SECTION A – ENGLISH LANGUAGE

(Questions - 1 to 5): Read the passage given below carefully and choose the best answer for each
of the questions that follow it.

At this stage of civilization, when many nations are brought in to close and vital contact for good and
evil, it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be diminished, that
they should begin to understand a little of one another's historical experience and resulting mentality. It
is the fault of the English to expect the people of other countries to react as they do, to political and
international situations. Our genuine goodwill and good intentions are often brought to nothing, because
we expect other people to be like us. This would be corrected if we knew the history, not necessarily in
detail but in broad outlines, of the social and political conditions which have given to each nation its
present character.
1. The need for a greater understanding between nations___________
a. was always there
b. is no longer there
c. is more today than ever before
d. will always be there

2. The character of a nation is the result of its___________

a. mentality
b. cultural heritage
c. gross ignorance
d. socio-political conditions

3. According to the author, 'Mentality' of a nation is mainly product of its___________

a. history
b. international position
c. politics
d. present character

4. Englishmen like others to react to political situations like___________

a. us
b. themselves
c. others
d. each other

5. According to the author his countrymen should___________

a. read the story of other nations
b. have a better understanding of other nations
c. not react to other actions
d. have vital contacts with other nations

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(Questions - 6 to 10): In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, select the
lettered pair that expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

6. Pain: Sedative::
a. Comfort: Stimulant
b. Grief: Consolation
c. Trance: Narcotic
d. Ache: Extraction

7. Arrow: Quiver ::
a. Actress: Applause
b. Garage: Car
c. Editorial: Newspaper
d. Pistol: Holster

8. Album: Photographs ::
a. Head: Cap
b. Bulb: Light
c. Compact Disks: CPU
d. Shelf: Books

9. Distance: Mile::
a. Liquid: Litre
b. Bushel: Corn
c. Weight: Scale
d. Fame: Television

10. Army: Logistics ::

a. Soldier: Students
b. War: Logic
c. Business: Strategy
d. Team: Individual

(Questions - 11 to 15): Select the word that is most closely opposite in meaning to the capitalised
word.

11. REDUCE
a. Exploit
b. Amplify
c. Disperse
d. Diversify

12. ABOUNDS
a. Shines
b. Lacks
c. Suffices
d. Fails

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 13. BARBARIAN
a. Civilized
b. Cruel
c. Uncivilized
d. Bad

14. REAR
a. Unusual
b. Front
c. Upper
d. Back

15. ZEAL
a. Calmness
b. Despair
c. Passiveness
d. Indifference

(Questions - 16 to 20): Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the given word.

16. EMBEZZLE
a. Misappropriate
b. Balance
c. Remunerate
d. Clear

17. STRINGENT
a. Dry
b. Strained
c. Rigorous
d. Shrill

18. LAMENT
a. Complain
b. Comment
c. Condone
d. Console

19. RECKLESS
a. Courageous
b. Rash
c. Bold
d. Daring

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 20. INEBRIATE
a. Dreamy
b. Stupefied
c. Unsteady
d. Drunken

(Questions - 21 to 25): From the sentences given below, choose the right word to fill in the blank.

21. The company had to put many hours into training him because he was a _____________ with
absolutely no experience whatsoever.
a. expert
b. professional
c. stranger
d. novice

22. Short term memory refers to _____________ memories that last from minutes to hours.
a. transient
b. literal
c. fugitive
d. enduring

23. Her incredible ______________, perseverance and determination to succeed is a commendable

example to everyone.
a. vacillation
b. timidity
c. indolence
d. tenacity

24. My mother is quite ____________ in nature and never does anything without rationalising it
first.
a. irrational
b. idealistic
c. unreasonable
d. pragmatic

25. Although the hurricane was rapidly coming their way, the people of the town were
___________ and did not leave their homes.
a. yielding
b. susceptible
c. obdurate
d. gentle

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 SECTION B – QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

1. Which of the following number is divisible by 3, 7, 9 and 11?

a. 639
b. 2079
c. 3791
d. 37911

2. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 12 times their H.C.F. The sum of H.C.F. and L.C.M. is 403. If one
number is 93, find the other.
a. 124
b. 128
c. 134
d. 144

3. A man earns Rs. 20 on the first day and spends Rs. 15 on the next day. He again earns Rs. 20 on
the third day and spends Rs. 15 on the fourth day. If he continues to save like this, on which day
will he have Rs. 60 in hand?
a. 17th day
b. 27th day
c. 30th day
d. 40th day

4. If A + B = 96 and A is half of B, then find value of ‘A’.

a. 22
b. 32
c. 48
d. 64

5. Find the value of [1148 ÷ 28 x 1408 ÷ 32].

a. 1800
b. 1804
c. 1814
d. 1822

6. How many boxes are required for filling 15 kg of sweets, if each box is filled with 250 grams of
sweets?
a. 90
b. 70
c. 60
d. 120

7. If ‘x’ is greater than ‘y’ by 2 and ‘y’ is greater than ‘z’ by 10 and x + y + z = 130, then find the
value of [(y + z) – x].
a. 34
b. 38
c. 42
d. 44

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8. A car company sold 150 cars in a special six-day sales drive. Each day, the company sold six
more cars than the previous day. How many cars were sold on the 6 th day?
a. 35
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60

9. Water boils at 2120 F or 1000 C and melts at 320 F or 00 C. If the temperature of a particular day
is 350C, it is equivalent to___.
a. 850 F
b. 900 F
c. 950 F
d. 990 F

10. A number 74 is divided into two numbers. If 5 times of one number and 11 times of the other
number adds to 454, find the numbers.
a. 14, 60
b. 60, 14
c. 30, 44
d. 44, 30

11. A tank is 2/5th full. If 16 litres of water is added to the tank, it becomes 6/7th full. The capacity of
the tank is___.
a. 28 litres
b. 32 litres
c. 42 litres
d. 35 litres

12. Peter gave one-fourth of the amount he had to Michael. Michael in turn gave half of what he
received from Peter to Sam. If the difference between the remaining amount with Peter and the
amount received by Sam is Rs. 500, how much money did Michael receive from Peter?
a. Rs. 100
b. Rs. 200
c. Rs. 300
d. Rs. 400

13. The cost of 36 kg of rice last year was Rs. 1044 and the cost of 24 kg rice this year is Rs. 768.
Find the difference between the cost per kg of rice in the two years.
a. Rs. 3
b. Rs. 4
c. Rs. 5
d. Rs. 6

14. Along a 225 meters long road, 26 trees are planted at equal distance, one tree being at each end
of the road. Find the distance between two consecutive trees.
a. 8 meters
b. 9 meters
c. 10 meters
d. 11 meters

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15. 180 oranges are distributed among 70 students such that each boy gets two oranges and each girl
get three oranges. Find the number of boys.
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30

16. In a group of 52 persons, 16 drink tea but not coffee and 33 drink tea. How many drink coffee
but not tea?
a. 3
b. 7
c. 17
d. 19

17. √53824 = ?
a. 202
b. 232
c. 242
d. 332

18. Find the value of ‘x’ in the equation 4050 ÷ √x = 450.

a. 9
b. 49
c. 81
d. 100

19. The square root of (2722 – 1282) is___.

a. 144
b. 200
c. 240
d. 256

20. What percentage of the numbers from 1 to 50 have squares that end in the digit 1?
a. 1
b. 5
c. 11
d. 20

21. Average weight of 21 boys was recorded as 64 kg. If the weight of a teacher was added, the
average increased by 1 kg. Find the weight of the teacher.
a. 86 kg
b. 64 kg
c. 72 kg
d. 84 kg

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22. The difference between the present ages of Arun and Deepak is 14 years. Seven years ago, the
ratio of their ages was 5:7 respectively. Find Deepak’s present age.
a. 35 years
b. 42 years
c. 49 years
d. 56 years

23. If one-eighth of a number is 41.5, what will be 62.5 % of that number?

a. 260
b. 225
c. 207.5
d. 235.5

24. Find the value of ‘x’ if, x % of 450 + 45 % of 280 = 261.

a. 21
b. 30
c. 40
d. 34

25. A number when reduced by 25 % becomes 225. By what percent the number should be increased,
so that it becomes 390?
a. 25 %
b. 30 %
c. 35 %
d. 45 %

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 SECTION C – TEST OF REASONING

1. In the question given below, choose the correct option to continue the series.

a.

b.

c.

d.

2. Find the number of triangles in the following figure.

a. 12
b. 16
c. 10
d. 14

3. The “Statement” below is followed by two arguments – I and II. You have to decide which
argument is a “strong” argument and which argument is a “weak” argument, based on the strength
of reasoning.
Statement: Use of private vehicles should be banned in Delhi.
Argument:
I. Yes, it will promote peace.
II. No, I like driving my own vehicle.

a. Only Argument I is strong

b. Only Argument II is strong
c. Both Argument I and II are strong
d. Both Argument I and II are weak

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4. The “Statement” below is followed by two arguments – I and II. You have to decide which
argument is a “strong” argument and which argument is a “weak” argument, based on the strength
of reasoning.
Statement: The government should draft a law making property damaged in rioting recoverable
from rioters.
Argument:
I. Yes, it will make the rioters think twice before damaging property.
II. No, it will put useless burden on rioters.
a. Only Argument I is strong
b. Only Argument II is strong
c. Both Argument I and II are strong
d. Both Argument I and II are weak

5. The “Statement” below is followed by two arguments – I and II. You have to decide which
argument is a “strong” argument and which argument is a “weak” argument, based on the strength
of reasoning
Statement: Children must be admitted to school before they reach five years of age.
Argument:
I. Yes, time should not be wasted as children should think about career.
II. Yes, children should be admitted before they reach three years of age.
a. Only Argument I is strong
b. Only Argument II is strong
c. Both Argument I and II are strong
d. Both Argument I and II are weak

6. For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) given below, choose the correct alternative from the
following:
Assertion (A): A person having O+ blood group is called universal donor.
Reason (R): O+ blood group can be given to a person having any blood group.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true

7. For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) given below, choose the correct alternative from the
following:
Assertion (A): A sick child should be taken to a cardiologist.
Reason (R): Child physicians are known as cardiologists.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. Both (A) and (R) are false

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8. For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) given below, choose the correct alternative from the
following:
Assertion (A): One extra day is added to February in a leap year.
Reason (R): Earth completes one rotation in 360 days.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. Both (A) and (R) are false

9. For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) given below, choose the correct alternative from the
following:
Assertion (A): White blood cells are called the soldiers of the human body.
Reason (R): White blood cells are part of our immune system.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. Both (A) and (R) are false

10. Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the
statements to be true even if they seem to be absurd. You have to decide which of the given
conclusions follow from the statements.

Statements
I. All Pens are Erasers.
II. All Erasers are Pencils.

Conclusions
I. All Pencils are Pens.
II. All Pens are Pencils.

a. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

b. Both conclusions I and II follow
c. Only conclusion I follows
d. Only conclusion II follows

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11. Three statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the
statements to be true even if they seem to be absurd. You have to decide which of the given
conclusions follow from the statements.
Statements
I. Some stands are racks.
II. No rack is a box.
III. All boxes are cartons.

Conclusions
I. All stands can never be boxes.
II. All racks being cartons is a possibility.

a. Either conclusion I or II follows

b. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
c. Both conclusion I and II follow
d. Only conclusion I follows

12. Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the
statements to be true even if they seem to be absurd. You have to decide which of the given
conclusions follow from the statements.

Statements
I. All kittens are turtles.
II. Some turtles are puppies.

Conclusions
I. At least some puppies are kittens.
II. No puppy is a kitten.

a. Either conclusion I or II follows

b. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
c. Both conclusion I and II follow
d. Only conclusion I follows

13. Which conclusion is true with respect to the given statements?

Statements
I. All squares are rectangles.
II. All rectangles are polygons.

Conclusions
a. Square is a polygon but not rectangle
b. Square is a rectangle and polygon
c. Square is not a polygon
d. Square is not a rectangle

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14. Which conclusion is true with respect to the given statements?

Statements
I. Some clerks are poor.
II. A is poor.

Conclusions
I. A is a clerk
II. A has a large family
a. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
b. Both conclusions I and II follow
c. Only conclusion I follows
d. Only conclusion II follows

15. Which conclusion is true with respect to the given statements?

Statements
I. Some letters are digits
II. All digits are numbers
III. All symbols are numbers

Conclusions
I. At least some letters are numbers
II. All symbols being digits is a possibility

a. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

b. Both conclusions I and II follow
c. Only conclusion I follows
d. Only conclusion II follows

16. Which conclusion is true with respect to the given statements?

Statements
I. All farms are houses.
II. All houses are jungles.
III. No jungle is a ranch.
IV. All ranches are estates.

Conclusions
a. No jungle is an estate
b. No jungle is a farm
c. All estates being a house is a possibility
d. No farm is a ranch

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 17. Read the given information and answer the question based on the data:
A is richer than B. D is richer than C. E is the richest of all. C is richer than A.
If they are made to sit in the order of degree of richness, who will have the central position?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

18. Read the given information and answer the question based on the data:
Radha is younger to Sunita but elder to Rita. Rita is elder than Geeta. Sham is older to Rita but
younger to Radha. Who is the youngest of all?
a. Rita
b. Sham
c. Sunita
d. Geeta

19. Lata is a year older than Sunita. Sunita is two years older than Bindu. Rajan is a year older than
Bindu. Who is the youngest of all?
a. Sunita
b. Lata
c. Bindu
d. Rajan

20. Identify the odd option out.

a. BD
b. CE
c. DF
d. FG

Directions for questions 21-25:

Study the following information and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Five friends Parker, Quincy, Robert, Sebastian and Taylor travelled to five different cities of
Dover, Athens, Barcelona, Paris and Coventry by five different modes of transport of Bus, Train,
Aeroplane, Car and Boat from London.
(ii) The person who travelled to Barcelona did not travel by boat.
(iii) Robert went to Paris by car and Quincy went to Athens by aeroplane.
(iv) Sebastian travelled by boat whereas Taylor travelled by train.
(v) London is not connected by bus to Barcelona and Dover.

21. Which of the following combinations of person and mode is not correct?
a. Parker – Bus
b. Quincy – Aeroplane
c. Robert – Car
d. Taylor – Aeroplane

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22. Which of the following combinations is true for Sebastian?
a. Barcelona – Bus
b. Dover – Bus
c. Dover – Boat
d. Athens – Train

23. Which of the following combinations of place and mode is not correct?
a. Barcelona – Bus
b. Athens – Aeroplane
c. Paris – Car
d. Dover – Boat

24. The person travelling to Barcelona went by which of the following modes?
a. Bus
b. Train
c. Aeroplane
d. Car

25. Who among the following travelled to Barcelona?

a. Robert
b. Sebastian
c. Taylor
d. Quincy

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 SECTION D – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. The East-West Corridor National Highway connects which of the following?

a. Silchar to Porbandar
b. Jorhat to Jaisalmer
c. Agartala to Ahmedabad
d. Itanagar to Mapusa

2. In India, the largest reserve of Bauxite is found in ---------

a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Gujarat
c. Jharkhand
d. Odisha

3. Which one of the following megacities has the highest population?

a. Delhi
b. Tokyo
c. Canton
d. Seoul

4. Which amongst the following is a west flowing river?

a. Teesta
b. Tapti
c. Subarnarekha
d. Betwa

5. The Asian Games are organised once in every

a. 3 years
b. 4 years
c. 5 years
d. 6 years

6. Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the

a. Earth on the Moon
b. Earth on the Sun
c. Sun and the Moon on the Earth
d. Moon on the Earth

7. When an object is placed between two mirrors placed parallel to each other, how many images
will be formed?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. Infinite

8. Arjuna Award is given for

a. Bravery on battlefield
b. Outstanding performance in sports
c. Exceptional service in emergency
d. Exceptional service to slum dwellers
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9. National Youth Day is celebrated on
a. 12th January
b. 1st January
c. 22nd February
d. 1st May

10. Zojila Pass connects ----

a. Kashmir and Tibet
b. Nepal and Tibet
c. Leh and Kargil
d. Leh and Srinagar

11. McMohan Line demarcates the boundary between ---

a. India and Pakistan
b. India and China
c. India and Nepal
d. India and Bangladesh

12. Who is the present Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?

a. Y. V. Reddy
b. Shaktikanta Das
c. Raghuram Rajan
d. Urjit Patel

13. Olympic Games 2024 will be held in ----

a. London
b. Paris
c. Washington
d. Tokyo

14. The highest military award for valour in India is -----

a. Param Vir Chakra
b. Bharat Ratna
c. Padma Vibhusan
d. Jnanpith

15. Which of the following States of India has the longest coastline?
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Maharashtra
c. Odisha
d. Tamil Nadu

16. Who composed the famous song Sare Jahan Se Acha?

a. Mohd. Iqbal
b. Naqsh Lyallpuri
c. Shakeel Badayuni
d. Mirza Ghalib

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17. The mountain range which stretches from Gujarat in the West to Delhi in the North is the ----.
a. Aravalis
b. Vindhyas
c. Satpuras
d. Kaimur Range

18. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?

a. President of India
b. Vice-President of India
c. Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
d. Leader of Opposition

19. Solar Cell Converts

a. Light energy into heat energy
b. Solar energy into electrical energy
c. Solar energy into sound energy
d. Solar energy into thermal energy

20. Who among the following is a famous ‘flute’ player?

a. Ravi Shankar
b. Shiv Kumar Sharma
c. Zakir Hussain
d. Hariprasad Chaurasia

21. Which sport is Neeraj Chopra associated with?

a. Athletics
b. Table tennis
c. Boxing
d. Wrestling

22. Which country won the ICC Under-19 Cricket World Cup held in 2022?
a. India
b. Pakistan
c. Australia
d. West Indies

23. Which of the following is the highest award in Indian cinema?

a. Dada Saheb Phalke award
b. Filmfare award
c. Oscar award
d. National Film award

24. The planet closest to the Sun is

a. Mercury
b. Earth
c. Venus
d. Mars

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25. Who is the author of the novel, ‘Devdas’?
a. Ravindranath Tagore
b. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
c. Sharat Chandra Chattopadhyay
d. Munshi Premchand

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