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MCQ 1.1 lim
sin
x
x
x 0
2
"
is equal to
(A) 0 (B) 3
(C) 1 (D) 1
SOL 1.1 Option (A) is correct
Let, ( ) f x lim
sin
x
x
x 0
2
=
"
lim
sin
x
x
x
x
x 0
2
#
=
"
lim
sin
x
x
x
x 0
2
#
=
"
b l
1 lim
sin
x
x
x 0
=
"
(1) 0 0
2
#
= =
Alternate:
Let ( ) f x lim
sin
x
x
x 0
2
=
"
form
0
0
: D
( ) f x lim
sin cos x x
1
2
x 0
=
"
Apply L-Hospital rule
lim
sin sin x
1
2
1
0
0
x 0
= = =
"
MCQ 1.2 The accuracy of Simpsons rule quadrature for a step size h is
(A) ( ) O h
2
(B) ( ) O h
3
(C) ( ) O h
4
(D) ( ) O h
5
SOL 1.2 Option (D) is correct.
Accuracy of Simpsons rule quadrature is ( ) O h
5
MCQ 1.3 For the matrix
4
1
1
4
> H the eigen values are
(A) 3 and 3 (B) 3 and 5
(C) 3 and 5 (D) 5 and 0
SOL 1.3 Option (C) is correct.
Let, A
1
4 1
4
=> H
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The characteristic equation for the eigen value is given by,
A I 0 = I = Identity matrix
1
0
0
1
> H

4
1
1
0
1
4
0
1
> > H H 0 =

4
1
1
4

0 =
( )( ) 4 4 1 0 =
( ) 4 1
2
0 =
8 15
2
+ 0 =
On solving above equation, we get
5, 3 =
MCQ 1.4 The second moment of a circular area about the diameter is given by (D is the
diameter).
(A)
D
4
4

(B)
D
16
4

(C)
D
32
4

(D)
D
64
4

SOL 1.4 Option (D) is correct.

We know that, moment of inertia is defined as the second moment of a plane area
about an axis perpendicular to the area.
Polar moment of inertia perpendicular to the plane of paper,
or J I
P

D
32
4

=
By the perpendicular axis theorem,
I I
XX YY
+ I
P
= For circular section I I
XX YY
=
2I
XX
I
P
=
I
XX

I
2
P
=
D
I
64
YY
4

= =
MCQ 1.5 A concentrated load of P acts on a simply supported beam of span L at a distance
/3 L from the left support. The bending moment at the point of application of the
load is given by
(A)
PL
3
(B)
PL
3
2
(C)
PL
9
(D)
PL
9
2
SOL 1.5 Option (D) is correct.
We know that, the simplest form of the simply supported beams is the beam
supported on rollers at ends. The simply supported beam and the FBD shown in
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the Figure.

Where, R
A
& R
B
are the reactions acting at the ends of the beam.
In equilibrium condition of forces,
P R R
A B
= + ...(i)
Taking the moment about point A,
R L
B #
P
L
3
#
=
R
B

P
3
=
From equation (i),
R
A
P R
B
= P
P
3
=
P
3
2
=
Now bending moment at the point of application of the load
M R
L
3
A #
=
P L
3
2
3
#
=
PL
9
2
=
Or, M R
L PL
3
2
9
2
B #
= =
MCQ 1.6 Two identical circular rods of same diameter and same length are subjected to
same magnitude of axial tensile force. One of the rod is made out of mild steel
having the modulus of elasticity of 206 GPa. The other rod is made out of cast
iron having the modulus of elasticity of 100 GPa. Assume both the materials to be
homogeneous and isotropic and the axial force causes the same amount of uniform
stress in both the rods. The stresses developed are within the proportional limit of
the respective materials. Which of the following observations is correct ?
(A) Both rods elongate by the same amount
(B) Mild steel rod elongates more than the cast iron rod
(C) Cast iron rod elongates more than the mild steel rods
(D) As the stresses are equal strains are also equal in both the rods
SOL 1.6 Option (C) is correct.
Given : L
s
L
i
= , E
s
206 GPa = , E
i
100 GPa = , P
s
P
i
= , D
s
D
i
= , & A
s
A
i
=
Where subscript s is for steel and i is for iron rod.
We know that elongation is given by,
L
AE
PL
=
Now, for steel or iron rod
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L
L
i
s

A E
P L
P L
A E
s s
s s
i i
i i
#
=
E
E
s
i
=
Substitute the values, we get

L
L
i
s

206
100
= . 0 485 = 1 <
Or, L
s
L <
i
& L
i
L >
s

So, cast iron rod elongates more than the mild steel rod.
MCQ 1.7 The beams, one having square cross section and another circular cross-section, are
subjected to the same amount of bending moment. If the cross sectional area as
well as the material of both the beams are same then
(A) maximum bending stress developed in both the beams is same
(B) the circular beam experience more bending stress than the square one
(C) the square beam experience more bending stress than the circular one
(D) as the material is same, both the beams will experience same deformation.
SOL 1.7 Option (B) is correct.
Let, a = Side of square cross-section
d = diameter of circular cross-section
Using subscripts for the square and c for the circular cross section.
Given : M
s
M
c
=
A
c
A
s
=
So, d
4
2
a
2
= ...(i)
From the bending equation,

I
M

y R
E
= = &
I
M
y
#
=
Where, y = Distance from the neutral axis to the external fibre.
=Bending stress
For square cross-section bending stress,

s

a
M a
12
2
s
4
#
=
a
M 6
s
3
= ...(ii)
And for circular cross-section,

c

d
M d
64
2
c
4
#

=
d
M 32
c
3
= ...(iii)
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On dividing equation (iii) by equation (ii), we get

s
c

d
M
M
a 32
6
c
s
3
3
#
=
d
a
3
16
3
3
= M M
c s
= ...(iv)
From equation (i),
d
4
/
2
3 2
a k
( ) a
/ 2 3 2
= a
3
=

d
a
3
3

4
/ 3 2
=
a k
. 0 695 =
Substitute this value in equation (iv), we get

s
c

.
3
16
0 695
#
= . 3 706 =

s
c

1 > &
c
>
s

So, Circular beam experience more bending stress than the square section.
MCQ 1.8 The mechanism used in a shaping machine is
(A) a closed 4-bar chain having 4 revolute pairs
(B) a closed 6-bar chain having 6 revolute pairs
(C) a closed 4-bar chain having 2 revolute and 2 sliding pairs
(D) an inversion of the single slider-crank chain
SOL 1.8 Option (D) is correct.
A single slider crank chain is a modification of the basic four bar chain. It is
find, that four inversions of a single slider crank chain are possible. From these
four inversions, crank and slotted lever quick return motion mechanism is used in
shaping machines, slotting machines and in rotary internal combustion engines.
MCQ 1.9 The lengths of the links of a 4-bar linkage with revolute pairs are , , , p q r and s
units. given that p q r s < < < . Which of these links should be the fixed one, for
obtaining a double crank mechanism ?
(A) link of length p (B) link of length q
(C) link of length r (D) link of length s
SOL 1.9 Option (A) is correct.
Given p q r s < < <
Double crank mechanism occurs, when the shortest link is fixed. From the given
pairs p is the shortest link. So, link of length p should be fixed.
MCQ 1.10 Consider the arrangement shown in the figure below where J is the combined polar
mass moment of inertia of the disc and the shafts. , , k k k
1 2 3
are the torsional stiffness
of the respective shafts. The natural frequency of torsional oscillation of the disc
is given by
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(A)
J
k k k
1 2 3
+ +
(B)
( ) J k k
k k k k k k
1 2
1 2 2 3 3 1
+
+ +
(C)
( ) J k k k k k k
k k k
1 2 2 3 3 1
1 2 3
+ +
+ +
(D)
( ) J k k
k k k k k k
2 3
1 2 2 3 3 1
+
+ +
SOL 1.10 Option (B) is correct.
Here k
1
& k
2
are in series combination & k
3
is in parallel combination with this
series combination.
So, k
eq

k k
k k
k
1 2
1 2
3
#
=
+
+
k k
k k k k k k
1 2
1 2 2 3 1 3
=
+
+ +
Natural frequency of the torsional oscillation of the disc,
J
k
n
eq
=
Substitute the value of k
eq
, we get

n

( ) J k k
k k k k k k
1 2
1 2 2 3 1 3
=
+
+ +
MCQ 1.11 Maximum shear stress developed on the surface of a solid circular shaft under pure
torsion is 240 MPa. If the shaft diameter is doubled then the maximum shear stress
developed corresponding to the same torque will be
(A) 120 MPa (B) 60 MPa
(C) 30 MPa (D) 15 MPa
SOL 1.11 Option (C) is correct.
Given :
max 1
= 240 MPa =
Let, diameter of solid shaft d d
1
= , And Final diameter d
2
d 2 = (Given)
From the Torsional Formula,

J
T

r

= & T
r
J
#

=
Where, J = polar moment of inertia
Given that torque is same,
So,
r
J
1
1
1 #

r
J
2
2
2 #

=

d
J
2
1
1
1 #

d
J
2
2
2
2 #

= J d
32
4
=

d
d
32
1
1
1
4
#


d
d
32
2
2
2
4
#

=
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d
1 1
3
#
d
2 2
3
#
= &
2

d
d
1
2
3
1
3
#
=
Substitute the values, we get

2

d
d
240
2
3
#
=
b l
240
8
1
#
= 30 MPa =
Alternate method
From the Torsional Formula,

J
T r
= r
d
2
= & J d
32
4
=
So, maximum shear stress,

max

d
T 16
3

= =240 MPa
Given Torque is same & Shaft diameter is doubled then,

max
l
( ) d
T
d
T
2
16
8
16
3 3

= =
8
max

= 30 MPa
8
240
= =
MCQ 1.12 A wire rope is designated as 6 19
#
standard hoisting. The numbers 6 9 1
#

represent
(A) diameter in millimeter
#
length in meter
(B) diameter in centimeter
#
length in meter
(C) number of strands
#
numbers of wires in each strand
(D) number of wires in each strand
#
number of strands
SOL 1.12 Option (C) is correct.
The wire ropes are designated by the number of strands multiplied by the number
of wires in each strand. Therefore,
6 19
#
= Number of strands
#
Number of wires in each strand.
MCQ 1.13 A cylindrical body of cross-sectional area A, height H and density
s
, is immersed
to a depth h in a liquid of density , and tied to the bottom with a string. The
tension in the string is
(A) ghA (B) ( )ghA
s

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(C) ( )ghA
s
(D) ( ) h H gA
s

SOL 1.13 Option (D) is correct.
Given :
Cross section area of body A =
Height of body H =
Density of body
s
=
Density of liquid =
Tension in the string T =
We have to make the FBD of the block.
B = Buoyancy force
From the principal of buoyancy,
Downward force = Buoyancy force m =
T mg + hAg =
T g
s
+ hAg = & A H
#
=
T AHg
s
+ hAg =
T hAg AHg
s
= ( ) Ag h H
s
=
MCQ 1.14 A 2 kW, 40 liters water heater is switched on for 20 minutes. The heat capacity c
p

for water is 4.2 / kJ kgK. Assuming all the electrical energy has gone into heating
the water, increase of the water temperature in degree centigrade is
(A) 2.7 (B) 4.0
(C) 14.3 (D) 25.25
SOL 1.14 Option (C) is correct.
Given : p kW W 2 2 10
3
#
= = , t 20 20 60 min sec utes
#
= = , c
p
4.2 / kJ kgK =
Heat supplied, Q Power Time
#
=
2 10 20 60
3
# # #
= 24 10 Joule
5
#
=
And Specific heat at constant pressure,
Q mc T
p
=
T
. . 40 4 2 1000
24 10
40 4 2
24 100
5
# #
#
#
#
= = 14.3 C c =
MCQ 1.15 An industrial heat pump operates between the temperatures of 27 C c and 13 C c .
The rates of heat addition and heat rejection are 750 W and 1000 W, respectively.
The COP for the heat pump is
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(A) 7.5 (B) 6.5
(C) 4.0 (D) 3.0
SOL 1.15 Option (C) is correct.
Given : T
1
27 C c = (27 273) K = + 300 K = , T
2
13 C c = ( 13 273) K = + 260 K =
Q
1
1000 W = , Q
2
W 750 =
So, ( ) COP
. . H P

Q Q
Q
1
1 2
=
1000 750
1000
=

4 =
Alternate Method
From energy balance
W Q
in 2
+ Q
1
=
W
in
Q Q
1 2
= 1000 750 = 250 W =
And ( ) COP
. . H P

Desired effect
W W
Q
in in
1
= =
250
1000
4 = =
MCQ 1.16 A plate having 10 cm
2
area each side is hanging in the middle of a room of 100 m
2

total surface area. The plate temperature and emissivity are respectively 800 K and
0.6. The temperature and emissivity values for the surfaces of the room are 300 K
and 0.3 respectively. Boltzmanns constant 5.67 10 W/m K
8 2 4

#
=

. The total
heat loss from the two surfaces of the plate is
(A) 13.66 W (B) 27.32 W
(C) 27.87 W (D) 13.66 MW
SOL 1.16 Option (B) is correct.
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Given, for plate :
10 cm A
1
2
= 10 (10 ) 10 m m
2 2 2 3 2
#
= =

, 800 K T
1
= , 0.6
1
=
For Room :
100 m A
2
2
= , 300 K T
2
= , 0.3
2
=
And 5.67 10 / W m K
8 2 4

#
=

Total heat loss from one surface of the plate is given by,
( ) Q
12

( ) ( )
A A F A
E E
1
1
1
b b
1 1
1
1 12 2 2
2
1 2

+ +

If small body is enclosed by a large enclosure, then F 1

12
= and from Stefans
Boltzman law E T
b
4
= . So we get
( ) Q
12

( )
A A A
T T
1 1 1
1 1
1
1 2 2
2
1
4
2
4

+ +

.
.
.
.
. [( ) ( ) ]
10 0 6
1 0 6
10
1
100 0 3
1 0 3
5 67 10 800 300
3 3
8 4 4
#
#
#
=

+ +

. .
.
666 66 1000 0 0233
22 765 10
3
#
=
+ +
13.66 W =
Q
12
is the heat loss by one surface of the plate. So, heat loss from the two surfaces
is given by, Q
net
Q 2
12 #
= . 2 13 66
#
= 27.32 W =
MCQ 1.17 For air with a relative humidity of 80%
(A) the dry bulb temperature is less than the wet bulb temperature
(B) the dew point temperature is less than wet bulb temperature
(C) the dew point and wet bulb temperature are equal
(D) the dry bulb and dew point temperature are equal
SOL 1.17 Option (B) is correct.
We know that for saturated air, the relative humidity is 100% and the dry bulb
temperature, wet bulb temperature and dew point temperature is same. But
when air is not saturated, dew point temperature is always less than the wet bulb
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temperature.
DPT WBT <
MCQ 1.18 For a spark ignition engine, the equivalence ratio ( ) of mixture entering the
combustion chamber has values
(A) 1 < for idling and 1 > for peak power conditions
(B) 1 > for both idling and peak power conditions
(C) 1 > for idling and 1 < for peak power conditions
(D) 1 < for both idling and peak power conditions
SOL 1.18 Option (B) is correct.
Equivalence Ratio or Fuel Air Ratio
A
F
b l

stoichiometric Fuel air Ratio
Actual Fuel Air ratio

=

A
F
A
F
stoichiometric
actual
=
b
b
l
l
If 1 = , & stoichiometric (Chemically correct) Mixture.
If 1 > , & rich mixture.
If 1 < , & lean mixture.
Now, we can see from these three conditions that 1 > , for both idling & peak
power conditions, so rich mixture is necessary.
MCQ 1.19 A diesel engine is usually more efficient than a spark ignition engine because
(A) diesel being a heavier hydrocarbon, releases more heat per kg than gasoline
(B) the air standard efficiency of diesel cycle is higher than the Otto cycle, at a
fixed compression ratio
(C) the compression ratio of a diesel engine is higher than that of an SI engine
(D) self ignition temperature of diesel is higher than that of gasoline
SOL 1.19 Option (C) is correct.
The compression ratio of diesel engine ranges between 14 to 25 where as for S.I,
engine between 6 to 12. Diesel Engine gives more power but efficiency of diesel
engine is less than compare to the S.I. engine for same compression ratio.
MCQ 1.20 In Ranking cycle, regeneration results in higher efficiency because
(A) pressure inside the boiler increases
(B) heat is added before steam enters the low pressure turbine
(C) average temperature of heat addition in the boiler increases
(D) total work delivered by the turbine increases
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SOL 1.20 Option (C) is correct.
Fig : T s

curve of simple Rankine cycle

From the observation of the T s

diagram of the rankine cycle, it reveals that

heat is transferred to the working fluid during process ' 2 2 at a relatively low
temperature. This lowers the average heat addition temperature and thus the cycle
efficiency.
To remove this remedy, we look for the ways to raise the temperature of the liquid
leaving the pump (called the feed water ) before it enters the boiler. One possibility
is to transfer heat to the feed water from the expanding steam in a counter flow
heat exchanger built into the turbine, that is, to use regeneration.
A practical regeneration process in steam power plant is accomplished by extracting
steam from the turbine at various points. This steam is used to heat the feed
water and the device where the feed water is heated by regeneration is called feed
water heater. So, regeneration improves cycle efficiency by increasing the average
temperature of heat addition in the boiler.
MCQ 1.21 Considering the variation of static pressure and absolute velocity in an impulse
steam turbine, across one row of moving blades
(A) both pressure and velocity decreases
(B) pressure decreases but velocity increases
(C) pressure remains constant, while velocity increases
(D) pressure remains constant, while velocity decreases
SOL 1.21 Option (D) is correct.
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Easily shows that the diagram that static pressure remains constant, while velocity
decreases.
MCQ 1.22 During heat treatment of steel, the hardness of various structures in increasing
order is
(A) martensite, fine pearlite, coarse pearlite, spherodite
(B) fine pearlite, Martensite, spherodite, coarse pearlite
(C) martensite, coarse pearlite, fine pearlite, spherodite
(D) spherodite, coarse pearlite, fine pearlite, martensite
SOL 1.22 Option (D) is correct.
Steel can be cooled from the high temperature region at a rate so high that the
austenite does not have sufficient time to decompose into sorbite or troostite. In
this case the austenite is transformed into martensite. Martensite is ferromagnetic,
very hard & brittle.
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So hardness is increasing in the order,
Spherodite " Coarse Pearlite " Fine Pearlite " Martensite
MCQ 1.23 Hardness of green sand mould increases with
(A) increase in moisture content beyond 6 percent
(B) increase in permeability
(C) decrease in permeability
(D) increase in both moisture content and permeability
SOL 1.23 Option (C) is correct.
Permeability or porosity of the moulding sand is the measure of its ability to
permit air to flow through it.
So, hardness of green sand mould increases by restricted the air permitted in the
sand i.e. decrease its permeability.
MCQ 1.24 In Oxyacetylene gas welding, temperature at the inner cone of the flame is around
(A) 3500 C c (B) 3200 C c
(C) 2900 C c (D) 2550 C c
SOL 1.24 Option (B) is correct.
In OAW, Acetylene (C H
2 2
) produces higher temperature (in the range of 3200 C c
)than other gases, (which produce a flame temperature in the range of 2500 C c )
because it contains more available carbon and releases heat when its components
(C & H) dissociate to combine with O
2
and burn.
MCQ 1.25 Cold working of steel is defined as working
(A) at its recrystallisation temperature
(B) above its recrystallisation temperature
(C) below its recrystallisation temperature
(D) at two thirds of the melting temperature of the metal
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SOL 1.25 Option (C) is correct.
Cold forming or cold working can be defined as the plastic deforming of metals and
alloys under conditions of temperature and strain rate.
Theoretically, the working temperature for cold working is below the recrystallization
temperature of the metal/alloy (which is about one-half the absolute melting
temperature.)
MCQ 1.26 Quality screw threads are produced by
(A) thread milling
(B) thread chasing
(C) thread cutting with single point tool
(D) thread casting
SOL 1.26 Option (D) is correct.
Quality screw threads are produced by only thread casting.
Quality screw threads are made by die-casting and permanent mould casting are
very accurate and of high finish, if properly made.
MCQ 1.27 As tool and work are not in contact in EDM process
(A) no relative motion occurs between them
(B) no wear of tool occurs
(C) no power is consumed during metal cutting
(D) no force between tool and work occurs
SOL 1.27 Option (D) is correct.
In EDM, the thermal energy is employed to melt and vaporize tiny particles of
work-material by concentrating the heat energy on a small area of the work-piece.
A powerful spark, such as at the terminals of an automobile battery, will cause
pitting or erosion of the metal at both anode & cathode. No force occurs between
tool & work.
MCQ 1.28 The dimensional limits on a shaft of h 25 7 are
(A) 25.000, 25.021 mm (B) 25.000, 24.979 mm
(C) 25.000, 25.007 mm (D) 25.000, 24.993 mm
SOL 1.28 Option (B) is correct.
Since 25 mm lies in the diameter step 18 & 30 mm, therefore the geometric mean
diameter,
D 18 30
#
= 23.24 mm =
We know that standard tolerance unit,
i (microns) 0.45 0.001 D D
3
= +
i . . . . 0 45 23 24 0 001 23 24
3
#
= + . 1 31 = microns
Standard tolerance for hole h of grade ( ) IT 7 7 ,
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IT7 i 16 = . 16 1 31
#
= . 20 96 = microns
Hence, lower limit for shaft = Upper limit of shaft Tolerance
25 20.96 10 mm
3
#
=

24.979 mm =
MCQ 1.29 When a cylinder is located in a Vee-block, the number of degrees of freedom which
are arrested is
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 7 (D) 8
SOL 1.29 Option (B) is correct.
We clearly see from the figure that cylinder can either revolve about x -axis or slide
along x -axis & all the motions are restricted.
Hence, Number of degrees of freedom 2 = & movability includes the six degrees of
freedom of the device as a whole, as the ground link were not fixed. So, 4 degrees
of freedom are constrained or arrested.
MCQ 1.30 The symbol used for Transport in work study is
(A) & (B) T
(C) > (D) 4
SOL 1.30 Option (A) is correct.
The symbol used for transport in work study is given by, &
MCQ 1.31 Consider the system of simultaneous equations
2 x y z + + 6 =
2 2 x y z + + 6 =
x y z + + 5 =
This system has
(A) unique solution (B) infinite number of solutions
(C) no solution (D) exactly two solutions
SOL 1.31 Option (C) is correct.
Given : x y z 2 + + 6 =
x y z 2 2 + + 6 =
x y z + + 5 =
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Comparing to Ax B = ,we get
A
2 1 1
2
1
1
1
2
1
=
R
T
S
S
S
S
V
X
W
W
W
W
, B
6
6
5
=
R
T
S
S
S
S
V
X
W
W
W
W
Write the system of simultaneous equations in the form of Augmented matrix,
: A B
6 @

2 1 :
:
:
6 1
2
1
1
1
2
1
6
5
=
R
T
S
S
S
S
V
X
W
W
W
W
Applying R R R 2
2 2 1
" and R R R 2
3 3 2
"

:
:
:
6 1
0
0
2
3
1
1
0
0
6
4
=
R
T
S
S
S
S
V
X
W
W
W
W
Applying R R R 3
3 3 2
" +

1 :
:
:
6 1
0
0
2
3
0
0
0
6
6
=
R
T
S
S
S
S
V
X
W
W
W
W
It is a echelon form of matrix.
Since A 2 = 6 @ and : 3 A B = 5 ?
[ ] A [ : ] A B !
So, the system has no solution and system is inconsistent.
MCQ 1.32 The area enclosed between the parabola y x
2
= and the straight line y x = is
(A) 1/8 (B) 1/6
(C) 1/3 (D) 1/2
SOL 1.32 Option (B) is correct.
Given : y x
2
= & y x = .
The shaded area is show the area, which is bounded by the both curves (common
area)
On solving given equation, we get the intersection points as,
y x
2
= put y x =
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x x
2
=
x x
2
0 =
( ) x x 1 0 =
x , 0 1 =
Then from y x =
For x 0 & = y 0 =
& x 1 & = y 1 =
We can see that curve y x
2
= and y x = intersects at point ( , ) 0 0 and ( , ) 1 1
So, the area bounded by both the curves is
A dydx
y x
y x
x
x
0
1
2
=
=
=
=
=
# #
dx dy
x
x
y x
y x
0
1
2
=
=
=
=
=
# #
dx y
x
x
x
x
0
1
2
=
=
=
6 @ #
After substituting the limit, we have
( ) x x
x
x
2
0
1
=
=
=
#
Integrating the equation, we get

x x
3 2
3 2
0
1
=
: D
3
1
2
1
6
1
= =
unit
6
1 2
= Area is never negative
MCQ 1.33 The solution of the differential equation 0
dx
dy
y
2
+ = is
(A) y
x c
1
=
+
(B) y
x
c
3
3
=

+
(C) ce
x
(D) unsolvable as equation is non-linear
SOL 1.33 Option (A) is correct.

dx
dy
y
2
+ 0 =

dx
dy
y
2
=

y
dy
2
dx =
Integrating both the sides, we have

y
dy
2
# dx = #
y
1
x c = +

y
1
x c = + y
x c
1
& =
+
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MCQ 1.34 The vector field is x y F i j = (where i and j are unit vector) is
(A) divergence free, but not irrotational
(B) irrotational, but not divergence free
(C) divergence free and irrotational
(D) neither divergence free nor irrational
SOL 1.34 Option (C) is correct.
Given : F x y i j =
First Check divergency, for divergence,
Grade F F 4: =

x y z
x y i j k i j :
2
2
2
2
2
2
= + +
; 6 E @
1 1 0 = =
So we can say that F is divergence free.
Now we checking the irrationality. For irritation the curl 0 F =
Curl F F 4
#
=
[ ]
x y z
x y i j k i j
2
2
2
2
2
2
#
= + +
; E

x
x
y
y
z
i j k
0
2
2
2
2
2
2
=

R
T
S
S
S
S
S
V
X
W
W
W
W
W
[0 0] [0 0] [0 0] i j k = + 0 =
So, vector field is irrotational. We can say that the vector field is divergence free
and irrotational.
MCQ 1.35 Laplace transform of the function sin t is
(A)
s
s
2 2
+
(B)
s
2 2

+
(C)
s
s
2 2

(D)
s
2 2

SOL 1.35 Option (B) is correct.

Let ( ) f t sin t =
From the definition of Laplace transformation
[ ( )] F t L ( ) e f t dt
st
0
=
3

# sin e tdt
st
0
=
3

#
e
i
e e
dt
2
st
i t i t
0
=

3

b l # sin t
i
e e
2
i t i t
=


( )
i
e e e e dt
2
1 st i t st i t
0
=
3

#
i
e e dt
2
1 ( ) ( ) s i t s i t
0
=
3
+ +
6 @ #
On integrating above equation, we get

( ) i s i
e
s i
e
2
1
( ) ( ) s i t s i t
0

=
+

+
3
+ +
= G

( ) i s i
e
s i
e
2
1
( ) ( ) s i t s i t
0

=
+
+
+
3
+ +
= G
Substitute the limits, we get
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( ) i s i
e
s i
e
2
1
0 0
0 0

= +
+
+
+

e o = G

( )( ) i s i s i
s i i s
2
1


=
+ +
+ +
; E

( )
i
i s
i
s
2
1 2
2 2 2 2

#
=

s
2 2

=
+
Alternate :
From the definition of Laplace transformation
[ ( )] F t L sin e tdt
st
0
=
3

#
We know sin e btdt
at
# sin cos
a b
e
a bt b bt
at
2 2
=
+

6 @

and a s
b
=
=
e o
Then, [ ] sin t L sin cos
s
e
s t t
st
2 2
0

=
+

3
^ h ; E
( ) ( ) sin cos sin cos
s
e
s
s
e
s 0 0
2 2 2 2
0
3 3

=
+

+

3
; ; E E
[0 ] ( )
s s
0
1 1
2 2 2 2

=
+
=
+

[ ] sin t L
s
2 2

=
+
MCQ 1.36 A box contains 5 black and 5 red balls. Two balls are randomly picked one after
another form the box, without replacement. The probability for balls being red is
(A) 1/90 (B) 1/2
(C) 19/90 (D) 2/9
SOL 1.36 Option (D) is correct.
Given : black balls = 5, Red balls = 5, Total balls=10
Here, two balls are picked from the box randomly one after the other without
replacement. So the probability of both the balls are red is
P
C
C C
10
2
5
0
5
2 #
= C
r n r
n
n
r
=

! !
10!
! !
!
! !
!
3 2
0 5
5
3 2
5
#
#
=
45
1 10
45
10
9
2
#
= = =
Alternate method
Given : Black balls 5 = ,
Red balls 5 =
Total balls 10 =
The probability of drawing a red bell,
P
1

10
5
2
1
= =
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Ball is not replaced, then box contains 9 balls.
So, probability of drawing the next red ball from the box.
P
2

9
4
=
Hence, probability for both the balls being red is,
P P P
1 2 #
=
P
2
1
9
4
9
2
#
= =
MCQ 1.37 A truss consists of horizontal members (AC,CD, DB and EF) and vertical members
(CE and DF) having length l each. The members AE, DE and BF are inclined at
45c to the horizontal. For the uniformly distributed load p per unit length on the
member EF of the truss shown in figure given below, the force in the member CD is
(A)
pl
2
(B) pl
(C) 0 (D)
pl
3
2
SOL 1.37 Option (A) is correct.
Given : AC CD DB EF CE DF l = = = = = =
At the member EF uniform distributed load is acting, the U.D.L. is given as p
per unit length.
So, the total load acting on the element EF of length l
= Lord per unit length
#
Total length of element
p l pl
#
= =
This force acting at the mid point of EF.
We made the FBD of the object. At A & B reactions are acting because of the
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roller supports, in the upward direction.
In equilibrium condition,
Upward force = Downward forces
R R
a b
+ pl = ...(i)
And take the moment about point A,
pl l
l
2
#
+
b l
( ) R l l l
b
= + +
pl l
2
3
#
R l 3
b #
= & R
b
pl
2
=
Substitute the value of R
b
in equation (i), we get
R
pl
2
a
+ pl =
R
a
pl
pl pl
2 2
= =
So, R
a
R
pl
2
b
= =
At point A we use the principal of resolution of forces in the y-direction, F 0
y
= /
sin F 45
AE
c R
pl
2
a
= =
F
AE

sin
pl pl pl
2 45
1
2
2
2
c
# #
= = =
And F
AC
45 cos F
pl pl
2 2
1
2
AE
c
#
= = =
At C, No external force is acting. So,
F
AC

pl
F
2
CD
= =
MCQ 1.38 A bullet of mass m travels at a very high velocity v (as shown in the figure) and
gets embedded inside the block of mass M initially at rest on a rough horizontal
floor. The block with the bullet is seen to move a distance s along the floor.
Assuming to be the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the floor
and g the acceleration due to gravity what is the velocity v of the bullet ?
(A)
m
M m
gs 2
+
(B)
m
M m
gs 2

(C)
( )
m
M m
gs 2

+
(D)
m
M
gs 2
SOL 1.38 Option (A) is correct.
Given : Mass of bullet m =
Mass of block M =
Velocity of bullet v =
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Coefficient of Kinematic friction =
Let, Velocity of system (Block + bullet) after striking the bullet u =
We have to make the FBD of the box after the bullet strikes,
Friction Force (Retardation) F
r
=
By Applying principal of conservation of linear momentum,
dt
dP
0 = or P mV =
. tan cons t =
So, mv ( ) M m u = +
u
M m
mv
=
+
...(i)
And, from the FBD the vertical force (reaction force),
R
N
( ) M m g = +
F
r
( ) R M m g
N
= = +
Frictional retardation a
( )
( )
m M
F
M m
M m g
r

=
+

=
+
+
g = ...(ii)
Negative sign show the retardation of the system (acceleration in opposite direction).
From the Newtons third law of motion,
V
f
2
2 u as
2
= +
V
f
= Final velocity of system (block + bullet) = 0
2 u as
2
+ 0 =
u
2
as 2 =
u
2
( ) g s 2
# #
= gs 2 = From equation (ii)
Substitute the value of u from equation (i), we get

M m
mv
2
+
a k
gs 2 =

( ) M m
m v
2
2 2
+
gs 2 =
v
2

( )
m
gs M m 2
2
2

=
+
v gs
m
M m
2
#
=
+
b l
m
M m
gs 2 =
+
MCQ 1.39 A simply supported laterally loaded beam was found to deflect more than a specified
value. Which of the following measures will reduce the deflection ?
(A) Increase the area moment of inertia
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(B) Increase the span of the beam
(C) Select a different material having lesser modulus of elasticity
(D) Magnitude of the load to be increased
SOL 1.39 Option (A) is correct.
We know, differential equation of flexure for the beam is,
EI
dx
d y
2
2
M = &
dx
d y
2
2
EI
M
=
Integrating both sides,

dx
dy

EI
Mdx
1
= #
EI
Mx c
1
1
= +
Again integrating,
y
EI
Mx
c x c
1
2
2
1 2
= + +
b l
...(i)
Where, y gives the deflection at the given point.
It is easily shown from the equation (i), If we increase the value of E & I , then
deflection reduces.
MCQ 1.40 A shaft subjected to torsion experiences a pure shear stress on the surface. The
maximum principal stress on the surface which is at 45c to the axis will have a
value
(A) 45 cos c (B) 2 45 cos c
(C) 45 cos
2
c (D) 2 45 45 sin cos c c
SOL 1.40 Option (D) is correct.
Given figure shows stresses on an element subjected to pure shear.
Let consider a element to which shear stress have been applied to the sides AB
and DC.
Complementary stress of equal value but of opposite effect are then setup on
sides AD and BC in order to prevent rotation of the element. So, applied and
complementary shears are represented by symbol
xy
.
Consider the equilibrium of portion PBC. Resolving normal to PC assuming unit
depth.
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PC
#

sin cos BC PB
xy xy # #
= +
cos sin cos PC PC
xy xy # #
= +
( ) sin cos PC 2
xy #
=

sin cos 2
xy
=
The maximum value of

is
xy
when 45c = .

sin cos 2 45 45 c c = Given ( )

xy
=
MCQ 1.41 For a certain engine having an average speed of 1200 rpm, a flywheel approximated
as a solid disc, is required for keeping the fluctuation of speed within 2% about the
average speed. The fluctuation of kinetic energy per cycle is found to be 2 kJ. What
is the least possible mass of the flywheel if its diameter is not to exceed 1 m ?
(A) 40 kg (B) 51 kg
(C) 62 kg (D) 73 kg
SOL 1.41 Option (B) is correct.
Given N 1200 rpm = , E 2 2000 kJ J = = , D 1 m = , C
s
. 0 02 =
Mean angular speed of engine,

N
60
2
=

.
60
2 3 14 1200
# #
=
125.66 /sec rad =
Fluctuation of energy of the flywheel is given by,
E I C
s
2
= mR C
2
1
s
2 2
= For solid disc I
mR
2
2
=
m
R C
E 2
s
2 2

= ...(i)
Substitute the values in equation (i),

( . ) .
2
1
125 66 0 02
2 2000
2
2
# #
#
=
b l

( . ) . 125 66 0 02
4 2 2000
2
#
# #
= 50.66 51 kg kg - =
MCQ 1.42 A flexible rotor-shaft system comprises of a 10 kg rotor disc placed in the middle
of a mass-less shaft of diameter 30 mm and length 500 mm between bearings
(shaft is being taken mass-less as the equivalent mass of the shaft is included in
the rotor mass) mounted at the ends. The bearings are assumed to simulate simply
supported boundary conditions. The shaft is made of steel for which the value of E
2.1 10
11
#
Pa. What is the critical speed of rotation of the shaft ?
(A) 60 Hz (B) 90 Hz
(C) 135 Hz (D) 180 Hz
SOL 1.42 Option (B) is correct.
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Given m 10 kg = , d 30 0.03 mm m = = , l 500 0.5 mm m = = , E
shaft
2.1 10 Pa
11
#
=
We know that, static deflection due to 10 kg of Mass at the centre is given by,

EI
Wl
48
3
=
EI
mgl
48
3
= ...(i)
The moment of inertia of the shaft,
I d
64
4
= ( . )
64
0 03
4
= 3.974 10 m
4 8
#
=

...(ii)
Substitute values in equation (i), we get

. .
. ( . )
48 2 1 10 3 974 10
10 9 81 0 5
11 8
3
# # # #
# #
=


.
.
400 58 10
12 2625
3
#
= 3.06 10 m
5
#
=

If
c
is the critical or whirling speed in r.p.s. then,

c

g

= & f 2
c

=
f
c

g
2
1

=
.
.
.
2 3 14
1
3 06 10
9 81
5
#
#
=


.
.
.
6 28
1
30 6 10
9 81
6
#
=

90. 90 Hz Hz 16 - =
MCQ 1.43 Square key of side /4 d each and length l is used to transmit torque T from
the shaft of diameter d to the hub of a pulley. Assuming the length of the key
to be equal to the thickness of pulley, the average shear stress developed in the key
is given by
(A)
ld
T 4
(B)
ld
T 16
2
(C)
ld
T 8
2
(D)
d
T 16
3

SOL 1.43 Option (C) is correct.

Given : Diameter of shaft d =
Torque transmitted T =
Length of the key l =
We know that, width and thickness of a square key are equal.
i.e. w t
d
4
= =
Force acting on circumference of shaft
F
r
T
d
T 2
= = ( / ) r d 2 =
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Shearing Area, A = width
#
length
d
l
4
#
=
dl
4
=
Average shear stress,
shearing Area
Force
=
/
/
dl
T d
4
2
=
ld
T 8
2
=
MCQ 1.44 In a band brake the ratio of tight side band tension to the tension on the slack side
is 3. If the angle of overlap of band on the drum is 180c, the coefficient of friction
required between drum and the band is
(A) 0.20 (B) 0.25
(C) 0.30 (D) 0.35
SOL 1.44 Option (D) is correct.
Let, T
1
" Tension in the tight side of the band,
T
2
" Tension in the slack side of the band
"Angle of lap of the band on the drum
Given :
T
T
2
1
3 = , 180
180
180
#
c

= = = radian
For band brake, the limiting ratio of the tension is given by the relation,

T
T
1
2
e =

or . log
T
T
2 3
2
1
=
b l
2. (3) log 3
#

#
=
. . 2 3 0 4771
#
. 3 14
#
=

.
.
3 14
1 09733
= . 0 349 = . 0 35 -
MCQ 1.45 A water container is kept on a weighing balance. Water from a tap is falling
vertically into the container with a volume flow rate of Q; the velocity of the water
when it hits the water surface is U. At a particular instant of time the total mass
of the container and water is m. The force registered by the weighing balance at
this instant of time is
(A) mg QU + (B) 2 mg QU +
(C) /2 mg QU
2
+ (D) /2 QU
2

SOL 1.45 Option (A) is correct.

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Given : Flow rate Q =
Velocity of water when it strikes the water surface U =
Total Mass (container + water) m =
Force on weighing balance due to water strike = Change in momentum
P =Initial Momentum Final momentum
(0) QU Q QU = = Final velocity is zero
Weighing balance also experience the weight of the container & water.
So, Weight of container & water mg =
Therefore, total force on weighing Balance QU mg = +
MCQ 1.46 In a counter flow heat exchanger, for the hot fluid the heat capacity 2 kJ/kgK = ,
mass flow rate 5 kg/s = , inlet temperature 150 C c = , outlet temperature 100 C c =
. For the cold fluid, heat capacity 4 kJ/kgK = , mass flow rate 10 kg/s = , inlet
temperature 20 C c = . Neglecting heat transfer to the surroundings, the outlet
temperature of the cold fluid in C c is
(A) 7.5 (B) 32.5
(C) 45.5 (D) 70.0
SOL 1.46 Option (B) is correct.
In counter flow, hot fluid enters at the point 1 & exits at the point 2 or cold fluid
enter at the point 2 & exit at the point 1.
Given : for hot fluid,
c
h
2 / kJ kg K = , m
h
o
5 /sec kg = , t
h1
150 C c = , t
h2
100 C c =
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and for cold fluid,
c
c
4 / kJ kg K = , m
c
o
10 /sec kg = , t
c2
20 C c = , t
c1
? =
From the energy balance,
Heat transferred by the hot fluid = Heat gain by the cold fluid
( ) m c t t
h h h h 1 2

o
( ) m c t t
c c c c 1 2
=
o
( ) 5 2 10 150 100
3
# #
( ) t 10 4 10 20
c
3
1 # #
=
10 50
4
#
( ) t 4 10 20
c
4
1 #
=
t
c1
32.5 C
4
130
c = =
Hence, outlet temperature of the cold fluid,
t
c1
32.5 C c =
MCQ 1.47 Air flows through a venturi and into atmosphere. Air density is ; atmospheric
pressure is p
a
; throat diameter is ; D
t
exit diameter is D and exit velocity is U.
The throat is connected to a cylinder containing a frictionless piston attached to
a spring. The spring constant is k . The bottom surface of the piston is exposed
to atmosphere. Due to the flow, the piston moves by distance x . Assuming
incompressible frictionless flow, x is
(A) ( /2 ) U k D
s
2 2
(B) ( /8 ) U k
D
D
D 1
t
s
2
2
2
2

c m
(C) ( /2 ) U k
D
D
D 1
t
s
2
2
2
2

c m
(D) ( /8 ) U k
D
D
D 1
t
s
2
4
4
2

c m
SOL 1.47 Option (D) is correct.
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First of all we have to take two section (1) & (2)
By applying Bernoullis equation at section (1) & (2).

g
p
g
V
z
2
1 1
2
1

+ +
g
p
g
V
z
2
2 2
2
2

= + +

p V
2
1 1
2

+
p V
2
2 2
2

= + z z
1 2
=
p p
1 2
( ) V V
2
2
2
1
2

= ...(i)
Apply continuity equation, we get
A V
1 1
A V
2 2
=
D V
4
t
2
1

D U
4
2
= V U
2
= . Let at point (1) velocity = V
1
V
1

D
D
U
t
2
#
=
b l
...(ii)
Substitute the value of V
1
from equation (ii) into the equation (i),
p p
1 2
U
D
D
U
2
t
2
4
2

=
b l ; E
U
D
D
2
1
t
2
4

=
b l ; E
...(iii)
From the figure, we have
Spring force = Pressure force due to air
kx ( ) A p p
s 1 2
= ( ) D p p
4
s
2
1 2

#
=
D U
D
D
4 2
1
s
t
2 2
4
#

=
b l ; E
From equation (iii)
kx D U
D
D
8
1
s
t
2 2
4

=
b l ; E
x
k
U
D
D
D
8
1
t
s
2
4
2

=
b l ; E
MCQ 1.48 Consider a laminar boundary layer over a heated flat plate. The free stream
velocity is U
3
. At some distance x from the leading edge the velocity boundary
layer thickness is
v
and the thermal boundary layer thickness is
T
. If the Prandtl
number is greater than 1, then
(A) >
v T
(B) >
T v

(C) ( ) U x
/
v T
1 2
. +
3

(D) x
/
v T
1 2
. +

SOL 1.48 Option (A) is correct.
The non-dimensional Prandtl Number for thermal boundary layer is given by,

T
v

( ) Pr
/ 1 3
=
(i) When Pr 1
v
=
T
=
(ii) When Pr 1 >
v
>
T

(iii) When Pr 1 <

v
<
T

So for Pr 1 > , >

v T

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MCQ 1.49 Considering the relationship Tds dU pd = + between the entropy ( ) s , internal
energy ( ) U , pressure ( ) p , temperature ( ) T and volume ( ) , which of the following
statements is correct ?
(A) It is applicable only for a reversible process
(B) For an irreversible process, Tds dU pd > +
(C) It is valid only for an ideal gas
(D) It is equivalent to I
st
law, for a reversible process
SOL 1.49 Option (D) is correct.
The Tds equation considering a pure, compressible system undergoing an internally
reversible process.
From the first law of thermodynamics
( ) Q
. rev
( ) dU W
rev
= + ...(i)]
By definition of simple compressible system, the work is
( ) W
rev
pd =
And entropy changes in the form of
ds
T
Q
rev

=
b l
( ) Q
rev
Tds =
From equation (i), we get
Tds dU pd = +
This equation is equivalent to the I
st
law, for a reversible process.
MCQ 1.50 In a gas turbine, hot combustion products with the specific heats 0.98 / , kJ kgK c
p
=
and 0.7538 / kJ kgK c
v
= enters the turbine at 20 bar, 1500 K exit at 1 bar. The
isentropic efficiency of the turbine is 0.94. The work developed by the turbine per
kg of gas flow is
(A) 689.64 kJ/kg (B) 794.66 kJ/kg
(C) 1009.72 kJ/kg (D) 1312.00 kJ/kg
SOL 1.50 Option (A) is correct.
Given : c
p
0.98 / kJ kgK = , 0.94
isen
= , c
v
0.7538 / kJ kgK = , T
3
1500 K =
20 20 10 / bar N m p
3
5 2
#
= = , 1 1 10 / bar N m p
4
5 2
#
= =
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.
.
.
c
c
0 7538
0 98
1 3
v
p
= = =
Apply general Equation for the reversible adiabatic process between point 3 and 4
in T s

diagram,

T
T
4
3
b l

p
p
4
3
1
=

b l

T
1500
4

1 10
20 10
.
.
5
5
1 3
1 3 1
#
#
=

c m
( ) 20 .
.
1 3
0 3
=
T
4

( )
751.37 K
20
1500
.
0.3
1 3
= =
And
isentropic

Ideal output
Actual output
=
T T
T T
3 4
3 4
=

l
0.94
.
T
1500 751 37
1500
4
=

l
. . 0 94 748 63
#
T 1500
4
= l
T
4
l . 1500 703 71 = 796.3 K =
Turbine work, W
t
( ) c T T
p 3 4
= l
. ( . ) 0 98 1500 796 3 = 698.64 / kJ kg =
MCQ 1.51 An automobile engine operates at a fuel air ratio of 0.05, volumetric efficiency of
% 90 and indicated thermal efficiency of % 30 . Given that the calorific value of the
fuel is 45 / MJ kg and the density of air at intake is 1 / kg m
3
, the indicated mean
effective pressure for the engine is
(A) 6.075 bar (B) 6.75 bar
(C) 67.5 bar (D) 243 bar
SOL 1.51 Option (A) is correct.
Given : 0.05
A
F
m
m
a
f
= = = ,
v
% . 90 0 90 = = ,
ith
30% 0.3 = =
45 / MJ kg CV
fuel
= , 1 / kg m
air
3
=
We know that, volumetric efficiency is given by,

v

Swept Volume
Actual Volume
s
ac

= =

ac

v s
= . V 0 90
s
= ...(i)
Mass of air, m
a

air ac

#
= 1 0.9 0.9
s s

#
= =
m
f
. m 0 05
a #
= 0.045
s
=

ith

. .
m CV
I P
m CV
p LAN
f f
im
# #
= = . . I P p LAN
im
=
p
im

LAN
m CV
ith f # #

= LAN
s
=

. . 0 30 0 045 45 10
s
s
6
# # # #

. 0 6075 10
6
#
=
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6.075 10 Pa
5
#
= 6.075 bar = 1 bar 10 Pa
5
=
MCQ 1.52 For an engine operating on air standard Otto cycle, the clearance volume is % 10
of the swept volume. The specific heat ratio of air is 1.4. The air standard cycle
efficiency is
(A) . % 38 3 (B) . % 39 8
(C) . % 60 2 (D) . % 61 7
SOL 1.52 Option (D) is correct.
Given:
c
% 10 = of 0.1
s s
=

c
s

. 0 1
1
10 = =
And specific heat ratio / 1.4 c c
p v
= =
We know compression ratio,
r 1
c
T
c
c s
c
s

= =
+
= +
1 10 11 = + =
Efficiency of Otto cycle,

Otto
1
( ) r
1
1
=


( )
1
11
1
. 1 4 1
=


( )
1
11
1
. 0 4
= 1 0.3 . . % 832 0 6168 61 7 - = =
MCQ 1.53 A centrifugal pump running at 500 rpm and at its maximum efficiency is delivering
a head of 30 m at a flow rate of 60 litres per minute. If the rpm is changed to
1000, then the head H in metres and flow rate Q in litres per minute at maximum
efficiency are estimated to be
(A) 60, 120 H Q = = (B) 120, 120 H Q = =
(C) 60, 480 H Q = = (D) 120, 30 H Q = =
SOL 1.53 Option (B) is correct.
Given : N
1
500 rpm = , H
1
30 meter = , N
2
1000 rpm = , Q
1
60 = litres per minute
From the general relation,
U
DN
gH
60
2

= =
DN H \ & N
D
H
\
Centrifugal pump is used for both the cases. So D D
1 2
=
N H \

H
H
2
1

N
N
2
2
1
2
=
H
2

N
N
1
2
2
2
1 #
=
( )
( )
500
1000
30
2
2
#
= 120 m =
The specific speed will be constant for centrifugal pump & relation is given by,
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N
s

H
N Q
/ 3 4
= = Constant
So,
H
N Q
/
1
3 4
1 1

H
N Q
/
2
3 4
2 2
= For both cases
Q
2

N
N
H
H
Q
/
2
1
1
2
3 4
1 # #
=
b l
1000
500
30
120
60
/ 3 4
# #
=
b l
( )
2
1
2 60
/ 3 2
# #
=
Squaring both sides
Q
2
8 60 120 /min litre
4
1
# #
= =
Alternate :
From unit quantities
Unit speed
N
u

H
N
H
N
1
1
2
2
= =

H
N
H
N
1
1
2
2
=
H
2

N
N H
1
2 1
=
or H
2

( )
( )
N
N H
500
1000 30
1
2
2
2
1
2
2
#
#
= =
H
2
120 m =
Unit discharge
Q
u

H
Q
H
Q
1
1
2
2
= =

H
Q
1
1

H
Q
2
2
=
or Q
2

H
Q H
30
60 120
1
1 2 #
= =
Q
2
120 /min litre =
MCQ 1.54 Hardness of steel greatly improves with
(A) annealing (B) cyaniding
(C) normalizing (D) tempering
SOL 1.54 Option (B) is correct.
Hardness is greatly depend on the carbon content present in the steel.
Cyaniding is case-hardening with powered potassium cyanide or potassium
ferrocyanide mixed with potassium bichromate, substituted for carbon. Cyaniding
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produces a thin but very hard case in a very short time.
MCQ 1.55 With a solidification factor of 0.97 10 s/m
6 2
#
, the solidification time (in seconds)
for a spherical casting of 200 mm diameter is
(A) 539 (B) 1078
(C) 4311 (D) 3233
SOL 1.55 Option (B) is correct.
Given : 0.97 10 / s m q
6 2
#
= , 200 mm D = 0.2 m =
From the caines relation solidification time, T q
A
V
2
=
b l
Volume V R
3
4 3
=
Surface Area A R 4
2
=
So, T 0.97 10
R
R
4
3
4
6
2
3
2

#
=
f p
.
R
0 97 10
3
6
2
#
=
b l

0.97 .
9
10
2
0 2 6
2
#
=
b l
sec 1078 =
MCQ 1.56 A shell of 100 mm diameter and 100 mm height with the corner radius of 0.4 mm
is to be produced by cup drawing. The required blank diameter is
(A) 118 mm (B) 161 mm
(C) 224 mm (D) 312 mm
SOL 1.56 Option (C) is correct.
Given : d 100 mm = , h 100 mm = , 0.4 mm R =
Here we see that 20 d r >
If d r 20 $ , blank diameter in cup drawing is given by,
D d dh 4
2
= +
Where, D = diameter of flat blank
d = diameter of finished shell
h = height of finished shell
Substitute the values, we get
D ( ) 100 4 100 100
2
# #
= + 50000 =
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223.61 mm = 224 mm -
MCQ 1.57 A brass billet is to be extruded from its initial diameter of 100 mm to a final
diameter of 50 mm. The working temperature of 700 C c and the extrusion constant
is 250 MPa. The force required for extrusion is
(A) 5.44 MN (B) 2.72 MN
(C) 1.36 MN (D) 0.36 MN
SOL 1.57 Option (B) is correct.
Given : d
i
100 mm = , d
f
50 mm = , T 700 C c = , k 250 MPa =
Extrusion force is given by,
F
e
ln kA
A
A
i
f
i
=
c m
ln k d
d
d
4
4
4
i
f
i
2
2
2

=
f p
ln k d
d
d
4
i
f
i 2
2

=
c m
Substitute the values, we get
F
e
( . )
.
.
ln 250
4
0 1
0 05
0 1 2
2
#

=
b l
. ln 1 96 4 = 2.717 MN = 2.72 MN -
MCQ 1.58 A metal disc of 20 mm diameter is to be punched from a sheet of 2 mm thickness.
The punch and the die clearance is 3%. The required punch diameter is
(A) 19.88 mm (B) 19.84 mm
(C) 20.06 mm (D) 20.12 mm
SOL 1.58 Option (A) is correct.
Given : 20 mm D = , 2 mm t = , Punch or diameter clearance % 3 =
Required punch diameter will be,
d 2 (3% ) of thickness D
#
=
20 2
100
3
2
# #
= 19.88 mm =
MCQ 1.59 A batch of 10 cutting tools could produce 500 components while working at 50 rpm
with a tool feed of 0.25 / mm rev and depth of cut of 1mm. A similar batch of 10
tools of the same specification could produce 122 components while working at
80 rpm with a feed of 0.25 / mm rev and 1 mm depth of cut. How many components
can be produced with one cutting tool at 60 rpm ?
(A) 29 (B) 31
(C) 37 (D) 42
SOL 1.59 Option (A) is correct.
Given : For case (I) :
50 rpm N = , 0.25 / . mm rev f = , 1 mm d =
Number of cutting tools 10 =
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Number of components produce 500 =
So, Velocity V
1
N f
#
= 50 0.25
#
= 12.5 / . min mm =
For case (II) :
80 rpm N = , 0.25 / . mm rev f = , 1 mm d =
Number of cutting tools, 10 =
Number of components produce 122 =
So, Velocity V
2
N f
#
= 80 0.25
#
= 20 /min mm =
From the tool life equation between cutting speed & tool life, VT C
n
= ,
V T
n
1 1
V T
n
2 2
= where C = constant ...(i)
Tool life tan Number of components produce Tool cons t
#
=
For case (I), T
1
500k = k = tool constant
For case (II), T
2
122k =
From equation (i),
12.5 (500 ) k
n
#
20 (122 ) k
n
#
=

k
k
122
500
n
b l

.
.
12 5
20
1 6 = =
Taking log both the sides,
ln n
122
500
b l
( . ) ln 1 6 =
( . ) n 1 41 . 0 47 =
n . 0 333 =
Let the number of components produced be n
1
by one cutting tool at 60 r.p.m. So,
Tool life, T
3
n k
1
=
Velocity, V
3
60 0.25
#
= 15 /min mm = feed remains same
Now, tool life T
1
if only 1 component is used,

1
Tl
k
10
500
=
So,
n
1
) ( V T
1
l ( ) V T
n
3 3
=
Substitute the values, we get
V
k
10
500
n
1 b l
( ) n k 15
n
1
=

n k
k 50
n
1
b l

. 12 5
15
=

n
50
1
( . ) 1 2
/ . 1 0 333
= . 1 73 =
n
1

.
.
1 73
50
28 90 = = 29 -
MCQ 1.60 A thread nut of M16 ISO metric type, having 2 mm pitch with a pitch diameter
of 14.701 mm is to be checked for its pitch diameter using two or three number of
balls or rollers of the following sizes
(A) Rollers of 2 mm (B) Rollers of 1.155 mm
(C) Balls of 2 mm (D) Balls of 1.155 mm
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SOL 1.60 Option (B) is correct.
Given : p 2 mm = , d 14.701 mm =
We know that, in case of ISO metric type threads,
2 60c = & 30c =
And in case of threads, always rollers are used.
For best size of rollers, d sec
p
2
=
d sec
2
2
30c = 1.155 mm =
Hence, rollers of 1.155 mm diameter (1.155 ) is used.
MCQ 1.61 Two slip gauges of 10 mm width measuring 1.000 mm and 1.002 mm are kept side
by side in contact with each other lengthwise. An optical flat is kept resting on the
slip gauges as shown in the figure. Monochromatic light of wavelength 0.0058928
mm is used in the inspection. The total number of straight fringes that can be
observed on both slip gauges is
(A) 2 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 13
SOL 1.61 Option (D) is correct.
The total number of straight fringes that can be observed on both slip gauges is 13.
MCQ 1.62 A part shown in the figure is machined to the sizes given below
P 35.00 0.08 ! = mm, Q 12.00 0.02 ! = mm, R 13.00
.
.
0 02
0 04
=

+
mm
With 100% confidence, the resultant dimension W will have the specification
(A) 9.99 ! 0.03 mm (B) 9.99 ! 0.13 mm
(C) 10.00 ! 0.03 mm (D) 10.00 ! 0.13 mm
SOL 1.62 Option (A) is correct.
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Given : P 35.00 0.08 mm ! = , Q 12.00 0.02 mm ! =
R 13.00 mm
. 0 04
=
+
. 0 02

13.01 0.03 mm ! =
From the given figure, we can say
P Q W R = + +
W ( ) P Q R = +
W ( . . )
( . . ) ( . . )
35 00 0 08
12 00 0 02 13 01 0 03
!
! !
=
+
6 @
W (35 12 13.01)
. . . 0 08 0 02 0 03
=
+
. . . 0 08 0 02 0 03
+ +
9.99
. 0 03
=
+
. 0 03

9.99 0.03 mm ! =
MCQ 1.63 Two machines of the same production rate are available for use. On machine 1,
the fixed cost is . Rs 100 and the variable cost is . Rs 2 per piece produced. The
corresponding numbers for the machine 2 are . Rs 200 and . 1 Re respectively. For
certain strategic reasons both the machines are to be used concurrently. The sales
price of the first 800 units is . . Rs 3 50 per unit and subsequently it is only . . Rs 3 00
. The breakeven production rate for each machine is
(A) 75 (B) 100
(C) 150 (D) 600
SOL 1.63 Option (A) is correct.
Given :
For machine M1 :
Fixed cost 100 = Rs.
Variable cost 2 = Rs. per piece
For machine M2 :
Fixed cost 200 . Rs =
Variable cost 1 . Rs per piece =
Let, n number of units are produced per machine, when both the machines are to
be used concurrently.
We know that,
Total cost cos cos Fixed t Variable t Number of units
#
= +
For M1
Total cost of production n 100 2
#
= +
For M2
Total cost of production n 200 = +
Hence,
Total cost of production on machine & M M 1 2 is
n n 100 2 200 = + + +
n 300 3 = +
We know, Breakeven point is the point, where total cost of production is equal to
the total sales price.
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Assuming that Number of units produced are less than 800 units and selling price
is Rs. 3.50 per unit.
So at breakeven point,
n 300 3 + . ( ) n n 3 50 = +
n 300 3 + . n 3 50 2
#
=
300 n 4 =
n
4
300
=
n 75 units =
MCQ 1.64 A residential school stipulates the study hours as 8.00 pm to 10.30 pm. Warden
makes random checks on a certain student 11 occasions a day during the study
hours over a period of 10 days and observes that he is studying on 71 occasions.
Using 95% confidence interval, the estimated minimum hours of his study during
that 10 day period is
(A) 8.5 hours (B) 13.9 hours
(C) 16.1 hours (D) 18.4 hours
SOL 1.64 Option (C) is correct.
Warden checks the student 11 occasions a day during the study hours over a period
of 10 days.
So, Total number of observations in 10 days.
11 10 110 observations
#
= =
Study hours as 8.00 pm to 10.30 pm.
So, total study hours in 10 days
. 2 5 10
#
=
25 . hours =
Number of occasions when student studying
71 =
So, Probability of studying
P
.
Total observations
No of observations when student studying
=
.
110
71
0 645 = =
Hence,
Minimum hours of his study during 10 day period is
T Total study hours in days P 10
#
=
. 0 645 25
#
=
16.1 hours =
MCQ 1.65 The sale of cycles in a shop in four consecutive months are given as 70, 68, 82, 95.
Exponentially smoothing average method with a smoothing factor of 0.4 is used in
forecasting. The expected number of sales in the next month is
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(A) 59 (B) 72
(C) 86 (D) 136
SOL 1.65 Option (B) is correct.
We know, from the exponential and smoothing average method, the exponential
smoothed average u
( ) t 1 +
which is the forecast for the next period ( ) t 1 + is given by
u
( ) t 1 +
(1 ) ....... (1 ) ....... u u u
t t
n
t n 1
3 = + + +

Now, for sales of the fifth month put t 4 = in the above equation,
So, u
5
( ) ( ) ( ) u u u u 1 1 1
4 3
2
2
3
1
= + + +
where , , 70, 68, 82, 95 and are and respectively u u u u
1 2 3 4
and . 0 4 =
Hence u
5
0.4 95 0.4(1 0.4)82 0.4(1 0.4) 68
2
# #
= + +
0.4(1 0.4) 70
3
#
+
u
5
. . . 38 19 68 9 792 6 048 = + + +
u
5
. 73 52 =
MCQ 1.66 Market demand for springs is 8,00,000 per annum. A company purchases these
springs in lots and sells them. The cost of making a purchase order is . 1200 Rs .
The cost of storage of springs is . 120 Rs per stored piece per annum. The economic
order quantity is
(A) 400 (B) 2,828
(C) 4,000 (D) 8,000
SOL 1.66 Option (C) is correct.
Given :
D 800000 = per annum
C
o
1200 . Rs =
C
h
120 = per piece per annum
We know that,
Economic order quantity (EOQ) N
C
C D 2
h
o
= =
N
120
2 1200 800000
# #
=
16 10
6
#
=
4 10 4000
3
#
= =
MCQ 1.67 A manufacturer produces two types of products, 1 and 2, at production levels of x
1

and x
2
respectively. The profit is given is 2 5 x x
1 2
+ . The production constraints are
3 x x
1 2
+ 40 #
3x x
1 2
+ 24 #
x x
1 2
+ 10 #
0 x >
1
, 0 x >
2
The maximum profit which can meet the constraints is
(A) 29 (B) 38
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(C) 44 (D) 75
SOL 1.67 Option (A) is correct.
Given : Objective function,
Z x x 2 5
1 2
= +
And
x x 3
1 2
+ 40 #
x x 3
1 2
+ 24 #
x x
1 2
+ 10 #
x
1
0 >
x
2
0 >
First we have to make a graph from the given constraints. For draw the graph,
substitute alternatively & x x
1 2
equal to zero in each constraints to find the point
on the & x x
1 2
axis.
Now shaded area shows the common area. Note that the constraint x x 3 40
1 2
# +
does not affect the solution space and it is the redundant constraint. Finding the
coordinates of point G by the equations.
x x 3
1 2
+ 24 =
x x
1 2
+ 10 =
Subtract these equations,
(3 ) 0 x x
1 1
+ 24 10 =
x 2
1
14 = & 7 x
1
=
x
2
x 10
1
= 10 7 =
3 =
So, point ( , ) G 7 3
So, maximum profit which can meet the constraints at ( , ) G 7 3 is
Z
max
2 7 5 3
# #
= +
14 15 = +
29 =
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MCQ 1.68 A project consists of activities A to M shown in the net in the following figure with
the duration of the activities marked in days
The project can be completed
(A) between 18, 19 days (B) between 20, 22 days
(C) between 24, 26 days (D) between 60, 70 days
SOL 1.68 Option (C) is correct.
The various path and their duration are :-
Path Duration (days)
A-D-L 2 10 3 15 + + =
A-E-G-L 2 5 6 3 16 + + + =
A-E-H 2 5 10 17 + + =
B-H 8 10 18 + =
C-F-K-M 4 9 3 8 24 + + + =
C-F-H 4 9 10 23 + + =
A-E-K-M 2 5 3 8 18 + + + =
B-G-L 8 6 3 17 + + =
B-K-M 8 3 8 19 + + =
C-F-G-L 4 9 6 3 22 + + + =
Here maximum time along the path C-F-K-M. So, it is a critical path and project
can be completed in 24 days.
MCQ 1.69 Match List-I with the List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists :
List-I List-II
P Curtis 1. Reaction steam turbine
Q Rateau 2. Gas turbine
R Kaplan 3. Velocity compounding
S Francis 4. Pressure compounding
5. Impulse water turbine
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6. Axial turbine
7. Mixed flow turbine
8. Centrifugal pump
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 1 6
(B) 3 1 5 7
(C) 1 3 1 5
(D) 3 4 7 6
SOL 1.69 None of these is correct.
List-I List-II
P. Curtis 3. Velocity compounding
Q. Rateau 4. Pressure compounding
R. Kaplan 6. Axial flow turbine
S. Francis 7. Mixed flow turbine
So, correct pairs are P-3, Q-4, R-6, S-7.
MCQ 1.70 Match the following
Working material Type of Joining
P. Aluminium 1. Submerged Arc Welding
Q. Die steel 2. Soldering
R. Copper wire 3. Thermit Welding
S. Titanium sheet 4. Atomic Hydrogen Welding
5. Gas Tungsten Arc Welding
6. Laser Beam Welding
(A) P-2 Q-5 R-1 S-3
(B) P-6 Q-3 R-4 S-1
(C) P-4 Q-1 R-6 S-2
(D) P-5 Q-4 R-2 S-6
SOL 1.70 Option (D) is correct.
Working material Type of Joining
P. Aluminium 5. Gas Tungsten Arc Welding
Q. Die steel 4. Atomic Hydrogen Welding
R. Copper Wire 2. Soldering
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S. Titanium sheet 6. Laser Beam Welding
So, correct pairs are, P - 5, Q - 4, R - 2, S - 6
Data for Q. 71 & 72 are given below. Solve the problems and choose correct
answers.
A reel of mass m and radius of gyration k is rolling down smoothly from
rest with one end of the thread wound on it held in the ceiling as depicated in
the figure. Consider the thickness of thread and its mass negligible in comparison
with the radius r of the hub and the reel mass m. Symbol g represents the
acceleration due to gravity.
MCQ 1.71 The linear acceleration of the reel is
(A)
( ) r k
gr
2 2
2
+
(B)
( ) r k
gk
2 2
2
+
(C)
( ) r k
grk
2 2
+
(D)
( ) r k
mgr
2 2
2
+
SOL 1.71 Option (A) is correct.
Given : Mass of real m =
Radius of gyration k =
We have to make FBD of the system,
Where, T =Tension in the thread
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mg = Weight of the system
Here the real is rolling down. So Angular acceleration ( ) comes in the action
From FBD, For vertical translation motion,
mg T ma = ...(i)
& for rotational motion,
M
G
I
G
=
T r
#
mk
r
a 2
#
= I mk
G
2
= , / a r =
T
r
mk
a
2
2
#
= ...(ii)
From equation (i) & (ii) Substitute the value of T in equation (i), we get
mg
r
mk
a
2
2
#
ma =
mg a
r
mk
m
2
2
= +
; E
a
k r
gr
2 2
2
=
+
...(iii)
MCQ 1.72 The tension in the thread is
(A)
( ) r k
mgr
2 2
2
+
(B)
( ) r k
mgrk
2 2
+
(C)
( ) r k
mgk
2 2
2
+
(D)
( ) r k
mg
2 2
+
SOL 1.72 Option (C) is correct.
From previous question,
T mg ma =
Substitute the value of a from equation (iii), we get
T
( )
mg m
k r
gr
2 2
2
#
=
+

( )
( )
k r
mg k r mgr
2 2
2 2 2
=
+
+
k r
mgk
2 2
2
=
+
Data for Q. 73 and 74 are given below. Solve the problems and choose
correct answers.
The state of stress at a point P in a two dimensional loading is such that the
Mohrs circle is a point located at 175 MPa on the positive normal stress axis.
MCQ 1.73 The maximum and minimum principal stresses respectively from the Mohrs circle
are
(A) 175 + MPa, 175 MPa (B) 175 + MPa, 175 + MPa
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(C) 0, 175 MPa (D) 0, 0
SOL 1.73 Option (B) is correct.
Given, Mohrs circle is a point located at 175 MPa on the positive Normal stress
(at point P)
So,
1 2
= 175 MPa = , and
max
0 =
So, both maximum and minimum principal stresses are equal.
Alternate Method

x
175 MPa = 175 MPa
y
= & 0
xy
=
Maximum principal stress

1
( ) ( )
2
1
4
x y x y xy
2
= + + + 7 A

1
( )
2
1
175 175 0 = + + 6 @

1
175 MPa =
Minimum principal stress

2
( ) ( )
2
1
4
x y x y xy
2
= + + 7 A

2
( )
2
1
175 175 0 = + 6 @

2
175 MPa =
MCQ 1.74 The directions of maximum and minimum principal stresses at the point P from
the Mohrs circle are
(A) 0, 90c (B) 90c, 0
(C) 45c, 135c (D) all directions
SOL 1.74 Option (D) is correct.
Mohrs circle is a point, and a point will move in every direction. So, the directions
of maximum and minimum principal stresses at point P is in all directions.
Every value of will give the same result of 175 MPa in all directions.
Data for Q. 75 and 76 are given below. Solve the problems and choose
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correct answers.
The circular disc shown in its plan view in the figure rotates in a plane parallel
to the horizontal plane about the point O at a uniform angular velocity . Two
other points A and B are located on the line OZ at distances r
A
and r
B
from O
respectively.
MCQ 1.75 The velocity of Point B with respect to point A is a vector of magnitude
(A) 0
(B) ( ) r r
B A
and direction opposite to the direction of motion of point B
(C) ( ) r r
B A
and direction same as the direction of motion of point B
(D) ( ) r r
B A
and direction being from O to Z
SOL 1.75 Option (C) is correct.
Given, the circular disc rotates about the point O at a uniform angular velocity .
Let v
A
is the linear velocity of point A & v
B
is the linear velocity of point B.
v
A
r
A
= and v
B
r
B
=
Velocity of point B with respect to point A is given by,
v
BA
v v
B A
= r r
B A
= ( ) r r
B A
=
From the given figure,
r
B
r >
A
So, r
B
r >
A

v
B
v >
A
Therefore, relative velocity ( ) r r
B A
in the direction of point B.
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MCQ 1.76 The acceleration of point B with respect to point A is a vector of magnitude
(A) 0
(B) ( ) r r
B A
and direction same as the direction of motion of point B
(C) ( ) r r
B A
2
and direction opposite to be direction of motion of point B
(D) ( ) r r
B A
2
and direction being from Z to O
SOL 1.76 Option (D) is correct.
Acceleration of point B with respect to point A is given by,
a
BA
v
BA
= ( ) r r
B A #
= ( ) r r
B A
2
= ...(i)
This equation (i) gives the value of centripetal acceleration which acts always
towards the centre of rotation.
So, a
BA
acts towards to O i.e. its direction from Z to O
Data for Q. 77 and 78 are given below. Solve the problems and choose
correct answer.
A uniform rigid cylinder bar of mass 10 kg, hinged at the left end is suspended with
the help of spring and damper arrangement as shown in the figure where 2 k kN/m =
, 500 c Ns/m = and the stiffness of the torsional spring k

is 1 / / kN m rad. Ignore
the hinge dimensions.
MCQ 1.77 The undamped natural frequency of oscillations of the bar about the hinge point is
(A) 42.43 rad/s (B) 30 rad/s
(C) 17.32 rad/s (D) 14.14 rad/s
SOL 1.77 Option (A) is correct.
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Given m 10 kg = , k 2 / kN m = , c 500 / Ns m = , k

1 / / kN m rad =
l
1
0.5 m = , 0.4 m l
2
=
Let, the rigid slender bar twist downward at the angle . Now spring & damper
exert a force kx
1
& cx
2
on the rigid bar in the upward direction.
From similar triangle OAB & OCD,
tan
. .
x x
0 4 0 5
2 1
= =
Let be very very small, then tan - ,

. .
x x
0 4 0 5
2 1
= =
x
2
. 0 4 = or . x 0 5
1
= ...(i)
On differentiating the above equation, we get
x
2
o
. 0 4 =
o
or . x 0 5
1
=
o
o
...(ii)
We know, the moment of inertia of the bar hinged at the one end is,
I
ml
3
1
2
=
( . )
3
10 0 5
2
#
= 0.833 kg m
2

=
As no external force acting on the system. So, governing equation of motion from
the Newtons law of motion is,
I cx l kx l k
2 2 1 1
+ + +

p
o
0 =
0.833 500 0.4 2000 (0. ) x x 5 1000
2 1

# #
+ + +
p
o
0 =
. x x 0 833 200 1000 1000
2 1
+ + +
p
o
0 = ...(iii)
. . . 0 833 200 0 4 1000 0 5 1000
# #
+ + +
p o
0 =
. 0 833 80 1500 + +
p o
0 = ...(iv)
On comparing equation (iv) with its general equation,
I c k + +
p o
0 =
We get, I . 0 833 = , c 80 = , k 1500 =
So, undamped natural frequency of oscillations is given by

n

I
k
=
.
.
0 833
1500
1800 72 = = 42.43 /sec rad =
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MCQ 1.78 The damping coefficient in the vibration equation is given by
(A) 500 Nms/rad (B) 500 N/(m/s)
(C) 80 Nms/rad (D) 80 N/(m/s)
SOL 1.78 Option (C) is correct.
From the previous part of the question
Damping coefficient, c 80 / Nms rad =
Data for Q. 79 - 80 given below. Solve the problems and choose correct
answers.
The overall gear ratio in a 2 stage speed reduction gear box (with all spur gears)
is 12. The input and output shafts of the gear box are collinear. The counter shaft
which is parallel to the input and output shafts has a gear (Z
2
teeth) and pinion
( 15 Z
3
= teeth) to mesh with pinion ( 16 Z
1
= teeth) on the input shaft and gear (Z
4

teeth) on the output shaft respectively. It was decided to use a gear ratio of 4 with
3 module in the first stage and 4 module in the second stage.
MCQ 1.79 Z
2
and Z
4
are
(A) 64 and 45 (B) 45 and 64
(C) 48 and 60 (D) 60 and 48
SOL 1.79 Option (A) is correct.
Let N
1
, N
2
, N
3
and N
4
are the speeds of pinion 1, gear 2, pinion 3 and gear 4
respectively.
Given : Z
1
16 = teeth , Z
3
15 = teeth and ? Z
4
= , ? Z
2
=
Velocity ratio
N
N
4
1

/
/
Z Z
Z Z
3 4
2 1
= / N Z 1 \
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12
Z
Z
Z
Z
1
2
3
4
#
= = ...(i)
But for stage 1,
N
N
2
1

Z
Z
4
1
2
= = ...(ii)
So,
Z
Z
4
3
4
#
12 = from eq. (i)

Z
Z
3
4
3 = , & Z
4
3 15
#
= = 45 teeth
From equation (ii), Z
2
Z 4
1 #
= 4 16
#
= = 64 teeth
MCQ 1.80 The centre distance in the second stage is
(A) 90 mm (B) 120 mm
(C) 160 mm (D) 240 mm
SOL 1.80 Option (B) is correct.
Let centre distance in the second stage is D.
D R R
D D
2
4 3
4 3
= + =
+
But,
Z
D
4
4

Z
D
4
3
3
= = / module m D Z =
D
4
4 45 180 Z 4
4 # #
= = =
Or, D
3
Z 4 4 15 60
3 # #
= = =
So, D 120 mm
2
180 60
=
+
=
Data for Q. 81 & 82 are given below. Solve the problems and choose correct
answers.
A syringe with a frictionless plunger contains water and has at its end a 100 mm
long needle of 1 mm diameter. The internal diameter of the syringe is 10 mm.
Water density is 1000 kg/m
3
. The plunger is pushed in at 10 mm/s and the water
comes out as a jet
MCQ 1.81 Assuming ideal flow, the force F in newtons required on the plunger to push out
the water is
(A) 0 (B) 0.04
(C) 0.13 (D) 1.15
SOL 1.81 Option (B) is correct.
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Given : L 100 mm = , d 1 mm = , D 10 mm = , V
1
10 /sec mm =
We have to take the two sections of the system (1) & (2).
Apply continuity equation on section (1) & (2),
A V
1 1
A V
2 2
= Q AV = , Q = flow rate
V
2

A
A
V
2
1
1 #
=
c m

/ ( . )
/ ( . )
.
4 0 001
4 0 01
0 010
2
2
#

= 1 /sec m =
Again applying the Bernoullis equation at section (1) & (2),

g
p
g
V
z
2
1 1
2
1

+ +
g
p
g
V
z
2
2 2
2
2

= + +
The syringe & the plunger is situated on the same plane so z z
1 2
= ,
Take p
2
0 = = Atmospheric pressure (Outside the needle)

g
p
1

g
V V
2
2
2
1
2
=

p
1
( ) V V
2
2
2
1
2

= [( ) ( . ) ]
2
1000
1 0 01
2 2
= 499.95 / N m
2
=
Force required on plunger,
F p A
1 1 #
= . ( . ) 499 95
4
0 01
2
#

= 0.04 N =
MCQ 1.82 Neglect losses in the cylinder and assume fully developed laminar viscous flow
throughout the needle; the Darcy friction factor is 64/Re. Where Re is the Reynolds
number. Given that the viscosity of water is 1.0 10
3
#

kg/s-m, the force F in
newtons required on the plunger is
(A) 0.13 (B) 0.16
(C) 0.3 (D) 4.4
SOL 1.82 Option (C) is correct.
Given : f
Re
64
= , 1 10
3
#
=

kg/s-m
Re
Vd V d
2 2

= = For Needle

.
1 10
1000 1 0 001
3
#
# #
=

1000 =
And f
Re
64
1000
64
= = . 0 064 =
From the help of f we have to find Head loss in needle,
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h
f

gd
fLV
2
2
2
2
=

. .
. . ( )
2 9 81 0 001
0 064 0 1 1
2
# #
# #
= . m 0 3265 = of water
Applying Bernoullis equation at section (1) & (2) with the head loss in account.

g
p
g
V
z
2
1 1
2
1

+ +
g
p
g
V
z h
2
f
2 2
2
2

= + + +
z
1
z
2
= At the same plane
And p
2
0 = Atmospheric pressure

g
p
1

g
V V
h
2
f
2
2
1
2
=

+
c m
p
1
( ) V V gh
2
f 2
2
1
2

= +
( ) ( . ) . .
2
1000
1 0 01 1000 9 81 0 3265
2 2
# #
= +
6 @
. . 499 95 3202 965 = + 3702.915 / N m
2
=
Force required on plunger,
F p A
1 1 #
= 3702.915 (0.01)
4
2
# #
= 0.3 N =
Data for Q. 83 - 84 are given below. Solve the problems and choose correct
answers.
Heat is being transferred by convection from water at 48 C c to a glass plate whose
surface that is exposed to the water is at 40 C c . The thermal conductivity of water is
0.6 / W mK and the thermal conductivity of glass is 1.2 / W mK. The spatial gradient
of temperature in the water at the water-glass interface is / 1 10 dT dy K/m
4
#
= .
MCQ 1.83 The value of the temperature gradient in the glass at the water-glass interface in
K/m is
(A) 2 10
4
#
(B) 0.0
(C) 0.5 10
4
#
(D) 2 10
4
#
SOL 1.83 Option (C) is correct.
Given for water : T
w
48 C c = , k
w
0.6 / W mK =
And for glass : T
g
40 C c = , k
g
1.2 / W mK =
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Spatial gradient
dy
dT
w
c m
1 10 / K m
4
#
=
Heat transfer takes place between the water and glass interface by the conduction
and convection. Heat flux would be same for water and glass interface. So, applying
the conduction equation for water and glass interface.
k
dy
dT
w
w
c m
k
dy
dT
g
g
=
c m
q
A
Q
A
kA
dx
dT
k
dx
dT
= =

=

dy
dT
g
c m

k
k
dy
dT
g
w
w
=
c m

.
.
1 2
0 6
10
4
#
= 0.5 10 / K m
4
#
=
MCQ 1.84 The heat transfer coefficient h in W/m K
2
is
(A) 0.0 (B) 4.8
(C) 6 (D) 750
SOL 1.84 Option (D) is correct.
From the equation of convection,
Heat flux, q [ ] h T T
w g
= ...(i)
Where, h = Heat transfer coefficient
First find q, q k
dy
dT
k
dy
dT
w
w
g
g
= =
c c m m
. 0 6 10
4
#
= 6000 / W m
2
=
Now from equation (i),
h
T T
q
w g
=

48 40
6000
8
6000
=

= 750 / W m K
2
=
Data for Q. 85 & 86 are given below. Solve the problems and choose correct
answers.
Nitrogen gas (molecular weight 28) is enclosed in a cylinder by a piston, at the
initial condition of 2 bar, 298 K and 1 m
3
. In a particular process, the gas slowly
expands under isothermal condition, until the volume becomes 2 m
3
. Heat exchange
occurs with the atmosphere at 298 K during this process.
MCQ 1.85 The work interaction for the Nitrogen gas is
(A) 200 kJ (B) 138.6 kJ
(C) 2 kJ (D) 200 kJ
SOL 1.85 Option (B) is correct.
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Given : 2 2 10 / bar N m p
1
5 2
#
= = , 298 K T T
1 2
= = , 1 m
1
3
= , 2 m
2
3
=
The process is isothermal,
So, W ln p
p
p
1 1
2
1
= ln p
1 1
1
2

=
a k
ln 2 10 1
1
2 5
# #
=
: D
. 2 0 6931 10
5
# #
=
. 10 1 3863
5
#
= 138.63 1 . kJ 38 6 - = kJ
MCQ 1.86 The entropy changes for the Universe during the process in kJ/K is
(A) 0.4652 (B) 0.0067
(C) 0 (D) 0.6711
SOL 1.86 Option (A) is correct.
Entropy, S
T
Q
= ...(i)
From first law of thermodynamics,
Q U W = +
For isothermal process,
U 0 =
Q W =
From equation (i),
S
298
138.63
K
kJ
T
W
= = 0.4652 / kJ K =
Data for Q. 87 and 88 are given below. Solve the problems and choose
correct answers.
A refrigerator based on ideal vapour compression cycle operates between the
temperature limits of 20 C c and 40 C c . The refrigerant enters the condenser as
saturated vapour and leaves as saturated liquid. The enthalpy and entropy values
for saturated liquid and vapour at these temperatures are given in the table below.
( ) T C c ( ) h kJ/kg
f
( ) h kJ/kg
g
( ) s kJ/kg K
f
( ) s kJ/kg K
g
20 20 180 0.07 0.7366
40 80 200 0.3 0.67
MCQ 1.87 If refrigerant circulation rate is 0.025 kg/s, the refrigeration effect is equal to
(A) 2.1 kW (B) 2.5 kW
(C) 3.0 kW (D) 4.0 kW
SOL 1.87 Option (A) is correct.
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Given : T T
1 4
= 20 ( 20 273) 253 C K K c = = + = , m
o
0.025 /sec kg =
T T
3 2
= 40 (40 273) 313 C K K c = = + =
From the given table,
At, T
2
40 C c = , h
2
200 / kJ kg =
And h h
3 4
= 80 / kJ kg =
From the given T s

curve
s
1
s
2
=
s
2
s xs
f fg
= + x = Dryness fraction
{s
2
is taken 0.67 because s
2
at the temperature 40 C c & at 2 high temperature and
pressure vapour refrigerant exist.}
0.67 0. 7 (0.7366 0.07) x 0 = + s s s
fg g f
=
0.67 . 0 07 . x 0 6666
#
=
. 0 6 0.666 x 6
#
=
x
.
.
.
0 6666
0 6
0 90 = =
And Enthalpy at point 1 is,
h
1
h xh
f fg
= + ( ) h x h h
f g f
= +
. ( ) 20 0 90 180 20 = + 164 / kJ kg =
Now refrigeration effect is produce in the evaporator.
Heat extracted from the evaporator or refrigerating effect,
R
E
( ) m h h
1 4
=
o
. ( ) 0 025 164 80 = 2.1 kW =
MCQ 1.88 The COP of the refrigerator is
(A) 2.0 (B) 2.33
(C) 5.0 (D) 6.0
SOL 1.88 Option (B) is correct.
( ) COP
refrigerator

Re
Work done
frigerating effect
h h
h h
2 1
1 4
=

=

200 164
164 80
=

36
84
= . 2 33 =
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Data for Q. 89 - 90 are given below. Solve the problems and choose correct
answers.
A cylinder is turned on a lathe with orthogonal machining principle. Spindle rotates
at 200 rpm. The axial feed rate is 0.25 mm per revolution. Depth of cut is 0.4 mm.
The rake angle is 10c. In the analysis it is found that the shear angle is 27.75c.
MCQ 1.89 The thickness of the produced chip is
(A) 0.511 mm (B) 0.528 mm
(C) 0.818 mm (D) 0.846 mm
SOL 1.89 Option (A) is correct
Given : N 200 rpm = , f 0.25 / mm revolution = , d 0.4 mm = , 10c = , . 27 75c =
Uncut chip thickness, t ( , / .) feed mm rev f = 0.25 / . mm rev =
Chip thickness ratio is given by,
r
( ) cos
sin
t
t
c

= =

Where, t
c
thickness of the produced chip = .
So, t
c

( )
sin
cos t
#

=


( . )
. ( . )
sin
cos
27 75
0 25 27 75 10
#
=

0.511 mm =
Alternate :
We also find the value of t
c
by the general relation,
tan
sin
cos
r
r
1

where r
t
t
c
=
MCQ 1.90 In the above problem, the coefficient of friction at the chip tool interface obtained
using Earnest and Merchant theory is
(A) 0.18 (B) 0.36
(C) 0.71 (D) 0.98
SOL 1.90 Option (D) is correct.
We know that angle of friction,
tan
1
=

or, tan = ...(i)
For merchant and earnest circle, the relation between rake angle (), shear angle (
) and friction angle ( ) is given by,
2 + 90c =
90 2 c = +
. 90 10 2 27 75
#
c = + 44.5c =
Now, from equation (i),
( . ) tan 44 5c = . 0 98 =
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Answer Sheet
1.
(A)
19.
(C)
37.
(A)
55.
(B)
73.
(B)
2.
(D)
20.
(C)
38.
(A)
56.
(C)
74.
(D)
3.
(C)
21.
(D)
39.
(A)
57.
(B)
75.
(C)
4.
(D)
22.
(D)
40.
(D)
58.
(A)
76.
(D)
5.
(D)
23.
(C)
41.
(B)
59.
(A)
77.
(A)
6.
(C)
24.
(B)
42.
(B)
60.
(B)
78.
(C)
7.
(B)
25.
(C)
43.
(C)
61.
(D)
79.
(A)
8.
(D)
26.
(D)
44.
(D)
62.
(A)
80.
(B)
9.
(A)
27.
(D)
45.
(A)
63.
(A)
81.
(B)
10.
(B)
28.
(B)
46.
(B)
64.
(C)
82.
(C)
11.
(C)
29.
(B)
47.
(D)
65.
(B)
83.
(C)
12.
(C)
30.
(A)
48.
(A)
66.
(C)
84.
(D)
13.
(D)
31.
(C)
49.
(D)
67.
(A)
85.
(B)
14.
(C)
32.
(B)
50.
(A)
68.
(C)
86.
(A)
15.
(C)
33.
(A)
51.
(A)
69.
(*)
87.
(A)
16.
(B)
34.
(C)
52.
(D)
70.
(D)
88.
(B)
17.
(B)
35.
(B)
53.
(B)
71.
(A)
89.
(A)
18.
(B)
36.
(D)
54.
(B)
72.
(C)
90.
(D)