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1. INTRODUCTION
1. Poisson's ratio of steel in the elastic range 9. A beam is defined as a structural member
is subjected to .
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.3 (a) Axial loading
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.5 (b) Transverse loading
(c) Axial and transverse loading
2. The gauge length of the steel coupon is (d) None of these
given by
(a) 4 d (b) 6 d 10. The heaviest I-section for the same depth
(c) 200 mm (d) 5.65√A is.
where d is the larger dimension of the (a) ISLB (b) ISMB
section, A0 in the cross-sectional area. (c) ISHB (d) ISWB

3. The upper yield point in the stress- strain 11. Standard loads are given in
curve in structural steel can be avoided (a) IS 885 (b) IS 1375
by (c) IS 675 (d) IS 875
(a) cold working
(b) hot working 12. Minimum thickness of main steel
(c) quenching members, not exposed to weather is :
(d) galvanising (a) 4.5 mm (b) 6.0 mm
(c) 8.0 mm (d) 8.5 mm
4. The structural advantage of using steel as
a structural material is 13. Permissible stress may also be known as :
(a) small weight-to-strength (a) Ultimate stress (b) Working stress
(b) speed of erection (c) Limit stress (d) Yield stress
(c) Speed of dismantling
(d) scrap value 14. As per IS : 800, the factor of safety
adopted with respect to the yield stress of
5. The necking of the steel section during steel is :
tensile test takes place (a) 1.45 (b) 1.5
(a) at yield stress (c) 1.67 (d) 2.0
(b) in strain hardining range
(c) after reaching ultimate tensile stress 15. One cubic metre of mild steel weight
(d) at plastic yielding about
(a) 1000 kg (b) 3625 kg
6. The life period of a steel commercial (c) 7850 kg (d) 12560 kg
buildings is
(a) 10 years (b) 20 years 16. Percentage increase of carbon in steel,
(c) 50 years (d) 100 years decreases its
(a) Hardness (b) Ductility
7. Rolled steel sections are classified: (c) Strength (d) Brittleness
(a) Equal angles (b) Unequal angles
(c) Bulb angles (d) All the above 17. The main advantage of a steel member is
____.
8. A plate used for connecting two or more (a) Its high strength
structural member intersecting each other (b) Its gas and water tightness
is called. (c) Its long service life
(a) Template (b) Base Plate (d) all options are correct
(c) gusset plate (d) Anchor plate

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18. The permissible stress to which a (b) elastic modulus

structural member can be subjected to, is (c) design stress
known as (d) plastic modulus
(a) Bearing stress
(b) Working stress 24. The stress strain diagram for mild steel
(c) Tensile stress subjected to tensile load is given. Now
(d) Compressive stress consider the following statements

19. Bulb angle are used in _____.

(a) Column building
(b) Bridge building
(c) Ship building
(d) Water tank building

20. The one that has least carbon content is :

(a) Wrought iron
(b) Cast iron 1. The diagram represents average stress
(c) Mild steel strain diagram
(d) Pig steel 2. The diagram represents actual stress
strain diagram
21. Match List I (Properties) with List II (Stress 3. A represents upper yield point
points labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) in the stress- 4. B represents lower yield point
strain figure and select the correct Which of the statements given above are
answer: correct?
List-l List-ll (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
A. Yield point (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

B. Proportional limit 25. Consider the following statements

regarding the working stress design
C. Rupture strength method:
1. Working stress design is based on the
D. Ultimate strength elastic theory.
Codes: 2. The working stress in the member
A B C D should be less than the permissible stress.
(a) 3 4 1 2 3. The permissible stress is the ratio of the
(b) 4 3 1 2 factor of safety to the yield stress.
(c) 3 4 2 1 4. The permissible stresses for fasteners
(d) 4 3 2 1 are usually based on the ultimate strength
of the connection.
22. For steel structure proportional using Which of the above statements is/are not
plastic design, the working load (dead correct?
load + imposed load) should be (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only
multiplied by which one of the following (c) 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
minimum load factor?
(a) 1.3 (b) 1.5 26. For design of a roof truss, if the design
(c) 1.7 (d) 2.0 wind velocity is 20 m/s, what is the design
wind pressure?
23. Which one of the following is correct? (a) 400 N/m² (b) 40 N/m²
Steel structures are ideally suitable for (c) 240 N/m² (d) 200 N/m²
impact loads because they have high
(a) toughness value

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27. The quality of structured steel is normally (d) A is false but R is true
identified by
(a) Yield stress (b) Ultimate stress 33. Which of the following statements is false?
(c) Elastic stress (d) Proof stress (a) Steel can be reused.
(b) Being heavy, it is quite difficult to
28. According to IS 800 which of the following transport.
is not a limit state of durability (c) Steel has a very long life when
consideration? maintained properly.
(a) Fatigue crack (d) Steel is a ductile material
(b) Corrosion durability
(c) Fire durability 34. Which of the following is the correct
(d) Brittle fracture criteria to be considered while
designing?
29. The rolled steel I sections are most (a) Structure should be aesthetically
commonly used as beams because these pleasing but structurally unsafe
provide (b) Structure should be cheap in cost even
1. Large moment of inertia with less cross though it may be structurally unsafe
sectional area. (c) Structure should be structurally safe
2. Greater lateral stability but less durable
(a) 1 only (b) 2 Only (d) Structure should be adequately safe,
(c) 1 & 2 both (d) None of these should have adequate serviceability

30. With a percentage increase of carbon in 35. The factors governing the ultimate
steel it decreases its. strength of a structure are stability and
(a) Strength fatigue. The partial factor of safety for
(b) Hardness loads when designing for fatigue is
(c) Brittleness (a) 1.0 (b) 1.1
(d) Ductility (c) 1.2 (d) 1.5

31. Identify the incorrect statement for the 36. Which of the following is not a
mild steel serviceability criteria?
(a) It has two yield points (a) Deflection
(b) It is a ductile material (b) Ponding
(c) It has small percentage elongation at (c) Vibration
failure (d) Fatigue
(d) It shows strain hardening
37. Which of the following is a serviceability
32. Consider the following statements: criteria?
Assertion (A): Steel is particularly useful (a) Stability against overturning
for carrying heavy loads with relatively (b) Sway stability
small sections as compared to other (c) Fire resistance
structural materials. (d) Fatigue
Reason (R): As compared to other
structural materials, steel has a high 38. Which of the following is not a limit state
strength to weight ratio. Of these of strength?
statements: (a) Fracture due to fatigue
(a) both A and R are true and R is the (b) Brittle fracture
correct explanation of A (c) Rupture of the structure
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a (d) Vibrations in structures
correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false

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39. Which of the following causes fatigue in a (b) five series

structure? (c) six series
1. Maximum stress (d) seven series
2. Residual stress
3. Large number of loading cycles 44. For steel construction where secondary
4. Wide range of stress variation effects are considered without wind or
Select the correct answer using the codes earthquake loads, the permissible
given below: stresses on the members or connections,
Codes as specified, may be exceeded by:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (a) 25% (b) 33%
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 33.33% (d) 40%

40. The maximum permissible vertical 45. Rolled steel beams are______.
deflection of a simply supported beam in (a) Mainly used to resist bending stress
non industrial buildings if the element is (b) Used as independent sections to resist
susceptible for cracking is ---. compressive stress
𝑠𝑝𝑎𝑛 𝑠𝑝𝑎𝑛 (c) Used as independent sections to resist
(a) (b)
360 350 tensile stress
𝑠𝑝𝑎𝑛 𝑠𝑝𝑎𝑛
(c) (d) (d) All options are correct
325 300

41. Match List-I with List-II and select the 46. In the design of structrues, an additional
correct answer using the loads given lateral load considered, to account for the
below the list : initial imperfections of the structure
List – I List – II geometry is called
(Type of stresses) (Allowable value of (a) rotational load
stress) (b) notional load
A. Axial tension 1. 0.75 fy (c) damping load
B. Bending tension 2. 0.66 fy (d) frictional drag load
C. Maximum shear 3. 0.60 fy
Stress 47. In a structural steel work it is mentioned
D. Bearing stress 4. 0.40 fy that a rolled steel section ISLB 500@735.8
(fy = minimum field stress of steel) N/m was used in the work. This indicates
Code : that the section is:
A B C D (a) a T-section 500 mm deep and the self
(a) 2 3 1 4 weight is 735.8 N/m length
(b) 3 2 4 1 (b) an I-section 500 mm deep and the self
(c) 2 3 4 1 weight is 735.8 N/m length
(d) 3 2 1 4 (c) a channel section 500 mm deep and
the self-weight is 735.8 N/m length
42. When the effect of the wind or earthquake (d) a section 500 mm deep, flange width
load is taken into account, the permissible 500mm, and the self-weight is 735.8 N/m
stresses specified for Rivets, bolts and length
tension rods may be exceeded by
1 48. The rolled-section steel beams exhibit :
(a) 33 3 % Percent
(b) 25 percent (a) a small amount of both warping and
(c) 15 percent torsional rigidity
(d) 1.5 times normal value (b) small amount of warping rigidity only
(c) small amount of torsional rigidity only
43. As per Indian Standards rolled steel I- (d) comparable torsional and warping
sections are classified into rigidities
(a) four series
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49. What is the meaning of 'ISMB 200' in the

steel design?
(a) Indian standard mean weight beams of
depth 200 mm
(b) Indian standard medium weight beams
of depth 200 mm
(c) Indian standard mild weight beams of
depth 200 mm
(d) Indian standard maximum weight
beams of depth 200 mm

50. What is the value of slope on the inside

face of the flange for all the standard I-
sections and channels sections of steel?
4 1
(a) 16 % (b) 16 %
5 2
3 2
(c) 16 4 % (d) 16 3 %

51. A T-section is designated by ISNT 150 @

223.7 N/m. What are the meanings of 150
and 223.7?
(a) It is 150 mm deep and the self-weight
is 223.7 kg per metre length.
(b) It is 150 mm thick and the self-weight
is 223.7 N per metre length.
(c) It is 150 mm deep and the self-weight
is 223.7 N per metre length.
(d) It is 150 mm thick and the self-weight
is 223.7 kg per metre length.

ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. D

8. C 9. B 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. B 14. C

15. C 16. B 17. D 18. B 19. C 20. A 21. A

22. C 23. A 24. B 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. D

29. C 30. D 31. C 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. D

36. D 37. C 38. D 39. B 40. A 41. B 42 B

43. B 44. A 45. D 46. B 47. B 48. D 49. B

50. D 51. C

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2. CONNECTIONS
1. The maximum spacing of tacking rivets is : 9. The effective length of a fillet weld of
(a) 500 mm (b) 750 mm length 𝑙 is
(c) 1000 mm (d) 1500 mm (a) 𝑙- 4s (b) (2/3) 𝑙
(c) 𝑙 - 2s (d) (4/5) 𝑙
2. In a fillet weld the weakest section is the : where s is the size of the weld.
a) Smaller side of the fillet
b) Throat of the fillet 10. The strength of field rivets as compared to
c) Side perpendicular to force shop rivets is
d) Side parallel to force (a) Same (b) 90%
(c) 89% (d) 75%
3. In calculating area to be deducted for
bolts of 36 mm diameter, the diameter of 11. If p and d are pitch and gross diameter of
the hole shall be taken as : rivets, the efficiency η of the riveted joint,
(a) 37.5 mm (b) 36.0 mm is given by:
(c) 38.0 mm (d) 38.5 mm (a) η=p/(p-d) (b) η = (p-d)/p
(c) η=p/(p+ d) (d) η = (p+d)/p
4. For field rivets the maximum permissible
stresses in rivets and bolts as given in the 12. Minimum pitch of the rivets shall not be
code are reduced by : less than:
(a) 5% (b) 10% (a) 1.5 d (b) 2.5 d
(c) 15% (d) 20% (c) 2.0 d (d) 3.0 d

5. The type of welding used to connect two 13. Minimum pitch of rivets should not be less
plates at a lap joint is called than how many times of gross diameter of
(a) Butt weld (b) Slot weld rivet?
(c) Plug weld (d) Fillet weld (a) 2 times (b) 2.5 times
(c) 3 times (d) 4 times
6. Which of the following does not describe a
weld type ? 14. Effective throat thickness (t) and size of
(a) Butt weld (b) Plug weld weld (S) are connected as
(c) Zigzag weld (d) Lap weld (a) t = kS² (b) t = S3
(c) t = kS (d) t = k√𝑆
7. A riveted joint can fail in
(a) Tearing of plate only 15. Bolts are most suitable to carry :
(b) Shearing of rivet only (a) Shear
(c) Bearing of plate or rivet only (b) Bending
(d) Any of the above (c) Axial tension
(d) Shear and bending
8. The gross diameter of a 14 mm nominal
diameter rivet is 16. For a rivet of 36 mm diameter, the
(a) 15.5 mm diameter of hole shall be taken as:
(b) 16 mm (a) 37.5 mm (b) 36.0 mm
(c) 16.5 mm (c) 38.0 mm (d) 38.5 mm
(d) None of the above

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17. What should be multiplied with (c) Chain riveted lap joint
permissible bearing stress to find out (d) Double cover butt joint
strength of rivet in bearing?
𝜋
(a) (p-d)t (b) d² 24. Diameter of a rivet hole should be greater
4
𝜋 than the nominal diameter of rivet by
(c) 2 d² (d) d x t
about:
(a) 4 to 5 mm. (b) 2.5 to 4 mm.
18. Pick the wrongly written assumption taken
(c) 1.5 to 2 mm. (d) 0 to 1.5 mm.
in analysis of riveted joints:
(a) Friction in plate is negligible.
25. According to Unwin's formula, the relation
(b) Uniform stress distribution in plates is
between diameter of rivet hole (d) in mm,
not consideration.
and thickness of plate (t) in mm is given
(c) Bending moment is not taken into
by :
considered.
(a) d = t (b) d = 6.01√𝑡
(d) Total load on the joint is equally
(c) d = 2t (d) d = 2.6√𝑡
shared by all rivets.

26. The minimum edge and end distance from

19. A riveted joint can fail in:
the centre of any hole to the nearest flame-
(a) Tearing of plate only
out edge shall not be less than :
(b) Shearing of rivet only
(a) 1.5 times hole dia
(c) Bearing of plate or rivet only
(b) 1.7 times hole dia
(d) Any of the above
(c) 2 times hole dia
20. If a 2 cm diameter rivet connects two (d) 1.5 times bolt/rivet dia
plates as shown below and safe shear
stress for rivet is 1000 kg/cm² the value of 27. The distance between two rivet measured
maximum permissible pull will be perpendicular to the direction of applied
force is known as:
(a) Pitch (b) Gauge
(c) Staggered pitch (d) Edge distance

28. Maximum size of a fillet weld for a plate of

(a) 1100 kg (b) 1140 kg square edge is :
(c) 2140 kg (d) 3140 kg (a) 1.5 mm less than the thickness of the
plate.
21. The gross diameter of rivet (hole) for a (b) One-half of the thickness of the plate.
rivet with nominal diameter of 27 mm is : (c) Thickness of the plate itself.
(a) 28 mm (b) 28.5 mm (d) 1.5 mm more than the thickness of the
(c) 29 mm (d) 29.5 mm plate.

22. The maximum permissible stress in shear 29. Diameter of a rivet hole is made larger
for power driven shop rivet is: than the diameter of the rivet by :
(a) 80 N/mm² (b) 90 N/mm² (a) 0.5 mm (b) 1.0 mm
(c) 100 N/mm² (d) 250 N/mm² (c) 3 mm (d) 2.0 mm

23. When two plates are placed end-to-end

30. The maximum permissible stress for hand
and jointed by two cover plates, the joint
driven rivet in axial tension is :
is known as :
(a) 250 N/mm² (b) 80 N/mm²
(a) Lap joint
(c) 90 N/mm² (d) 100 N/mm²
(b) Butt joint

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31. The size of a fillet weld is indicated by: B. Greater than 120°
(a) Size of the plate C. Less than 60°
(b) Side of the triangle of fillet D. Greater than 145°
(c) Throat of the fillet The correct statement are :
(d) Length of fillet weld (a) A & B (b) A & D
(c) C & B (d) C & D
32. The throat in a fillet weld is :
(a) Large side of the triangle of the fillet 39. In double riveted double covered butt
(b) Hypotenuse of the triangle of the fillet joint, the strength of the joint per pitch
(c) Small side of the triangle of the fillet length in shearing the rivets 'n' times the
(d) Perpendicular distance from the root shear strength of one rivet in single shear,
to the hypotenuse where n is equal to
(a) 1 (b) 2
33. The size of a rivet is identified by: (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) Diameter of shank
(b) Diameter of head 40. If the pitch is 6 cm and rivet value is 4
(c) Length of shank tonnes, the number of rivets required for a
(d) Shape of head riveted connection carrying an eccentric
load of 15 tonnes at 30 cm from the centre
34. The maximum permissible stress for line is –
power driven field rivet in bearing on (a) 6 (b) 8
rivet is : (c) 10 (d) 12
(a) 100 N/mm² (b) 250 N/mm²
(c) 270 N/mm² (d) 300 N/mm² 41. If 'b' is the width of the plate and 'd' is the
diameter of the rivet, then the efficiency of
35. The fillet weld whose axis is parallel to the a riveted joint having diamond riveting is
direction of the applied load is known as given by……….
(a) Side fillet weld (a) (b - d)/b (b) (b - d)/d
(b) End fillet weld (b) (b-2d)/b (d) (b - 2d)/d
(c) Flat fillet weld
(d) Diagonal fillet weld 42. In a truss girder of a bridge, a diagonal
consists of mild steel flat 400 ISF and
36. Tacking rivets in compression plates carries a pull of 800 kN. If the gross
exposed to weather have a pitch not diameter of the rivets is 26 mm, then the
exceeding 200 mm or number of rivets required in the splice
(a) 8 times the thickness of outside plate is_______
(b) 16 times the thickness of outside plate (a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 24 times the thickness of outside plate (c) 8 (d) 9
(d) 32 times the thickness of outside plate
43. Bolts are most suitable to carry…………
37. The diameter of a rivet connecting plate of (a) Shear
thickness 16 mm given by Unwin's formula (b) Bending
is- (c) Axial tension
(a) 28 mm (b) 24 mm (d) Shear and bending
(c) 22 mm (d) None of these
44. For a standard 45° fillet, the ratio of size of
38. Fillet weld is not recommended if the fillet to throat thickness is –
angle between fusion faces is – (a) 1:1 (b) 1:√2
A. Less than 45° (c) √2:1 (d) 2:1

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45. Centre to centre distance of adjacent rivet 52. Cold driven rivets range from –
or bolt holes measured in the direction of (a) 6 to 10 mm in diameter
stress is called – (b) 10 to 16 mm in diameter
(a) Gauge (b) Pitch (c) 12 to 22 mm in diameter
(c) Lap (d) Edge distance (d) 22 to 32 mm in diameter

46. Design of riveted joint assume that 53. The distance measured along one rivet
(a) The bending stress in rivets is line from the center of a rivet to the center
accounted for of adjoining rivet on an adjacent parallel
(b) The riveted hole is to be filled by the rivet line is called –
rivet (a) Pitch of rivet
(c) The stress in the plate is not uniform (b) Gauge distance of rivet
(d) The friction between plates considered (c) Staggered pitch
(d) All options are correct
47. The rivets which is heated and then driven
in the field are known 54. When two plates are placed end to end
(a) Power driven shop rivets and are joined by two cover plates, the
(b) Power driven field rivets joint is known as……..
(c) Hand driven rivets (a) lap joint
(d) Cold driven rivets (b) butt joint
(c) chain riveted lap joint
48. The gross diameter of a rivet is the (d) double cover butt joint
diameter of…..
(a) Cold rivet before driving 55. Diameter of a rivet hole is made larger
(b) Rivet after driving than the diameter of the rivet by
(c) Rivet hole
(a) 1.0 mm for rivet diameter upto 12 mm
(d) None of these
(b) 1.5 mm for rivet diameter exceeding
25 mm
49. The transverse fillet welds are designed
for (c) 2.0 mm for rivet diameter over 25 mm
(d) None of these
(a) Tensile strength
(b) Shear strength
(c) Compressive strength 56. An imaginary line along which rivets are
(d) Bending stress placed is known as……….
(a) Rivet line
50. Which of the following assumptions are (b) Scrieve line
(c) Back line
made in the design of rivet joints?
A. Rivets are stressed equally (d) All options are correct
B. Stress in plate is maximum at mid-width 57. The main type of butt joints is a double
cover-
C. Rivet hole is completely filled by rivet
D. Friction between plates is neglected (a) Shear riveted joint
(a) Only A (b) A and C only (b) Chain riveted joint
(c) B and D only (d) A, C and D only (c) Zig-zag riveted joint
(d) All of the above
51. Which one of the following is the mode of
failure in a fillet weld material? 58. Number of rivets required in a joint is
(a) Tension (b) Shear (a) Load/shear strength of a rivet
(c) Bearing (d) Crushing (b) Load/bearing strength of a rivet
(c) Load/tearing strength of a rivet
(d) None of these
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59. A riveted joint may experience (c) Only C

(a) Shear failure (d) Least of A, B and C
(b) Shear failure at plates
(c) Bearing failure 65. When plates are exposed to weather,
(d) All option are correct tacking rivets are provided at a pitch in
line not exceeding.
60. Design of a riveted joint, is based on the
assumption. (a) 8 t (b) 16 t
(a) Load is uniformly distributed among all (c) 24 t (d) 32 t
the rivets.
(b) Shear stress on a rivet is uniformly 66. In a truss girder of a bridge, a diagona
consists of mild steel flat 400 ISF and
distributed over its gross area.
(c) Bearing stress is uniform between the carries a pull of 80 tonnes. If the gross
contact surface of the plate and the rivet diameter of the rivet is 26 mm, the number
(d) All option are correct of rivets required in the splice is.
(a) 6 (b) 7
61. According to the unwin's formula, if t is the (c) 8 (d) 9
thickness of the plate in mm, the nominal
67. Efficiency of a riveted joint is defined as
diameter of rivet is
(a) d = 1.91t (b) d = 1.91t2 the ratio of
(a) Least strength of a riveted joint to the
(c) d = 1.91√𝑡 (d) None of these
strength of solid plate.
(b) Greatest strength of a riveted joint to
62. A riveted joint may experience
the strength of solid plate.
(a) Tearing failure of plates
(c) Least strength of riveted plate to the
(b) Bearing failure of plates
greatest strength of a the riveted joint.
(c) Splitting failure of plates at the edges
(d) All option are correct
(d) All option are correct

68. A steel plate is 30 cm wide and 10 mm

63. Pick up the correct statement from the
thick. A rivet of nominal diameter of 18
following
mm is driven. The net sectional area of
(a) Tacking rivets are used if the minimum
plate is
distance between centers of two adjacent
(a) 18.00 cm² (b) 28.20 cm²
rivets exceeds 16t or 200 mm, which ever
(c) 28.05 cm² (d) 32.42cm²
is less
(b) Tacking rivets are not considered to
69. A solid steel plate having yield strength of
calculate stress
250 A MPa, the design strength in yielding
(c) Tacking rivets are provided
(N/mm²) is
throughout the length of a compression
(a) 200 N/mm² (b) 217 N/mm²
member composed of two components
(c) 227 N/mm² (d) 250 N/mm²
back to back
70. Which of the following failures of bolted
(d) All option are correct
joint can be avoided by providing
sufficient edge distance?
64. The strength of a riveted lap joint is equal
(a) Bearing failure of bolt
to its.
(b) Shear failure of bolt
A. Shearing strength
(c) Shear failure of plate
B. Bearing strength
(d) Tensile failure of plate
C. Tearing strength
(a) Only A
71. Determine the rivet value of 20 mm
(b) Only B
diameter rivets connecting 12 mm thick
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plate if it is in single shear, Gross area of (a) 150 kN (b) 175 kN

rivet is 363.05 mm2, permissible stresses (c) 200 kN (d) 212.5 kN
in shear and bearing art 80 MPa and 250
MPa respectively. 77. According to IS 800 – 2007, the nominal
(a) 64.5 kN (b) 645 kN shear capacity of M20 bolt of grade 4.6
(c) 29.044 kN (d) 290.44 kN with one shear plane passing through bolt
shank and one shear plane passing
72. What is the ratio of the yield stress in through threaded portion is :
power driven shop rivets relative to the (a) 45.27 kN (b) 117.52 kN
permissible bearing stress of mild steel ? (c) 56.21 kN (d) 129.14 kN
(a) 1.0 (b) 0.8
(c) 0.6 (d) 0.4 78. Reduction in design shear capacity of
bolts due packing plate in excess of 6mm
73. Which of the following types of the riveted is expressed as per IS (800 – 2007) by :
joint is free from bending stress (a) 1 – 0.125 tpm (b) 1 – 0.12 tpm
(a) Lap joint (c) 1 – 0.25 tpm (d) 1 – 0.0125 tpm
(b) Butt joint with single cover plate Where tpm : thickness of thicker packing
(c) Butt joint with double cover plate plate (in mm)
(d) None of the above
79. Diamond pattern of bolting is beneficial
74. When the bolts are subjected to reversal over chain and staggered bolting because
of stresses, the most suitable type of bolt (a) It transmits maximum force
is (b) It has maximum efficiency
(a) Black bolt (c) It is easy to fabricate
(b) Ordinary unfinished bolt (d) It leads to minimum deflection
(c) Turned & fitted bolt
(d) High strengthen bolt 80. A single angle of thickness 10 mm is
connected to a gusset by 6 numbers of 18
75. If the thickness of plate to be connected mm diameter bolts, with pitch of 50 mm
by a rivet is 16mm, the suitable size of and with edge distance of 30 mm. The net
rivet will be area in block shear Ans. along the line of
(a) 16 mm (b) 20 mm the transmitted force is
(c) 24 mm (d) 27 mm (a) 1810 mm² (b) 1840 mm²
(c) 1920 mm² (d) 1940 mm²
76. The maximum design force for a rivet in
the following bracket connection, if 81. What is the efficiency of joint when
spacing between adjacent rivets is 150 strength of bolt per pitch length is 60kN
mm, is – and strength of plate per pitch length is
150kN?
(a) 30 percent (b) 40 percent
(c) 35 percent (d) 25 percent

82. In case of staggered pitch, may be _____

of values specified for not staggered
pitch.
(a) increased by 20%
(b) increased by 50%
(c) decreased by 20%
(d) decreased by 50%

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83. Distance between the centre of two 89. According to IS specifications, maximum
consecutive rivets measured along a row pitch of rivets in compression is
is called............ (a) lesser of 200 mm and 12t
(a) Eccentricity (b) lesser of 200 mm and 16t
(b) Pitch (c) lesser of 300 mm and 32t
(c) Edge distance (d) lesser of 300 mm and 24t
(d) Gauge
90. Two plates of Fe410 grade and thickness
84. If the diameter of a bolt is 20 mm, then the 14 mm and 12 mm are to be shop welded
maximum number of bolts that can be by a single V-groove weld joint. The joint
accommodated in one row in a 140 mm is subjected to a factored tensile force of
wide flat section is (are) : 350 kN. Assuming effective length of 150
(a) 2 (b) 3 mm, the strength of the weld is
(c) 1 (d) 4 (a) 350 kN (b) 410 kN
(c) 225 kN (d) 250 kN
85. Let 108 mm be the pitch of the rivet and 27 (e) 125 kN
mm is, the gross diameter of rivet then
efficiency of joint per pitch length in 91. Calculate the pitch strength of fillet weld
percent per 1 mm of 6 mm size with allowable
(a) 75 (b) 54.17 shear stress in the weld 100 MPa.
(c) 29:17 (d) 25 (a) 700 N (b) 600 N
(c) 424 N (d) 420 N
86. When the line of action of load lies in the
plane of the group of rivets/bolts and the 92. The effective length of fillet weld of length
centre of gravity of rivet group does not 200 mm and size 12 mm is
lie on the line of action of the load the rivet (a) 188 mm (b) 176 mm
is subjected to : (c) 388 mm (d) 200 mm
(a) Shear and bending
(b) Shear and torsion 93. The type of weld used for joining two
(c) Shear and tension surfaces approximately at right angles to
(d) Twisting and bending each other is known as
(a) Butt weld (b) U groove weld
87. Rivet shape shown above is known as: (c) V groove weld (d) Fillet weld
94. The effective throat thickness of a fillet
weld depends upon-
(a) angle between fusion faces
(b) length of weld
(c) permissible shear stress
(d) type of weld
(a) Pen shape
(b) Snap shape
95. The size of the fillet weld is indicated by
(c) Flat counter sunk
(a) side of the triangle of the fillet
(d) Round counter sunk
(b) throat of the fillet
(c) length of the weld
88. The design yield stress of steel according
(d) size of the plate
to IS : 456-1978 is
(a) 0.37 fy (b) 0.57 fy
96. Welded connections are preferred over
(c) 0.67 fy (d) 0.87 fy
riveted connections because
(a) they are economical

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(b) easy in connection the greatest twisting moment that can be

(c) the loss of member strength is smaller resisted by the weld will be
(d) they reduce the secondary strength (a) 424 π kg.m (b) 300 π kg.m
(c) 212 π kg.m (d) 60 π kg.m
97. The cross section of the weld throat is the
(a) minimum dimension 103. A mild steel flat subjected to a tensile
(b) average dimension force of 84 tonnes is connected to a
(c) maximum dimension gusset plate using rivets. If the force
(d) None of these required to shear a single rivet, to crush
the rivet and to tear the plate per pitch
98. For the fillet weld cross figure the throat length are 5000 kg, 8000 kg and, 6000 kg
thickness is : section shown in respectively, then the number of rivets
required is
(a) 12 (b) 14
(c) 16 (d) 17

104. What is the effective net width of plate

shown in the given sketch for carrying
tension ?
(a) AB (b) BC
(c) AD (d) BD

99. End returns in fillet welds should not be

less than …..
(a) Twice of size of the weld
(b) 1.5 times of size of weld
(c) Size of the weld
(d) 0.5 time of size of weld (a) 212.5 mm (b) 237.5 mm
(c) 250 mm (d) 275 mm
100. The design shear stress for which of the
following weld types is same as that for 105. A structural member carrying a pull of 700
fillet weld ? kN is connected to a gusset plate using
(a) Plug weld Only rivets. If the pulls required to shear the
(b) Slot weld only rivet, to crush the rivet and to tear the
(c) Plug and slot Weld only plate per pitch length are respectively 60
(d) Slot and Butt weld only kN, 35 kN and 70 kN, then the number of
rivets required will be
101. A fillet weld of size 5 mm and total length (a) 22 (b) 20
100 mm is used to connect two steel (c) 18 (d) 12
plates. What is the effective area of fillet
weld? 106. Two steel plates each of 12 mm thickness
(a) 500 [Link] (b) 315 sq mm are connected by a double cover butt joint
(c) 350 sq. mm (d) 450 sq. mm by rivets shown in the given figure. If the
rivet diameter is 22 mm with rivet force
102. A circular plate 100 mm diameter is value of 53150 N and permissible stress in
welded to another plate by means of 6 mm tension of plate is 142 N/ mm², which one
fillet weld. If the permissible shearing of the following section is the
stress in the weld equal 10 kg/mm², then most critical section?

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(a) Section 1 – 1
(b) Section 2 – 2
(c) Section 3 – 3 (a) P/4 (b) P/2
(d) Both section 1 - 1 and section 2 – 2 (c) P (d) 2 P

107. A plate used for connecting two or more 112. What is the safe load P that can be
structural members intersecting each transmitted by the fillet-welded joint
other is termed as shown in figure below if the safe allowable
(a) Template shear stress in is 108 MPa? the fillet-weld
(b) Base plate
(c) Gusset plate
(d) Shoe plate

108. In a riveted joint, failure will occur due to

which one of the following? (a) 60 kN (b) 66 kN
(a) Shear failure of rivet (c) 77 kN (d) 81 kN
(b) Bearing failure of rivet
(c) Tearing failure of plate 113. The maximum longitudinal pitch allowed
(d) Minimum load value of shearing, in bolted joints of tension members is
bearing or tearing failure (a) 16 times the diameter of the bolt
(b) 32 time the diameter of the bolt
109. When the effect of wind or earthquake (c) 16 times the thickness of the plate
load is considered in the design of rivets (d) 32 times the thickness of the plate
and bolts for steel structures by what
percentage the permissible stresses may 114. Load on connection is not eccentric for
be exceeded? (a) lap joint
(a) 15% (b) 25% (b) single-cover butt joint
(c) 33.33% (d) 50% (c) double-cover butt joint
(d) any of the joints mentioned above
110. A 6 mm thick mild steel plate is connected
to an 8 mm thick plate by 16 mm diameter 115. Pick out the incorrect statement.
shop rivets. What is the number of rivets (a) The maximum edge distance of the
required to carry an 80 kN load? fastener from an edge should not exceed
(a) 2 (b) 3 12t (for 𝜀 = 1).
(c) 4 (d) 6 (b) For compression members the
maximum pitch of tacking bolts should be
111. A bracket has been attached to flange of a 600 mm.
column as shown in the figure. What is the (c) The minimum pitch of bolts in case of
maximum force in the bolt ? compression members should not exceed
16 t or 200 mm whichever is less.
(d) When the grip length of the bolt
exceeds 5 times diameter of the bolts, the
design shear capacity is reduced.

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116. For reversal of stress, the most suited bolt 1. Groove welds with reinforcement are
is prone to stress concentration when
(a) black (b) turned subjected to vibrating loads.
(c) friction grip (d) ordinary 2. For static loads convex fillet weld is
preferred.
117. The partial safety factor for the material of 3. The minimum size of a fillet weld for 10
bolts is mm thick plates is 3 mm.
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.10 Of the above
(c) 1.15 (d) 1.25 (a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
118. The nominal bearing strength of the bolt is (c) 1 and 3 are correct
given by 2.5 kbdt fu, where kb depends (d) all 1,2 and 3 are correct
upon
(1) edge and pitch distance 122. The effective throat thickness of a fillet
(2) bolt diameter weld is k times the size of the weld. For a
(3) Flexible p 100° angle between fusion faces, K is
(3) diameter of bolt hole (a) 0.7 (b) 0.65
(4) ultimate tensile stress of bolt (c) 0.6 (d) 1.0
(5) ultimate tensile stress of plate
Of the above, 123. The design shear stress for which of the
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct following weld types is same as that for
(b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct fillet welds?
(c) 3, 4 and 5 are correct (1) Plug weld
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct (2) Slot weld
(3) Groove weld
119. Consider the following statements Of the above,
regarding groove welds. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. They are best suited where fatigue is (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
expected
2. They are costly than fillet welds. 124. The nominal strength of a fillet weld is
3. They have higher residual stresses than (a) fu (b)
𝑓𝑢
√3
those in fillet welds.
𝑓𝑢
Of the above statements (c) fy (d)
√3 𝛾𝑚𝑤
(a) Only 2 and 3 are correct where fy, fu and 𝛾𝑚𝑤 have their usual
(b) Only 1 and 2 are correct meanings.
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) Only 1 and 3 are correct 125. Match List-l List I (Use) with List-II (Type of
weld) and select the correct answer:
120. In a fillet weld cross-section, the throat is List-I
the A. Structural members subject to direct
(a) minimum dimension tension or compression
(b) average dimension B. Joining two surface approximately at
(c) maximum dimension right angles to each other
(d) leg length C. A hole is made in one of the member
and welding is done around the periphery
121. Consider the following statements of the hole
regarding welds. D. Pressure is applied continuously
List-II
1. Slot weld

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2. Seam weld (a) 𝑃𝑑 = 2 𝑃𝑆 (b) 𝑃𝑑 = 2.5 𝑃𝑆

3. Fillet weld (c) 𝑃𝑑 = 3 𝑃𝑆 (d) 𝑃𝑑 = 4 𝑃𝑆
4. Plug weld
5. Butt weld 128. In the case of lap joints, the minimum lap
Code: should NOT bе _______ times the thickness
A B C D of the thinner part joined or 40 mm,
(a) 5 4 1 3 whichever is more
(b) 4 3 2 1 (a) more than three (b) less than four
(c) 5 3 1 2 (c) less than three (d) less than two
(d) 4 5 3 2
129. The minimum length of intermittent fillet
weld shall be:
126. A welding detail is shown in figure –
(a) 40 mm or four times the size of weld
(b) 20 mm or four times the size of weld
(c) 200 mm or 12 times the size of weld
(d) 16 times the size of weld

130. According to IS 800:2007, the nominal

bearing strength of the bolt Vnpb is given
by______ where, fu = Ultimate tensile
stress of the plate
dt = Nominal diameter of bolt
t = Thickness of connected plates
(a) 𝑉𝑛𝑝𝑑 = 2.5 𝑘𝑏 𝑑 𝑡 𝑓𝑢
(b) 𝑉𝑛𝑝𝑏 = 1.5 𝑘𝑑 𝑑 𝑡 𝑓𝑢
(c) 𝑉𝑛𝑝𝑏 = 3 𝑘𝑏 𝑑 𝑡 𝑓𝑢
The welding notation for the figure is (d) 𝑉𝑛𝑝𝑏 = 2𝑘𝑏 𝑑 𝑡 𝑓𝑢
131. In case of welded connection in steel
structures, during welding, a defect is
caused by coating of the parent metal with
a foreign matter and because the groove
is not kept clean. This defect is known as :
(a) lack of fusion
(b) slag inclusion
(c) incomplete penetration
(d) overlap

132. In a fillet welded connection of steel

structures, the sides containing the right
angle of the fillet are called_________.
(a) roots (b) legs
(c) toes (d) throats

133. In case of staggered or zigzag riveting in

the design of tension members of steel
structures, the net cross-sectional area
127. In a double riveted double covered butt along the chains of rivets is :
joint, the strength of the joint per pitch (a) decreased by an amount equal to
𝑠2 𝑡
8𝑔
length in shearing the rivets Pd and
𝑠2 𝑡
strength of one rivet in single shear PS are (b) increased by an amount equal to 4𝑔
related as:

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(c) decreased by an amount equal to

𝑠2 𝑡 provided, this type of joint is known as
4𝑔
butt joint.
𝑠2 𝑡
(d) decreased by an amount equal to 8𝑔 (a) Only I (b) Only II
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
134. Calculate the net area of the tension
member consists a drilled hole of 141. The maximum size of fillet weld for
diameter 22 mm to place a M20 bolt. Take connecting 16 mm and 14 mm thick plates
thickness of the tension member as 10 mm is
and gross area 1000 mm². (a) 14 mm (b) 12.5 mm
(a) 680 mm² (b) 780 mm² (c) 16 mm (d) 14.5 mm
(c) 1000 mm² (d) 550 mm²
142. A tie bar is welded to a plate as shown in
135. For double cover butt joints, thickness of the figure. Find the strength of the weld if
each cover plate is taken as- the size of fillet is 6 mm and working stress
8 5 of fillet weld is 100 MPa.
(a) 𝑡 (b) 𝑡
5 8
3 5
(c) 𝑡 (d) 𝑡
5 3

136. For fillet welds are subjected to a

combination normal stress (fa) and shear
stresses (q), the equivalent stress (fe) is:
(a) √𝑓𝑎2 + 2𝑞 2 (b) √𝑓𝑎2 + 3𝑞2
(c) √3𝑓𝑎2 + 𝑞 2 (d) √𝑓𝑎2 + 𝑞 2 (a) 106 kN (b) 126 kN
(c) 116 kN (d) 136 kN
137. The reduction in the weld strength as per
long joint is done when the length of the 143. An 18 mm thick plate is joined to a 16 mm
welded joint of splice or end connections plate by 200 mm long (effective) butt
in a compression or tension element weld. What is the strength of joint if a
exceeds times the throat size of the weld, double V butt weld is used? (Assume that
(a) 16 (b) 150 Fe410 grade plates and shop welds are
(c) 100 (d) 120 used)
(a) 605.987 kN (b) 378.742 kN
138. Which of the following steel connections is (c) 467.535 kN (d) 478.348 kN
classified under friction type?
(a) Slip critical connections 144. Two plates of thickness 16 mm and 10 mm
(b) Hanger connection are to be joined by double V butt weld.
(c) Slip type connection The joint is subject is subjected to a tensile
(d) Connection of bracings force of 280 kN. Due to some reasons, the
effective length of weld that could be
139. Which of the following bolts are used for provided was 170 mm. Given that
light structures under static loads? allowable stress in butt weld in tension is
(a) Finished bolts (b) Turned bolts 150 N/mm, what is the strength of weld?
(c) Unfinished bolts (d) HSFG bolts (a) 167 kN (b) 255 kN
(c) 408 kN (d) 332 kN
140. Which of the following statement is correct
regarding types of riveted joints? 145. What is the strength of a double V-groove
I. The two members to be connected are weld if effective length of weld = 200 mm,
overlapped and connected together, such thickness of plate = 10 mm and fy = 250
a joint is known as lap joint. N/mm²?
II. The two member to be connected are (a) 400 kN (b) 500 kN
placed end to end and cover plates are (c) 250 kN (d) 1000 kN
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146. Nominal shear capacity of a bolt is 82335

N. What is the design capacity of the bolt,
if slip resistance is designated at service
load?
(a) 82335 N (b) 74850 N
(c) 449.099 N (d) 395.208 N

147. In property class 6.8 of bolts, the numbers

6 and 8 indicate ultimate tensile stress of
…… and yield stress of ..
(a) 600 MPa; 480 MPa
(b) 600 MPa; 800 MPa
(c) 240 MPa; 800 MPa
(d) 100 MPa; 250 MPa

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ANSWER KEY
1. C 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. D

8. A 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. C

15. C 16. C 17. D 18. B 19. D 20. D 21. C

22. C 23. D 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. B 28. A

29. D 30. B 31. B 32. D 33. A 34. C 35. A

36. B 37. B 38. C 39. D 40. B 41. A 42. C

43. C 44. C 45. B 46. B 47. B 48. C 49. B

50. D 51. B 52. A 53. B 54. D 55. C 56. D

57. D 58. D 59. D 60. D 61. D 62. D 63. D

64. D 65. B 66. C 67. A 68. C 69. C 70. C

71. C 72. B 73. C 74. D 75. C 76. D 77. A

78. D 79. A 80. A 81. B 82. B 83. B 84. A

85. A 86. B 87. C 88. D 89. A 90. C 91. D

92. B 93. D 94. A 95. A 96. C 97. A 98. D

99. A 100. C 101. B 102. C 103. D 104. B 105. B

106. A 107. C 108. D 109. B 110. C 111. C 112. C

113. C 114. C 115. C 116. C 117. D 118. A 119. C

120. A 121. D 122. B 123. C 124. B 125. C 126. A

127. D 128. D 129. A 130. A 131. A 132. B 133. B

134. B 135. B 136. B 137. B 138. A 139. C 140. C

141. B 142. B 143. A 144. B 145. A 146. B 147. A

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3. TENSION MEMBER
1. The maximum slenderness ratio for 8. A single angle in tension is connected by
tension member shall not exceed : one leg only. If the areas of connecting
(a) 180 (b) 300 and outstanding legs are respectively a
(c) 350 (d) 400 and b, then what is the net effective area
of the angle?
2. As per the code, the permissible stress in 𝑏 𝑏
A. 𝑎 − 𝑏 B. 𝑎 + 𝑏
axial tension in N/mm² on the net effective 1+0.35
𝑎
1+0.35
𝑎
area of the section shall not exceed 𝑏 𝑏
C. 𝑎 − D. 𝑎 +
(where, fy is the minimum yield stress of 1+0.2
𝑏
1+0.2
𝑏
𝑎 𝑎
steel in N/mm²).
(a) Only A (b) Only B
(a) 0.5fy (b) 0.6fy
(c) Only C (d) Only D
(c) 0.75fy (d) 0.8fy
9. The allowable stress in axial tension is
3. Net sectional area of a tension member is
generally kept less if thickness of the
equal to its gross section area
member is more than
(a) Plus the area of the rivet holes
(a) 10 mm (b) 12 mm
(b) Divided by the area of the rivet holes
(c) 15 mm (d) 20 mm
(c) Multiplied by the area of the rivet holes
(d) Minus the are of the rivet holes
10. The centre to centre maximum distance
between rivets in tension member of
4. A tension member, if subjected to
thickness 10 mm is
possible reversal of stress due to wind,
(a) 200 mm (b) 160 mm
the slenderness ratio of the member
(c) 120 mm (d) 100 mm
should not exceed
(a) 180 (b) 200
11. Consider the following statements
(c) 250 (d) 350
Lug angles are used to
1. Increase the lengths of the end
5. A Tie is a ___.
connections angle sections
(a) Tension member
2. Decrease the lengths of the end
(b) Compression member
connections of angle section
(c) Flexural member
3. Increase the lengths of the end
(d) Torsion member
connections of channel section
4. decrease the lengths of the end
6. Lug angles _____,
connections of channel section
(a) Are used to reduce the length of
Which of the statements given above are
connection
correct?
(b) Are unequal angles
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(c) Increases shear legs
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All options are correct
12. Which one of the following statements is
7. In a tension member if one or more than
correct?
one rivet holes are off the line, the failure
Lug angles
of the member depends upon
(a) are necessarily unequal angles
(a) Pitch (b) Gauge
(b) are always equal angles
(c) Diameter of rivet holes
(c) increase the shear resistance of joint
(d) All of these
(d) reduce the length of joint

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13. In the case of a tension member consisting design of a tension member for design
of two angles back to back on the same strength due to rupture (Tdn) of the critical
side of gusset plate, what is k equal to ? section is
(Area of connected leg = A₁, Area of 𝛼 𝐴𝑛 𝑓𝑢 𝐴𝑛 𝑓
(a) 𝑇𝑑𝑛 = (b) 𝑇𝑑𝑛 = 𝛼 𝛾 𝑢
outstanding leg = A₂) 2 𝛾𝑚𝑙 𝑚𝑙
3 𝐴1 3 𝐴1 𝛾𝑚𝑙 𝐴𝑛 𝑓𝑢 𝛼 𝐴𝑛 𝑓𝑢
(a) (b) (c) 𝑇𝑑𝑛 = 𝛼 (d) 𝑇𝑑𝑛 = 𝛾𝑚𝑙
3 𝐴1 + 𝐴2 𝐴1 + 3𝐴2
5 𝐴1 5 𝐴1
(c) (d) 20. A tension member is made up of a single
𝐴1 + 5𝐴2 5 𝐴1 + 𝐴2
angle 200 mm x 150 mm x 15 mm with a
gross area of 30 cm². Two rows of 18 mm
14. For a pair of identical steel channel
diameter bolts (take hole diameter 20
sections, tack-welded as a tension
mm) are used (as shown in figure (a) and
element, what is the net area of cross-
(b)). What is the net area?
section for design purposes?
(a) Net area of the webs only
(b) Net area of the flanges only
(c) Net area of the webs and flanges
(d) Web area plus a portion of the area of
the flanges

15. An equal angle of area A has been welded (a) 2460 mm² (b) 2500 mm²
on one side of a Gusset plate and carries (c) 2400 mm² (d) 2560 mm²
tension along the axis. What is the
effective area of the angle ? 21. The net area of the flat, as shown in Fig.
(a) 0.5 A (b) 0.75 A MCQ. 5, to be considered in design will
(c) 0.875 A (d) A be along the section
16. The capacity of a single ISA 100x100 × 10
as tension member connected by one leg
only using 6 rivets of 20 mm diameter is
(a) 333 kN (b) 253 kN
(c) 238 kN (d) 210 kN
The allowable stress is 150N/mm²

17. The best-suited rolled steel section for a (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 5-6-7
tension member is (c) 1-2-6-3-4 (d) data insufficient
(a) angle section (b) T-section
(c) channel section (d) flat section 22. A steel plate is 30 cm wide and 10 mm
thick. If the diameter of the bolt-hole is 20
18. A tension member of a roof truss carries a mm, the net section area of the plate is
factored load of 430 kN. By considering (a) 18.00 cm³ (b) 280 cm³
the strength in yield, what is the gross (c) 28.00 cm² (d) 32.42 cm²
area required to carry this load?
(Consider Fe 250 grade steel) 23. The slenderness ratio in a tension
(a) 1892 mm² (b) 1978 mm² member, as per IS code, where reversal of
(c) 1903 mm² (d) 2150 mm² stress is due to loads other than wind or
seismic should not exceed
19. By considering the net area as An, ultimate (a) 350 (b) 180
stress as fu and the partial safety factor as (c) 100 (d) 60
𝛾𝑚𝑓 . The IS code formula for preliminary

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24. Limits are placed on slenderness ratio of where An, fu, fy, 𝛾𝑚𝑙 and 𝛾𝑚0 have their
tension members usual meaning.
(a) to check the crippling of the member
(b) to limit the buckling of the member 30. For preliminary sizing of angle sections
(c) to check the lateral vibration of the subjected to tension and connected with
member bolts along the length of the end
(d) to check crookedness of the member connection, the rupture strength of the net
section is given by
25. For a single unequal angle tie member. 𝐴𝑛 𝑓𝑢
𝑇𝑑𝑛 = 𝛼
the leg preferred for making connection is 𝛾𝑚𝑙
the Match the correct value of a with the
(a) longer one number of bolts in the connection.
(b) shorter one 𝜶 Number of bolts
(c) any of the two 1. 0.6 A. one
(d) longer if bolted and shorter if welded 2. 0.7 B. two
3. 0.8 C. three
26. A steel member A has reversal of stress 4. 0.9 D. four or more
due to live loads whereas member B has it A B C D
due to wind load. The maximum (a) 1 2 3 4
slenderness ratio permitted is (b) 1 1 2 3
(a) more for member A than for member B (c) 4 2 3 3
(b) same for both the members (d) 4 3 2 1
(c) less for member A than that for
member B 31. For the block shear failure of a tension
(d) not specified by the code member, the failure occurs along a path
through the connection involving
27. The design strength of a tension member (a) tension on the two perpendicular
is given by planes
(1) rupture at a critical section (b) shear on the two perpendicular planes
(2) yielding of gross area (c) tension on one plane and shear on the
(3) block shear of end region other perpendicular plane
Of the above, (d) tension on the plane of connection and
(a) Only 1 is correct compression on the other perpendicular
(b) both 1 and 2 are correct plane
(c) both 2 and 3 are correct
(d) all 1, 2 and 3 are correct 32. A tension member will not fail in block
28. The design tensile strength of a member shear until the strength of
due to yielding of gross section Tdg is (a) Tension plane is reached
given by (b) Shear plane is reached
(a) Agfu/𝛾𝑚𝑙 (b) Agfy/𝛾𝑚𝑙 (c) Stronger plane is reached
(c) Agfy/𝛾𝑚0 (d) Agfu/𝛾𝑚0 (d) Weaker plane is reached
where Ag, fu, fy, 𝛾𝑚𝑙 and 𝛾𝑚0 have their
usual meaning. 33. The block shear resistance of a tension
member at the connection is give by the
29. The design tensile strength of a plate due sum of
to rupture of critical section is given by (1) rupture strength of the shear surface
(a) 0.8 Anfu/𝛾𝑚𝑙 (b) 0.9 Anfu/𝛾𝑚𝑙 and yield strength of the tension surface
(c) 0.8 Anfu/𝛾𝑚0 (d) 0.9 Anfu/𝛾𝑚0 (2) rupture strength and yield strength of
the stronger plane

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(3) rupture strength of the tension plane (a) To develop net tensile strength of main
and the yield strength of the shear plane member
Of the above statements, (b) To carry 50% load of main member
(a) only 1 is correct (c) In tension member splices are not
(b) minimum of 1 and 2 recommended
(c) minimum of 1 and 3 (d) To carry 33(1/4)% load of main
(d) minimum of 1, 2 member

34. In a beam that carries axial load also, that 39. Pick the odd one out with respect to the
effect of deflection may be ignored, when type of failure of tension members.
the axial load is (a) Lateral torsional flexural buckling
(a) compressive (b) tensile (b) Gross section yielding
(c) concentrated (d) uniformly distributed (c) Block shear failure
(d) Net section rupture
35. Determine block shear strength of tension
members shown in figure if grade of steel 40. In the design of tension members, what is
is Fe- 410 : the primary factor that governs the
selection of the cross-section area?
(a) Length of the member
(b) Type of steel connection
(c) Buckling strength of the member
(d) Yield strength of the steel

41. When tension member is subjected to axial

(a) 309.06 kN (b) 216.49 kN load, the net area required (𝐴𝑛𝑒𝑡 ) to carry
(c) 258.49 kN (d) 326.54 kN the design load (P) is obtained by which of
the following equation (Where 𝜎𝑎𝑡 = stress
36. A tension member consist of two angles 60 in axial tension in MPa)
𝜎
× 60 × 8 the angles being placed back to (a) 𝑃 = 𝑎𝑡 (b) 𝑃 = 𝜎𝑎𝑡 . 𝐴𝑛𝑒𝑡
𝐴𝑛𝑒𝑡
back on the same side of the gusset plate. (c) 𝑃 =
𝐴𝑛𝑒𝑡
(d) 𝑃 = 𝐴𝑛𝑒𝑡 𝜎𝑎𝑡
2
𝜎𝑎𝑡
One leg of each angle is connected to the
gusset plate. The outstanding legs are also
42. In which of the following mode of failures,
connected by tack rivets. Find the safe
the tension member will considerably
tension for the member. Use 16 mm
deform in the longitudinal direction before
diameter rivet
it factures?
(a) 196.56 kN (b) 203.45 kN
(a) Block shear failure
(c) 156.56 kN (d) 208.61 kN (b) Gross section yielding
(c) Net section rupture
37. A steel rod of 20 mm diameter is used as a (d) Torsional warping
tie member in the roof bracing system, and
may be subjected to possible reversal of 43. Which of the following factors does not
stress due to wind load. What is the affect the design of a tension member in a
maximum permissible length of the steel structure ?
member ? I) Yield strength of steel
(a) 1750 mm (b) 3000 mm II) Length of the member
(c) 2500 mm (d) 2000 mm III) Color of the steel
IV) Cross-sectional area
38. Splice covers and its connection in a (a) I & III Only (b) III & IV Only
tension member should be designed – (c) III Only (d) II, III & IV Only

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44. Which of the following statements is/are 46. The design strength due to yielding of
correct while designing a tension member? gross section having area of cross-section
A. The design strength of a plate in rupture 600 mm2, yield stress 250 N/mm2 and
requires gross effective area of the plate. partial safety factor 1.10 is (steel section)
B. The design strength of a plate in rupture (a) 136 kN (b) 150 kN
requires net effective area of the plate. (c) 165 kN (d) 100 kN
C. The design strength of a single angle in
rupture requires gross area of the
outstanding leg.
The design strength of a single angle in
rupture requires net area of the
outstanding leg.
(a) B and C (b) A and C
(c) B and D (d) A and D

45. Consider the following statements with

respect to splices in steel tension members
and identify the correct answer.
Statement A: Splices in tension member are
used to join two sections when a joint is to
be provided, i.e. these replace the
members at the joint where it is cut
Statement B: As per IS specifications, the
splice connections should be designed for
a force of at the least 0.9 times the member
design capacity in tension.
(a) Statement B is correct and A is incorrect
(b) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect
(c) Both statements are incorrect
(d) Both statements are correct

ANSWER KEY
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. A 7. D

8. B 9. D 10. B 11. B 12. D 13. D 14. C

15. C 16. D 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. C 21. D

22. C 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. C 27. D 28. C

29. B 30. B 31. C 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. B

36. A 37. A 38. A 39. A 40. D 41. B 42. B

43. C 44. A 45. B 46. A

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4. COMPRESSION MEMBER
1. Effective length of battened columns is 8. The permissible bending stress in
increased by working stress method of design of
(a) 5% (b) 10 % column base is considered equal to
(c) 15% (d) 20% (a) 0.87 fy (b) 0.60 fy
(c) 0.67 fy (d) 0.75 fy
2. As per the code, the slenderness ratio of
the lacing bars for compression member 9. Compression members always tend to
should not exceed : buckle in the direction of the
(a) 80 (b) 100 (a) Least radius of gyration
(c) 145 (d) 225 (b) Axis of load
(c) Perpendicular to the axis of load
3. A column splice is used to increase : (d) Minimum cross-section
(a) Length of column
(b) Strength of column 10. The slenderness ratio of a column is zero
(c) Cross-sectional area of column when its length.
(d) None of the above (a) Effective length is equal to actual
length
4. As per codal provisions; the effective (b) Is very large
buckling length of a cantilever steel (c) Is equal to its radius of gyration
column of length L is given by (d) is support on all sides throughout its
(a) 0.50L (b) 1.30L length
(c) 2.0L (d) 3.0L
11. The maximum allowable slenderness ratio
5. The effective slanderness ratio of laced for members carrying compressive load
columns, compared to actual maximum due to wind and seismic force only is
slanderness ratio shall be considered as. (a) 180 (b) 250
(a) 1.05 times (b) 1.10 times (c) 350 (d) 400
(c) 1.15 times (d) 1.20 times
12. If the depth of the section of an upper
6. A slender section buckle locally column is much smaller than the lower
(a) After reaching yield moment column.
(b) As soon as it reaches ultimate moment (a) Bearing plates are provided with
(c) Before reaching yield moment column splice.
(d) As soon as it reaches yield moment (b) Filler and bearing plates are provided
with column splice.
7. Which one of the following factors does (c) Filler plates are provided with column
not affect the lateral buckling strength of a splice
steel I-section undergoing bending about (d) Neither filler nor bearing plates are
its major axis? provided with column splice.
(a) Laterally unsupported length of the
compression flange. 13. The width of lacing bars in mm is kept
(b) Radius of gyration about the major axis (a) Twice the nominal rivet diameter
of the section. (b) Thrice the nominal rivet diameter
(c) Boundary conditions at the ends. (c) Maximum of the all rounded to nearest
(d) Radius of gyration about the minor axis 5 mm.
of the section (d) Equal to normal rivet diameter

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14. When a load is exerted or transferred (c) From the edge to the first row of rivets
from one surface to another in contact, the (d) None of these
stress is known as
(a) Bearing stress 21. A compression member consisting of
(b) Shear stress angle sections may be
(c) Bending stress (a) Continuous member
(d) Direct stress (b) Discontinuous single angle strut
(c) Discontinuous double angle strut
15. If 18 mm rivets are used in lacing bars, (d) All option are correct
then minimum width of lacing bars should
be - 22. The equivalent axial load may be defined
(a) 45 mm (b) 50 mm as the load which produces a stress equal
(c) 55 mm (d) 60 mm to
(a) Maximum stress produced by the
16. If a rolled steel flat designated as 55 ISF 12 eccentric load
mm is used as lacing, then minimum (b) Maximum stressed fiber
radius of gyration will be (c) Bending stress
(a) 3 mm (b) 6 mm (d) None of these
(c) 3.46 mm (d) 3.8 mm
23. If the unsupported length of a stanchion is
17. Angle of inclination of the lacing bar with 4 meters and least radius of gyration of its
the longitudinal axis of the column should cross section is 5 cm, the slenderness ratio
preferably be between ______. of the stanchion is
(a) 100 to 300 (b) 300 to 800 (a) 60 (b) 70
(c) 400 to 700 (d) 200 to 700 (c) 80 (d) 90

18. The buckling load in a steel column is 24. In a built up section carrying tensile force,
(a) Related to length the flanges of two channels are turned
(b) Directly proportional to the outward
slenderness ratio (a) To simplify the transverse connections
(c) Inversely proportional to the (b) To minimize lacing
slenderness ratio (c) To have greater lateral rigidity
(d) Non linearity of the slenderness ratio (d) All option are correct

19. Pick up the correct statement from the 25. The maximum axial load which is just
following: sufficient to keep a column in a small
(a) Loaded columns are supported on deflected shape is called.
column bases (a) Crippling load
(b) Column bases transmit the column (b) Buckling load
load to the concrete foundation (c) Critical load
(c) Column load is spread over a large (d) All option is correct
area on concrete
(d) All option are correct 26. Slenderness ratio of is a compressive
member
20. Outstanding length of a compression (a) Moment of inertia / Radius of gyration
member consisting of a channel is (b) Effective length / Area of cross section
measured as (c) Effective length/Radius of gyration
(a) Half of the nominal width (d) None of these
(b) Nominal width of the section

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27. The thickness t of a single flat lacing 34. Match List I (Types of members) with List II
should not be less than. (Slenderness ratio) and select the correct
(a) 1/30th length between inner end rivets answer using the codes given below the
(b) 1/40th length between inner and rivets lists:
(c) 1/50th length between inner end rivets List I List II
(d) 1/60th length between inner and rivets A. For compression 1. 350
members carrying dead
28. To keep the intensity of bearing pressure and live loads
between the column base and concrete B. For members 2.180
compressive stress to vary from zero to carrying compressive
2P/BL, the ratio of the moment M to the loads due to wind or
axial load P should be seismic force only
(a) L/2 (b) L/3 C. For members carrying 3. 250
(c) L/4 (d) L/6 tension but in which the
reversal of stress occurs
29. If flexural rigidity of a column whose due to wind or seismic forces
length is L and the loaded end is free, is Codes
EI, the critical load will be A B C
𝜋 𝐸𝑙 𝜋2 𝐸𝑙 (a) 1 2 3
(a) Pc = (b) Pc =
(4𝐿2 ) (4𝐿2 ) (b) 2 3 1
𝜋 𝐸𝑙 2 (c) 3 2 1
(c) Pc = (b) None of these
(4𝐿2 ) (d) 1 3 2

30. In double lacing, the thickness 't' of flat 35. The effective length of a strut (double
lacing is steel on opposite side of gusset plate) of
(a) t is less than 1/40th length between actual length L. in a plane perpendicular
inner end rivets to the gusset plate will be
(b) t is less than 1/50 length between (a) 0.7-1L (b) 0.7-0.85L
inner end rivets (c) 0.7-1L (d) 0.85L
(c) t is less than 1/60th length between
inner end rivets 36. The slenderness ratio of a component
(d) t is less than 1/70 th length between column in a latticed column is limited to
inner end rivets (a) 350 (b) 180
(c) 300 (d) 50
31. Which is the following is not a
compression member? 37. Splices for compression members are
(a) Strut (b) Tie designed as
(c) Rafter (d) Boom (a) short column
(b) intermediate column
32. Which of the following section will be (c) long column
preferred for a column? (d) depending upon its thickness
(a) ISLB (b) ISMB 38. Non-dimensionless slenderness
(c) ISWB (d) ISHB parameter for calculating the design
compressive stress fcd is given by
33. The function of sway bracing is to (a) fy/fcc (b) √𝑓𝑐𝑐 /𝑓𝑦
(a) stiffen the structure laterally (c) √𝑓𝑦 /𝑓𝑐𝑐 (d) fcc/fy
(b) to maintain a rectangular cross section where fy and fcc have their usual meanings
(c) to control the drift
(d) all the above 39. Consider following steel sections

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i. Rolled I-Section (b) In a double lacing system, the

ii. Equal legged angle section thickness of the lacing flats should not be
iii. Channel section less than 1/40 of the length between inner
Which of the above section can be end bolts or welds.
subjected to flexural-torsional buckling (c) Tubular sections are most suitable for
(a) i only (b) iii only small compressive loads and lengths.
(c) i and ii only (d) ii and iii only (d) The slenderness ratio of the lacing bar
should be less than 145.
40. Curve c for the design compressive stress
is used for steel section with 45. Pick out the incorrect statement.
(a) Quasi-prefect shapes (a) the effective slenderness ratio of the
(b) Medium imperfections laced column should be increased by 5%.
(c) Lot of imperfections (b) The effective length of a single- angle
(d) Semi-compact shapes discontinuous strut connected by more
than one bolt or weld is the same.
41. The design compressive stress of an (c) The slenderness ratio of compression
axially loaded compression member in IS: members is limited to take into account
800-2007 is given by unexpected vibrations.
(a) Rakine formula (d) Compression members are designed
(b) Secant formula using Merchant Rankine formula.
(c) Merchant Rankine formula
(d) Perry Robertson formula 46. Which of the following is not a design
criterion of a laced column?
42. Possible modes of buckling of steel (a) Buckling of the column as a whole
columns are (b) Buckling of the column component
(a) local buckling of its constituent (c) Buckling of the individual rolled
elements sections constituting column
(b) elastic buckling (d) Buckling of lacing member
(c) inelastic buckling
(d) All the above 47. The effective depth of end battens should
be more than
43. Pick up the correct statement. (a) twice the flange width of component
(a) For a stanchion effectively held in column
position at both the ends and restrained (b) the distance between the center of
against rotation at one end, the effective gravity of the component members
length is 0.8. times the actual length. (c) the c/c distance between inner end
(b) For a discontinuous single-angle bolts
single-bolted strut the effective length is (d) both (a) and (b)
0.85 times its actual length.
(c) The slenderness for compression 48. For same load, unsupported length and
flange of beam is limited to 250. end conditions, a laced column as
(d) For a laced column, the effective compared to battened column
length should be increased by 10 per (a) is stronger
cent. (b) is weaker
(c) is equally strong
44. Pick out the incorrect statement. (d) cannot be compared
(a) Two angles with legs spread or placed
back to back have the same least radius of
gyration.

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49. The outstand element of compression connected by lacing. The lacing carries a
flange of a welded section is 8.7 (𝜀 = 1). load of
The flange will be classed as (a) 125. 125 N (b) 12.525 N
(a) plastic (c) 3.126 N (d) Zero
(b) compact
(c) semi-compact 54. Minimum number of battens required in a
(d) slender battened column is
(a) 2 (b) 3
50. The design compressive stress of axially (c) 4 (d) 6
loaded compression member is given by.
𝑓𝑦 55. In the built -up compression members, the
𝑓𝑐𝑑 = 𝑥
𝛾𝑚0 number of battens should be such that the
where X is the stress reduction factor member is divided into not less than –
expressed as (a) two ways
(a) 𝜙 + (𝜙 2 − 𝜆2 )0.5 (b) three ways
(c) four ways
2 2 0.5
(b) 1/[𝜙 + (𝜙 −𝜆 ) ] (d) six ways

(c) 𝜙 + (𝜆2 − 𝜙 2 )0.5

56. A compression member having gross and
2 2 0.5 effective cross-sectional areas of 1500
(d) 1/[𝜙 − (𝜆 −𝜙 ) ]
mm2 and 1250 mm2, respectively. If the
design compressive stress is 150 MPa, the
51. The strength of compression members
design compressive strength of the
subjected to axial compression is defined
column will be –
by curves corresponding to following
(a) 8.33 kN (b) 10 kN
different classes;
(c) 188 kN (d) 225 kN
(a) a, b and c (b) e and f
(c) e, f and g (d) a, b, c and d
57. What shall be width to thickness ratio for
single angle section of class I to prevent
52. Which of the following statement(s) is
local buckling ? (Take fy = 250 Mpa)
(are) correct with regards to the effective
(a) 15.7 (b) 10.5
length (KL) of columns in frames. The K
(c) 9.4 (d) 8.4
values,
(1) for braced frames can never he
58. A welded plate girder has : b/tf = 6.7 and
greater than one
d/t = 9.1. The section of plate girder will
(2) for unbraced frames will always be
be classified as :
greater than one
(a) Slender
(3) for braced frames may be greater than
(b) Semi-compact
one
(c) Compact
(4) for unbraced frames will always be
(d) Plastic
less than one
Where b = flange width, tf = flange
Of the above statements,
thickness; d = depth of the girder, t = web
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
thickness
(b) 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 1 and 4 are correct
59. Consider the following statements for the
(d) 2 and 4 are correct
design of a laced column:
1. In a bolted connection, the minimum
53. A steel column in a multi-storeyed
width of the lacing bar shall be three times
building carries an axial load of 125 N. It is
the nominal diameter of the end bolt
built up of 2 ISMC – 350 channels

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2. The thickness of the flat of a single (c) d (d) a

lacing system shall be not less than one-
fortieth of its effective length 64. The following statements (S1 to S4) pertain
3. The angle of inclination of the lacing bar to a compression member.
should be less than 40 with the axis of the S1: The effective length depends on the
built – up column boundary conditions of member at ends.
4. The lacing shall be designed for a S2: The elastic critical stress in
transverse shear of 2.5% of the axial load compression decreases with decrease in
on the column. slenderness ratio
S3: The ratio of the effective length to the
Which of the above statements are
radius of gyration of the member is
correct?
termed as slenderness ratio of member.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
S4: The elastic critical stress in
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
compression is independent of the
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
slenderness ration. Identify the
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
INCORRECT statement(s):
(a) Only S2 and S4
60. A section has the capacity to develop (b) Only S1 and S3
plastic hinge, but does not have the (c) Only S1
capacity to form collapse mechanism. (d) Only S1, S3 and S4
Such a section is called:
(a) plastic section 65. For the web of channel section to be
(b) compact section classified in plastic class, the ratio of
(c) semi-compact section depth to thickness of web should
(d) slender section be__________.
(a) less than 42 𝜀 (b) less than 848 𝜀
61. For determination of allowable stress in (c) less than 9.4 𝜀 (d) less than 52 𝜀
axial compression, Indian Standard
Institution has adopted. 66. What will be the effective length of a
(a) Euler's formula discontinuous strut comprised of a single
(b) Rankine formula angle connected with more than one bolt
(c) Engesser formula in the plane of gusset? Given: L is the
(d) Secant formula actual length of the strut.
(a) 0.9 L (b) 0.85 L
62. Which of the following is true? (c) 1 L (d) 0.7 L
(a) A semi compact section can only be
used as a compression member. 67. A 10 m (supported length) structural steel
(b) A slender section shall not be used as column is designed with its both ends
a compression member. restrained against translation and rotation.
(c) A compact or a plastic section can only The effective length of the column shall
be used as a compression member. be:
(d) A section better than a plastic section (a) 6.5 m (b) 20 m
can only be used as a compression (c) 12 m (d) 10 m
member.
68. Which of the following assumptions is NOT
63. Keeping other parameters unchanged for valid in case of design of axially loaded
a compression member in steel, which compression members in the steel
buckling class section carries maximum design?
axial compressive stresses (a) The modulus of elasticity is assumed to
comparatively? vary in a built-up column
(a) b (b) c (b) Secondary stresses are neglected

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(c) The modulus of elasticity is assumed to 75. As per IS 800:2007 (third revision), value
be constant in a built-up column of imperfection factor for section in
(d) The ideal column is assumed to be buckling calss ‘a’ is _______.
absolutely straight with no crookedness. (a) 0.34 (b) 0.21
(c) 0.49 (d) 0.76
69. Based on the slenderness ratio, a steel
column is found to be an intermediate 76. What will be the value of kL of prismatic
column. The failure of such a column is compression members with translation,
visible as free at one end and restrained at the other
(a) A mixed mode of buckling and end?
crushing Where k is effective length factor and L is
(b) Only bucking the actual length.
(c) Only crushing (a) 1.0 L (b) 0.65 L
(d) The steel column will not fail but (c) 1.2 L (d) 2.0 L
remain unstable.
77. What should be the boundary condition at
70. Calculate the effective length of a steel both ends of prismatic compression
column of length 3 m that is effectively members having 1.0 L effective length?
held in position at both ends and (a) Free translation & restrained rotation at
restrained in rotation at one end? both ends.
(a) 1 m (b) 1.4 m (b) Restrained translation & free rotation at
(c) 2.4 m (d) 3.4 m both ends.
(c) Free translation & rotation at both ends
71. A In the design of steel compression (d) Restrained translation & rotation at
member according IS: 800-2007, what is both ends
the specified value of imperfection factor
(𝛼) for buckling class 'c'? 78. What should be the boundary condition at
(a) 0.76 (b) 0.21 both ends of prismatic compression
(c) 0.34 (d) 0.49 members having 0.8 L effective length?
(a) Restrained translation and free rotation
72. In the case of structural steel sections, the both ends.
minimum ratio of outstand to the thickness (b) Everything is restrained excluding
of element in compression is specified to free rotation at one end.
prevent (c) Free translation & restrained rotation at
(a) tension failure both ends.
(b) shear failure (d) Everything is restrained excluding
(c) bending failure free translation at one end.
(d) local buckling
79. What is the primary function of bracing in
73. Indian standard rolled steel angle section, a compression member?
used as compression members comes (a) To resist axial loads
under which of the following buckling (b) To reduce shear stress
class? (c) To enhance bending capacity
(a) Class d (b) Class b (d) To prevent lateral buckling
(c) Class a (d) Class c
80. Slenderness ratio of long steel column
74. Identify the buckling class of compression (a) < 120 (b) > 120
members for welded I-section about y-y (c) 30 – 120 (d) None of these
axis?
(a) e (b) c
(c) b (d) a

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81. Identify the buckling class of a rolled I- 14.2 mm) is used as a compression
section with limit 40mm < 𝑡𝑓 ≤ 100 mm member. Considering the buckling about
about z-z axis? Y - Y axis as per IS: 800-2007, the
(a) Class c (b) Class a corresponding buckling class to which the
(c) Class d (d) Class b beam belong to is:
(a) b (b) d
82. What is the buckling class of compression (c) c (d) a
member for hollow section about any
axis? 89. Identify the type of built up column shown
(a) d (b) a in the figure.
(c) e (d) c

83. In the design of compression members,

what is the critical buckling mode that
engineers aim to prevent?
(a) Local buckling
(b) Torsional buckling
(c) Flexural buckling
(d) Lateral torsional buckling

84. Which of the following is the most

important property of the section in a
compression member of any steel
structure?
(a) Modulus of elasticity
(b) Moment of inertia
(c) Weight of material
(d) Section modulus

85. Common hot-rolled steel members

carrying axial compression usualy fail by (a) Channels back to back connected by
(a) crushing in compression double flat lacing.
(b) flexural buckling (b) Channels back to back connected by
(c) torsional buckling single lacing.
(d) shear (c) Channels back to back connect
battens.
86. The buckling class of a built-up steel (d) Channels back to back connected by
section is_ flat lacing with batten.
(a) d (b) c
(c) a (d) b 90. Consider the given statements with
respect to buckling of columns and
87. For the web of channel section to be identify the correct
classified in plastic class, the ratio of Statement A: Local buckling in steel
depth to thickness of web should columns can be prevented by providing
be__________. suitable width-to-thickness ratios to the
(a) Less than 42 𝜀 (b) Less than 52 𝜀 compression elements
(c) Less than 84 𝜀 (d) Less than 9.4 𝜀 Statement B: Flexural torsional buckling
failure in steel columns can occur in those
88. A rolled ISMB 350 section (depth = 350 sections with one axis of symmetry and
mm. width of flange = 140 mm, thickness also in sections with no axis of symmetry
of web = 8.1 mm, thickness of flange =

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(a) Both statements A and B are correct (a) The flexural buckling is also called as
(b) Both statements A and B are incorrect Euler buckling when the plastic behaviour
(c) Statement B is correct but statement A of column occurs.
is incorrect (b) Compression members with any type
(d) Statement A is correct but statement B of cross-sectional configuration can
is incorrect undergo flexural buckling
(c) Flexural torsional buckling can occur
91. Which of the following statements (S1 to only with unsymmetrical cross-sections.
S4), pertaining to the design of steel (d) Torsional buckling is caused by
compression member, is/are correct? twisting about the longitudinal axis of the
S1: For the same cross-section, longer member.
compression members have lesser
tendency to buckle, and it will support
greater load
S2: An asymmetrical angle section (about
centroidal axis) will bend about the
principal axis for which the radius of
gyration is minimum
S3: To minimise the steel requirement in
the column design (to use the material at
the greatest possible stress), the
slenderness ratio should be kept as large
as possible
S4: A symmetrical I-section (about both
the centroidal axis) will bend about one of
the centroidal axis giving lesser radius of
gyration.
(a) S1, S3 and S4 (b) S1 and S3
(c) S2 and S4 (d) Only and S1

92. Select the correct option with regard to

compression members.
Statement 1: For very short compression
steel members, the failure stress will
equal the yield stress and buckling will
occur.
Statement 2: For long compression steel
members, the Euler formula predicts the
strength very well, where the axial
buckling stress remains below the
proportional limit
(a) Statement 1 is incorrect, and statement
2 is correct.
(b) Statement 1 is correct, and statement 2
is incorrect
(c) Both statement are incorrect
(d) Both statements are correct.

93. Identify the INCORRECT statement with

respect to the type buckling of steel
columns.

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ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. B

8. D 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. B 14. A

15. C 16. C 17. C 18. C 19. D 20. D 21. D

22. A 23. C 24. C 25. D 26. C 27. B 28. D

29. B 30. C 31. B 32. D 33. D 34. B 35. B

36. D 37. A 38. C 39. D 40. C 41. D 42. D

43. A 44. B 45. D 46. C 47. D 48. A 49. B

50. B 51. D 52. A 53. C 54. C 55. B 56. D

57. C 58. D 59. B 60. B 61. B 62. B 63. D

64. A 65. A 66. B 67. A 68. A 69. A 70. C

71. D 72. D 73. D 74. B 75. B 76. D 77. B

78. B 79. D 80. B 81. D 82. B 83. C 84. B

85. B 86. B 87. A 88. A 89. C 90. A 91. C

92. A 93. A

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5. DESIGN OF BEAM
1. In a steel beam section, the web carries (b) Width of the flange multiplied by its
(a) The compression (b) The tension web thickness
(c) The moment (d) The shear (c) Sum of the flange width and depth of
the beam multiplied by the web thickness
2. The steel beam of light section plain (d) None of these
cement concrete are called
(a) Filler joists (b) Concrete joists 8. The effective length L of a simply
(c) Simple joists (d) Joists supported beam with ends restrained
against torsion, and also the ends of
3. The problem of lateral buckling can arise compression flange partially restrained
only in those steel beams which have against lateral bending is given by
(a) Moment of inertia about the bending (a) L = span (b) L = 0.85 span
axis larger than the other (c) L = 0.75 span (d) L = 0.7 span
(b) Moment of inertia about the bending
axis smaller than the other 9. In selecting a roller I section for a simply
(c) Fully supported compression flange supported beam, long with minimum
(d) None of the these sectional modulus, a minimum value of
span/depth ratio is also ensured. This is
4. For a cantilever beam of length L stipulated to ensure that
continuous at the support and (a) the buckling of beam does not take
unrestrained against torsion at the support place
and at the end, the effective length (l) is (b) the shear stress in beam remains
equal to within permissible limit
(a) 𝑙 L (b) 𝑙 = 2L (c) the deflection of beam remains within
(c) 𝑙 = 0.5 L (d) 𝑙 =3L permissible limit
(d) the bending stress in compression is
5. Web Crippling generally occurs at the within permissible limit
point where
(a) Bending moment is maximum 10. Consider the following statements
(b) Shearing force is minimum Web crippling due to excessive bearing
(c) Concentrated load act stress can be avoided by
(d) Deflection is maximum 1. Increasing the web thickness
2. Providing suitable stiffeners
6. The connection of one beam to another 3. Increasing the length of the bearing
beam by means of an angle at the bottom plates.
and an angle at the top is known as Which of these statements are correct?
(a) Unstiffened seated connection (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Stiffened seated connection (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Seated Connection
(d) None of these 11. ISJB section in I-series of Handbook No. 1
is most suitable for
7. The gross section of the web of a beam is (a) joist provided to support the roof of a
defined as class room
(a) depth of the beam multiplied by its (b) gantry girder
web thickness (c) rafter in an industrial building truss
(d) purlin

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12. As per IS specifications, the beam sections (c) 0.8 Vd (d) Vd

should be where Vd = design shear strength of the
(a) at least symmetrical about one of the cross section.
principal axes
(b) preferably plastic or compact sections 19. The design bending strength of a laterally
only supported beam is given by
(c) rolled to furnish maximum sectional 𝑀𝑑 = 𝛽𝑏
𝑍𝑝 𝑓𝑦
where 𝛽𝑏, 𝑍𝑝 , 𝑓𝑦 , 𝛾𝑚0 have
𝛾𝑚0
modulus
(d) all the above their usual meaning.
𝛽𝑏, for a plastic, compact sections are
13. Beams should be designed and checked given by
for (a) 1.0, 0.8 (b) 0.8, 1.0
(a) flexural strength (b) stiffness (c) 1, Ze/Zp (d) 1, 1
(c) local buckling (d) all the above
20. The design bending strength of a laterally
14. In a simply supported beam of span L, unsupported beam is given by
𝑍𝑝 𝑓𝑦
each end is restrained against torsion, (1) 𝛽𝑏 (2) 𝛽𝑏 𝑍𝑝 𝑓𝑏𝑑
compression flange being unrestrained. 𝛾𝑚0
𝑓𝑦 𝑓𝑏𝑑
According to IS: 800, the effective length (3) 𝛽𝑏 𝑍𝑝 𝑋𝐿𝑇 (4) 𝛽𝑏 𝑍𝑝
𝛾𝑚0 𝛾𝑚0
of the compression flange will be equal to
(a) L (b) 0.85 L (a) Only I correct.
(c) 0.75 L (d) 1.20 L (b) Only 2 is correct.
(c) Only 2 and 3 are correct.
15. Web crippling in steel beam occurs due to (d) Only 3 and 4 are correct.
(a) column action of compression flange 21. The elastic lateral torsional buckling
(b) failure of web under concentrated load moment Mcr for laterally unsupported
(c) excessive bending moment beams is given by
(d) secondary bending moment (a) 𝛽𝑏 𝑍𝑝 𝑓𝑏𝑑 (b) Ze fy
𝑓𝑦 𝑓𝑦
16. The design bending strength of a laterally (c) 𝛽𝑏 𝑍𝑝 (d) 𝑍𝑒
𝛾𝑚0 𝛾𝑚0
supported beam is Md = 𝛽𝑏 𝑍𝑝 𝑓𝑦 /𝛾𝑚0 .
where 𝛽𝑏, 𝑍𝑝 , 𝑍𝑒 , 𝑓𝑦 , 𝑓𝑏𝑑 , 𝛾𝑚0 have
For a compact section 𝛽𝑏 is given by their usual meaning.
(a) 1.2 (b) 1.0
(c) 0.8 (d) Ze/Zp 22. The imperfection factor for welded steel
Where Zp and Ze are plastic and elastic sections is
section modulii respectively. (a) 0.21 (b) 0.35
(c) 0.42 (d) 0.49
17. The web crippling of steel beam is caused
because of 23. In case of low shear force, the design
(a) Exceedence of plastic shear resistance bending strength determined by 𝛽𝑏, 𝑍𝑝 ,
of web 𝑓𝑦 / 𝛾𝑚0 is limited below 1.2 Ze, fy/𝛾𝑚0 ,
(b) Excessive bending stresses
for simple beams to ensure
(c) Large bearing stresses
(1) That onset of plasticity under
(d) Diagonal buckling of web
unfactored loads is prevented
(2) that yield does not occur at working
18. A beam section is classed as low shear
loads
case when the factored shear force is less
(3) lateral-torsional buckling is avoided
than
Of the above,
(a) 0.4 Vd (b) 0.6 Vd

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(a) only 1 is correct The design of a beam is governed by

(b) 1 and 2 are correct shear under which of the following
(c) only 3 is correct conditions?
(d) 1 and 3 are correct (a) 1 only (b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
24. In case of laterally supported beam, the
design bending stress is governed by 30. As per IS 800 : 2007, The maximum
(a) Lateral torsional buckling permissible vertical deflection for
(b) Shear lag elements susceptible to cracking in
(c) Yield stress buildings other than industrial buildings is
(d) None of the above limited to Consider that type of member
as floor and roof, and design load as live
25. The problem of lateral buckling can arise load.
only in those steel beams which (a) L/360 (b) L/300
have______. (c) L/400 (d) L/250
(a) Moment of inertia about the bending
axis larger than the other 31. Intermediate vertical stiffeners are
(b) Moment of inertia about the bending provided in plate girders to
axis smaller than the other (a) Prevent local buckling
(c) Fully supported compression flange (b) Prevent web buckling
(d) None of the these (c) Prevent excessive deflection
(d) Prevent flange buckling
26. For a cantilever beam of length L built in
at the support and restrained against 32. What is the purpose of providing cover in
torsion at the free end, the effective the design of steel beams?
projecting length (l) is (a) To prevent corrosion
(a) 1 = 0.7 L (b) 1 = 0.75 L (b) To increase the moment of inertia
(c) 1 = 0.85 L (d) None of these (c) To enhance aesthetic appearance
(d) To facilitate connections
27. According to IS 800:2007, beams shall be
designed and checked for: 33. What is the main purpose of a steel beam
(a) bending strength only in a structure?
(b) stiffness, bending strength, and (a) To resist axial forces
buckling (b) To resist torsional forces
(c) buckling only (c) To resist compressive forces
(d) stiffness only (d) To resist bending moments and shear
forces
28. According to IS 800:2007, steel purlins are
primarily designed as_______. 34. In an industrial steel building, the primary
(a) Compression members method of resisting lateral loads parallel
(b) flexural members to the ridge is through the use of
(c) tension members (a) Purlins (b) Bracings
(d) torsional members (c) Truss (d) Column

29. Consider the following conditions: 35. Web crippling in beams generally occurs
1. Concentrated loads are placed near at the point where
beam supports. (a) Concentrated load acts
2. The depth of beam section is small, and (b) Bending moment is maximum
the beam is loaded uniformly. (c) Shear force is maximum

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(d) Deflection is maximum 40. Which of the following types of failures

occur in the beam-column connections ?
36. Bearing stress will be set up in the steel 1. Failure by lateral - torsional buckling
beam at places where: 2. Failure by combined instability in both
(a) Torsional force acts the principal directions
(b) Concentrated load or reaction act 3. Failure by combined twisting and
(c) Uniformly distributed load or moment bending on the torsionally weak sections
act 4. Failure by combined twisting and
(d) Couple force acts bending when plane of bending does not
contain the shear centre.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
37. According to IS 800:2007, beams shall be
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
designed and checked for:
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) stiffness, bending strength, and
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
buckling
(b) stiffness only
41. What is the value of bending strength of a
(c) buckling only plastic laterally supported steel beam with
(d) bending strength only fy = 250 N/mm² and plastic section
modules value as 11 × 104 mm³?
38. Identify the type of beam failure shown in (a) 2.75 kNm (b) 27.5 kNm
the figure. (c) 25 kNm (d) 2.5 kNm

(a) Failure by web buckling

(b) Failure by web kinks
(c) Failure by web crippling
(d) Failure by flexure

39. Which of the following statements are

correct for the bending strength of a
laterally supported steel beam?
A. Bending strength requires elastic
section modulus of the cross section for
plastic and compact sections.
B. Bending strength requires plastic
section modulus of the cross section for
plastic and compact sections.
C. Bending strength requires ultimate
stress of the material.
D. Bending strength requires yield stress
of the material.
(a) A and D (b) A and C
(c) B and C (d) B and D

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ANSWER KEY
1. D 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. A

8. B 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. D 13. D 14. A

15. B 16. B 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. C 21. A

22. D 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. B 28. B

29. B 30. A 31. B 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. A

36. B 37. A 38. C 39. D 40. B 41. C

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6. COLUMN BASE
1. Consider the following statements in 6. The width (thickness) of a gusset plate for
respect of column splicing: the base of the pillar should not be less
1. Splices should be provided close to the than :
point of inflection in a member (a) 6 mm (b) 8 mm
2. Splices should be located near to the (c) 12 mm (d) 40 mm
point of lateral restraint in a member
3. Machined columns for perfect bearing 7. Where should splices in column be
would need splices to be designed for provided ?
axial force only (a) At the floor level
Which of the above statements are (b) At the mid height of column
correct? (c) At the beam column joint
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (d) At one-fourth height of column
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
8. The thickness of the base plate provided
2. The minimum thickness of a base plate, ts for a steel column is determined from
in case of slab base can be calculated by (a) flexural strength of plate
the formula- (b) shear strength of plate
(c) bearing strength of the concrete
(a) 𝑡𝑆 = √2.5 𝑊 (𝑏 2 − 0.3𝑎2 ) 𝑓𝑦 /𝛾𝑚0
pedestal
(d) punching criteria
(b) 𝑡𝑆 = √2.5 𝑊 (𝑏 2 − 0.3𝑎2 ) 𝛾𝑚0 /𝑓𝑦

9. The permissible bending stress in the slab

(c) 𝑡𝑆 = √2.5 𝑊 (𝑎2 − 0.3𝑏 2 ) 𝛾𝑚0 /𝑓𝑦
base of columns for all grades of steel is
(d) 𝑡𝑆 = √2.5 𝑊 (𝑎2 − 0.3𝑏2 ) 𝑓𝑦 /𝛾𝑚0 limited to
(a) 185N/mm2 (b) 165N/mm2
(d) 200N/mm2 (c) 175N/mm2
3. As per IS 800 : 1984, the thickness of slab
base is 10. In a grillage footing the beams in each tier
3𝑊 𝑏2 3𝑊 𝑎 2 −𝑏2
(a) 𝜎𝑏𝑠
(𝑎2 − 4) (b) 𝜎𝑏𝑠
( 4 ) are spaced such that the minimum spacing
3𝑊 𝑏2 3𝑊 𝑎 2 −𝑏2
between the flanges of the two
(c) √𝜎𝑏𝑠 (𝑎2 − 4
) (c) √𝜎𝑏𝑠 ( 4
) consecutive beams is not less than
(a) 50 mm (b) 75 mm
4. For a circular column section to avoid (c) 100 mm (d) 150 mm
tension, the limit of eccentricity "e" is
(where D is diameter of the column) 11. The fasteners in gusseted base plate are
(a) 𝐷/3 (b) 𝐷/8 designed for
(c) 𝐷/5 (d) 𝐷/6 (a) 25%
(b) 50% column load
5. The foundation provided below a heavily (c) 75% column load
loaded steel column on a soil of low (d) 100% column load
bearing capacity is:
(a) Isolated column footing 12. The thickness of the column base plate is
(b) Grillage foundation determined from
(c) Raft foundation (a) Shear strength of the plate
(d) Strip footing (b) Flexural strength of the plate
(c) Punching shear strength

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(d) Bearing strength of the plate

13. A steel column base is subjected to a

moment. If the intensity of bearing
pressure due to axial load is equal to
stress due to moment, then the bearing
pressure between the base and concrete
is:
(a) Tension at one end and compression at
other end
(b) Zero at one end and compression at
other end
(c) Uniform compression throughout
(d) Uniform tension throughout

14. In a gusseted base, when the end of the

column is machined for completed
bearing on the base plate, then the axial
load is assumed to be transferred to base
plate
(a) 100% by direct bearing
(b) 100% through fastenings
(c) 50% by direct bearing and 50%
through fastenings
(d) 75% by direct bearing and 25%
through fastening

ANSWER KEY
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. D

8. A 9. A 10. B 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. C

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7. ROOF TRUSS
1. The self-weight of a roof truss (N/m²) may Of the above,
be obtained by (a) only 1 is correct
(a) (1+5) x 5
𝑙
(b) (3 + 5)×10 (b) only 2 is correct
𝑙 (c) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) (1- 5) x 5 (d) ( − 5)×10 (d) 1 and 3 are correct
3

2. For economical spacing of roof truss. if 1, 8. The top chord of a roof truss is inclined at
p, r are the cost or truss, purlin and roof an angle of 22°. No access is provided for
coverings respectively, then maintenance. The live load to be
(a) t = p + r (b) t = 2p + 3r considered for the design will be
(c) t = 2p + r (d) t = p + 2r (a) zero (b) 0.75 kN/m²
(c) 1.5 kN/m² (d) 0.61 kN/m²
3. The design wind speed is V. The design
wind pressure will be given as 9. Live load for roof trusses should not be
(a) 0.4V2 (b) 0.5V2 less than
(c) 0.6V2 (d) 0.8V2 (a) 0.2 kN/m² (b) 0.4 kN/m²
(c) 0.75 kN/m² (d) 1.5 kN/m²
4. The design wind speed is assumed to be
constant from the mean ground level up to 10. Consider following with regards to roof
a height of trusses.
(a) 2 m (b) 5 m (1) Location of the structure
(c) 10 m (d) 20 m (2) Height of the structure
(3) Shape of the structure Of the above,
5. Slope of a truss is equal to its select the correct option from the codes
(a) pitch/2 below. Estimation of wind loads depends
(b) pitch upon
(c) two times pitch (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1.5 times pitch (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 1 only
11. Consider following with regards to roof
6. The design wind speed depends upon trusses.
(1) risk coefficient (1) Cost of roof trusses
(2) topography of the area (2) Cost of roof purlins
(3) size of the structure (3) Cost of roof sheeting
Of the above, (4) Wind load
(a) 1, 2 are correct Of the above, select the correct option
(b) 2, 3 are correct from the codes below. The economic
(c) 3, 1 are correct spacing of roof trusses depends upon
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
7. Steel members subjected to which of the (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
following forces are most close to the
assumption made in the analysis of a roof 12. In factory buildings the horizontal beams
truss? spanning between the wall columns
1. Axial forces supporting a wall covering are called
2. Moments (a) Stringers (b) Girts
3. Shears (c) Trimmers (d) Lintels

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13. The space between adjacent bents in a 21. In the roof for principal rafter most
roof truss is called : frequently used section is :
(a) Purlins (b) Bay (a) two channels placed back to back
(c) Knee (d) Braces (b) one angle and one channel placed
back to back
14. Normally, the angel of roof truss with (c) two angles placed back to back
asbestos sheets should not be less than : (d) none of the above
(a) Less than 260
(b) Less than 300 22. In roof truss purlins, the sag rods are
(c) Less than 400 designed as-
(d) None of the above (a) Compression members
(b) Laterally supported beams
15. The member of roof truss which supports (c) Laterally unsupported beams
the purlins is called as (d) Tension members
(a) Sag rod (b) Main strut
(c) Principal (d) Principal tie 23. Roof trusses are generally used when the
span exceeds :
16. As per IS: 800 purlins are designed as (a) 3 m (b) 5 m
(a) simply supported beams (c) 10 m (d) 15 m
(b) cantilever beams
(c) continuous beams 24. The maximum allowable deflection in roof
(d) compression member purlins is :
(a) 10 mm (b) L/200
17. An I-section purlin of span 4 m is
(c) L/325 (d) L/400
subjected to a total uniformly distributed
Where L is the length of purlin
load of 5 kN. The purlin will be designed
for maximum bending moment of
25. Normally, the pitch of roof truss with
(a) 2000 Nm (b) 20 kNm
asbestos sheets should not be less than-
(c) 2500 Nm (d) 25 kNm
(a) 1/2 of span (b) 1/4 of span
(c) 1/7 of span (d) 1/12 of span
18. According to IS: 875 Part 3, design wind
speed is obtained by multiplying the basic
26. The wind load on a steel truss for an
wind speed by factors k1, k2 and k3 where
industrial building will depend upon
k3 is
(a) Location of structure
(a) terrain height factor
(b) Shape of structure
(b) structure size factor
(c) Location, shape and height of structure
(c) topography factor
(d) Shape and height of structure
(d) risk coefficient

27. The basic wind speed is specified at

19. Which of the following elements of a
height 'h' above mean ground level in
pitched roof industrial steel building
open terrain, the value of 'h' is
primarily resists lateral load parallel to the
(a) 10 m (b) 20 m
ridge?
(c) 25 m (d) 50 m
(a) Bracings (b) Purlins
(c) Truss (d) Columns
28. The live load for a slopping roof with slope
150, where access is not provided to the
20. The members which support covering
roof is taken as:
material of a steel roof truss are-
OR
(a) Rafters (b) Purlins
(c) Struts (d) Battens

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The principal rafter of roof truss is inclined (d) Cantilever

at an angle of 150. No access is provided
except maintenance. The roof is subjected 34. In case of industrial steel structure, sag
to imposed load of 0.75kN/m2 the design rods are designed as ...
imposed load is (a) Torsional member
(a) 1.50 kN/m2 (b) 0.75 kN/m2 (b) Compression member
(c) 0.65 kN/m2 (d) 0.40 kN/m2 (c) Bending member
(d) Tension member
29. Design of structure should not consider
snow load when roof is steeper than: 35. The economical range of spacing of roof
(a) 600 (b) 450 trusses is:
(c) 300 (d) 150 (a) 1/2 to 1/3 of span
(b) 1/2 to 1/4 of span
30. In a steel roof truss, if angle iron purlin is (c) 1/4 to 1/6 of span
used its depth should not be less than (d) 1/3 to 1/5 of span
(a) 1/60 × span of purlin
(b) 1/45 × span of purlin 36. An angle section can be used as purlin
(c) 1/60 × spacing of purlin when slope of the roof truss is:
(d) 1/45 × spacing of purlin (a) between 400 and 700
(b) less than 300
31. Consider the following statements – (c) greater than 30
I- The economic spacing of a roof truss (d) less than 450
depends on cost of purlins and cost of roof
covering. 37. Minimum imposed load considered for
II- Purlins provided over roof trusses are sloping roof with slope greater than 10º
designed as a continuous as per IS: 800. should not be less than –
III- Bearing stiffeners are provided in a (a) 1.5 kN/m² (b) 0.75 kN/m²
plate girder to prevent web buckling. The (c) 0.40 kN/m² (d) 0.10 kN/m²
correct statements are –
(a) I, II and III are correct 38. Sag roads in a roof truss are used for
(b) Only I and II are correct connecting
(c) II and III are correct (a) main tie (b) Purlin
(d) I and III are correct (c) Sling (d) Rafter

32. Which one of the following is matched 39. Which type of truss consists of a series of
correctly? isosceles triangles and is known for its
(a) Pratt truss : Large span simplicity and effectiveness in evenly
(b) Warren truss: Small span distributing load?
(c) Quadrangle : Medium pitch (a) Equilateral truss (b) Warren truss
(d) North light truss: Ventilation (c) Queen post truss (d) Pratt truss

33. Purlins are provided in industrial 40. Which type of truss is made out of wood
buildings over roof trusses to carry dead most of the time, also this truss spans upto
loads, live loads and winds. They are 6 m?
assumed as what type of beams as per IS (a) Fink truss
800: 84 code? (b) Queen post truss
(a) Simply supported (c) Howe truss
(d) King post truss
(b) Continuous
(c) Fixed

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41. Which truss is characterized by vertical

members and diagonals that slope up
towards the centre, and is commonly used
in bridge construction?
(a) Howe Truss (b) Fink Truss
(c) Vierendeel Truss (d) Pratt Truss

42. Identify the truss that may be considered

as two trussed rafters held in place by the
tie T the center?
(a) Warrern truss
(b) North light roof truss
(c) Pratt truss
(d) Quadrangular roof truss

43. Which truss consists to girders of a series

of trusses fixed and the short vertical side
of the truss is glazed?
(a) North light roof truss
(b) Pratt truss
(c) Warren truss
(d) Quadrangular roof truss

44. In roof truss, the value of snow load is

taken as
(a) 3.5N/m² (b) 4.5N/m2
(c) 1.5N/m² (d) 2.5N/m²

45. Identify the type of truss shown in the

below figure?

(a) Warren truss

(b) Parker truss
(c) Pratt truss
(d) Howe truss

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ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. A

8. D 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. B 14. B

15. C 16. C 17. A 18. C 19. A 20. B 21. C

22. D 23. B 24. B 25. D 26. C 27. A 28. C

29. 30. C 31. A 32. C 33. B 34. D 35. D

36. B 37. C 38. B 39. B 40. D 41. D 42. D

43. A 44. D 45. C

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8. PLATE GIRDER
1. In a plate girder, the vertical stiffeners are 8. Intermediate vertical stiffeners are
provided when the ratio of clear depth to provided in plate girders to
the thickness of web exceeds (a) eliminate web buckling
(a) 50 (b) 85 (b) eliminate local buckling
(c) 65 (d) 75 (c) transfer concentrated loads
(d) prevent excessive deflection
2. Bearing stiffeners in plate girders are
provided at 9. Consider the following statements:
(a) Mid-span (b) Equal interval Bearing stiffeners are provided in a plate
(c) Supports (d) Neutral axis girder
1. To avoid local bending failure of flange.
3. Horizontal stiffeners are needed in plate 2. To prevent bucking of web.
girder if the thickness of web is less than 3. To strengthen the web.
(a) 6 mm 4. Under uniformly distributed loads
(b) Depth/200 Which of these statements are correct?
(c) Span/500 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(d) Flange thickness (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

4. Bearing stiffeners are designed as 10. The effective flange area in tension of a
(a) Beams (b) Beam-ties plate girder is equal to
(c) Ties (d) Column (a) Af (b) Af +
𝐴𝑤
2
𝐴𝑤 𝐴𝑤
5. The purpose of stiffeners in a plate girder (c) Af + (d) Af +
8 6
is to: Where Af is the area of each flange and
(a) Prevent buckling of web plate Aw is the web area.
(b) Reduce the shear stress
(c) Take care of bearing stress 11. Consider the following provisions to
(d) Increases the moment carrying possibly improve the shear capacity of a
capacity of the girder steel girder:
1. Horizontal stiffeners
6. A welded steel plate girder consisting of 2. Vertical stiffeners
two flange plates of 350 mm x 16 mm and 3. Column splice
a web plate of 1000 mm x 6 mm requires - 4. Bearing stiffeners
(a) No stiffener Which of these are correct?
(b) Vertical stiffeners (a) 1,2, 3 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) Intermediate vertical stiffener (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(d) Vertical and horizontal stiffeners
12. Web buckling occurs in a beam due to
7. The flange splice in plate girder is excessive
subjected to: (a) Direct tensile stress in the web
(a) Axial force only (b) Bending tensile stress in the web
(b) Shear and axial force (c) Torsional shear stress in the web
(c) Bending moment and axial force (d) Compressive stress in the web
(d) Shear force and bending moment
13. Bearing stiffeners are provided
(a) At the ends of plate girders

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(b) At the ends of plate girder and on both (b) local buckling
faces of the wen (c) shear buckling
(c) At the ends of plate girder and only on (d) bending buckling
one face of the web
(d) At the points of concentrated loads, to 20. consider the following statements :
protect the web from the direct Horizontal stiffener is provided when
compressive loads. 1. the depth of webs is small.
2. Tendency to web buckling is less.
14. For large span and heavy gravity loads 3. Vertical stiffeners becomes too close.
which of the following will be economical? 4. Only thin plates are available for web.
(a) Beam (b) Arch Which of these statements are correct ?
(c) Truss (d) Plate girder (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
15. The optimum thickness of plate girder is
given by 21. Consider the following statements :
𝑀𝐾 2
0.33 Bearing stiffeners, n plate girders, are
(a) ( ) (b) (c>d) 1. provided at supports.
𝑓𝑦
0.33 2. Provided under concentrated loads.
𝑀 𝑀 𝛾𝑚𝑙
(c) ( ) (d) 1.21 √ 3. Provided alternately on the web.
𝑓𝑦 𝐾 2 𝑓𝑦
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
where M, k, fy, 𝛾m0 and 𝛾ml have their (a) 4 only (b) 2 only
usual meanings. (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

16. Intermediate vertical stiffeners are 22. Horizontal stiffener in a plate girder is
provided in plate girders to provided to safeguard against web
(a) eliminate the web buckling buckling due to
(b) eliminate the local buckling (a) shear
(c) transfer concentrated loads (b) compressive force in bending
(d) prevent excessive deflection (c) tensile force in bending
(d) heavy concentrated load
17. The thickness of a web for unstiffened
plate girder with clear distance d between 23. The serviceability criterion for a plate
the flanges, for serviceability girder design is based upon
requirement, (web connected to flange (a) width of flange
along one longitudinal edge only) should (b) depth of web
not be less than (c) minimum thickness of web
(a) d/250 (b) d/90 (d) stiffness of web
(c) d/345 (d) d/200
24. Consider the following two statements
18. End panel design of plate girder by post- regarding bearing stiffeners provided at
critical method the location of a concentrated load :
(a) makes use of tension field action 1. bearing stiffeners have to resist
(b) makes use of intermediate stiffener bearing and buckling loads.
(c) makes use of end post 2. Bearing area and the area resisting
(d) avoids formation of tension field in the bucking load are the same.
end panel Which of the above statements is/are
correct ?
19. Thick web of plate girder fails due to (a) 2 only (b) 1 only
(a) shear yielding (c) Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2

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25. Which of the following statement is correct (c) Prevent local buckling of flange
for reducing web buckling due to (d) Prevent local buckling of web
diagonal compression?
(a) Not proving web stiffners to increase 32. Web crippling generally occurs at the
shear strength point, where-
(b) Providing web stiffner to reduce shear (a) deflection is maximum
strength (b) shearing stress is maximum
(c) Increasing depth to thickness ratio (c) bending stress is maximum
(d) Reducing depth to thickness ratio (d) concentrated load act

26. Intermediate vertical stiffeners are 33. A welded plate girder of span 25 m is
required in plate girder when d/t ratio of laterally restrained throughout its length.
the web exceeds It has to carry a load of 80 kN/m over the
(a) 85 (b) 80 whole span besides its weight. If K = 200
(c) 90 (d) 75 and fy = 250 MPa, the thickness of web will
be nearly
27. The flange splice in plate girder should be (a) 10 mm (b) 14 mm
selected at (c) 16 mm (d) 20 mm
(a) maximum shear location
(b) minimum shear location 34. Which of the following stiffeners in a plate
(c) maximum moment location girder should be used to prevent local
(d) minimum moment location crushing of the web due to concentrated
loading
28. In a plate girder bridge, the thickness of (a) Tension Stiffener
web is less than d/200 where d is the (b) Bearing Stiffener
unsupported depth of web. The web plate (c) Load carrying Stiffener
should be - provided with (d) Diagonal Stiffener
(a) Vertical stiffeners 35. When transverse stiffeners are not
(b) Horizontal stiffeners provided in plate girder and the web of
(c) End stiffeners plate girder is connected to flange along
(d) Both vertical and horizontal stiffeners. one longitudinal edge only, then the
minimum thickness of web shall be taken
as
29. In general the depth of Plate girder is kept
as _____ of span. d d
(a) 1/5 to 1/8 (b) 1/8 to 1/10 200 w 340 w
(a) (b)
(c) 1/10 to 1/12 (d) 1/12 to 1/16 d d
90 w 400 w
30. In a plate girder design, the web (c) (d)
contribution to the compression flange
area is 36. The vertical stiffeners and horizontal
𝐴𝑤 stiffeners are used for plate girders.
(a) Aw (b) 8 (a) To prevent yielding
𝐴𝑤 𝐴𝑤
(c) 6
(d) 50 (b) To decrease the deflection of the
Aw = area of web plate girder
(c) To prevent web buckling
31. Horizontal stiffeners in the plate girders (d) To prevent web crippling
are used to
(a) Increase the bending strength of the 37. A plate girder is
web (a) Built up beam
(b) Increase the shear capacity of the web (b) Built up column

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(c) Beam column Statement B: When the computed shear

(d) Beam on elastic foundation stress in the web of a plate girder is less
than the critical shear stress, intermediate
38. Web crippling in I section steel beams stiffeners are theoretically not required.
occurs at the points where: (a) Statement B is correct and A is
(a) Concentrated loads act incorrect
(b) Bending moment is maximum (b) Both statements are correct
(c) Deflection is maximum (c) Both statements are incorrect
(d) Shear force is maximum (d) Statement A is correct and B is
incorrect
39. In plate girders, diagonal bucking of web
occurs when : 43. Which of the following statements (S1, S2
(a) The ratio of clear depth to thickness of and S3), pertaining to stiffeners to plate
web (d/tw) exceeds 85 girder, is/are incorrect?
(b) The ratio of thickness of flange to clear S1: Longitudinal stiffeners increase the
depth (tf/d) exceeds 65 buckling resistance considerably when
(c) The ratio of thickness of web to clear the web is subjected to buckling.
depth (tw/d) exceeds 85 S2: Bearing stiffeners are used to transfer
(d) The ratio of clear depth to thickness of concentrated loads on girder and heavy
flange (d/tf) exceeds 65 reactions at support to the full depth of the
web.
40. As per IS 800-2007, when transverse S3: Bearing stiffeners are called stability
stiffeners are not provided in a plate stiffeners.
girder, the d/tw ratio of web connected to (a) Only S1 (b) Only S2 and S3
flanges along both longitudinal edges (c) Only S1 and S2 (d) Only S3
shall be ________Where d = depth of the
web, tw = thickness of the web and  w =
yield stress ratio of web.
(a) Less than or equal to 270  w
(b) Less than or equal to  w
(c) Less than or equal to 200  w
(d) Less than or equal to 340  w

41. Buckling of the compression flange of a

girder, without transverse stiffeners can
be avoided if (with standard notations)
d d
 345 2f  270 2f
t
(a) w
t
(b) w
d d
 270 w  345 w
(c)
t w (d)
t w

42. Consider the below statements with

respect to plate girders and identify the
correct answer
Statement A : The intermediate transverse
stiffener increases the buckling resistance
of web caused by shear.

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ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. A

8. A 9. B 10. C 11. C 12. D 13. D 14. D

15. C 16. A 17. B 18. 19. 20. B 21. C

22. B 23. C 24. B 25. D 26. A 27. D 28. D

29. C 30. C 31. D 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. C

36. C 37. A 38. A 39. A 40. C 41. A 42. B

43. D

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9. GANTRY GIRDER
1. Which of the following loads are to be (c) one of the wheel load is at mid-span
considered in designing a gantry girder in and the other wheel on adjacent span
an industrial building? (d) either (a) or (c)
(1) Gravity loads
(2) Lateral loads 6. Pick up the correct statement:
(3) Longitudinal loads (a) Gantry girder is also known as crane
(4) Wind loads girder.
Select the correct answer using the codes (b) Vertical force transferred to the rails in
given below: case of gantry girder with EOT cranes is
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 10% of maximum static wheel load.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (c) For manually operated cranes the
maximum permissible deflection of gantry
2. Gantry girders can be designed girder is span/500.
(1) and provided in multistorey buildings (d) Gantry girders are always designed as
(2) as laterally unsupported beams laterally supported beams.
(3) using channel sections
Of these, 7. The surge loads in gantry girders are
(a) only 1 is correct (1) the gravity loads
(b) only 2 is correct (2) the lateral loads
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (3) the longitudinal loads
(d) 2 and 3 are correct Of the above,
(a) only 1 is correct
3. For gantry girders carrying electrically (b) only 2 is correct
operated overhead traveling cranes, the (c) only 3 is correct
lateral force is increased by (d) 2 and 3 are correct
(a) 25% of maximum static wheel load
(b) 10% of maximum static wheel load 8. In a crane gantry girder, a channel is
(c) 10% of weight of the crab and weight provided at the top flange girder. This
lifted by the crane accounts for bending in
(d) 5% of the weight of the crab and (a) horizontal plane only
weight lifted by the crane (b) vertical plane only
(c) horizontal and vertical planes
4. When gantry girders carry moving loads (d) horizontal and vertical planes and
such as charging cars, the deflection twisting
should not exceed
(a)
𝐿
(b)
𝐿 9. The maximum permissible deflection for a
500 600
𝐿 𝐿
gantry girder, spanning over 6m, on
(c) (d) which on EOT (Electric Overhead
750 1000
Travelling) crane of capacity 200 kN is
5. Maximum shear force in a gantry girder operating is
carrying an over-head travelling crane (a) 8 mm (b) 10 mm
occurs when (c) 12 mm (d) 18 mm
(a) one of the wheel loads is at support
(b) the center of the span coincides with 10. The given figure shows a typical section of
c.g. of wheel loads a crane girder. Consider the following
statements in this regard:

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The function of the top channel is to 12. Gantry girders can be designed
1. As laterally supported beams.
2. As laterally unsupported beam.
3. By using channel sections.

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
1. increase moment of inertia about
vertical axis 13. Economical depth of gantry girder is
2. reduce moment of inertia bout about
horizontal axis (a) 1/8th span (b) 1/12th span
3. increase torsional stiffness (c) 1/16th span (d) 1/20th span
4. increase lateral buckling strength
14. Impact allowance for crane girders and
Which of these statements are correct ?
supporting columns for electrically
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
operated heavy duty cranes is
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
(a) 10% (b) 25%
(c) 30% (d) 50%
11. Which one of the following section is the
most efficient for a simply supported
15. Transverse surge force on the rail head
gantry girder ?
from on EOT crane girder, when
(a) I-section with equal flanges
compared with combined weight of crab
(b) I-section with a channel attached to the
and weight lifted is
top flange
(a) 5% (b) 10%
(c) I-section with a wide bottom flange
(c) 15% (d) 20%
(d) I-section with a heavy plate connected
to the bottom
16. Limiting vertical deflection of gantry
girders carrying EOT cranes with capacity
less than 500 kN is
(a) L/500 (b) L/600
(c) L/750 (d) L/1000

ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. B

8. A 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. A 13. B 14. B

15. B 16. C

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10. PLASTIC ANALYSIS

1. The shape factor for a rectangular section 3. Hinge length
is equal to: The shape factor depends upon
(a) 1.00 (b) 1.50 (a) 1 only (b) 1,2 only
(c) 1.70 (d) 2.34 (c) 2 only (d) 1,2 and 3

2. Shape factor for a circular section is equal 8. The ratio of elastic modulus to plastic
to: modulus for a rectangular section of steel
(a) 1.00 (b) 1.50 is.
(c) 2.34 (d) 1.70 (a) 1.5 (b) 0.66
(c) 1.70 (d) 0.25
3. Pick up the correct statement from the
following 9. For an I-beam, shape factor is 1.12. The
(a) In a loaded beam, the moment at which factor of safety in bending is 1.5. If the
the first yield occurs is called yield allowable stress is increased by 20% for
moment. wind and earthquake load, then the load
(b) In a loaded beam, the moment at factor is
which the entire section of the beam (a) 1.10 (b) 1.25
becomes fully plastic, is called plastic (c) 1.35 (d) 1.40
moment.
(c) In a fully plastic stage of the beam, the 10. A simply supported steel beam of
neutral axis divides the section in two rectangular section and of span L is
sections of equal area. subjected to a uniformly distributed load.
(d) All option are correct. The length of the plastic hinge by
considering moment ratio of 1.5 will be
4. In plastic analysis, the shape factor for a nearly
triangular section is (a) 0.27 L (b) 0.39 L
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.34 (c) 0.45 L (d) 0.58 L
(c) 2.34 (d) 2.5
11. Which of the following represents the
5. In case of a simply supported rectangular increasing order of shape factor?
beam of span L and loaded with a central (a) Rectangle, I-section, solid-circular
load W, the length of elasto-plastic zone of section, diamond
the plastic hinge is (b) I-section, rectangle, solid-circular
(a) L/2 (b) L/3 section, diamond
(c) L/4 (d) L/5 (c) Diamond, solid-circular section,
rectangle, I-section
6. If Q is load factor S is shape factor and F is (d) Diamond, solid-circular section, I-
factor of safety in elastic design, the section, rectangle
following:
(a) Q = S + F (b) Q = S – F 12. The moment which makes all the fibers at
(c) Q = F – S (d) Q = S × F the section to yield is known as
(a) Flexural rigidity
7. Consider followings with regards to (b) Moment of resistance
plastic analysis (c) Plastic moment capacity
1. Yield stress of material (d) Yield moment
2. Geometry of the section

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Civil Engineering 56 SSC -JE

13. Which of the following conditions is 17. Which one of the following relations is
satisfied both in plastic and elastic used for plastic design method in steel
analysis structures?
(a) Equilibrium condition Yield load Load
(a) Working load =
(b) Yield condition Load factor
(c) Mechanism condition Collapse load
(d) Plastic moment (b) Working load =
Load factor
14. Which of the following sections will have (c) Load Factor = Collapse load - working load
yield load
maximum shape factor?
Collapse load - working load
(a) Rectangle (b) I-section
(c) Circular (d) Triangular (d) working load working load

18. For a fixed-end beam of length L and

15. In the plastic method of analysis of steel
central point load of W, what will be the
structures, which of the following
value of W at collapse?
conditions is also known as 'plastic
(Note: Plastic moment capacity of beam =
moment condition'?
(a) Mechanism condition Mp)
(a) 6Mp/L (b) 10Mp/L
(b) Yield condition
(c) 9Mp/L (d) 8Mp/L
(c) Continuity condition
(d) Equilibrium condition
19. Calculate the plastic section modulus of a
beam which in experiencing a maximum
16. What is the collapse load of the beam as
bending moment of 590.63 kN-m (take
shown in figure?
partial safety factor as 1.10 and yield
strength of steel as 250 N/mm²).
(a) 2598.77 cm³ (b) 2246.64 cm³
(c) 1856.15 cm³ (d) 1568.16 cm³

16M p 12M p 20. A simply supported beam of sapn 6 m

(a) Wu = (b) Wu = carries an ultimate UDL of 25 kN/m. The
L L
plastic moment capacity of the same is
8M p 6M p (a) 112.5 kN-m (b) 146.85 kN-m
(c) Wu = (d) Wu =
L L (c) 125.45 kN-m (d) 102.5 kNm

ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. D

8. B 9. D 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. D

15. B 16. A 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. A

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