CCNA Exam Focus: Study Guide with Practice Tests

​CONTENTS :

●  INTRODUCTION

●  CHAPTER 1: TEST 1

●  CHAPTER 2: TEST 2

●  CHAPTER 3: TEST 3

●  CHAPTER 4: TEST 4

●  CHAPTER 5: TEST 6

●  CHAPTER 6: 30-DAY STUDY PLAN

●  CHAPTER 7: FINAL TIPS FOR SUCCESS

●  ENDNOTE

●  IMPORTANT NOTICE & DISCLAIMER

​Introduction

In today’s fast-paced and ever-evolving networking landscape, mastering the fundamentals of networking is essential for building a successful IT career. The Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) certification validates your ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot network systems—making you a highly sought-after professional in the field of networking and IT infrastructure.

CCNA Exam Focus: Study Guide with Practice Tests is designed to provide an exam-focused approach, streamlining your preparation to help you pass the CCNA 200-301 exam on your very first attempt. This comprehensive guide covers key networking concepts with practical insights, real-world scenarios, and study techniques aligned with the latest CCNA syllabus.

Ideal for both beginners and experienced IT professionals, this guide includes 250 challenging practice questions, structured across five full-length practice tests that closely mirror the actual CCNA exam in difficulty, format, and question style. Each question comes with detailed explanations to help reinforce your understanding and sharpen your problem-solving skills.

​Key Features of This Guide:

✔ EXAM-CENTRIC CONTENT – Master all CCNA exam domains, including networking fundamentals, IP connectivity, security fundamentals, automation, and more, with clear explanations and practical examples.

✔ Realistic Practice Tests – Get exam-ready with five full-length tests designed to simulate the actual CCNA exam experience.

✔ Focused Learning Approach – Learn the most critical networking concepts through structured, concise explanations and practical guidance tailored for exam success.

✔ Scenario-Based Questions – Develop hands-on expertise with real-world scenarios that challenge your networking knowledge and troubleshooting skills.

✔ Proven Exam Strategies – Gain expert tips, time management techniques, and a structured 1-month study plan to optimize your preparation and boost your confidence.

Whether you’re preparing for roles such as Network Engineer, System Administrator, IT Support Specialist, or Security Analyst, CCNA Exam Focus: Study Guide with Practice Tests equips you with the knowledge, skills, and strategies needed to pass the CCNA exam and advance your career in networking.

​CHAPTER 1

TEST 1

Question 1:

Which command is used to view the router's current OSPF neighbor state and includes the IP address of the OSPF neighbor?

a) show ip ospf interface

b) show ip ospf neighbor

c) show ip ospf database

d) show ip ospf protocol

Answer: b) show ip ospf neighbor

Explanation: The show ip ospf neighbor command is used to display the OSPF neighbor table, which includes the IP address of the OSPF neighbor, the neighbor state, and the interface through which the OSPF neighbor is reachable. This command is crucial for troubleshooting OSPF neighbor relationships and ensuring that OSPF is functioning correctly.

Question 2:

When configuring a router for NAT, which command correctly defines a static NAT translation for the inside local IP address of 192.168.1.10 to the outside global IP address of 203.0.113.5?

a) ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.10 203.0.113.5

b) ip nat outside source static 192.168.1.10 203.0.113.5

c) ip nat translation static 192.168.1.10 203.0.113.5

d) ip nat source static 192.168.1.10 203.0.113.5

Answer: a) ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.10 203.0.113.5

Explanation: The ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.10 203.0.113.5 command is used to create a static NAT translation, mapping the inside local IP address (192.168.1.10) to an outside global IP address (203.0.113.5). This ensures that traffic from the internal network can be translated to a public IP address when communicating with external networks, providing both connectivity and security.

Question 3:

Which command correctly configures a switch port to be part of VLAN 20 and ensures that it is an access port?

a) switchport mode trunk b) switchport access vlan 20 c) switchport mode access d) switchport access mode vlan 20

Answer: b) switchport access vlan 20

Explanation: The command switchport access vlan 20 configures the switch port to be an access port and assigns it to VLAN 20. An access port is used for connecting end devices to the switch and can belong to only one VLAN at a time. This command ensures that any device connected to this port will be part of VLAN 20.

Question 4:

In a situation where multiple switches are connected and you want to prevent loops, which protocol should be implemented, and what is the correct command to enable it on a switch?

a) spanning-tree mode pvst b) vlan spanning-tree c) spanning-tree enable d) switchport trunk allowed vlan

Answer: a) spanning-tree mode pvst

Explanation: The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is crucial for preventing loops in a network with multiple interconnected switches. The command spanning-tree mode pvst enables Per-VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) on the switch. PVST allows each VLAN to have its own spanning tree instance, which provides better optimization and load balancing in a network with multiple VLANs.

Question 5:

Which command is used to enable IP routing on a Layer 3 switch?

a) ip routing b) switchport mode routing c) router ip enable d) enable ip routing

Answer: a) ip routing

Explanation: The ip routing command is used to enable IP routing on a Layer 3 switch. This command allows the switch to route IP packets between different VLANs or subnets, effectively turning it into a basic router. Without this command, the Layer 3 switch will not perform routing functions.

Question 6:

When configuring inter-VLAN routing on a Layer 3 switch, which command assigns an IP address to a VLAN interface?

a) interface vlan x b) ip address vlan x c) vlan interface ip x d) ip address interface vlan x

Answer: a) interface vlan x

Explanation: The command interface vlan x is used to enter the interface configuration mode for a specific VLAN on a Layer 3 switch. Once in this mode, you can assign an IP address to the VLAN interface using the ip address command. This IP address acts as the gateway for devices within that VLAN, enabling inter-VLAN routing.

Question 7:

Which feature of a next-generation firewall (NGFW) allows it to identify and control applications regardless of port, protocol, or IP address used?

a) Application Control b) Deep Packet Inspection c) Intrusion Prevention System d) URL Filtering

Answer: a) Application Control

Explanation: Application Control is a feature of next-generation firewalls (NGFWs) that enables them to identify and control applications regardless of the port, protocol, or IP address being used. This capability allows NGFWs to provide more granular security policies based on the specific applications in use, improving network security and application visibility.

Question 8:

Which of the following capabilities of a next-generation firewall (NGFW) specifically helps in identifying and mitigating zero-day threats?

a) SSL/TLS Inspection b) Sandboxing c) Stateful Inspection d) Network Address Translation

Answer: b) Sandboxing

Explanation: Sandboxing is a key capability of next-generation firewalls (NGFWs) that helps in identifying and mitigating zero-day threats. It involves executing suspicious files and code in a controlled, isolated environment to observe their behavior. By doing this, NGFWs can detect and prevent unknown and emerging threats before they can infiltrate the network.

Question 9:

Which feature of a next-generation IPS (NGIPS) allows it to detect and block threats by analyzing traffic patterns and behavior in real-time?

a) Signature-based detection b) Behavioral analysis c) Anomaly detection d) Heuristic analysis

Answer: b) Behavioral analysis

Explanation: Behavioral analysis is a feature of next-generation IPS (NGIPS) that allows it to detect and block threats by analyzing traffic patterns and behavior in real-time. Unlike signature-based detection, which relies on known patterns of attack, behavioral analysis monitors the normal behavior of network traffic and detects deviations that may indicate malicious activity. This approach helps in identifying zero-day threats and advanced persistent threats (APTs) that may not have known signatures.

Question 10:

Which of the following capabilities of a next-generation IPS (NGIPS) specifically enhances its effectiveness in identifying and preventing encrypted threats?

a) SSL/TLS Inspection b) Deep Packet Inspection c) Reputation-based filtering d) Virtual patching

Answer: a) SSL/TLS Inspection

Explanation: SSL/TLS Inspection is a crucial capability of next-generation IPS (NGIPS) that enhances its effectiveness in identifying and preventing encrypted threats. By decrypting and inspecting SSL/TLS traffic, NGIPS can analyze the contents of encrypted communications, detect malicious payloads, and block threats that would otherwise bypass traditional security measures. This capability is essential for maintaining visibility and security in environments where encrypted traffic is prevalent.

Question 11:

Which command on a Cisco access point is used to enable the lightweight mode, allowing it to be managed by a wireless LAN controller (WLC)?

a) lwapp ap ip address b) capwap ap ip address c) capwap ap mode lightweight d) lwapp ap mode lightweight

Answer: b) capwap ap ip address

Explanation: The capwap ap ip address command is used to configure the access point with the IP address of the wireless LAN controller (WLC). This command enables the Control And Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol, which allows the access point to operate in lightweight mode and be managed by the WLC. CAPWAP provides a secure, scalable method for deploying and managing multiple access points.

QUESTION 12:

When configuring a Cisco access point for multiple SSIDs, which command is used to define the VLAN associated with a specific SSID?

a) ssid vlan b) vlan ssid c) dot11 ssid vlan d) dot11 ssid

Answer: d) dot11 ssid

Explanation: The dot11 ssid command is used to define and configure an SSID (Service Set Identifier) on a Cisco access point. Once the SSID is defined, you can associate it with a specific VLAN using the vlan command within the SSID configuration context. This enables the creation of multiple SSIDs, each associated with different VLANs, allowing for segmented network traffic and enhanced security.

QUESTION 13:

Which feature of Cisco DNA Center enables automated configuration, provisioning, and policy enforcement across a network?

a) Network Assurance b) Network Automation c) Software-Defined Access (SD-Access) d) Network Insights

Answer: c) Software-Defined Access (SD-Access)

Explanation: Software-Defined Access (SD-Access) is a key feature of Cisco DNA Center that enables automated configuration, provisioning, and policy enforcement across a network. SD-Access uses a centralized controller to manage network devices and policies, providing enhanced security, scalability, and simplified management. It allows for automated deployment of network services and consistent policy application throughout the network.

Question 14:

When configuring a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller (WLC), which feature allows the WLC to dynamically select the best channel for each access point to avoid interference?

a) Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) b) Radio Resource Management (RRM) c) Channel Width Management (CWM) d) Automatic Channel Selection (ACS)

Answer: b) Radio Resource Management (RRM)

Explanation: Radio Resource Management (RRM) is a feature of Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers (WLCs) that allows the WLC to dynamically select the best channel for each access point to avoid interference. RRM continuously monitors the RF environment and adjusts the channels and power levels of access points to optimize wireless performance and minimize interference. This ensures a stable and efficient wireless network.

QUESTION 15:

Which security feature on endpoints helps to ensure that data is protected when a device is lost or stolen by encrypting the entire disk?

a) File Encryption b) Full Disk Encryption (FDE) c) Network Access Control (NAC) d) Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR)

Answer: b) Full Disk Encryption (FDE)

Explanation: Full Disk Encryption (FDE) is a security feature that encrypts the entire disk of an endpoint device. This ensures that all data stored on the device is protected and cannot be accessed by unauthorized users, even if the device is lost or stolen. FDE is crucial for protecting sensitive information on laptops, desktops, and other endpoint devices.

Question 16:

Which endpoint security measure continuously monitors and analyzes endpoint activities to detect and respond to advanced threats?

a) Antivirus Software b) Firewall c) Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) d) Data Loss Prevention (DLP)

Answer: c) Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR)

Explanation: Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) is an advanced security measure that continuously monitors and analyzes endpoint activities to detect and respond to advanced threats. EDR solutions provide real-time visibility into endpoint activities, identify suspicious behavior, and take automated actions to mitigate threats. This capability is essential for protecting endpoints from sophisticated cyberattacks and minimizing the impact of security incidents.

Question 17:

When configuring a DHCP server on a Cisco router, which command specifies the network range and subnet mask for the DHCP pool?

a) ip dhcp pool b) network c) default-router d) lease

Answer: b) network

Explanation: The network command is used within the DHCP pool configuration mode to specify the network range and subnet mask that the DHCP server will use to assign IP addresses. This command is essential for defining the scope of the IP addresses that the DHCP server can allocate to client devices. For example, network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 defines the range of IP addresses from 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.254 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0.

Question 18:

Which command on a Cisco server is used to enable SSH for secure remote access, after generating RSA keys?

a) ssh enable b) ip ssh version 2 c) crypto key generate rsa d) ip ssh

Answer: b) ip ssh version 2

Explanation: After generating RSA keys with the crypto key generate rsa command, the ip ssh version 2 command is used to enable Secure Shell (SSH) version 2 on the Cisco server for secure remote access. SSH version 2 provides enhanced security features over SSH version 1, including improved encryption and authentication mechanisms. This command ensures that all remote administrative access to the server is encrypted and secure.

Question 19:

Which IEEE standard defines Power over Ethernet (PoE) and supports up to 30 watts of power per port?

a) IEEE 802.3af b) IEEE 802.3at c) IEEE 802.3bt d) IEEE 802.3ax

Answer: b) IEEE 802.3at

Explanation: The IEEE 802.3at standard, also known as PoE+, defines Power over Ethernet and supports up to 30 watts of power per port. This standard is an enhancement of the earlier IEEE 802.3af standard, which supports up to 15.4 watts per port. IEEE 802.3at allows for higher power delivery, which is essential for powering devices such as IP cameras, wireless access points, and VoIP phones.

Question 20:

In a PoE-enabled network, which component is responsible for supplying power to the connected devices?

a) Powered Device (PD) b) Power Sourcing Equipment (PSE) c) Power Injector d) Power Splitter

Answer: b) Power Sourcing Equipment (PSE)

Explanation: Power Sourcing Equipment