidylate synthetase

What enzyme is blocked by 5-FU?

3424.

Thymine

Methylating uracil produces what pyrimidine base?

3425.

Thymine

What pyrimidine base is found Only in DNA?

3426.

Thymine (B1)

What vitamin is a component of the coenzyme thiamine

pyrophosphate (TPP)?

3427.

Thymus gland. (Thymus gland is

essential for T cell maturation.)

What encapsulated lymphoid organ is characterized by

presence of Hassall's corpuscles, and absence of germinal
centers and B cells?

3428.

Thymus-independent Ags

What is the term for Ags that activate B cells without T-cell
signaling?

3429.

Thyroarytenoid muscles

Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following:

Pulls the arytenoids cartilages closer to the thyroid, relaxing
the vocal ligaments and thereby decreasing the pitch

3430.

Thyroid gland

What gland is found in the muscular triangle of the neck?

3431.

Thyroid hormones are necessary for

conversion of carotene to vitamin A.

Why is hypothyroidism associated with night blindness?

3432.

Thyroid hormones increase serum

glucose levels by increasing the
absorption of glucose from the small
intestine.

What is the effect of T3 on the glucose absorption in the

small intestine?

3433.

Tibial nerve

What lower extremity nerve is described by the following

motor loss? Loss of flexion of the knees and toes,
plantarflexion, and weakened inversion

3434.

Ticlopidine or clopidogrel

Name one of the ADP receptor antagonists used in

patients who are post-MI, have had TIAs, have unstable
angina, and are allergic to ASA?

3435.

Tidal volume (VT)

Name the lung measurement based on the following

descriptions: The amount of air that enters or leaves
the lung system in a single breath

3436.

The time it takes ACh to diffuse to the

postjunctional membrane

What is the rate-limiting step in a conduction of a NMJ?

3437.

Tinea favosa (favus)

What is the most serious form of tinea capitis, which

results in permanent hair loss and is highly contagious?

3438.

Tip of the left ventricle

What part of the heart forms Apex?

3439.

Tip of the loop of Henle (1200 mOsm/L)

What region of the nephron has the highest osmolarity?

3440.

TLC, FRC, and RV have to be calculated.

(Remember, any volume that has RV as a
component has be calculated.)

What three lung measurements must be calculated

because they cannot be measured by simple
spirometry?

3441.

T lymphocyte

What is the main type of cell involved in cellular

immunity?

3442.

Tolcapone and entacapone

Inhibition of peripheral COMT, allowing increased CNS

availability of L-dopa, is accomplished by what two
agents?

3443.

Topoisomerase I (Relaxase)

What topoisomerase makes ssDNA cuts, requires no

ATP, relaxes supercoils, and acts as the swivel in front
of the replication fork?

3444.

To provide attachment between contiguous

cells and to maintain a semipermeable barrier

What are the functions of the zonula occludens and the

zonula adherens

3445.

Total and NREM sleep decrease

considerably as we age, but REM sleep
remains relatively constant (20%) up to age
80, then begins to decline.

In the elderly, what happens to total sleep time,

percentage of REM sleep, and percentage of NREM
sleep?

3446.

Total lung capacity (TLC)

Name the lung measurement based on the following

descriptions: Amount of air in the lungs after maximal
inspiration

3447.

Total ventilation (minute ventilation or minute

volume)

What is the term for the total volume of air moved in and
out of the respiratory system per minute?

3448.

Tourette's syndrome; it is usually first

reported by teachers as ADHD with
symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder
and learning disabilities.

What disease is described by the following

characteristics: multiple motor and vocal tics, average
age of onset 7, a M:F ratio of 3:1, and association with
increased levels of dopamine?

3449.

Toxic dose for 50% of drug takers (median

toxic dose)

What do the following values indicate? TD50

3450.

Toxic or viral hepatitis

Councilman bodies

3451.

Toxoplasma gondii

Which parasitic organism, when it crosses the placenta,

results in intracerebral calcifications, chorioretinitis,
microcephaly, hydrocephaly, and convulsions?

3452.

Toxoplasmosis

What is the most common opportunistic infection of the

CNS in HIV?

3453.

Toxoplasmosis (although you should rule out

cerebral abscess due to other organisms)

What infection is associated with ring-enhancing lesions

seen on computed tomography (CT) of the brain in an
HIV-positive individual?

3454.

Transcortical aphasia

Name the aphasia based on these characteristics:

Lesion in the prefrontal cortex; inability to speak
spontaneously; unimpaired ability to repeat

3455.

Transcortical apraxia; Wernicke's area of the

left hemisphere cannot communicate with the
right primary motor cortex because of the
lesion in the corpus callosum.

What disconnect syndrome results from a lesion in the

corpus callosum secondary to an infarct in the anterior
cerebral artery, so that the person can comprehend the
command but not execute it?

3456.

Transcription (C comes before L in the

alphabet, and transCription comes before
transLation)

What is the term for conversion of a dsDNA molecule

to the base sequence of an ssRNA molecule?

3457.

Transcription factor IID

In eukaryotes, what transcription factor binds to the

TATA box before RNA polymerase II can bind?

3458.

Transference. When it is from the physician to

the patient it is called countertransference.

What term is defined as a patient unconsciously

placing his or her thoughts and feelings on the
physician in a caregiver or parent role?

3459.

Transferrin

What transports iron in the blood?

3460.

Transient hypogammaglobinemia of infancy; it

usually resolves by age 16 to 30 months.

What is the term for a delay in the onset of normal IgG

synthesis seen in the fifth to sixth month of life?

3461.

Transient ischemic attack

What is the term for neurologic signs consistent with a

cerebrovascular accident but lasting 24 hours with full
recovery?

3462.

Transient protein C deficiency, because of its

relatively short half-life, may result if warfarin is
instituted alone.

What transient deficiency may result in a

hypercoagulable state if warfarin is given alone?

3463.

Transitional cell carcinoma

What is the most common one? Bladder tumor

3464.

Transitional epithelium. The distal portion of

the penile urethra is composed of stratified
epithelium.

What is the epithelial lining of the prostatic portion of

the urethra?

3465.

Transketolase and transaldolase. The

reactions they catalyze are reversible.

What are the nonoxidative enzymes of the HMP shunt?

Are the reactions they catalyze reversible or
irreversible?

3466.

Translation

What is the term for taking an mRNA molecule and arranging the
AA sequence forming a protein?

3467.

Transmembrane potential (an

absolute number)

What is the term for the potential difference across a cell

membrane?

3468.

Transport maximum (Tm) occurs

when all function carriers are
saturated and therefore is an index
of the number of functioning carriers.

What is used as an index of the number of functioning carriers for

a substance in active reabsorption in the kidney?

3469.

A transport maximum (Tm) system

What form of renal tubular reabsorption is characterized by low

back leaks, high affinity of a substance, and easy saturation? It is
surmised that the entire filtered load is reabsorbed until the
carriers are saturated, and then the rest is excreted.

3470.

Transposition of the great vessels

arises from a failure of the
aorticopulmonary septum to grow in
a spiral.

What right-to-left shunt occurs when the aorta opens into the
right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk opens into the left
ventricle?

3471.

Transposons

What are known as jumping genes?

3472.

Transtentorial (uncal)

Which type of cerebral herniation is associated with CN III palsy?

3473.

Transudative; exudative has the

opposite values and has an elevated
cellular content.

What is the term for edema that has LDH below 200, protein
level 2.5, and a specific gravity below 1.020?

3474.

Transverse abdominis

What abdominal muscle runs horizontally, contributes to the

posterior rectus sheath, and contributes to form the conjoint
tendon?

3475.

Transvestite fetishism

What is the term for having fantasies or dressing in female

clothes for sexual arousal by heterosexual men?

3476.

Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

What two muscles do you test to see whether CN XI is intact?

3477.

Trazodone

What serotonin reuptake inhibitor's major sexual side effect is

priapism?

3478.

Treacher Collins syndrome

Mandibular hypoplasia, down-slanted palpebral fissures,

colobomas, malformed ears, and zygomatic hypoplasia
are commonly seen in what pharyngeal arch 1
abnormality?

3479.

The triad of respiratory depression, pinpoint

pupils, and coma in an IV drug abuser
suggests opioid overdose (e.g., heroin), and
you should give naloxone.

A known IV drug abuser goes to the ER with respiratory

depression and pinpoint pupils and in a semicomatose
state. What overdose do you suspect, and what agent will
you give to reverse its effects?

3480.

Triazolam

Which benzodiazepine has the shortest half-life?

3481.

Trichomonas vaginalis (treat with

metronidazole)

Which protozoal parasitic vaginal infection produces a

positive whiff test with KOH staining?

3482.

Trichophyton

Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with the

following sites of infection? Skin, hair, and nails

3483.

Trichuris trichiura is treated with

albendazole.

What nematode is known as whipworms? What is the

treatment?

3484.

Trimethoprim

Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is

listed. Altered folate metabolism

3485.

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)

What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections?

Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

3486.

Trisomy 12 (nearly 50% of patients with CLL

have abnormal karyotypes.)

What is the most common chromosomal abnormality

associated with CLL?

3487.

tRNA

Name the RNA subtype based on the following: Carries

AA to the ribosome for protein synthesis

3488.

Tropomyosin

What is the name of the regulatory protein that covers the attachment site on actin in
resting skeletal muscle?

3489.

TRUE

True or false? Monocytosis is seen in TB.

3490.

TRUE

True or false? Dopamine antagonists at the D2A receptor have the capacity to induce
pseudoparkinsonism.

3491.

TRUE

True or false? Klinefelter syndrome cannot be diagnosed until puberty.

3492.

TRUE

True or false? Ethyl alcohol induces the cytochrome P-450 enzymes.

3493.

TRUE

True or false? Somatic motor neurons innervate the striated muscle of the
bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernous muscles and result in ejaculation of semen.

3494.

TRUE

True or false? The epithelial lining of the urinary bladder and the urethra are embryologic
hindgut derivatives.

3495.

TRUE

True or false? The parasympathetic nervous system has very little effect on arteriolar
dilation or constriction.

3496.

TRUE

True or false? Live vaccines are contraindicated in patients with SCID.

3497.

TRUE

True or false? All streptococci are catalase-negative

3498.

TRUE

True or false? Below the arcuate line, all the aponeurotic fibers run anterior to the rectus
abdominis.

3499.

TRUE

True or false? All spore formers are gram positive.

3500.

TRUE

True or false? All of the hormones in the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland are
water soluble.

3501.

TRUE

True or false? Succinylcholine is a nicotinic receptor agonist.

3502.

TRUE

True or false? There are no central O2 receptors.

3503.

TRUE

True or false? NSAIDs have analgesic, antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, and antiplatelet

activities.

3504.

TRUE

True or false? Progestins are used in combination with estrogens to decrease the risk of
endometrial cancer.

3505.

TRUE

True or false? All Proteus species are urease positive.

3506.

TRUE

True or false? Acetaminophen has analgesic and antipyretic activities but lacks antiinflammatory effects.

3507.

True; 80% have visited a doctor in the previous 6 months. And 50%
within the last month!

True or false? Four-fifths of

those who attempt suicide first
give a warning.

3508.

True. Adipose depends on glucose uptake for dihydroxyacetone

phosphate (DHAP) production for triglyceride synthesis.

True or false? Adipose tissue

lacks glycerol kinase.

3509.

True; also, stressful marriage, early sexual experiences in the back of

a car, and sex with a prostitute all increase the risk of premature
ejaculation.

True or false? Being college

educated increases a man's risk
of having premature ejaculation.

3510.

True. Although the CSF normally contains 0 to 4 lymphocytes or

monocytes, the presence of PMNs is always considered abnormal.

True or false? The presence of

PMNs in the CSF is always
abnormal.

3511.

True. Aluminum reacts with PO4, resulting in AlPO4, an insoluble

compound that cannot be absorbed.

True or false? All aluminumcontaining antacids can cause

hypophosphatemia.

3512.

True. Aminoglycosides use O 2-dependent uptake and therefore are

ineffective for treatment of anaerobic infections.

True or false? Anaerobes are

resistant to the effects of
aminoglycosides.

3513.

True. At high doses ASA decreases uric acid reabsorption in the renal
tubules, resulting in uricosuric actions. At low doses ASA decreases
tubular secretion of uric acid, leading to hyperuricemia.

True or false? At high doses

aspirin has uricosuric properties.

3514.

True. A thrombus has platelets, but clots do not.

True or false? Blood clots lack

platelets.

3515.

True. B cell antigen receptors are Abs.

True or false? B-cell Ag

receptors can be secreted.

3516.

True. Because of intrapulmonary shunting, there is a slight decrease

in PO2 and increase in PCO2 between the pulmonary end capillary
blood and the systemic arterial blood.

True or false? The alveolar PO2

and PCO2 levels match the
pulmonary end capillary blood
levels.

3517.

True. Being female, having positive symptoms, quick onset, and

family history of mood disorders are all good prognostic predictors of
schizophrenia.

True or false? Paranoid and

catatonic schizophrenia are
good prognostic predictors.

3518.

True. Blood flows from the portal tracts (distal) to

the central vein (proximal), so it is the first area
affected during hypoxia.

True or false? The central vein of the liver lobule is

the first area affected during hypoxia.

3519.

True. Cimetidine can decrease androgen

production and lead to gynecomastia.

True or false? Gynecomastia is a side effect of

cimetidine.

3520.

True. Common variable hypogammaglobinemia

first appears by the time patients reach their 20s
and is associated with a gradual decrease in Ig
levels over time.

True or false? Patients with common variable

hypogammaglobinemia have B cells in the
peripheral blood.

3521.

True; cortisol inhibits glucose uptake in most

tissue, making it available for neural tissue use.

True or false? Cortisol inhibits glucose uptake in

skeletal muscle.

3522.

True. Delta-Cell tumors produce excess

somatostatin, which inhibits CCK, gastrin
(hypochlorhydria), and insulin secretion
(diabetes).

True or false? Pancreatic delta-cell tumors inhibit

CCK secretion, leading to gallstones and
steatorrhea.

3523.

True. DNA polymerases have 3'-5' exonuclease

activity for proofreading.

True or false? DNA polymerases can correct

mistakes, whereas RNA polymerases lack this
ability.

3524.

True. Don't forget this in your differential

diagnosis of an asthmatic.

True or false? GERD is a cause of asthma.

3525.

True. Don't forget this list; you will be asked.

True or false? All of the following are risk factors for

cervical cancer: multiple pregnancies, early age of
intercourse, multiple sexual partners, OCP use,
smoking, HIV, and STDs.

3526.

True. Elevated plasma levels of progesterone can

raise the body temperature 0.5 to 1.0F.

True or false? Progesterone has thermogenic

activities.

3527.

True. Fractures and trauma, however, are the

most common causes.

True or false? Sickle cell anemia, Caisson disease,

chronic steroid use, and Gaucher disease are
causes of avascular necrosis of bone.

3528.

True hermaphrodism

What condition is defined by

both testicular and ovarian
tissues in one individual?

3529.

True. High-frequency sound waves stimulate the hair cells at the base of
the cochlea, whereas low-frequency sound waves stimulate hair cells at
the apex of the cochlea.

True or false? Highfrequency sound waves

stimulate hair cells at the
base of the cochlea.

3530.

True. HPV serotypes 16 and 18 are risk factors for squamous cell
carcinoma.

True or false? HPV infection

increases the risk of
developing squamous cell
carcinoma of the penis.

3531.

True. Hyperpolarization inhibits the postsynaptic membrane.

True or false? Depolarization

of the postsynaptic
membrane excites the
neuron.

3532.

True if she is Rho-negative; false if she is Rho-positive

True or false? If a mother

delivers a Rho-positive baby,
she should receive Rhoimmunoglobulin.

3533.

True. Increased alkaline phosphatase levels also are associated with

increased bone formation.

True or false? An elevated

serum osteocalcin level is a
marker for increased bone
formation.

3534.

True. Increased renin and AT II levels occur as a result of the decreased

production of aldosterone.

True or false? Renin

secretion is increased in 21-hydroxylase deficiency.

3535.

True. In positively skewed distributions the mode is less than the median
is less than the mean.(Remember to name a skewed distribution: the tail
points in the direction of its name. positive skew tails point to the positive
end of a scale.)

True or false? In a positively

skewed curve the mean is
greater than the mode.

3536.

True. In the distal colon, sweat glands, and salivary ducts, aldosterone
has sodium-conserving effects.

True or false? Aldosterone

has a sodium-conserving
action in the distal colon.

3537.

True. IQ correlates well with education and academic achievement but is

not a predictor of success.

True or false? There is a

strong positive correlation
between IQ and academic
achievement.

3538.

True. It deposits at the gingivodental line, known as the lead line.

True or false? Excess lead

deposits in the oral cavity.

3539.

True. It is considered medical treatment, so it can be withdrawn or

refused. (Remember the Cruzan case.)

True or false? A patient can

refuse a feeding tube.

3540.

True; it requires both a concentration gradient and ATP to work.

True or false? Active protein

transport requires a
concentration gradient.

3541.

True; military service and independent self-care by a child over 13 years

old also emancipate.

True or false? Marriage

emancipates a child less
than 17 years old.

3542.

True. Muscle spindles are modified skeletal muscle fibers. They are the
sensory component of the stretch reflexes.

True or false? Intrafusal

fibers form muscle spindles.

3543.

True. No loss of drug and no absorption if a drug is given IV.

True or false? There is no

absorption of an IVadministered drug.

3544.

True. on the right lung the oblique fissure divides the middle from the
inferior lobe and the horizontal fissure further divides the middle from the
upper lobe. On the left the oblique divides the superior from the inferior
lobe.

True or false? both the left

and right lungs have an
oblique fissure?

3545.

True. Pancreatic enzymes begin the breakdown of

vitamin B12-R complex in the duodenum.

True or false? Pancreatic insufficiency results

in vitamin B12 malabsorption.

3546.

True. PIF is dopamine in the tuberoinfundibular system.

True or false? Prolactin levels can serve as a

rough indicator of overall dopamine activity.

3547.

True. Probenecid can precipitate uric acid crystals in

the kidney if the patient is an overexcretor of urate.

True or false? You would not prescribe

probenecid for a patient with gout who is an
overexcretor of uric acid.

3548.

True. Remember, all nucleated cells (and platelets)

have MHC class I Ags, and RBCs are not nucleated.

True or false? RBCs do not have MHC class I

Ags on their surface.

3549.

True. (Remember, blood flows from the portal tracts to

the central vein, so it is the first area to receive blood
and therefore oxygen.)

True or false? The portal tract of the liver

lobule is the first area to be oxygenated in the
liver.

3550.

True. Remember, carbamoyl phosphate synthetase and

ornithine transcarbamoylase are mitochondrial
enzymes.

True or false? The urea cycle takes place in

both the cytoplasm and the mitochondria.

3551.

True. Remember, it degenerates 4 to 5 days post

fertilization, and implantation occurs 7 days post
fertilization!

True or false? For implantation to occur the

zona pellucida must degenerate.

3552.

True. Remember, RBCs do not contain mitochondria,

so they cannot metabolize aerobically.

True or false? RBCs anaerobically use

glucose in both the well-fed and fasting states.

3553.

True. Remember, the second X chromosome is

inactivated, and so is the Barr body. Turner syndrome
has only one X chromosome.

True or false? Patients with Turner syndrome

have no Barr bodies.

3554.

True. Restriction endonucleases cut only unmethylated

DNA.

True or false? Methylation of bacterial DNA

prevents restriction endonuclease from cutting
its own chromosomes.

3555.

True. Sarcoplasmic calcium-dependent ATPase

supplies the energy to terminate contraction, and
therefore it is an active process.

True or false? In skeletal muscle relaxation is

an active event.

3556.

True. Scl-70 Abs are used in diagnosing diffuse

scleroderma.

True or false? Anticentromere Abs are used in

diagnosing CREST syndrome.

3557.

True. So are rubeola, smallpox, yellow fever, and the

Sabin polio vaccine.

True or false? All of the following are live

attenuated vaccines available in the United
States: measles, mumps, varicella zoster, and
Francisella tularensis.

3558.

True. Staphylococcus aureus and group D

enterococci also grow in high-salt media.

True or false? Vibrio parahaemolyticus require

NaCl in its growth medium.

3559.

True. The elimination of the unfertilized egg is

menses.

True or false? In females, meiosis II is

incomplete unless fertilization takes place.

3560.

True. The energy status of the cell dictates if the

cycle is running or relaxing.

True or false? There is no hormonal control to

the TCA cycle.

3561.

True; the greater the fat, the less the total body
water.

True or false? There is an inverse relationship

between fat content and total body water.

3562.

True. The ileum is the site where vitamin B12 is

absorbed.

True or false? Removal of the ileum results in

vitamin B12 deficiencies.

3563.

True. The lack of dopamine leads to an excess of

ACh, hence extrapyramidal dysfunction.

True or false? The lack of dopamine production

in the substantia nigra leads to the
extrapyramidal dysfunction, characteristically
seen in patients with Parkinson's disease.

3564.

True. The laryngotracheal (respiratory) diverticulum

is divided from the foregut by the tracheoesophageal
septum. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------

True or false? The respiratory system is derived

from the ventral wall of the foregut.

3565.

True. The odontoid process of C2 acts as the

vertebral body of C1 allowing lateral rotation of the
head.

True or false? The first cervical vertebra has no

vertebral body.

3566.

True. The thyroid gland, the lungs, and the

pharyngeal pouches are foregut derivatives that are
not a component of the gastrointestinal system.

True or false? The thyroid gland is an

embryologic foregut derivative.

3567.

True. They absorb nutrients from the

host's GI tract.

True or false? Cestodes have no GI tract.

3568.

True. They all have helical nucleocapsids

and virion-associated polymerases too.

True or false? All negative sense RNA viruses are

enveloped.

3569.

True. They are also necessary for normal

brain maturation.

True or false? Thyroid hormones are necessary for normal

menstrual cycles.

3570.

True. They are evaginations of the

surface membranes and therefore
extracellular.

True or false? In a skeletal muscle fiber, the interior of the Ttubule is extracellular.

3571.

True. (They are quite a busy bunch of

cells!)

True or false? The following are functions of hepatocytes:

protein production, bile secretion, detoxification, conjugation,
and lipid storage.

3572.

True. They are the sensory component of

a spinal reflex.

True or false? Neurons in the dorsal horn participate in

reflexes.

3573.

True. They are useful in the early-phase

response to an asthmatic attack.

True or false? Beta2-Adrenergic agents are used in the

management of an acute asthmatic attack.

3574.

True. They block the dopamine receptors

in the chemoreceptor trigger zone.

True or false? Dopamine antagonists are antiemetic.

3575.

True. They have no gates, so by

definition they are always open.

True or false? Ungated channels are always open.

3576.

True. They inhibit DNA gyrase (topo II).

True or false? Fluoroquinolones are bactericidal.

3577.

True. They lyse the host cell

True or false? There are no persistent infections with naked

viruses?

3578.

True. Transcription (conversion of DNA to

RNA), as well as replication, occurs in
the nucleus.

True or false? The nucleus is the site of transcription.

3579.

True. Without ADH hypotonic urine would

be formed.

True or false? Without ADH the collecting duct would be

impermeable to water.

3580.

True. Yohimbine, sodium lactate, and epinephrine can also induce

panic attacks; they are considered panicogens.

True or false? Panic attacks

can be induced by
hyperventilation or carbon
dioxide.

3581.

True. -Blockade would result in unopposed-adrenergic stimulation

and worsen the patient's symptoms. Calcium channel blockers are the
way to go.

True or false? Cocaineinduced coronary ischemia

should not be treated with blockers.

3582.

True. -Blockers are a component of CHF regimen for stable patients,

not those who are decompensated. (This means you discharge a
patient from the hospital with a prescription for a -blocker; you don't
start -blockers when the patient is admitted.)

True or false? -Blockers are

contraindicated in patients
who present to the hospital
with CHF.

3583.

Truncus (1) arteriosus Transposition of the (2) great vessels

Tri(3)cuspid atresia Tetra(4)logy of Fallot They all begin with T

Name the four right-to-left

congenital cardiac shunts.

3584.

Truncus arteriosus

From what embryonic

structure are the following
structures derived? The
ascending aorta and the
pulmonary trunk

3585.

Trypanosoma cruzi

What hemoflagellate species

is the cause of Chagas
disease?

3586.

Trypsin

What enzyme is needed to

activate the following
reactions?
Chymotrypsinogen to
chymotrypsin

3587.

Trypsin

What enzyme is needed to

activate the following
reactions?
Procarboxypeptidase to
carboxypeptidase

3588.

Tryptophan

What AA is a precursor of the

following substances?
Serotonin

3589.

Tryptophan

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? NAD

3590.

The tsetse fly

What is the vector of African sleeping sickness?

3591.

TSH. 5-HT and prolactin increase during

sleep, and dopamine levels decrease
during sleep.

What pituitary hormone is inhibited during sleep?

3592.

The T-test (used when comparing two

groups)

What statistical test checks to see whether the groups are

different by comparing the means of two groups from a
single nominal variable?

3593.

TTP; thrombocytopenia with

megathrombocytes is more characteristic
of ITP.

If a peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes,

reticulocytes, and thrombocytopenia, is it more commonly
seen in patients with ITP or TTP?

3594.

Turcot syndrome

What syndrome has multiple adenomatous colonic polyps

and CNS gliomas?

3595.

Turner syndrome

Streaky ovaries

3596.

T wave

What component of an ECG is associated with the

following? Ventricular repolarization

3597.

Twelve pairs through twelve thoracic

vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal
nerves.

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with

Thoracic vertebrae?

3598.

Two Lateral foramina of Luschka and 1

Medial foramen of Monroe (L for Lateral
and M for Medial)

What are the three sites where CSF can leave the
ventricles and enter the subarachnoid space? (Name the
lateral and the medial foramina.)

3599.

Two major or one major and two minor

How many major and/or minor Jones criteria are required

for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever?

3600.

Two-way ANOVA. It allows the test to

check several variables at the same time.

What statistical test compares the means of groups

generated by two nominal variables by using an interval
variable?

3601.

TXA2

Name the product or products of arachidonic acid:

Vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation produced by
platelets

3602.

TXA2

What potent platelet aggregator and vasoconstrictor is

synthesized by platelets?

3603.

Tylosis

What AD disease involves hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles in

association with esophageal carcinoma?

3604.

Type 2

What type of neurofibromatosis is associated with bilateral

acoustic schwannomas?

3605.

Type I error (alpha error).

(Remember it as saying something
works when it doesn't.) The
chance of a type I error occurring
is the P value.

What type of error is made if you reject the null hypothesis when it
is true?

3606.

Type I hypersensitivity
(anaphylactic)

Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following

properties. IgE-mediated release of chemical mediators from
basophils and mast cells; need prior exposure to Ag in the past;
eosinophils amplify and continue reaction; can be system or
localized.

3607.

Type II

Which phenotype of osteogenesis imperfecta is incompatible with

life?

3608.

Type II error (beta error).

(Remember it as saying something
doesn't work when it does.)

What type of error is made if you accept the null hypothesis when it
is false?

3609.

Type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic)

Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following

properties. IgG or IgM Abs against a specific target cell or tissue;
complement-dependent or ADCC.

3610.

Type II hypersensitivity reaction

What type of hypersensitivity is an Ab-mediated response against

our own cells, receptors, or membranes via IgG or IgM?

3611.

Type III

What type of collagen is associated with keloid formation?

3612.

Type III hypersensitivity (immune

complex)

Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following

properties. Circulating Ab-Ag immune complexes deposited in the
tissue result in neutrophil attraction and the release of lysosomal
enzymes.

3613.

Type III hypersensitivity reaction

What type of hypersensitivity is a result of high

circulating levels of soluble immune complexes
made up of IgG or IgM Abs?

3614.

Type II pneumocytes

In the alveoli, what cell type is responsible for

producing surfactant?

3615.

Type II symptoms (negative); otherwise healthy

persons have them, but schizophrenics do not.

What type of symptoms in schizophrenia are

associated with Muscarinic receptors (ACh)?

3616.

Type I (makes sense, since they have a

predisposition for fractures and type I collagen is
associated with bones and tendons)

What type of collagen is abnormal in patients with

osteogenesis imperfecta?

3617.

Type I pneumocytes

In the alveoli, what cell type is for gas exchange?

3618.

Type I symptoms (positive); schizophrenics have

them, but otherwise healthy persons do not.

What type of symptoms in schizophrenia are

associated with Dopamine receptors?

3619.

Type IV collagen

What type of collagen is associated with the

basement membrane?

3620.

Type IV collagen

Goodpasture Ag is a component of what type of

collagen?

3621.

Type IV hypersensitivity (cell-mediated)

Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based

on the following properties. Reaction-mediated by
sensitized T-cells

3622.

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction (delayed type

because of the 48-96 hour latency)

What type of hypersensitivity is a T cell-mediated

response to Ags that are not activated by Ab or
complement?

3623.

Tyramine

What agent, in combination with a MAOI inhibitor,

can cause hypertensive crisis?

3624.

Tyrosine

What AA is a phenol?

3625.

Ulcerative colitis

What inflammatory bowel disorder is continuous,

with extensive ulcerations and pseudopolyps, and
is associated with HLA-B27?

3626.

Ulcerative colitis

What disease is seen in the 20-to 40-year-old age group, is

more prevalent in women than men, involves diarrhea with or
without bloody stools, starts in the rectum and ascends without
skipping areas, includes pseudopolyps, and has a thickness of
the bowel that does not change?

3627.

Ulcerative colitis

Is ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease more commonly associated

with primary sclerosing cholangitis?

3628.

Ulnar and radial arteries (ulnar is the

main supplier)

What two arteries join to form the superficial and deep palmar
arches of the hand?

3629.

Ulnar nerve

What nerve is associated with the following functions?

Innervation of the flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digiti profundus
(pinky and ring fingers), and the intrinsic muscles of the hand

3630.

Ulnar to radial progression

In regard to motor development during infancy, choose the

motor response that happens first. Radial or ulnar progression

3631.

Ultralente

Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and

duration of action. Peak, 8 to 16 hours; duration, 24 to 36 hours

3632.

Ultraviolet B (UVB) sunlight

What form of sunlight is the most carcinogenic?

3633.

Umbilical vein and ductus venosus

(80%)

What two vessels in fetal circulation have the highest PO2

levels?

3634.

UMP

What is the primary end product of pyrimidine synthesis?

3635.

Unconjugated free bilirubin

What form of bilirubin can cross the blood-brain barrier?

3636.

Unconjugated (indirect)

What form of bilirubin is carried on albumin?

3637.

Under normal resting conditions no,

but they are strongly stimulated when
PO2 arterial levels decrease to 50 to
60 mm Hg, resulting in increased
ventilatory drive.

Do the PO2 peripheral chemoreceptors of the carotid body

contribute to the normal drive for ventilation?

3638.

Under resting conditions expiration is considered

a passive process; therefore, no muscles are
used. In the active state the abdominal muscles
can be considered the major muscle of
expiration.

What is the major muscle used in the relaxed state

of expiration?

3639.

Undoing

Fixing impulses by acting out the opposite of an

unacceptable behavior

3640.

Ungated potassium channel

Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel:

Always open

3641.

Unipolar disorder (major depression)

Anhedonia, lack of motivation, feelings of

worthlessness, decreased sex drive, insomnia, and
recurrent thoughts for at least 2 weeks, representing
a change from previous level of function, describes
what disorder?

3642.

Unstable (crescendo) angina

What form of angina is characterized by Coronary

artery nonocclusive thrombus; symptom occurrence
with increasing frequency, duration, intensity, and
decreasing activity, frequently at rest?

3643.

Upper outer quadrant (left more than right)

In which quadrant is breast cancer most commonly

found?

3644.

Upper third skeletal muscle, middle third both

skeletal and smooth muscle, and lower third
smooth muscle

What is the rule of one-third regarding muscle type of

the esophagus?

3645.

Up to 72 hours; the ovum losses its ability to be

fertilized 8 to 25 hours after release.

Up to how many hours post ejaculation do sperm

retain their ability to fertilize the ovum?

3646.

Urachus

What embryonic structure forms the following adult

structures? Median umbilical ligament

3647.

Uracil

What pyrimidine base is found Only in RNA?

3648.

Uracil

What pyrimidine base is produced by deaminating

cytosine?

3649.

Uracil and orotic acid levels increase with ornithine

transcarbamoylase deficiency and are normal in
carbamoyl phosphate synthetase deficiency.

How can a genetic deficiency of carbamoyl

phosphate synthetase be differentiated from an
ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency?

3650.

Ureaplasma urealyticum

Which mycoplasma species is associated with

urethritis, prostatitis, and renal calculi?

3651.

Uric acid

What is the end product of purine catabolism?

3652.

Urinary 17-ketosteroids

What is used as an index for both adrenal and

testicular androgens?

3653.

Urinary 17-OH steroids

What is used as an index of cortisol secretion?

3654.

Urinary trigone

What is the name of the urinary bladder where

the ureters enter and the urethra exits?

3655.

The urine becomes hypertonic because of water

reabsorption in the collecting duct.

What happens to the tonicity of the urine with

increased ADH secretion?

3656.

Urogenital folds

What embryonic structure forms the adult male

structure? Ventral part of the penis

3657.

Urogenital folds

What embryonic structure forms the adult

female structures? Labia minora

3658.

Urogenital sinus

What embryonic structure forms the adult

female structures? Urinary bladder, urethra,
greater vestibular glands, vagina

3659.

Urogenital sinus

What embryonic structure forms the adult male

structure? Urinary bladder, urethra, prostate
gland, bulbourethral gland

3660.

Urogenital sinus

What embryonic structure forms the following

adult structures? Urinary bladder and urethra

3661.

Urophilia

What paraphilia is defined as Combining sex

with urination?

3662.

Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase

What enzyme is deficient in congenital erythropoietic porphyria?

3663.

Uroporphyrinogen-I synthase

What enzyme of heme synthesis is deficient in the autosomal

dominant disorder acute intermittent porphyria?

3664.

Uroporphyrinogen I synthetase

What enzyme is deficient in acute intermittent porphyria?

3665.

Utricle and saccule

What component of the inner ear Contains endolymph and gravity

receptors monitoring linear acceleration and deceleration of the
head, noting changes in head position?

3666.

The vaccine contains 23

capsular polysaccharides.

How many strains of Pneumococcus capsular polysaccharides are

present in the vaccine?

3667.

The vagina

What area of the female reproductive tract is lined by stratified

squamous epithelium rich in |glycogen?

3668.

Vaginismus; it is the female

counterpart of premature
ejaculation.

What is the term for involuntary constriction of the outer third of the
vagina to prevent penile penetration?

3669.

Vagus nerve

What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of

Laryngopharynx?

3670.

Valence

What is the term for the number of Ag-binding sites on an Ig?

3671.

Validity (remember, reliability is

necessary but not the only thing
needed for validity)

What is the term for the degree to which a test measures what it is
intended to measure?

3672.

Valine

What AA is substituted for glutamic acid at position 6 on the Betachain in patients with sickle cell anemia?

3673.

Valproic acid

Which anticonvulsant is also used in the treatment of bipolar disorder

and for migraine headaches?

3674.

Vancomycin

What bactericidal agent is the DOC for MRSA, enterococci, and

Clostridium difficile?

3675.

Vancomycin

Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed.

Auditory toxicity

3676.

Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)

What urinary metabolite is elevated in pheochromocytoma?

3677.

Variable interval

What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after

a desired response, the reinforcement is given
Varying in time?

3678.

Variable ratio If it is based on time, it is an

interval, and if it is based on the number of
responses, it is a ratio.

What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after

a desired response, the reinforcement is given
Varying in the number of responses?

3679.

Varicella

What virus lies dormant in the Dorsal root ganglia?

3680.

Varicella virus and influenza virus

What two viruses are associated with Reye's

syndrome?

3681.

Varicocele

What is the term for dilated veins within the spermatic

cord?

3682.

Variola (smallpox)

With which DNA virus are Guarnieri bodies

associated?

3683.

Variola virus (Smallpox)

What virus is associated with Guarnieri bodies?

3684.

Vascular dementia. It is characterized as a

stepwise deterioration in cognitive function.

What is the term for the dementia characterized by

decremental or patchy deterioration in cognitive
function due to a cerebrovascular accident?

3685.

Velocity is inversely related to cross-sectional

area.

How is velocity related to the total cross-sectional area

of a blood vessel?

3686.

The venae recta maintain the gradient via

countercurrent flow.

What maintains the osmotic gradient that is critical to

the concentrating ability of the kidney?

3687.

Venlafaxine. (It also has a mild dopaminergic

effect.)

What antidepressant, which recently was approved for

general anxiety disorder, inhibits the reuptake of NE
and 5-HT?

3688.

Venous pressure above the heart is

subatmospheric, so a puncture there has the
potential to introduce air into the system.

Why would a puncture to a vein above the heart have

the potential to introduce air into the vascular system?

3689.

Ventilation of an unperfused lung segment is

highly suspicious for pulmonary embolism.

If you order a V/Q scan for suspected pulmonary

emboli, is the filling defect seen on the ventilation or
perfusion side?

3690.

Ventral anterior nucleus

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. Input from
globus pallidus and substantia nigra; output to primary motor cortex

3691.

Ventral lateral nucleus

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. Input from
globus pallidus and the cerebellum; output to the primary motor cortex

3692.

Ventral posterolateral
nucleus

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. Input from
medial lemniscus and the spinocerebellar tracts; output to the primary
somatosensory cortex

3693.

Ventral posteromedial
nucleus

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. Input from
the trigeminal pathways; output to primary somatosensory cortex of the
parietal lobe

3694.

Ventricular contraction Atrial,

Contraction, Venous

On the venous pressure curve, what do the following waves represent?

C wave?

3695.

Ventricular fibrillation (V fib)

Name the most common type or cause. Sudden cardiac death

3696.

Ventromedial nucleus;
lesions here result in
obesity.

What nucleus of the hypothalamus is the satiety center, regulating food

intake?

3697.

Verbigeration

What term describes senseless repetition of words or phrases?

3698.

The vermis

In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what

area or lobe Controls the axial and proximal musculature of the limbs?

3699.

Vertebra prominens (C7 in

70% of cases, C6 in 20%,
T1 in 10%)

What is the name for the most prominent spinous process?

3700.

Very superior (<2.5% of the

population)

What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is 130

3701.

Vesicle (e.g., poison ivy)

What is an elevated, fluid-filled cavity between skin layers up to 0.5 cm?

3702.

Vesicular stomatitis virus

What virus causes hoof-and-mouth disease?

3703.

The vestibulo-ocular reflex

What reflex enables the eyes to remain focused on a target while the
head is turning?

3704.

Vibrio cholera

What organism is associated with the following types of

diarrhea? Rice water stools

3705.

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

What organism is associated with the following types of

diarrhea? Diarrhea associated with raw or undercooked
shellfish

3706.

Vibrio vulnificus

What is the most likely organism causing cellulitis in a

patient who was cut by an oyster shell?

3707.

Vimentin

What is the name of the protein coat that surrounds the

nuclear envelope?

3708.

VIP is an inhibitory parasympathetic

neurotransmitter that results in relaxation
of the lower esophageal sphincter.

What hormone controls relaxation of the lower esophageal

sphincter during swallowing?

3709.

VIPoma

What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with watery

diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria?

3710.

Viral meningitis

What condition results in the following CSF results?

Opening pressure 100 mm H2O; 120 WBCs (90%
lymphocytes); normal glucose levels; protein 17

3711.

Virchow triad, associated with the

formation of a thrombus.

What triad consists of endothelial injury, changes in laminar

flow, and hypercoagulation?

3712.

Viruses

Which of the following characteristics accurately describe

fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites? Acellular; some are
enveloped; replicate within the host cell; no cell walls

3713.

Visceral pleura

What type of pleura is adherent to the surface of the organ?

3714.

Viscosity and resistance are proportionally

related. The greater the viscosity, the
greater the resistance is on the vessel.

How are resistance and viscosity related regarding flow?

3715.

Vital capacity (VC)

Name the lung measurement based on the following

descriptions: Maximal volume that can be expired after
maximal inspiration

3716.

Vitamin A

What vitamin is an important component of

rhodopsin?

3717.

Vitamin A is responsible for vision and epithelial

health.

What vitamin is necessary for epithelial health?

3718.

Vitamin B6

What vitamin deficiency may result in sideroblastic

anemia?

3719.

Vitamin B 6 (pyridoxine)

What vitamin is a cofactor of aromatic amino acid

decarboxylase and decreases the efficacy of L-dopa
if used concomitantly?

3720.

Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate deficiency

What are the two reasons for megaloblastic anemia

with elevated MCV?

3721.

Vitamin C

What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency is associated

with poor wound healing, easy bruising, bleeding
gums, anemia, and painful glossitis?

3722.

Vitamin D

What causes an increase in bone mineralization and

Ca2+ along with PO4- absorption from the GI tract
and kidney tubules?

3723.

Vitamin D3

What hormone is characterized by the following

renal effects? Calcium reabsorption, phosphate
reabsorption

3724.

Vitamin E

What fat-soluble vitamin is connected to selenium

metabolism?

3725.

Vitamin K

Name the antidote. Warfarin

3726.

Vitamin K deficiency has normal bleeding time

and increased PT, and vitamin C deficiency has
increased bleeding time and normal PT.

How can you differentiate vitamin K from vitamin C

deficiency by bleeding time and PT levels?

3727.

Vitelline fistula

What is the term for a direct connection between the

intestine and the external environment through the
umbilicus because the vitelline duct persists?

3728.

Vitreous humor

What is the fluid of the posterior compartment of the

eye?

3729.

VLDL

Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics. apo E,

apo B-100, apo C-II

3730.

VLDLs

In what form are triglycerides sent to adipose tissue from the liver?

3731.

Vmax

What is the maximum rate possible with a given amount of enzyme?

3732.

Volkmann's contracture

What is the term when the brachial artery is compressed, resulting in

ischemic contracture of the hand?

3733.

Voltage-gated calcium channel

Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: Closed at rest;

depolarization causes channels to open slowly

3734.

Voltage-gated channel

What type of membrane channel opens in response to

depolarization?

3735.

Voltage-gated potassium
channels

Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: Open at rest;

depolarization is stimulus to close; begin to reopen during the plateau
phase and during repolarization

3736.

Voltage-gated sodium channel

Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: Closed at rest;

depolarization causes channels to open quickly; will not respond to a
second stimulus until cell is repolarized.

3737.

Volume of distribution is
decreased when a large
percentage of drug is protein
bound.

What is the volume of distribution (increased or decreased) of a drug

when a large percentage is protein bound?

3738.

Volvulus

What is the term for a twisting of the bowel around its vascular axis
resulting in intestinal obstruction?

3739.

von Gierke's disease

What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme

deficiencies? Glucose-6-phosphatase

3740.

von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

In what syndrome does the patient have angiomatosis; renal cell

carcinomas; pheochromocytomas; retinal, cerebellar, medulla, or
spinal cord hemangioblastomas; and epidermal cysts?

3741.

Voyeurism

What paraphilia is defined as Deriving sexual pleasure from

watching others having sex, grooming, or undressing?

3742.

VPL nucleus sends its fibers to

synapse in the postcentral gyrus
of the parietal lobe.

The fibers of nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus cross at the

medullary decussation and ascend contralateral to what thalamic
relay nucleus?

3743.

The V/Q ratio increases, since

the area is ventilated but
hypoperfused as a result of the
occlusion.

What happens to V/Q ratio if a thrombus is lodged in the pulmonary

artery?

3744.

VSD

Name the most common type or cause. Pulmonary HTN in children

3745.

VSD

What is the most common one? Congenital cardiac anomaly

3746.

VSD, RVH, overriding aorta, and

pulmonary stenosis

What is the tetrad of tetralogy of Fallot?

3747.

V wave

What wave is the cause of the following venous pulse deflections?

The rise in right atrial pressure secondary to blood filling and
terminating when the tricuspid valves opens

3748.

Waldenstrm's
macroglobulinemia

What lymphoma is associated with bleeding and cryoglobulin

precipitation at low temperatures, headache and confusion due to
hyperviscosity, IgM M-protein spike on serum electrophoresis, and
Russell bodies?

3749.

Waldeyer's ring

Where are the tonsillar tissues?

3750.

The wall tension is greater

because the aneurysm has a
greater radius than the
surrounding vessel.

Using Laplace's relationship regarding wall tension, why is the wall

tension in an aneurysm greater than in the surrounding normal blood
vessel's wall?

3751.

Water

What is absorbed in the gallbladder to concentrate bile?

3752.

Water flows from a low-solute to

high-solute concentrations.

In regards to solute concentration, how does water flow?

3753.

Waterhouse-Friderichsen
syndrome

What syndrome is due to a Neisseria sp. infection in a child resulting

in bilateral hemorrhagic infarcts of the adrenal glands?

3754.

Water-soluble
hormones are
considered fast-acting
hormones.

What form of hormone is described as having membrane-bound receptors that

are stored in vesicles, using second messengers, and having its activity
determined by free hormone levels.

3755.

A wave

What wave is the cause of the following venous pulse deflections? The
contraction of the right atrium

3756.

Week four, and they

remain dormant there
until puberty.

In men, at what embryonic week do the primordial germ cells migrate to the
indifferent gonad?

3757.

Wegener
granulomatosis

What rare vasculitis has the following characteristics: males aged 40 to 60;
affecting small arteries and veins; involving nose, sinuses, lungs, and kidneys;
C-ANCA and autoantibodies against proteinase 3?

3758.

Wernicke's aphasia

Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: Lesion in Brodmann area

22; impaired comprehension; incoherent rapid, fluent speech; verbal
paraphrasias; trouble repeating statements

3759.

Wernicke's
encephalopathy

What encephalopathy causes ocular palsies, confusion, and gait abnormalities

related to a lesion in the mammillary bodies and/or the dorsomedial nuclei of
the thalamus?

3760.

Western blot

What blotting technique uses the following for analysis? Protein

3761.

Western blot

What is the confirmatory test for HIV?

3762.

When a patient closes the eyes while standing with feet together, the visual
and cerebellar components of proprioception are removed, so you are testing
the dorsal columns. Swaying with eyes closed is a positive Romberg's sign
indicating a lesion in the dorsal columns. The cold water caloric test mimics a
brainstem lesion by inhibiting the normal reflex response. (COWS: Cold
Opposite Warm Same)

By asking a patient to
close the eyes while
standing with feet
together, what two
pathways are you
eliminating from
proprioception?

3763.

When calcium is removed from troponin and pumped back into the SR, skeletal
muscle contraction stops.

What causes a
skeletal muscle
contraction to
terminate?

3764.

When it crosses the teres major

At what point does the

axillary artery become
the brachial artery?

3765.

When showing two pictures in rapid succession, you split the pictures half a
second apart, resulting in the second picture masking the first (indicating poor
short-term memory). This is seen in nearly 33% of schizophrenic patients.

What is backward
masking, and is there
a positive correlation
with schizophrenic
patients?

3766.

When the intra-alveolar pressure equals zero, there is no airflow.

Which direction is air

flowing when the intraalveolar pressure is
zero?

3767.

When the pH is more acidic than the pI, it has a net positive charge, and when
the pH is more basic than the pI, it has a net negative charge.

If the pH is more
acidic than the pI,
does the protein carry
a net positive or net
negative charge?

3768.

White muscle; short term too

What type of muscle is

characterized by no
myoglobin, anaerobic
glycolysis, high
ATPase activity, and
large muscle mass?

3769.

White rami are preganglionic

fibers, whereas grey rami are
postganglionic fibers.

Are white rami preganglionic or postganglionic fibers?

3770.

Wilms tumor

What tumor is seen in the 2-to 4-year-old age group; does not cross
the midline; has immature glomeruli, tubules, and stroma; and
metastasizes late to the lungs?

3771.

Wilson disease

Kayser-Fleischer rings

3772.

Wilson disease. (Remember,

patients commonly present with
psychiatric manifestations and
movement disorders but may be
asymptomatic.)

What AR disorder of copper metabolism can be characterized by

Kayser- Fleischer rings, decreased ceruloplasmin levels, and
increased urinary copper excretion and tissue copper levels?

3773.

Wilson's disease (Remember

chromosome 13 and
hepatolenticular degeneration)

Kaiser-Fleischer rings, abnormal copper metabolism, and

ceruloplasmin deficiency characterize what disease, which may
include symptoms of dementia when severe?

3774.

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

What X-linked recessive immune disorder is characterized by

recurrent infections, severe thrombocytopenia, and eczema?

3775.

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

What disease is X-linked recessive, is associated with eczema

thrombocytopenia and an increased chance of developing recurrent
infections, involves a decrease in serum IgM and in the T celldependent paracortical areas of the lymph nodes, and means that the
patient is likely to develop malignant lymphoma?

3776.

With an increased depth of

breathing both the total and
alveolar ventilation increase.
This concept is always tested
on the boards, so remember it.

What happens to total and alveolar ventilation with Increased depth

of breathing?

3777.

With an increased rate of breathing the total

ventilation is greater than the alveolar
ventilation. Rapid, shallow breathing
increases dead space ventilation with little
change in alveolar ventilation. (This is
hypoventilation).

What happens to total and alveolar ventilation with

Increased rate of breathing?

3778.

With arteriolar constriction both the flow and

pressure downstream decrease.

What happens to blood flow and pressure downstream

with local arteriolar constriction?

3779.

With opioid use the pupils become pinpoint

(miosis) because of increased cholinergic
activity.

How is the eye affected by use of opioids?

3780.

Without children (but don't think about this

one for too long)

Is marital satisfaction higher for couples with or without

children?

3781.

Xanthine, hypoxanthine, theophylline,

theobromine, caffeine, and uric acid are all
purines.

Name three purine bases that are not found in nucleic

acids.

3782.

Xanthine oxidase

What enzyme requires molybdenum as a cofactor?

3783.

Xenograft

Name the type of graft described by these transplants:

From one species to another

3784.

X-linked dominant

Name the pattern of genetic transmission characterized

thus: both M and F affected; no M-to-M transmission;
affected M passes trait to all daughters, every
generation; affected F passes trait to both sons and
daughters; a single mutant allele can produce the
disease.

3785.

X-linked recessive

What pattern of genetic transmission affects only M and

has no M-to-M transmission, and mother is usually an
unaffected carrier?

3786.

X-linked recessive

What pattern of inheritance is G-6-PD deficiency?

3787.

X-linked recessive

What pattern of inheritance does G-6-PD deficiency

follow?

3788.

Yellow fever (flavivirus)

What viral infection is associated with

black vomit?

3789.

Yersinia pestis

What small coagulase-positive, gramnegative rod with bipolar staining is a

facultative intracellular parasite resulting
in buboes?

3790.

Yes

Is the Salk polio vaccine inactivated?

3791.

Yes

Can advance directives be oral?

3792.

Yes, as long the illness does not threaten limb or life. If

illness is critical or an emergency, treat the child.

Can parents withhold treatment from their

children?

3793.

Yes, because they both activate the BZ1-receptors, which

can be reversed by flumazenil.

Could an overdose with either zolpidem

or zaleplon be reversed with flumazenil?

3794.

Yes, by three to four times. Having multiple sexual partners,

being overweight, and pelvic pain and/or inflammatory
disorders are also likely to be seen in sexually abused
females.

Are sexually abused females more likely

to have learning disabilities than the
general population?

3795.

Yes. In a negatively skewed distribution the mean is greater

than the median is greater than the mode.

In a negatively skewed curve is the mean

greater than the mode?

3796.

Yes, it decreases fat and muscle uptake of glucose, thereby

increasing blood glucose levels.

Is GH considered a gluconeogenic
hormone?

3797.

Yes. It increases the rate of suicide to nearly 50 times that of

the general population.

Does alcoholism increase the rate of

suicide?

3798.

Yes. It is also a cause of cancers of the lung, esophagus,

ureter, and kidney, just to name a few.

Is cigarette smoking associated with

transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder?

3799.

Yes. (Remember, Jehovah's witnesses refuse blood

transfusions.)

Can a patient refuse life-saving treatment

for religious reasons?

3800.

Yes. The only civil liberty they lose is the freedom to come
and go as they please.

Can committed mentally ill patients

refuse medical treatment?

3801.

Yes, they stimulate the growth of mammary tissue but block

milk synthesis. At parturition, the decrease in estrogen lifts the
block on milk production.

Do high levels of estrogen and

progesterone block milk synthesis?

3802.

Yes. This is done to help prevent underreporting out of fear of

lawsuit. Remember that it is your duty to protect the child first,
not worry about legal responsibility.

If you report a suspected case of child

abuse and are wrong, are you
protected from legal liability?

3803.

Yohimbine

What 2-antagonist is used to treat

impotence and postural hypotension?

3804.

Yolk sac tumor

What is the most common one?

Testicular tumor in infants and children

3805.

Yolk sac tumor

Schiller-Duval bodies

3806.

Yolk sac tumor

What testicular tumor of infancy is

characterized by elevated-fetoprotein
levels and Schiller-Duval bodies?

3807.

Yolk sac tumor

What is the most common one? Germ

cell tumor in boys

3808.

Your duty is to tell the patient, not the family. The patient
decides who gets to know and who doesn't, not you.

Should information flow from the patient

to the family or vice versa?

3809.

Y, W-135, and C and A capsular polysaccharides

What are the four capsular

polysaccharides used in the Neisseria
meningitides vaccine?

3810.

Zafirlukast

Which prophylactic asthmatic agent is

an antagonist of LTD4?

3811.

Zanamivir and oseltamivir

What antiviral agents inhibit

neuraminidases of influenza A and B?

3812.

Zero correlation

What type of correlation is defined as

Two variables with no linear relation to
one another?

3813.

Zero-order elimination

What type of drug elimination is characterized by the following?

Elimination independent of plasma concentration; constant amount
eliminated per unit time; no fixed half-life

3814.

Zileuton

Which agent used in the treatment of asthma is a selective inhibitor of the

lipoxygenase pathway?

3815.

Zinc (Zn) deficiency

What mineral deficiency in children is associated with poor growth and

impaired sexual development?

3816.

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

What syndrome is associated with gastrin-producing islet cell tumor

resulting in multiple intractable peptic ulcers?

3817.

Zona fasciculata and zona

reticularis

What region or regions of the adrenal cortex are stimulated by ACTH?

3818.

Zonula occludens (tight

junctions)

What type of cell surface projection lies on the lateral surface of cells
closest to the apex and acts to seal off the outside environment from the
rest of the body?

3819.

Zoophilia

What paraphilia is defined as Sexual fantasies or practices with animals?

3820.

The zygote divides

mitotically; only germ cells
divide meiotically.

Does the zygote divide mitotically or meiotically?

3821.

-1, 6 transferase

Deficiencies in what enzyme result in insoluble glycogen synthesis

formation?

3822.

1-Receptors

What adrenergic receptors use inositol triphosphate (IP3) and

diacylglycerol (DAG) for their second messenger system?

3823.

-and -chains are on

most T cells.

What are the two most common chains of the TCR?

3824.

-Blockers (-zosins)

Which class of antihypertensives is used in the treatment of BPH?

3825.

-Methyldopa (Guanabenz
or clonidine is also used.)

What is the drug of choice for hypertensive patients with a decreased renal
function?

3826.

-Endorphin

What is the neurotransmitter at the -receptor?

3827.

-Galactosidase

Regarding the Lac operon, for what do the following genes code? Z gene

3828.

-Hydroxybutyrate

What is the major ketone body produced during alcoholic

ketoacidosis?

3829.

-Oxidation of fatty acids

From where is the energy for gluconeogenesis derived?

3830.

The -subunit; remember, the -subunit is

nonspecific.

What subunit of hCG is used to detect whether a patient

is pregnant?

3831.

-ALA synthase

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in heme

synthesis?