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    ACT Prep Plus 2024: Study Guide includes 5 Full Length Practice Tests, 100s of Practice Questions, and 1 Year Access to Online Quizzes and Video Instruction
    ACT Prep Plus 2024: Study Guide includes 5 Full Length Practice Tests, 100s of Practice Questions, and 1 Year Access to Online Quizzes and Video Instruction
    ACT Prep Plus 2024: Study Guide includes 5 Full Length Practice Tests, 100s of Practice Questions, and 1 Year Access to Online Quizzes and Video Instruction
    Ebook2,145 pages14 hoursKaplan Test Prep

    ACT Prep Plus 2024: Study Guide includes 5 Full Length Practice Tests, 100s of Practice Questions, and 1 Year Access to Online Quizzes and Video Instruction

    By Kaplan Test Prep

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    About this ebook

    Kaplan is an Official Teaching Partner of the ACT. 

    Kaplan’s ACT Prep Plus 2024 has the detailed subject review, practice tests, and expert strategies you need to be prepared for test day. This ACT prep book includes hundreds of practice questions, online practice tests, and video lessons from our experts to help you face test day with confidence.

    We’re so certain that ACT Prep Plus offers the guidance you need that we guarantee it: After studying with our online resources and book, you'll score higher on the ACT—or you'll get your money back.

    Essential Review
    • 5 full-length Kaplan practice tests with detailed answer explanations (1 printed in the book and 4 tests online)
    • One-year access to our online center with additional Qbank and videos to help guide your study
    • Pre-quizzes to help you figure out what you already know and what you can skip
    • Mixed practice quizzes after every chapter to assess how much you’ve learned
    • A practice question at the beginning of each lesson to help you quickly identify its focus and dedicated practice questions after every lesson to test your comprehension

    Efficient Strategy
    • “On Test Day” strategy notes in every math chapter to help you remember that the ACT math test is primarily a strategy test
    • “Reflect” pages that help you evaluate your comfort level with the topics and make a plan for improving before the test after completing each chapter
    • Online study-planning tool helps you target your prep no matter how much time you have before the test.

    Expert Guidance
    • We know the test: Our learning engineers have put tens of thousands of hours into studying the ACT, and we use real data to design the most effective strategies and study plans.
    • Kaplan's books and practice questions are written by veteran teachers who know students—every explanation is written to help you learn.
    • We invented test prep—Kaplan (kaptest.com) has been helping students for over 80 years.

    Trying to figure out your college plan? Kaplan's KapAdvisor™ is a free college admissions planning tool that combines Kaplan's expertise with the power of AI.
    LanguageEnglish
    PublisherKaplan Test Prep
    Release dateJul 4, 2023
    ISBN9781506287140
    ACT Prep Plus 2024: Study Guide includes 5 Full Length Practice Tests, 100s of Practice Questions, and 1 Year Access to Online Quizzes and Video Instruction

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      Book preview

      ACT Prep Plus 2024 - Kaplan Test Prep

      PART 1

      The ACT and You

      CHAPTER 1

      Inside the ACT

      LEARNING OBJECTIVES

      After completing this chapter, you will be able to:

      Recall the timing and scope of each ACT Test in anticipation of section management

      State what the ACT scoring system means for you as a test taker

      ACT Structure

      The ACT, like any standardized test, is predictable. The more comfortable you are with the test structure, the more confidently you will approach each question type, thus maximizing your score.

      The ACT is 2 hours and 55 minutes long, or 3 hours and 35 minutes long if you choose to complete the optional essay in the Writing Test. The ACT is made up of multiple-choice questions that test four subject areas: English, Math, Reading, and Science.

      When you take the ACT, you may take a fifth multiple-choice test. The results of this fifth test may not be reflected in your final score report, but you should treat this test as if it counts, just in case.

      ACT Scoring

      ACT scoring can seem a bit complex. You will receive one scaled score ranging from 1 to 36 for each required Test, and these four scores will be averaged to calculate your composite score. You will receive a separate score for the Writing Test, if you choose to take it.

      In addition to your overall scores, you will receive subscores that provide a deeper analysis of your ACT performance, including STEM and, if you take the optional Writing Test, ELA scores. The ACT also gives you a percentile ranking, which allows you to compare your scores with those of other test takers. For example, a student who scored in the 63rd percentile did better than 63 percent of all others who took that test.

      The scores you need depend primarily on which colleges you are planning to apply to. For example, if you want to attend an engineering school, you’ll typically need a higher math score than if you want to attend a liberal arts college. Research the colleges you are interested in, find out what scores they require, and structure your ACT studying accordingly.

      Superscoring

      The score reports sent to colleges for students who have taken the ACT more than once will include superscores. A superscore is like a composite score in that it is an average of your four subject scores, but for the superscore, ACT selects your best subject score from every test administration. Therefore, your superscore is never lower than any composite score, and it is often higher than each of your composite scores. Not all schools consider the superscore in admissions, but many do, so check out the superscore policies of the colleges to which you plan to apply.

      Since you can only get a superscore after you’ve taken more than one ACT, it’s important to study for the entire test the first time around and work through as much of this book as you can before test day. However, if you’re focused on only one, two, or three sections in an effort to raise your superscore, just use those units of this book.

      How to Maximize Your Score

      What is most important to remember while taking the test is that maximizing all the various scores and subscores depends on getting the most points you can out of every section. You’ll find advice on test taking strategies below and in the section management chapters at the end of the English, Math, Reading, and Science sections of this book. However, if you still have a substantial amount of time to prepare for the ACT, the best advice we can give you is to improve the specific skills you need to answer math, verbal, and science questions correctly and efficiently. That’s what this book is for. You can work through the chapters and sections in any order you like, and you can skip the lessons you don’t need. You don’t need to start with English or answer every single question; just use the book. Pick a lesson, read the instructional text, and work your way through the practice questions. There are hundreds of them in this book, and they are very similar to those that you will see on test day. Practice will not only improve your skills but also raise your confidence, and that’s very important to test day success.

      Interested in generating a personalized study schedule? If you've already registered your book, go online (kaptest.com/login) and log in, then click into Plan Your Path. To use Kaplan’s study-planning tool, answer three quick questions and download a detailed week-by-week prep calendar. If your plans change, just answer the questions again to make a new schedule.

      GO ONLINE

      kaptest.com/login

      When and Where to Take the ACT

      For students testing in the United States or US territories, the ACT test is offered each school year on seven Saturday test dates. Typically, exams are offered in September, October, December, February, April, June, and July. You can take the ACT up to 12 times. Some states offer special administrations of the ACT on different dates, and no test centers are scheduled in California or New York for the July test date. Non-Saturday testing is available by request for students requiring religious or other exemptions.

      Though they had not done so at the time of this book’s printing, ACT may introduce section retesting. This is how section retesting would work: once you have taken the four required sections of the ACT on one day, you will be able to retest one, two, or three sections at a time by testing online at an approved testing center on a national test date. If enacted by ACT, section retesting will offer several benefits, but you should be sure to take your first ACT test day seriously; if that’s the only time you take the full ACT, it will show up on every score report you send to colleges.

      The ACT is administered at schools around the country that serve as testing centers. ACT has introduced online testing at some test centers. Your high school may or may not be a testing center, and the test center most convenient for you may not offer online testing. Check www.actstudent.org for a list of testing centers near you. Historically, students have needed to register for the ACT approximately one month in advance to avoid paying a late fee.

      Students who are testing outside of the United States or US territories should visit the ACT website for test date and test center information.

      The ACT English Test

      The ACT English Test will focus on your ability to revise and edit text from a range of content areas.

      The ACT English Test will contain five single passages of different genres with a variety of rhetorical situations. A passage could be an argument, an informative or explanatory text, or a narrative.

      The most prevalent question format on the ACT English Test will ask you to choose the best of three alternatives to an underlined portion of the passage or to decide that the current version is already the best option. You will be asked to improve the development, organization, and diction in the passages to ensure they conform to conventional standards of English grammar, usage, and style. There are three English Test reporting categories.

      The ACT Math Test

      The ACT Math Test will focus on mathematical skills typically learned in required math courses before the beginning of grade 12.

      All ACT math questions are multiple-choice questions with five answer choices, and some questions will be part of a set of multiple questions related to the same graph or chart. The Math Test is divided into three reporting categories.

      The ACT Reading Test

      The ACT Reading Test will focus on your comprehension and reasoning skills when you are presented with challenging extended passages taken from a variety of content areas.

      Each passage is preceded by a heading that names the passage type, author, and source; this heading may also include important background information related to the passage.

      The ACT Reading Test includes four types of passages: prose fiction or literary narrative, social science, humanities, and natural science. One of the four passages will consist of two shorter prose passages that are related in some way. There are three reporting categories for the Reading Test.

      The ACT Science Test

      The ACT Science Test will focus on your scientific reasoning ability, not your knowledge of scientific content.

      There are three passage types on the ACT Science Test:

      The ACT Science Test provides three reporting categories:

      The ACT Writing Test (Optional)

      The ACT Writing Test assesses your writing skills. The Writing Test includes one prompt describing a complex issue and three perspectives related to that prompt. Your goal is to write an essay in which you present your own reasoned perspective; this perspective might—but does not need to—relate to one or more of the three perspectives in the prompt, but your essay must include a discussion of both your own perspective and at least one other. The specific perspective you decide to take will not affect your final score.

      The issue discussed in the prompt might be a familiar one, but it might also be completely new to you. The Writing Test will always include a paragraph providing background on the issue because prior knowledge is not required.

      The ACT Writing Test will be broken down into four categories for scoring: Ideas and Analysis, Development and Support, Organization, and Language Use and Conventions. Each of these elements will be scored on a scale of 2 to 12, and you will receive a single subject-level writing score, also on a scale of 2 to 12.

      Test-Taking Strategies

      The ACT is different from the tests you are used to taking in school. For example, on a test given in school, you probably go through the questions in order. You spend more time on the harder questions than on the easier ones because harder questions are usually worth more points. You also probably show your work because your teacher tells you that how you approach a question is as important as getting the correct answer.

      This approach is not optimal for the ACT. On the ACT, you benefit from moving around within a section if you come across tough questions because the harder questions are worth the same number of points as the easier questions. Similarly, showing your work is unimportant. It doesn’t matter how you arrive at the correct answer—only that you bubble in the correct answer choice.

      The good news is that you can use the ACT’s particular structure to your advantage. You have already learned about the overall structure of the ACT as well as the structures of the five Tests. The strategies outlined in this section can be applied to any of these tests.

      Strategy #1: Triage the Test

      You do not need to complete questions on the ACT in order. Every student has different strengths and should attack the test with those strengths in mind. Your main objective on the ACT should be to score as many points as you can. While approaching questions out of order may seem counterintuitive, it is a surefire way to achieve your best score.

      Just remember, you can skip around within each Test, but you cannot work on any Test other than the one you’ve been instructed to work on.

      To triage a Test effectively, do the following:

      Work through all the low-difficulty questions that you can do quickly. Skip questions that are hard or time-consuming.

      For the Reading Test, start with the passage you find most manageable and work toward the one you find most challenging. You do not need to go in order.

      For the Science Test, start with the passage type you find most manageable and work toward the one you find most challenging. You do not need to go in order.

      Work through the questions that are doable but time-consuming.

      Work through the high-difficulty questions.

      Strategy #2: Eliminate

      Even though there is no incorrect-answer penalty on the ACT, Elimination is still a crucial strategy. If you can determine that one or more answer choices are definitely incorrect, you can increase your chances of getting the correct answer by paring the selection down.

      To eliminate answer choices, do the following:

      Read each answer choice.

      Cross out the answer choices that are incorrect.

      Remember: there is no incorrect-answer penalty, so take your best guess.

      Strategy #3: Guess

      The English, Reading, and Science multiple-choice questions on the ACT have four answer choices and no incorrect-answer penalty. That means if you have no idea how to approach a question, you have a 25 percent chance of randomly choosing the correct answer. Even though there’s a 75 percent chance of selecting the incorrect answer, you won’t lose any points for doing so. The worst that can happen on the ACT is that you’ll earn zero points on a question, which means you should always at least take a guess, even when you have no idea what to do. While the probabilities are slightly different for the Math Test, which has five answer choices, the logic is the same.

      When guessing on a question, do the following:

      Try to strategically eliminate answer choices before guessing.

      If you run out of time, or have no idea what a question is asking, pick a Letter of the Day.

      A Letter of the Day is an answer choice letter [A/F, B/G, C/H, D/J, or (math only) E/K] that you choose before test day to select for questions you guess on. You can use the same Letter of the Day for the entire ACT or change it depending on the section, but you should always use the same Letter of the Day within an individual section.

      PART 2

      ACT English

      CHAPTER 2

      The Method for ACT English

      LEARNING OBJECTIVE

      After completing this chapter, you will be able to:

      Effectively and efficiently apply the ACT English Method

      How to Do ACT English

      The English Test of the ACT tests a limited number of grammar errors and style or logic issues. You should feel empowered by familiarizing yourself with these recurring errors and issues and learn to spot them and address them quickly and efficiently. We’ll describe the issues that you’re likely to see on test day and how to deal with them in the next two chapters. In this chapter, we’ll present a simple series of steps for tackling English questions.

      Take a look at the passage and questions below and think about how you would approach them on test day. Then compare your approach to the recommendations that follow.

      Gregory Hines, a Beloved Icon

      During the last five decades of the 20th ¹century; Gregory Hines enriched musical theater with his performances as a star of the Broadway stage. A multitalented artist, he was also employed as an actor, a director, and a producer in television and film. He ²had the experience of earning and receiving numerous awards, including a Tony and a Daytime Emmy.

      NO CHANGE

      century, Gregory

      century. Gregory

      century, from the 1950s to the late 1990s,

      NO CHANGE

      had the experience of earning

      had the experience of receiving

      earned

      Hines began performing as a dancer when he was five, touring professionally in nightclubs across the country with his older brother, Maurice, as a duo. Hines found inspiration in watching fellow performers such as the Nicholas Brothers and Sandman Sims. At eight, he made his Broadway debut and remained a star of the stage in a variety of musicals, ³including Eubie!, Sophisticated Ladies, and Jelly’s Last Jam.

      Which choice provides the most specific information regarding Hines’s Broadway performances?

      NO CHANGE

      which debuted at various locations among the many venues of Broadway.

      which opened at different times throughout Hines’s considerably long career.

      all of which were evaluated by the rotating group of dozens of theatre professionals who are selected by the Tony Awards Administration Committee.

      There is no need to read the entire passage before you start to answer questions. Instead, answer them as you read. When you see a number, finish the sentence you are reading and then look at the corresponding question. If you can answer the question based on what you’ve read so far, do so—this will likely be the case if the question is testing grammar. If you need more information—which may happen if the question is testing organization or relevance—keep reading until you have enough context to answer the question.

      Sometimes the issue being tested will be obvious to you when you look at the underlined segment. If it isn’t, glance at the answer choices to help you determine what the test maker is after. For instance, in question 1 above, a semicolon is underlined. A quick glance at the choices shows that most of them have the same words in the same order, and only the punctuation marks are different; this means that the question is testing punctuation. Identifying the issue, using the choices if necessary, is step 1 of the English method.

      To determine the correct punctuation, use the surrounding text. During the last five decades of the 20th century is an introductory phrase and cannot stand on its own, so A and C are incorrect; what comes before and after either a period (choice C) or a semicolon (choice A) must be able to stand on its own as a complete sentence. Eliminating answer choices that do not address the issue is step 2 of the English method.

      There may be more than one choice that addresses the issue. When that happens, you need to base your final response on three considerations: conciseness, relevance, and the potential of a given choice to introduce a new error. The two remaining choices are both grammatically correct and relevant to the surrounding context. However, (B) is more concise and therefore the correct answer. Choice D can be eliminated because from the 1950s to the late 1990s is redundant; the sentence already says the last five decades of the 20th century. Choosing the most concise and relevant response from those that are grammatically correct is step 3 of the English method.

      Here’s what we did:

      ACT ENGLISH METHOD

      Step 1. Identify the issue (use the choices if need be)

      Step 2. Eliminate answer choices that do not address the issue

      Step 3. Plug in the remaining answer choices and select the most correct, concise, and relevant one

      Some questions include errors that may not seem apparent. For example, the underlined segment in question 2 is grammatically correct but wordy. Start by identifying the issue, using the choices if necessary. The answer choices are shorter than the original text, so conciseness is likely the issue being tested. Eliminating answer choices that do not address the issue is next, and F can definitely be eliminated due to wordiness. Finally, plugging in the remaining choices and choosing the most correct, concise, and relevant one points you to (J): the single word earned expresses the same information as the much longer phrase had the experience of earning and receiving. Choices G and H are shorter than the original, but they are not nearly as concise as (J).

      Other questions may ask you to determine which answer choice provides the most specific description of a particular aspect of the passage. In those instances, identifying the issue is straightforward. Eliminating answer choices that do not address the issue is essential to answering this type of question. Question 3 requires you to determine which option provides the most specific information about Hines’s Broadway performances. Eliminate B and C because they do not include specific details. Plug in the remaining choices and eliminate D because the process by which plays are evaluated by the Tony Awards Administration Committee is not relevant to the passage. Choice (A) is the correct answer.

      Correct, concise, and relevant means that the answer choice you select:

      Has no grammatical errors

      Is as short as possible while retaining the writer’s intended meaning

      Is relevant to the paragraph and the passage as a whole

      Correct answers do NOT:

      Provide information that contradicts or is irrelevant to the ideas developed by the original sentence, paragraph, or passage

      Introduce new grammatical errors

      How Much Have You Learned?

      Directions: Take as much time as you need on these questions. Work carefully and methodically. Practice using the steps that you just learned.

      Liberal Arts Education

      [1]

      The concept of liberal arts has existed since the time of ancient Greece, and the parameters of this discipline have remained largely ¹over the centuries unchanged. [A] In essence, liberal arts are defined as any study given to reflection and free inquiry, which is a ²lengthy category that has included various subjects throughout its history.

      The best placement for the underlined portion would be:

      where it is now.

      after the word concept.

      after the word arts.

      after the word unchanged.

      Which choice best indicates that liberal arts include many disciplines?

      NO CHANGE

      broad

      challenging

      perplexing

      [2]

      In medieval times, the seven liberal arts were divided into two parts: the Trivium (the three roads) and the Quadrivium (the four roads). [B] The Trivium consisted of grammar, rhetoric, and ³logic, the Quadrivium consisted of arithmetic, geometry, astronomy, and music. However, the description of a liberal arts college is somewhat more limiting. A liberal arts college generally ⁴awarded a Bachelor of Arts degree after four years of study, primarily enrolls full-time students between the ages of 18 and 24, typically has between 800 and 1,800 students, and does not provide professional or vocational preparation.

      NO CHANGE

      logic; while the Quadrivium

      logic, so the Quadrivium

      logic; the Quadrivium

      NO CHANGE

      have awarded

      award

      awards

      [3]

      Liberal arts has been the primary focus of undergraduate education in the United States ⁵since the United States was only a British colony. [C] The number of liberal arts colleges in the United States ⁶steady increased throughout the 20th century as private universities, state universities, and community colleges all sought to ⁷give their undergraduates a broad education. [D]

      NO CHANGE

      give its

      giving their

      gave its

      NO CHANGE

      sciences; and

      sciences. And

      sciences: and

      NO CHANGE

      does not reflect the latest trends in education and the current times in which today’s students are living.

      does not reflect the times in which today’s students are living or the times in which future students will live.

      does not reflect the times in which today’s students are living.

      [4]

      The content of liberal arts study still focuses on the arts, humanities, and ⁸sciences, and the basic notion of forming well-rounded students in these areas is still the concept behind liberal arts education today. There is some concern, however, that the philosophy behind liberal arts education ⁹does not reflect the current times in which today’s students are living. Responding to this concern, ¹⁰courses in computer science and information technology have been added to the curriculum of many colleges and universities. Does this mean the end of liberal arts education as it has been practiced since the days of Martianus Capella? ¹¹I don’t believe so. ¹²Most liberal arts colleges award master’s and doctoral degrees as well. The study of liberal arts may have to evolve with the times, but its basic premise—that well-rounded students are well-educated students—¹³remain as valid today as it was in medieval times.

      NO CHANGE

      because

      even though

      while

      NO CHANGE

      steadily increased

      increased in a steady fashion

      increased in a steadily fashion

      NO CHANGE

      computer science and information technology courses have been added to the curriculum of many colleges and universities.

      computer science and information technology are the subject of courses that have been added to the curriculum of many colleges and universities.

      many colleges and universities have added courses in computer science and information technology to their curriculum.

      NO CHANGE

      Many educators don’t

      You wouldn’t

      We don’t

      The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the writer make this deletion?

      Yes, because it contradicts information earlier in the paragraph.

      Yes, because it interrupts the writer’s discussion of modern liberal arts education with irrelevant information.

      No, because it provides an example showing how liberal arts education is still relevant.

      No, because it makes a claim important to the writer’s overall argument.

      NO CHANGE

      remaining

      remains

      remained

      Questions 14 and 15 ask about the preceding passage as a whole.

      The writer wants to add the following sentence to the essay:

      The late 1800s saw an expansion of liberal arts colleges as the right to education began to include minorities and women.

      If the writer were to add this sentence, it would most logically be placed at:

      Point A in paragraph 1.

      Point B in paragraph 2.

      Point C in paragraph 3.

      Point D in paragraph 3.

      Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to write an essay summarizing the history of higher education in the United States. Would this essay accomplish this purpose?

      Yes, because it discusses the natural evolution of liberal arts, which is taught only at the collegiate level.

      Yes, because it explains how most liberal arts colleges award master’s and doctoral degrees as well.

      No, because it does not mention higher education anywhere.

      No, because it focuses exclusively on liberal arts education rather than higher education as a whole.

      Reflect

      Directions: Take a few minutes to recall what you’ve learned and what you’ve been practicing in this chapter. Consider the following questions, jot down your best answer for each one on a piece of paper, and then compare your reflections to the expert responses on the following page. Use your level of confidence to determine what to do next.

      What does an ACT expert look for when answering an ACT English question?

      Describe at least three types of issues that could be present in English questions.

      How does eliminating choices that do not address the issue make it easier to identify the correct answer?

      Why do correct answers need to be grammatically correct, concise, and relevant?

      Responses

      What does an ACT expert look for when answering an ACT English question?

      ACT experts look for clues in both the passage and answer choices—and question stem, if one is present—to help identify the issue and determine which choices are correct and which are incorrect. These include punctuation marks, answer choice lengths, and words such as relevant in the question stem.

      Describe at least three types of issues that could be present in English questions.

      Punctuation issues could involve commas, colons, parentheses, and other punctuation marks. Correct answers should be concise, so incorrect choices could use more words than necessary. Correct answers should not add information that contradicts or is irrelevant to the rest of the passage.

      How does eliminating choices that do not address the issue make it easier to identify the correct answer?

      When you identify choices that must be incorrect because they don’t address the issue, you save time by eliminating them without plugging them in and checking for correctness, conciseness, and relevance.

      Why do correct answers need to be grammatically correct, concise, and relevant?

      It’s not enough for an answer choice to be grammatically correct or concise or relevant. The correct answer to an ACT English question must be grammatically correct, concise, and relevant, and incorrect choices will often only meet one or two—but not all three!—of these criteria.

      Next Steps

      If you answered most questions correctly in the How Much Have You Learned? section, and if your responses to the Reflect questions were similar to those of an expert, then consider the ACT English Method an area of strength and move on to the next chapter. Do keep using the method as you work on the questions in future chapters.

      If you don’t yet feel confident, review those parts of this chapter that you have not yet mastered and try the questions you missed again. As always, be sure to review the explanations closely. Also, go online (kaptest.com/login) to watch a video about the Method for ACT English questions and to use your Qbank for more practice. If you haven't already registered your book, do so at kaptest.com/moreonline.

      GO ONLINE

      kaptest.com/login

      Answers and Explanations

      How Much Have You Learned?

      D

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Sentence Structure

      Getting to the Answer: The phrase over the centuries must be placed logically and punctuated properly. Its original position interrupts the phrase largely unchanged, so A is incorrect. Choices B and C are incorrect because placing the phrase at the beginning of the sentence is not logical; over the centuries is not referring to the concept of liberal arts but rather to the parameters of the discipline. Placing the phrase at the end of the sentence is logical and does not require additional punctuation, so (D) is correct.

      G

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Development

      Getting to the Answer: The word broad means covering a large number of subjects or areas, so (G) is correct. Choices F, H, and J are incorrect because they do not clearly express the idea that liberal arts include a variety of subjects.

      D

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Sentence Structure

      Getting to the Answer: As written, the sentence is a run-on; a comma cannot connect two independent clauses without a FANBOYS (For, And, Nor, But, Or, Yet, So) coordinating conjunction, so A is incorrect. Although there are a number of ways to correct a run-on sentence, only one answer choice will do so without introducing additional errors. Choices B, C, and (D) all address the run-on error. However, B uses a semicolon while also making the second clause dependent. The conjunction so in C creates a cause-and-effect relationship between the clauses that is inappropriate in context. Only (D) corrects the run-on and does not introduce new errors.

      J

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Agreement

      Getting to the Answer: Items in a list must be in parallel form. As written, this list includes four verb phrases, but they are not parallel, so F is incorrect. Choice G is incorrect because it includes present perfect tense, which does not agree with the simple present tense verb phrases in the rest of the list. Choice H is in present tense, but the plural verb award does not match the singular subject college. The present-tense singular verb awards agrees with both the subject and the rest of the sentence, so (J) is correct.

      A

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Organization

      Getting to the Answer: When a transition word is underlined, check that it correctly represents the relationship between the ideas it connects. In this sentence, the transition needs to convey that liberal arts have been the focus of colleges in the United States from the time when the country was still a British colony. Since does exactly that, so choice (A) is correct. Choices B, C, and D all incorrectly change the relationship between the parts of the sentence.

      G

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Agreement

      Getting to the Answer: Adjectives can modify only nouns and pronouns; all other parts of speech are modified by adverbs. As written, the sentence uses the adjective steady to modify the verb increased, so F is incorrect. Both (G) and H correct the error, but H is unnecessarily wordy, so (G) is correct. Choice J incorrectly uses the adverb steadily to modify the noun fashion.

      A

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Agreement

      Getting to the Answer: Check underlined verbs and pronouns for agreement errors. The infinitive verb to give is idiomatically correct with sought, and their agrees with its plural antecedent colleges. (A) is correct. Choices B and D pair a singular pronoun with a plural antecedent; C and D do not properly construct the infinitive verb form.

      F

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Sentence Structure

      Getting to the Answer: Carefully examine the different punctuation marks. Here, the comma is used together with a coordinating conjunction to join two independent clauses, so (F) is correct. Although the semicolon in G can join two independent clauses, it cannot be used together with a coordinating conjunction. The period in H creates a sentence fragment. Finally, J is incorrect because a colon should not be followed by a coordinating conjunction.

      D

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Conciseness

      Getting to the Answer: As written, the underlined portion includes a redundancy with the words current and today’s. Choice (D) corrects this error by omitting the word current. Choices B and C are incorrect because they are even wordier than the original.

      J

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Sentence Structure

      Getting to the Answer: An introductory clause generally modifies the noun that immediately follows it. As written, this sentence says that courses in computer science and information technology are Responding to this concern. Choice F is incorrect. Choice (J) correctly puts the noun phrase, many colleges and universities, immediately after the modifying clause. Choices G and H do not address the error.

      B

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Agreement

      Getting to the Answer: The sentence includes a pronoun that does not match the surrounding text. The author does not use the first-person pronoun I anywhere else in the essay, so A is incorrect. The author does not address the audience directly or use the word we, so C and D are incorrect. Choice (B) correctly uses Many educators instead of a pronoun.

      G

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Development

      Getting to the Answer: When deciding whether to delete a sentence, identify the purpose of the paragraph and determine whether the sentence supports it. This paragraph discusses concerns about liberal arts education in modern times. The sentence states that liberal arts schools also offer advanced degrees, which is not pertinent to the paragraph. Eliminate H and J. Choice (G) correctly identifies the sentence as an irrelevant interruption.

      C

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Agreement

      Getting to the Answer: A verb must agree with its subject, which may not be the noun closest to it in the sentence. Although the plural noun students is the closest noun to the verb remain, the verb’s subject is actually the singular noun premise, so A is incorrect. Choice (C) corrects the agreement error. Choice B creates a sentence fragment, and D uses a past-tense verb that does not match the surrounding verbs, which are in present tense.

      H

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Development

      Getting to the Answer: Consider where in the essay a reference to The late 1800s would fit best. Choice (H) correctly places the sentence between a reference to the United States since it was a British colony and the 20th century. Choices F, G, and J position the sentence illogically within the essay, either too early or too late in the history of liberal arts education.

      D

      Difficulty: High

      Category: Development

      Getting to the Answer: First, answer the yes or no part of the question. While the author does outline the history of liberal arts, higher education encompasses more than just arts, humanities, and sciences. Eliminate A and B. Choice C is incorrect because the author does mention higher education throughout the essay. Choice (D) is correct.

      CHAPTER 3

      Spotting and Fixing Errors: Sentence Structure, Punctuation, and Agreement

      LEARNING OBJECTIVES

      After completing this chapter, you will be able to:

      Determine the correct punctuation and/or conjunctions to form a complete sentence

      Identify and correct inappropriate uses of semicolons

      Set off simple parenthetical elements using punctuation

      Identify and correct inappropriate uses of commas, dashes, and colons

      Identify and correct verb agreement issues

      Identify and correct pronoun agreement issues

      Identify and correct modifier agreement issues

      Identify and correct inappropriate uses of apostrophes

      Identify and correct expressions that deviate from idiomatic English

      Sentence Structure: 9/36 SmartPoints® (Very high yield)

      Agreement: 10/36 SmartPoints® (Very high yield)

      How Much Do You Know?

      Directions: Try out the questions below. The Category heading in the explanation for each question gives the title of the lesson that covers how to answer it. If you answered the question(s) for a given lesson correctly, you may be able to move quickly through that lesson. If you answered incorrectly, you may want to take your time on that lesson.

      The Bebop Movement

      For a jazz musician in New York City in the ¹1940s. The most interesting place to spend the hours between midnight and dawn was likely a Harlem nightclub called Minton’s. After finishing their jobs at other clubs, young musicians like Charlie Parker, Dizzy Gillespie, Kenny Clarke, and Thelonious Monk would gather at Minton’s and have jam sessions, or informal performances featuring lengthy group and solo ²improvisations, the all-night sessions resulted in the birth of modern jazz as these African American artists together forged a new sound, known as bebop.

      NO CHANGE

      1940s; the

      1940s, the

      1940s, it was when the

      NO CHANGE

      improvisations and the all-night sessions

      improvisations, the all-night sessions,

      improvisations. The all-night sessions

      Unlike swing, the enormously popular jazz played in the 1930s, bebop was not dance music. Often it ³had been blindingly fast, incorporated irregular rhythms, and featured discordant sounds that jazz audiences had never heard before. The harmonic complexity of bebop distinguished it from other forms of jazz at the time. Bebop, unlike other forms of jazz, was based on a 12-note scale, thereby opening up vast new harmonic opportunities for musicians.

      NO CHANGE

      was going to be blindingly fast, incorporated irregular rhythms, and featured discordant sounds

      was blindingly fast, incorporated irregular rhythms, and featured discordant sounds

      was blindingly fast, incorporated irregular rhythms, and featuring discordant sounds

      The musicians who pioneered bebop ⁴shared, two common elements, a vision of the new music’s possibilities and astonishing improvisational skill—the ability to play or compose a musical line on the spur of the moment. As the essence of jazz, ⁵providing the context of a group setting for improvisation is paramount. Parker, perhaps the ⁶most great instrumental genius jazz has known, was a brilliant improviser. He often played twice as fast as the rest of the band, but his solos, infused with creativity, ⁷was always in rhythm and exquisitely shaped, revealing a harmonic imagination that enthralled his listeners.

      NO CHANGE

      shared two common elements: a vision

      shared, two common elements a vision

      shared two common elements a vision

      NO CHANGE

      improvisation within the context of a group setting is paramount.

      paramount is improvisation within the context of a group setting.

      paramount is the context of a group setting for improvisation.

      NO CHANGE

      most greatest

      greater

      greatest

      NO CHANGE

      is

      are

      were

      Unfortunately, the bebop movement, like many revolutions that fought ⁸its way into mainstream culture, initially encountered heavy resistance. Opposition came not only from older jazz musicians initially, ⁹but also, later and more lastingly from a general public alienated by the music ¹⁰genre’s complexity and sophistication. Furthermore, due to the government ban on ¹¹recording, that was, in effect, during the early years of World War II (records were made of vinyl, a petroleum product that was essential to the war effort), the creative ferment that first produced bebop ¹²most remains undocumented today.

      NO CHANGE

      it’s

      their

      there

      NO CHANGE

      but, later and more lastingly

      but, later and more lastingly—

      but also—later and more lastingly—

      NO CHANGE

      genres’

      genres’s

      genres

      NO CHANGE

      recording that was in effect

      recording that was; in effect

      recording—that was in effect

      NO CHANGE

      remains most

      remains mostly

      remain mostly

      Check Your Work

      C

      Difficulty: Low

      Category: Sentence Structure: The Basics

      Getting to the Answer: As written, the phrase before the period is a sentence fragment, so A is incorrect. Replacing the period with a semicolon does not address this issue, so B is incorrect. Choice (C) fixes the fragment by joining the dependent clause For a jazz musician in New York City in the 1940s and the independent clause the most interesting place to spend the hours between midnight and dawn was likely a Harlem nightclub called Minton’s with a comma. Choice D both creates an illogical sentence structure and is unnecessarily wordy. Choice (C) is correct.

      J

      Difficulty: Low

      Category: Sentence Structure: The Basics

      Getting to the Answer: As written, the underlined portion creates a run-on sentence, so F is incorrect. Eliminate G because replacing the comma with a coordinate conjunction (in this case, the word and) does not fix the run-on. Adding a comma after sessions does not fix the run-on either, so H is also incorrect. Choice (J) correctly separates the two independent clauses with a period.

      C

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Agreement: Verbs

      Getting to the Answer: As written, the sentence includes a list of three verbs that are not in parallel form. A is incorrect. Eliminate B and D, since their verbs are also not in parallel form. Choice (C) correctly uses three past-tense verb phrases.

      G

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Sentence Structure: Commas, Dashes, and Colons

      Getting to the Answer: Colons are used to introduce lists or short phrases, so a colon is appropriate to use after elements. (G) is correct. Choice F is incorrect because the phrase two common elements is essential to the sentence, so it should not be surrounded by commas. Choice H incorrectly separates a verb from its object, and J incorrectly omits punctuation altogether.

      B

      Difficulty: High

      Category: Agreement: Modifiers

      Getting to the Answer: As the essence of jazz is an introductory modifying phrase, so the word(s) that immediately follow the comma must be the item(s) being modified. The word improvisation must come after the comma because the passage indicates that jam sessions, or informal performances, are the essence of jazz. (B) is correct. Choices A, C, and D do not put the word improvisation after the comma, so they all display modification errors.

      J

      Difficulty: Low

      Category: Agreement: Modifiers

      Getting to the Answer: Eliminate F and G because most great and most greatest are idiomatically incorrect. Choice H does not create an idiom error, but the comparative form of great should be used only when exactly two objects or individuals are being compared. Choice (J) correctly uses the superlative form.

      D

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Agreement: Verbs

      Getting to the Answer: If a verb is underlined, make sure that it agrees with its subject. The subject, solos, is plural, and the verb was is singular, so A is incorrect. Eliminate B because it is also singular. Choice C is plural but in the present tense. Choice (D) is plural and correctly uses the past tense, which matches the tense of the rest of the paragraph.

      H

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Agreement: Pronouns

      Getting to the Answer: When a pronoun is underlined, check that it agrees with its antecedent, the noun to which it refers. The antecedent is the plural noun revolutions, so the plural pronoun their is needed; (H) is correct. Choice F is incorrect because its is singular. Choices G and J do not make sense in context; it’s means it is, and there indicates location, not possession.

      D

      Difficulty: High

      Category: Sentence Structure: Parenthetical Elements

      Getting to the Answer: The phrase later and more lastingly is a parenthetical phrase that must be properly punctuated. Only (D) correctly sets it off from the rest of the sentence. In addition, B and C incorrectly omit the word also, which must be included because the sentence includes the first part of the idiomatic phrase not only . . . but also.

      F

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Agreement: Modifiers

      Getting to the Answer: The word genre’s is a singular possessive noun. It makes sense in context because the sentence is describing the complexity and sophistication of a single genre of music. (F) is correct. Choices G and H are possessive, but they are both plural. In addition, H incorrectly adds an extra s after the apostrophe; genres’s is considered grammatically incorrect in any context. Finally, choice J does not show possession at all.

      B

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Sentence Structure: Commas, Dashes, and Colons

      Getting to the Answer: When a punctuation mark is underlined, make sure that it is actually necessary. Commas, semicolons, and dashes all separate elements of the sentence into different logical units. Since the phrase recording that was in effect is one cohesive phrase, no punctuation of any sort should be used. Choice (B) is correct.

      H

      Difficulty: Medium

      Category: Agreement: Modifiers

      Getting to the Answer: As written, the phrase most remains is in the wrong order. Additionally, it uses the adjective most, instead of the adverb mostly, to modify the adjective undocumented. Choice (H) is the only option that is in the correct order, uses an adverb, and does not introduce a new error. J incorrectly changes the singular verb remains to the plural verb remain, which does not agree with the singular subject ferment.

      Sentence Structure: The Basics

      LEARNING OBJECTIVES

      After this lesson, you will be able to:

      Determine the correct punctuation and/or conjunctions to form a complete sentence

      Identify and correct inappropriate uses of semicolons

      To answer a question like this:

      Women’s Suffrage

      The struggle for women’s suffrage in the United States began several decades before national legislation was ¹enacted and the movement included a myriad of efforts that culminated in nationwide voting rights nearly fifty years after the birth of the women’s suffrage movement.

      NO CHANGE

      enacted, the

      enacted; the

      enacted but the

      You need to know this:

      Fragments and Run-ons

      A complete sentence must express a complete thought and have both a subject and a verb. If any one of these elements is missing, the sentence is a fragment. You can recognize a fragment because the sentence will not make sense as written.

      The fragment, While Lola ran a marathon is an example of a dependent clause: it has a subject (Lola) and a verb (ran), but it does not express a complete thought because it starts with a subordinating conjunction (while). Notice what the word while does to the meaning: While Lola ran a marathon, what happened? To fix this type of fragment, eliminate the subordinating conjunction or join the dependent clause to an independent clause using a comma. Subordinating conjunctions are words and phrases such as since, because, therefore, unless, although, and due to.

      Unlike a dependent clause, an independent clause can stand on its own as a complete sentence. If a sentence has more than one independent clause, those clauses must be properly joined. If they are not, the sentence is a run-on: Lucas enjoys hiking, he climbs a new mountain every summer. There are several ways to correct a run-on:

      Semicolons

      Semicolons are used in one specific way on the ACT:

      You need to do this:

      To recognize and correct errors involving fragments, run-ons, and semicolons, familiarize yourself with the ways in which they are tested.

      Fragments

      If a sentence is missing a subject, a verb, or a complete thought, it is a fragment.

      Correct the fragment by adding the missing element.

      Run-ons

      If a sentence includes two independent clauses, they must be properly joined.

      Employ one of the following options to properly punctuate independent clauses:

      Use a period

      Insert a semicolon

      Use a comma and a FANBOYS (For, And, Nor, But, Or, Yet, So) conjunction

      Use a dash

      Make one clause dependent by using a subordinating conjunction (since, because, therefore, unless, although, due to, etc.)

      Semicolon Use

      A semicolon is used to join two independent clauses that are not connected by a comma and a FANBOYS conjunction.

      Explanation:

      The clauses before and after the word and are independent clauses and must be punctuated properly. Choice (C) correctly uses a semicolon to join the two clauses. Choices A, B, and D include either a comma or a coordinating conjunction but not both, so they are incorrect.

      Drills

      If sentence formation or semicolons give you trouble, study the information above and try out these drill questions before completing the Try on Your Own questions below. Drill answers can be found on the bottom of the next page.

      Correct the fragment by adding a subject: Volunteered to organize the upcoming fundraiser.

      Correct the fragment by completing the thought: Upon finding the misplaced house keys.

      Correct the run-on sentence by adding a punctuation mark: The historic center of town was restored it once again bustled with activity.

      Correct the run-on sentence by adding a punctuation mark: Logical thinking is essential to scientific research the irony is that scientists who make important discoveries often do so on a hunch.

      Make one clause dependent to correct the run-on sentence: The local farms had a poor harvest last year, the price of produce at the market has risen dramatically.

      Drill answers from previous page:

      Note: These are not the only ways to correct the sentences; your answers may differ.

      The student volunteered to organize the upcoming fundraiser.

      Upon finding the misplaced house keys, Hannah locked the front door.

      The historic center of town was restored. It once again bustled with activity.

      Logical thinking is essential to scientific research; the irony is that scientists who make important discoveries often do so on a hunch.

      The local farms had a poor harvest last year, so the price of produce at the market has risen dramatically.

      Try on Your Own

      Directions: Take as much time as you need on these questions. Work carefully and methodically. There will be an opportunity for timed practice at the end of the chapter.

      Espresso 89

      For what seemed like ²eons; people in my neighborhood complained about the lack of coffee shops in our community. The discussions at times became ³passionate, and it seemed that my neighbors believed that a coffee shop would cure just about any problem our suburban neighborhood faced. Not a coffee drinker, I remained unconvinced that a venue to purchase coffee would make a significant difference. However, when a coffee shop did open ⁴nearby. I discovered that it offered much more than warm beverages and convenient snacks. Ingrid and Gus, the owners of Espresso 89, work diligently to create an inclusive ⁵atmosphere thanks to their dedication, their shop serves as a community center for the area.

      NO CHANGE

      eons, people

      eons, and people

      eons. People

      Which of the following replacements for the underlined segment of the sentence would NOT be acceptable?

      passionate it

      passionate; it

      passionate. It

      so passionate that it

      NO CHANGE

      nearby, I

      nearby and

      nearby, and also I

      NO CHANGE

      atmosphere, thanks

      atmosphere—thanks

      atmosphere so thanks

      Espresso 89 began by inviting a local artist to display her paintings on the walls of the shop and holding a gallery opening for the occasion. Ingrid and Gus encouraged other local artists to sign up for future opportunities to share their work with the coffee-drinking public. Two or three nights a week, Espresso 89 hosts music or literary events that provide entertainment and the opportunity for local artists to showcase their talent. A retired elementary school teacher conducts a weekly children’s story ⁶hour she offers storybook after storybook to delighted children and their grateful parents.

      NO CHANGE

      hour, she offers

      hour; offering

      hour, offering

      Sentence Structure: Parenthetical Elements

      LEARNING OBJECTIVE

      After this lesson, you will be able to:

      Set off simple parenthetical elements using punctuation

      To answer a question like this:

      The Nineteenth ¹Amendment which granted all American women the right to vote, was passed by Congress on June 4, 1919.

      NO CHANGE

      Amendment, which granted all American women the right to vote, was

      Amendment which granted all American women the right to vote was

      Amendment which granted all American women the right to vote—was

      You need to know this:

      Answer choices often move punctuation marks around, replace them with other punctuation marks, or remove them altogether. When underlined portions include commas, dashes, or parentheses, check to make sure the punctuation is used correctly in context.

      Parenthetical Elements

      Parenthetical elements may appear at the beginning, in the middle, or at the end of a sentence. They must be properly punctuated with parentheses, commas, or dashes for the sentence to be grammatically correct. A phrase such as the capital of France is considered parenthetical if the rest of the sentence is grammatically correct when it is removed. Do not mix and match; a parenthetical element must begin and end with the same type of punctuation.

      You need to do this:

      If the underlined portion includes punctuation, ask yourself:

      Is the punctuation used correctly?

      The commas, dashes, or parentheses need to set off a parenthetical element, be used consistently, and be placed in the correct location.

      Is the punctuation necessary?

      If you cannot identify a reason why the punctuation is included, the punctuation should be removed.

      Explanation:

      The phrase which granted all American women the right to vote is a parenthetical element that must be set off from the rest of the sentence with either two commas or two dashes. Choice (B) is correct.

      Drills

      If parenthetical elements give you trouble, study the information above and try out these drill questions before completing the Try on Your Own questions below. Drill answers can be found on the bottom of the next page.

      Use a comma to correctly punctuate the parenthetical element at the beginning of the sentence: Delayed for two hours due to a thunderstorm the baseball game started much later than fans had expected.

      Use parentheses to correctly punctuate the parenthetical element in the middle of the sentence: The Heart of a Woman originally published in 1981 is one of Maya Angelou’s most popular books.

      Use commas to correctly punctuate the parenthetical element in the middle of the sentence: The architect a keen observer known for her meticulous attention to detail gently pointed out the error in her coworker’s design.

      Use dashes to correctly punctuate the parenthetical element in the middle of the sentence: Contemporary Hawaiian quilts which are often featured at the Mokupāpapa Discovery Center reflect an eclectic blend of Hawaiian tradition and modern vision.

      Use a comma to correctly punctuate the parenthetical element at the end of the sentence: A hurricane’s strength is rated on a scale of 1 to 5 depending on the speed of sustained winds.

      Drill answers from previous page:

      Note: These are not the only ways to correct the sentences; your answers may differ.

      Delayed for two hours due to a thunderstorm, the baseball game started much later than fans had expected.

      The Heart of a Woman (originally published in 1981) is one of Maya Angelou’s most popular books.

      The architect, a keen observer known for her meticulous attention to detail, gently pointed out the error in her coworker’s design.

      Contemporary Hawaiian quilts—which are often featured at the Mokupāpapa Discovery Center—reflect an eclectic blend of Hawaiian tradition and modern vision.

      A hurricane’s strength is rated on a scale of 1 to 5, depending on the speed of sustained winds.

      Try on Your Own

      Directions: Take as much time as you need on these questions. Work carefully and methodically. There will be an opportunity for timed practice at the end of the chapter.

      Medusa

      For more than two thousand ²years; Medusa has been a prominent image in the world of art and the world of myth. As far back as 200 BCE, images of ³Medusa—the defeated Gorgon, abounded. The shield of Alexander the Great, for example, was graced with an image of the mythical Medusa with her locks of live ⁴serpents, and a gaze that turned onlookers into stone.

      NO CHANGE

      years, Medusa

      years Medusa

      years. Medusa

      NO CHANGE

      Medusa the defeated Gorgon, abounded.

      Medusa the defeated Gorgon abounded.

      Medusa—the defeated Gorgon—abounded.

      NO CHANGE

      serpents;

      serpents,

      serpents and

      Medusa was surely one of the most threatening figures of ancient Greek mythology. One of the three Gorgon ⁵sisters Medusa had been known for her beauty. However, she aroused the anger of the goddess Athena, who turned ⁶Medusa’s, once lovely hair, to snakes. With the power to turn anyone who looked upon her into stone, Medusa was feared and thought impossible to defeat.

      NO CHANGE

      sisters,

      sisters because

      sisters was because

      NO CHANGE

      Medusa’s once lovely hair

      Medusa’s once, lovely hair

      Medusa’s—once lovely hair

      Sentence Structure: Commas, Dashes, and Colons

      LEARNING OBJECTIVE

      After this lesson, you will be able to:

      Identify and correct inappropriate uses of commas, dashes, and colons

      To answer a question like this:

      In 1848, suffragists at the Seneca Falls Convention developed a wide array of demands, many of which were eventually considered too radical to be feasible. As a way of gaining broader support, these suffragists found it

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