952;:/549

PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 1x7 = 7
1. Which of the following unit is useful in relating concentration of solution with its vapour pressure?
a) Mole fraction (b) ppm (c) Molality (d) Mass percentage
2. Maximum amount of solid solute that can be dissolved in specified amount of given liquid solvent does
not depend upon
a) Temperature (b) Nature of solute (c) Pressure (d) Nature of solvent
3. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest boiling point?
a) 1 M 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 (b) 1 M 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4 (c) 1 M 𝑁𝐻4 𝑁𝑂3 (d) 1 M 𝐾𝑁𝑂3
4. Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
a) Water + Nitric acid (b) Benzene + Methanol
c) Water + Hydrochloric acid (d) Acetone + Chloroform.
5. At higher altitudes the boiling point of water decreases because
a) The atmosphere pressure high (b) The temperature is low
c) The atmospheric pressure is low (d) The temperature is high
6. Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water rather than in warm water. This is due to
a) Solubility of oxygen is more in warm water.
b) Solubility of oxygen is more in cold water.
c) Solubility of gases increases with decrease of temperature.
d) Both (b) and (c)
7. At equilibrium the rate of dissolution of solid solute in a volatile liquid solvent is
a) Less than the rate of crystallization (b) Greater than the rate of crystallization
c) Equal to the rate of crystallization (d) Zero

II. Fill in the blanks: 1x3 = 3

(lower, greater, zero, binary)
8. Enthalpy of mixing for ideal gas is _______.
9. Alcohol in water is an example of _______ solution.
10. Greater the value of 𝐾𝐻 _______ the solubility.
PART – B
II. Answer the following questions each carries two marks: 2x5 = 10
11. State Henry’s law. Write the mathematical form.
12. Amalgam of mercury with sodium and solution of hydrogen in palladium are examples of which type of
solution?
13. a) At a given temperature and pressure 𝑁2 gas is more soluble in water than Helium gas. Which one of
them has higher value of 𝐾𝐻 ?
b) On what factor the value of colligative property depends?
 Contd..2.

//2//

14. What is reverse osmosis? Mention its use.

15. How solubility of a gas in liquid varies with (i) Temperature (ii) Pressure.

PART – C
III. Answer the following questions each carries three marks: 3x5 = 15
16. Write any three differences between ideal and non-ideal solutions.
17. Write any three applications of Henry’s law.
18. a) Define isotonic solutions. What happens when the blood cell is dipped in a solution
containing more than normal saline concentrations? 2
b) What happens to vapour pressure of water if a table spoon of sugar is added to it? 1
19. a) What are azeotropes? Give an example. 2
b) Van’t Hoff factor for a solution is more than one. What is the conclusion drawn from it. 1
20. Write any three differences between solutions showing positive deviation and
negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
PART – D
IV. Answer the following question each carries five marks: 3x5 = 15
21. Boiling point of water at 750 mm Hg is 99.630C. How much sucrose is to be added to 500 gm
Of water such that it boils at 1000C?

22. 5.8 gm of non-volatile solute was dissolved in 100gm of 𝐶𝑆2. The vapour pressure of the
solution was found to be 190mm Hg. Calculate the molar mass of the solute given the
vapour pressure of pure 𝐶𝑆2 is 195mm of Hg. [Molar mass of 𝐶𝑆2 =76 gm/mol]

23. A solution containing 18gm of non-volatile solute is dissolved in 200gm of water

freezes at 272.07K. Calculate the molecular mass of solute. Given Kf = 1.86 K kg mol-1,
freezing point of water = 273 K.

24. Calculate the osmotic pressure is Pascals exerted by a solution prepared by dissolving 1 gm of polymer
of molar mass 185,000 in 450 ml of water at 370 C.

25. On dissolving 2.34gm of solute in 40gm of benzene, the boiling point of the solution was higher
than that of pure benzene by 0.81 K Kb value for benzene is 2.53 𝐾 𝑘𝑔/𝑚𝑜𝑙. Calculate the molar mass
of the solute.
 +2+):85).+3/9:8?
PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 1x10= 10
1. Which of the following statement is not correct about an inert electrode in a cell?
a) It does not participate in the cell reaction.
b) It provides surface either for oxidation or for reduction reaction.
c) It provides surface for conduction of electrons.
d) It provides surface for redox reaction.
2. Using the data given below find out the strongest reducing agent.
0 0
𝐸𝐶𝑟 𝑂 2− /𝐶𝑟 3+
= 1.33 𝑉 𝐸𝐶𝑙 2 /𝐶𝑙
+ = 1.36 𝑉
2 7
0 0
𝐸𝑀𝑛𝑂 − /𝑀𝑛 2+ = 1.51 𝑉 𝐸𝐶𝑟 3+ /𝐶𝑟 = −0.74 𝑉
4
a) 𝐶𝑙 − (b) 𝐶𝑟 (c) 𝐶𝑟 3+ (d) 𝑀𝑛3+
3. The cell constant of a conductivity cell is
a) Changes with change of electrolyte (b) Changes with change of concentration of electrolyte
c) Changes with temperature of electrolyte (d) Remains constant for a cell.
4. While charging the lead storage battery
a) 𝑃𝑏𝑆𝑂4 anode is reduced to 𝑃𝑏 (b) 𝑃𝑏𝑆𝑂4 cathode is reduced to 𝑃𝑏
c) 𝑃𝑏𝑆𝑂4 cathode is oxidised to 𝑃𝑏 (d) 𝑃𝑏𝑆𝑂4 anode is oxidised to 𝑃𝑏𝑂2
5. ∧0 𝑚(𝑁𝐻4 𝑂𝐻) is equal to
a) ∧0 𝑚(𝑁𝐻4 𝑂𝐻) +∧0 𝑚(𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙) −∧0 (𝐻𝐶𝑙) (b) ∧0 𝑚(𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙) +∧0 𝑚(𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻) −∧0 (𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙)
c) ∧0 𝑚(𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙) +∧0 𝑚(𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙) −∧0 (𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻) (d) ∧0 𝑚(𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻) +∧0 𝑚(𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙) −∧0 (𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙)
6. In the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride solution which of the half cell reaction will occur at
anode?
0 0
a) 𝑁𝑎+ + 𝑒 − → 𝑁𝑎 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 = −2.71 𝑉 (b) 2𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝑂2 + 4𝐻 + + 4𝑒 − 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 = 1.23 𝑉
1 0 1 0
c) 𝐻 + + 𝑒 − → 𝐻2 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 = 0.00 𝑉 (d) 𝐶𝑙 − → 𝐶𝑙2 + 𝑒 − 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 = 1.36 𝑉
2 2

7. Symbolic notation of galvanic cell in which the cell reaction is 𝐶𝑢 + 𝐴𝑔+ → 𝐶𝑢2+ + 2𝐴𝑔
2+ + + 2+
a) 𝐶𝑢(𝑠) |𝐶𝑢(𝑎𝑞) || 𝐴𝑔(𝑎𝑞) |𝐴𝑔(𝑠) (b) 𝐴𝑔(𝑠) |𝐴𝑔(𝑎𝑞) || 𝐶𝑢(𝑎𝑞) |𝐴𝑔(𝑠)
2+ + 2+ +
c) 𝐶𝑢(𝑎𝑞) |𝐶𝑢(𝑠) || 𝐴𝑔(𝑎𝑞) |𝐴𝑔(𝑠) (d) 𝐶𝑢(𝑠) |𝐶𝑢(𝑎𝑞) ||𝐴𝑔(𝑠) |𝐴𝑔(𝑎𝑞)
8. The quantity of charge required to reduce 1 mole of 𝑀𝑛𝑂4− to 𝑀𝑛2+
a) 3𝐹 (b) 2𝐹 (c) 6𝐹 (d) 5𝐹
9. The plot of ∧𝑚 against √𝑐, we obtain a straight line with intercept equal to
a) – 𝐴 (b) ∧0𝑚 (c) 𝐴 (d) − ∧0𝑚
10. In 𝐻2 − 𝑂2 fuel cell, 𝐻2 and 𝑂2 gases are passed into electrolyte
a) Aq. 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 (b) Molten 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 (c) Aq.𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 (d) Molten 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙
Cont..2.
 //2//

PART – B
II. Answer the following questions each carries TWO marks: 2x5 = 10
11. State Faraday’s second law of electrolysis.
12. Draw a neat labelled diagram of 𝐻2 𝑂2 fuel cell. Write the reaction occurs at cathode of the cell.
13. a) What happens to molar conductivity when one mole of 𝐾𝐶𝑙 dissolved in one litre is diluted to three litre? 1
b) Give the expression which relates equilibrium constant and Gibb’s free energy. 1
14. Give any two method for controlling of corrosion of metal
15. a)Write cathodic reaction of dry cell (Leclanche cell).
b) Draw a graph of 𝜆𝑚 𝑉𝑠 √𝑐 for acetic acid.

PART – C
III. Answer the following questions each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
16. Draw the neat labelled diagram of standard hydrogen electrode and write half-cell reaction
0
and mention 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 value
17. Write the equations taking place at anode and cathode and overall equation in the lead storage
battery.
18. Write any three factors affecting that determine the product on electrolysis.
19. a) What is standard electrode potential? 1
b) State Kohlrauh’s law. 1
c) Write the Daniel cell representation. 1
20. Write the cathodic, anodic and overall cell reaction for rusting of iron.

PART – D
IV. Answer the following question each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
21. Calculate the equilibrium constant of the reaction: 𝐶𝑢(𝑠) + 2𝐴𝑔+ (𝑎𝑞) → 2𝐴𝑔(𝑠) + 𝐶𝑢2+,
0
𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 = 0.46 𝑉.

22. The conductivity of 0.001028 mol L -1 acetic acid is 4.95 × 10−5 𝑠 𝑐𝑚−1.
Calculate its dissociation constant if ∧0𝑚 for acetic acid is 390.5 𝑐𝑚2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1.

+ 2+ +
23. Calculate standard free energy change for the reaction 𝑍𝑛(𝑠) + 2𝐴𝑔(𝑎𝑞) → 𝑍𝑛(𝑎𝑞) + 2𝐴𝑔(𝑠) .
0 0
Give : 1𝐹 = 96500 𝐶 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 , 𝐸𝑍𝑛 = −0.76 𝑉, 𝐸𝐴𝑔 = +0.80 𝑉

24. Calculate the EMF of cell for the reaction 𝑁𝑖 + 2𝐴𝑔+ (0.002𝑀) → 𝑁𝑖 2+ (0.160 𝑀) + 2𝐴𝑔.
0
[Given 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 = 1.05 𝑉].

25. Calcualte the EMF of cell for the reaction 𝑀𝑔(𝑠) + 𝐶𝑢2+ (0.0001𝑀) → 𝑀𝑔2+ (0.001𝑀) + 𝐶𝑢(𝑠)
0 0
[Given that 𝐸𝑀𝑔 2+ /𝑀𝑔 = −2.37 𝑉, 𝐸𝐶𝑢 2+ /𝐶𝑢 = +0.34 𝑉 ]
 ).+3/)'231/4+:/)9
PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 1x7 = 7
1. The role of a catalyst is to change
a) Gibb’s energy of reaction (b) Enthalpy of reaction
c) Activation energy of reaction (d) Equilibrium constant.
2. Which of the following statement is not correct about order of a reaction?
a) The order of a reaction can be fractional number.
b) The order of a reaction is experimentally determined quantity.
c) The order of a reaction is always equal to sum of the stoichiometric coefficients of reactants in the
balanced chemical equation for a reaction.
d) The order of a reaction is the sum of the powers of molar concentration of the reactants in the
rate law expression.
3. Which of the following expressions are correct for the rate of reaction given below?
5𝐵𝑟 − + 𝐵𝑟𝑂3− + 6𝐻 + → 3𝐵𝑟2 + 3𝐻2 𝑂
∆[𝐵𝑟 − ] 5 ∆[𝐻 + ] ∆[𝐵𝑟 − ] 6 ∆[𝐻 + ] ∆[𝐵𝑟 − ] 5 ∆[𝐻 + ] ∆[𝐵𝑟 − ] 6 ∆[𝐻 + ]
a) = (b) = (c) = (d) =
∆𝑡 ∆𝑡 ∆𝑡 5 ∆𝑡 ∆𝑡 6 ∆𝑡 ∆𝑡 ∆𝑡

4. A first order reaction is 50% completed in 1.26 × 1014 𝑠. How much time would it take for 100%
completion.
a) 1.26 × 1015 𝑠 (b) 2.52 × 1014 𝑠 (c) 2.52 × 1028 𝑠 (d) Infinite
5. The value of rate constant of a pseudo first order reaction.
a) Depends on the concentration of the reactants present in small amount.
b) Depends on the concentration of the reactants present in excess.
c) Is independent of the concentration of the reactants.
d) Depends only on temperature.
6. During decomposition of an activated complex
a) Energy is always released (b) Energy is always absorbed
c) Energy does not change (d) None of these
7. All natural and artificial radioactive decay of unstable nuclei takes place by
a) Zero order kinetics (b) First order kinetics (c) Second order kinetics (d) All of these
II. Fill in the blanks: 1x3 = 3
(𝒎𝒐𝒍−𝟏𝒅𝒎𝟑 𝒔−𝟏, doubles, same, increases)
8. If initial concentration of first order reaction is doubled the half-life period is _______.
9. Unit of second order reaction is _______.
10. Half-life period of zero order ________ as initial concentration doubled.
Contd..2
 //2//
PART – B
III. Answer the following questions each carries TWO marks: 2x5 = 10
11. a) What is an elementary reaction?
b) What is the slowest step in a complex reaction also called?
12. Name the factors affecting the rate of a reaction.
13. What is pseudo first order reaction? Give an example.
14. a) What is collision frequency?
b) Give one criteria for effective collisions.
15. What is first order reaction? Give an example.
PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
16. Give any three differences between order and molecularity.
17. Derive integrated rate equation for first order reaction.
18. Derive integrated rate equation for zero order reaction.
19. Show that for a zero order reaction half life period is directly proportional to initial
concentration of the reactants.
20. Explain the effect of catalyst on the rate of reaction.

PART – D
V. Answer the following question each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
21. The specific reaction rate of a reaction doubled when temperature changes from 300C to 500C.
Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction.

22. Calculate the time in seconds for the decomposition of 𝑁2 𝑂5 which follows first order kinetics
when concentration of 𝑁2 𝑂5 is dropped from 0.1M to 0.01 M (𝐾 = 6.22 × 10−4 𝑠 −1)

23. For a reaction 𝑅 → 𝑃, the concentration of reactant changes from 0.03 M to 0.02 M in 25 min.
Calculate the average rate of reaction using units of time both in minutes and second.

24. The first order rate constant for the decomposition of ethyl iodide by the reaction. 𝐶2 𝐻5 𝐼 → 𝐶2 𝐻4 + 𝐻𝐼
at 600 K is 1.60 × 10−5 𝑠 −1. Its energy of activation is 209 𝑘𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙. Calculate the rate constant of the
reaction at 700 K.

25. A first order reaction is found to have a rate constant 𝐾 = 5.5 × 10−14𝑠 −1 . Find the half-life
of the reaction.
 *3'4*3,3(25)13+2+3+4:9
PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 1x10 = 10
1. Electronic configuration of a transition element X in +3 oxidation state is [Ar]3d 5. What is its atomic
number?
a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (d) 24
2. The electronic configuration of Cu(II) is 3d9 whereas that of Cu(I) is 3d10. Which of the following is
correct?
a) Cu(II) is more stable
b) Cu(II) is less stable
c) Cu(I) and Cu(II) are equally stable
d) Stability of Cu(I) and Cu(II) depends on nature of copper salts
3. Generally transition elements form coloured salts due to the presence of unpaired electrons. Which of
the following compounds will be coloured in solid state?
a) Ag2SO4 (b) CuF2 (c) ZnF2 (d) Cu2Cl2
4. On addition of small amount of KMnO4 to concentrated H2SO4, a green oily compound is obtained
which is highly explosive in nature. Identify the compound from the following.
a) Mn2O7 (b) MnO2 (c) MnSO4 (d) Mn2O3
5. The magnetic nature of elements depends on the presence of unpaired electrons. Identify the
configuration of transition element, which shows highest magnetic moment.
a) 3d7 (b) 3d5 (c) 3d8 (d) 3d2
6. Which of the following oxidation state is common for all lanthanoids?
a) +2 (b) +3 (c) +4 (d) +5
7. When KMnO4 solution is added to oxalic acid solution, the decolourisation is slow in the beginning but
becomes instantaneous after some time because
a) CO2 is formed as the product. (b) Reaction is exothermic.
–
c) MnO4 catalyses the reaction. (d) Mn2+ acts as auto catalyst.
8. There are 14 elements in actinoid series. Which of the following elements does not belong to this
series?
a) U (b) Np (c) Tm (d) Fm
9. KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in acidic medium. The number of moles of KMnO 4 that will be
needed to react with one mole of sulphide ions in acidic solution is
a) 2/5 (b) 3/5 (c) 4/5 (d) 1/5
10. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. It’s atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct
electronic configuration of gadolinium?
a) [Xe] 4f 75d16s2 (b) [Xe] 4f 65d26s2 (c) [Xe] 4f 86d2 (d) [Xe] 4f95s1

Contd..2
 //2//
PART – B
II. Answer the following questions each carries TWO marks: 2x5 = 10
11. The transition metal and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity. Give two reasons.
12. Between 𝑇𝑖 +2 and 𝑍𝑛+2 ion which is colourless and why?
13. Calculate spin only magnetic moment of 𝑀𝑛+2.
14. The chemistry of actinoids is more complicated than lanthanoids. Give any two reasons.
15. Give reason: a) Variable oxidation state of transition element
b) 𝐶𝑢+ is diamagnetic.
PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
16. What is lanthanoid contraction? Write any two consequences of it.
17. Give any three differences between lanthanoids and actinoids.
18. a) Draw the structure, bond length and bond angle in chromate and dichromate ions. 2
b) Draw the structure of manganate ion. 1
19. Explain the preparation of potassium permanganate from 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 with equation.
20. Why do transition element form complex compounds? Name the element which exhibit
highest oxidation state in 3d series.
PART – D
V. Answer the following question each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
21. How is potassium dichromate prepared from chromite ore?
22. a) Why are 𝑀𝑛2+ compounds more stable than 𝐹𝑒 2+ towards oxidation to their +3 state? 2
b) What are transition elements? 1
23. a) Between 𝑇𝑖 +2 and 𝑉 +3 which ion contain more number of unpaired electrons? 1
b) What are pseudo transition elements? 1
c) Give reason: Cerium exhibits +4 oxidation state. 1
24. a) Second ionization enthalpy of copper is very high. Give reason. 1
b) Write the general oxidation state of actinoids. 1
c) Mention the gas liberated when lanthanoids react with acids. 1
25. What are interstitial compounds? Mention two properties of interstitial compounds.
 )558*/4':/543)5365;4*9

PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 1x10 = 10
1. When 0.1 mol CoCl3(NH3)5 is treated with excess of AgNO3, 0.2 mol of AgCl are obtained. The
conductivity of solution will correspond to
a) 1:3 electrolyte (b) 1:2 electrolyte (c) 1:1 electrolyte (d) 3:1 electrolyte
2. The correct IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] is
a) Diamminedichloridoplatinum (II) (b) Diamminedichloridoplatinum (IV)
c) Diamminedichloridoplatinum (0) (d) Dichloridodiammineplatinum (IV)
3. Indicate the complex ion which shows geometrical isomerism.
a) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]+ (b) [Pt(NH3)3Cl] (c) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (d) [Co(CN)5(NC)]3–
4. Due to the presence of ambidentate ligands coordination compounds show isomerism. Palladium
complexes of the type [Pd(C6H5)2(SCN)2] &[Pd(C6H5)2(NCS)2] are
a) Linkage isomers (b) Coordination isomers
c) Ionisation isomers (d) Geometrical isomers
5. Atomic number of Mn, Fe, Co and Ni are 25, 26 27 and 28 respectively. Which of the following outer
orbital octahedral complexes have same number of unpaired electrons?
a) [MnCl6]3– (b) [FeF6]3– (c) [CoF6]3– (d) [Ni(NH3)6]2+
6. Which of the following options are correct for [Fe(CN) 6]3– complex?
a)d2sp3 hybridisation (b)sp3d2 hybridisation
c) paramagnetic (d) diamagnetic
7. Which of the following complexes are heteroleptic?
a) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (b) [Fe(NH3)4 Cl2]+ c) [Mn(CN)6]4– (d) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]
8. Identify the correct statements for the behaviour of ethane-1, 2-diamine as aligand.
a) It is a neutral ligand. (b) It is a didentate ligand.
c) It is a chelating ligand. (d) It is a unidentate ligand.
9. An aqueous pink solution of cobalt (II) chloride changes to deep blue onaddition of excess of HCl.
This is because____________.
a) [Co(H2O)6]2+ is transformed into [CoCl6]4–
b) [Co(H2O)6]2+ is transformed into [CoCl4]2–
c) Tetrahedral complexes have smaller crystal field splitting than octahedralcomplexes.
d) Tetrahedral complexes have larger crystal field splitting than octahedralcomplex.

10. Which of the following species is not expected to be a ligand?

a) NO (b) NH4+ (
c) NH2CH2CH2NH2 (d) CO

Contd…2.
 //2//
PART – B
II. Answer the following questions each carries TWO marks: 2x5 = 10
11. What are ambidentate ligands? Give an example.
12. Name the transition metals present in the complexes hemoglobin and vitamin-B12.
13. What is ionization isomerism? Give an example.
14. What is spectrochemical series? Among the 𝐼 − and 𝑁𝐶𝑆 − which one is weakest ligand?
15. What are metal carbonyls? Give examples.

PART – C

III. Answer the following questions each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
16. Mention the postulates of Werner’s theory of coordination compound.
17. a) Write IUPAC name of [𝐶𝑟(𝑁𝐻3 )3 (𝐻2 𝑂)3 ]𝐶𝑙3 .
b) Write geometrical isomers of [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )4 𝐶𝑙2 ]+ .
18. With the help of valence bond theory explain hybridization geometry and magnetic property
of [𝐶𝑜𝐹6 ]3− ion. [Atomic No. of 𝐶𝑜= 27]
19. a) If ∆0 < 𝑃, on the basis of crystal field theory write the electronic configuration of 𝑑 4 ion in
Octahedral complexes.
b) What are heteroleptic complexes?
20. With the help of valence bond theory explain hybridization geometry and magnetic property
of [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑁)4 ]−2 [Atomic No. of 𝑁𝑖= 28]
PART – D
IV. Answer the following question each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
21. a) Write the optical isomers of [𝐶𝑜(𝑒𝑛)3]3+.
b) Which set of d-orbital of a metal atom or ion experience more repulsion in tetrahedral field
created by the ligands?
22. With the help of valence bond theory explain hybridization geometry and magnetic property
of [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )5 ]3+ ion. [Atomic No. of 𝐶𝑜= 27].
23. a) Draw energy level diagram for the splitting of d-orbitals in an octahedral crystal field.
b) How many 𝐶𝑙 − ions can be predicted as 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 by adding excess of aqueous 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 solution into
1 mole of [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )6 ]𝐶𝑙3 ?
24. a) Write the IUPAC name of [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )4 (𝐻2 𝑂)𝐶𝑙]𝐶𝑙2 .
b) Explain coordinate isomerism with example.
25. With the help of valence bond theory explain hybridization geometry and magnetic property
of [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑙)4 ]−2 [Atomic No. of 𝑁𝑖= 28].
 .'25'21'4+93 3.'25'8+4+9

PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 1x7 = 7
1. Chloramphenicol is very effective for the treatment of ____
a) Typhoid fever (b) Goiter (c) Cancer (d) Allergy
2. The IUPAC name of ethylene dicholoride
a) 1,2-dichloroethane (b) 1,1-dichlorethane (c) 1,2-dichoroethene (d) 1,1-dichoroethene
3. 𝑆𝑁 1 reactions are generally carried out in
a) Polar solvents (b) Non-polar solvents (c) Either (a) or (b) (d) None of these
𝐴𝑐𝑒𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑒
4. The reaction 𝑅 − 𝐶𝑙 + 𝑁𝑎𝐼 → 𝑅𝐼 + 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 is called
∆
a) Frinkelstein reaction (b) Kolbe’s reaction (c) Hunsdicker reaction (d) Gutterman reaction
5. The compound 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝑙 is
a) Vinyl chloride (b) Benzyl chloride (c) Allyl chloride (d) Isopropyl chloride
6. Which of the following have highest dipole moment?
a) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑙 (b) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐹 (c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐼 (d) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐵𝑟
7. Which of the following content chairal carbon atom?
a) Butane-2-ol (b) Butane-1-ol (c) Propane-2-ol (d) Propane-1-ol

II. Fill in the blanks: 1x3 = 3

(Trichloromethane, dichloromethane, tetrachloromethane, chloroquine)

8. ______ is used in the production of freon refrigerant 𝑅 − 22.

9. When ______ is released into air it raises to the atmosphere and deplete ozone layer.
10. ______ is used for the treatment of malaria.

PART – B
II. Answer the following questions each carries TWO marks: 2x5 = 10
11. What are geminal dihalides? Give an example.
12. Write the reaction of methyl magnesium halide with water? Name the product.
13. a) Name the product in the reaction of dehydrohalogenation of 2-chloropentane.
b) Write the IUPAC name of 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶(𝐶2 𝐻5 )2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟.
14. Explain Wurtz’s reaction with an example.
15. Explain chlorination of chlorobenzene.

Contd..2.
 //2//

PART – C
III. Answer the following questions each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
16. Explain mechanism involved in the conversion of tertiary butyl bromide to tertiary butyl alcohol.
17. Explain mechanism involved in the conversion of chloromethane to methanol.
18. Write any three reasons, why aryl halides are less reactive towards nucleophillic substitution reaction?
19. a) Explain Wurtz-Fittig reaction with equation.
b) Name the reagent used in dehydrohalogenation of haloalkanes.
20. Complete the following reactions
𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑜𝑥𝑖𝑑𝑒
i) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2 + 𝐻𝐼 → ?
𝐾𝐶𝑁
ii) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑙 → ?
𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑁
iii) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟 →
𝐸𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑜𝑙
PART – D
IV. Answer the following question each carries FIVE marks: 5x3 = 15
21. a) Explain Darzen’s process with an example. 2
b) Explain Swart’s reaction with an example. 2
c) What are Freons? 1
22. What happens when 5
(i) bromobenzene is treated with Mg in the presence of dry ether,
(ii) methyl bromide is treated with sodium in the presence of dry ether,
(iii) methyl chloride is treated with KCN?
(iv) n-butyl chloride is treated with alcoholic KOH,
(iv) ethyl chloride is treated with aqueous KOH,
23. a) Explain Friedel Craft’s alkylation reaction with equation by taking chlorobenzene as example. 2
b) Draw the structure of DDT. 1
c) What are racimic mixtures? 1
d) Define enantiomers. 1
 '2)5.52936.+45293 3+:.+8+

PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 1x10 = 10
1. When a secondary alcohol is treated with copper at 573 K it forms
a) An aldehyde (b) Ketone (c) Alkene (d) Carboxylic acid
2. In vinylic alcohols, −𝑂𝐻 group bonded to
a) 𝑠𝑝 2 hybridised carbon atom of benzene ring (b) 𝑠𝑝 2 hybridised carbon atom of alkene
c) 𝑠𝑝 3 hybridised carbon atom of alkane (d) Both (a) and (b)
3. When phenol is treated with dilute 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 at low temperature and the products are separated by
a) simple distillation (b) Sublimation (c) Steam distillation (d) Chromatography
4. The compound which shows symmetrical ethers only
a) 𝐶3 𝐻8 𝑂 (b) 𝐶2 𝐻6 𝑂 (c) 𝐶4 𝐻10 𝑂 (d) 𝐶5 𝐻12 𝑂
5. In the hydroboration oxidation reaction propene is treated with diborane followed by 𝐻2 𝑂2 and 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻,
the organic compound formed is
a) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻 (b) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻(𝑂𝐻)𝐶𝐻3 (c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻 (d) (𝐶𝐻3 )3 𝐶𝑂𝐻
6. Which of the following is least soluble in water?
a) n-Butyl alcohol (b) n-pentyl alcohol (c) n-Hexayl alcohol (d) n-Heptyl alcohol
7. Anisole on treatment with conc.𝐻𝑁𝑂3 and conc.𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 gives
a) Phenol (b) Nitrobenzene (c) o- and p-nitro anisole (d) o-nitro anisole
8. The product formed by oxidation of phenol with chromic acid is
a) Conjugated diene (b) Conjugated triene
c) Conjugated diketone (d) Trihydric alcohol.
9. The enzyme which can catalyse the conversion of glucose to ethanol is
a) Invertase (b) Zymase (c) Maltase (d) Diastase
10. Carbonyl compound which is used to prepare primary alcohol with Grignard reagent
a) Formaldehyde (b) Acetone (c) Benzaldehyde (d) Acetaldehyde

PART – B

II. Answer the following questions each carries TWO marks: 2x5 = 10
𝑅 𝑀𝑔𝑋,𝑒𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟 𝐶𝑢
11. 𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻𝑂 → 𝑋 → 𝑌 . Identify X and Y.
𝐻2 𝑂 3000 𝐶
12. What is the effect of
i) Electron withdrawing group on acidity of phenols.
ii) Electron donating group on acidity of alcohols.
13. What happens when carboxylic acid is treated with alcohol? Write the general equation.
Contd..2.
 //2//

14. Write the equation for preparation of tertiary butyl methyl ether by Williamson’s ether Synthesis.
15. What happens when phenol is treated with concentrated nitric acid? Write its equation.

PART – C
III. Answer the following questions each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15

16. Write the three steps involved in the mechanism of acid catalysed dehydration of ethanol to ethene.
17. a) Explain Reimer-Tiemen reaction. 2
b) Anisole reacts with hydrogen iodide to form phenol, but not methanol. Give reason 1
18. Write the three reactions involved in mechanism of acid catalysed dehydration of
ethanol to diethyl ether.
19. a) Explain Kolbe’s reaction. 2
b) What is denaturation of alcohols? 1
20. Explain the preparation of phenol from benzene.

PART – D
IV. Answer the following question each carries FIVE marks: 5x3 = 15
21. a) What is Lucas reagent? How do you distinguish 10, 20 and 30 alcohols by using Lucas reagent? 3
b) Explain the preparation of phenol from isopropyl benzene. 2
22. a) How do you prepare aspirin from salicylic acid? 2
b) Identify A and B in the following reaction 2
623 𝐾 𝐵
𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐶𝑙 + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 → 𝐴→ 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝑂𝐻
300 𝑎𝑡𝑚
c) Write the chemical name of picric acid. 1
23. a) How do you convert phenol to 2-hydroxy benzoic acid? Write the equation. 2
b) How anisole reacts with bromine in ethanoic acid? Write the chemical equation
for the reaction. 2
c) Write the chemical reaction in the manufacture of methanol from water gas. 1
 '2*+.?*+931+:54+93 3)'8(5>?2/)3')/*9

PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 1x10 = 10
1. Ester and anhydrides are derivatives of
a) Carboxylic acids (b) Alcohols (c) Ethers (d) Aldehydes and ketones
2. Aldehyde which do not undergo aldol condensation reaction is
a) Ethanal (b) Propanal (c) Benzaldehyde (d) Propionaldehydes
3. Product obtained when ketone is treated with hydroxyl amine.
a) Oxime (b) Hydrazine (c) Imine (d) Hydrazone
4. Decarboxylating reagent is
a) 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 + 𝐶𝑎𝑂 (b) 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 (c) 𝐴𝑙𝑐. 𝐾𝑂𝐻 (d) Zinc dust
5. Carboxylic acids on heating with 𝑃2 𝑂5 gives corresponding
a) Amide (b) Anhydride (c) Amine (d) Aldehyde
6. The reagent used to convert carbonyl compound to hydrocarbon is
a) 𝑁𝑎𝐵𝐻4 (b) 𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻4 (c) 𝑍𝑛𝐻𝑔/𝐻𝐶𝑙 (d) 𝐻2 /𝑃𝑡
7. Ammonical silver nitrate solution is called
a) Fehling’s reagent (b) Schiff’s reagent
c) Benedict’s reagent (d) Tollen’s reagent.
8. Addition of alcohols to aldehydes give a gem-dialkoxy compound known as
a) Ketal (b) Acetal (c) Aldol (d) None of these
9. Nitriles are converted into ketones by treating with
a) Dialkyl cadmium (b) Acyl chloride (c) Grignard reagent (d) Chromyl chloride
10. The strongest carboxylic acid among the following is
a) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 (b) 𝐶𝑙3 𝐶𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 (c) 𝐹3 𝐶𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 (d) 𝐶𝑙2 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻

PART – B
II. Answer the following questions each carries TWO marks: 2x5 = 10
11. Explain Rosenmund reduction with an example.
12. What is Etard’s reaction? Explain with an example.
13. Explain Gatterman-Koch reaction with an example.
14. What is the Wolf-Kishner’s reduction reaction? Explain with an example.
15. What is HVZ reaction? Give an example.

Contd..2.
 //2//
PART – C
III. Answer the following questions each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
16. Explain mechanism of addition of 𝐻𝐶𝑁 to aldehyde or ketone.
17. a) Explain Stephen’s reduction reaction with an example. 2
b) What is the IUPAC name of 𝐻 1
|
𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶 − 𝐶𝐻𝑂
|
𝐶𝐻3
18. a) Aldehydes are generally more reactive than ketones towards nucleophilic addition reaction. 2
Give two reasons.
b) Boiling points of aldehyde and ketones are less than alcohols of comparable molecular masses.
Give reason. 1
19. a) What is Cannizzaro’s reaction? Give an example. 2
b) What is formalin? 1
20. a) Explain preparation of benzoic acid from methyl benzene. 2
b) Name the ketone used in liquid nail polishes. 1
PART – D
IV. Answer the following question each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
21. a) How do you prepare carboxylic acids from Grignard reagent? Explain with an example. 2
b) Complete the following reaction. 1

22. a) Explain the effect of substituents on the acidity of carboxylic acids. 2

b) Name the reagent used in the transformation of cyclohexanol to cyclohexanone. 1
23. a) What is aldol condensation? Give an example. 2
b) Complete the following chemical reaction. 1

24. a) Explain the commercial method of manufacturing of benzaldehyde by side 2

chain chlorination of toluene.
b) The carbon-oxygen bond in carbonyl group is polar in nature. Why? 1
25. a) Explain the preparation of ketones from nitrile by using Grignard reagent. 2
b) Lower members of aldehydes and ketones are miscible in water at all proportions. Why? 1
 PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 1x7 = 7
1. A solution in which larger component is named as
a) Solvent (b) solute (c) Liquid (d) Solid
2. A solid solution in which solute is
a) Solid only (b) Liquid only (c) Gas only (d) Solid or liquid or gas

3. The following is the example for solid solution in which solute is gas
a) Oxygen dissolved in water (b) Mixture of 𝑂2 and nitrogen
c) Solution of hydrogen in palladium (d) Glucose dissolved in water

4. Molarity of the solution is number of moles of solute dissolved in

a) 1 kg of solvent (b) 1 kg of solution (c) 1 Litre of solvent (d) 1 Litre of solution

5. According to Henry’s law the partial pressure of the gas in the vapour phase is proportional to its
a) Molarity (b) Molality (c) Mole fraction (d) Mass percentage

6. Which of the following is an example for non-ideal solution with negative deviation?
a) Phenol + aniline (b) n-hexane + n-heptane
c) Carbondisulphide + acetone (d) Ethanol + acetone

7. Water movement from soil into plant root and into upper portion of the plant is partly due to
a) Osmosis (b) Diffusion (c) High pressure (d) Low pressure

II. Fill in the blanks: 1x3 = 3

(lower, liquid, inversely, anoxia)
8. Oxygen dissolved in water is an example for _______ solution.
9. Molarity varies _______ with temperature.
10. Higher the value of Henry’s law constant _______ is the solubility.

PART – B
III. Answer the following questions each carries two marks: 2x5 = 10
11. State Henry’s law. Write the mathematical expression of Henry’s law.
12. State Raoult’s law of relative lowering of vapour pressure. Write its mathematical form.
13. What is reverse osmosis? Mention its use.
14. What are binary solution? Give an example.
15. Define molality. Write its unit.

Contd..2.
 //2//
PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions each carries three marks: 3x5 = 15
16. Write any three differences between ideal and non-ideal solution?
17. Mention three factors which effects on solubility of gas in liquid solution.
18. a) Draw a graph to show non-ideal solution with positive deviation. 2
b) Give the relation between elevation boiling point and molality. 1
19. a) What are azeotropes? Mention its types. 2
b) A sodium chloride solution having concentration greater than 0.9% is not safe to inject intravenously.
Give reason. 1
20. a) What is Van’t Hoff factor? When is the value of Van’t Hoff factor less than 1? 2
b) What is osomotic pressure? 1
PART – D
V. Answer the following question each carries Three marks: 3x5 = 15
21. On dissolving 3.46 gm of non-volatile solute in 100 gm of water, the boiling point of solution was
rise to that of pure water by 0.12 K. Calculate the molar mass of non-volatile solute.
(Given: 𝐾𝑏 of water = 0.51 𝐾 𝑘𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 )

22. 31 gm of an unknown material is dissolved in 500 gm of water. The resulting solution freezes at
271.14 K. Calculate the molar mass of material. (Given: 𝐾𝑓 of water = 1.86 𝐾 𝑘𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1,
𝑇𝑓0 for water = 273 𝐾)

23. Vapour pressure of benzene is 200 mm of Hg. When 2 gm of non-volatile solute dissolved in 78
gm benzene, benzene has vapour pressure of 195 mm Hg. Calculate the molar mass of the solute.

24. 1.00 gm of non-electrolyte solute is dissolved in 50 gm of benzene lowers the freezing point of
benzene by 0.4 K. The freezing point depression constant for benzene is 5.12 𝐾 𝑘𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1. Find
the
molar mass of the solute.

25. 300 cm3 of an aqueous solution of a protein contains 2.12 gm of the protein, the osmotic pressure of
such a solution at 300 K is found to be 3.89 × 10−3 𝑏𝑎𝑟. Calculate the molar mass of the protein.
(𝑅 = 0.0823 𝐿 𝑏𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 𝐾 −1
 PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 1x7 = 7
1. Type of solution obtained when copper dissolved in gold is
a) Heterogeneous mixture (b) Gaseous solution
c) Liquid solution (d) Solid solution
2. Unit of molarity is
a) 𝑔𝑚 𝐿−1 (b) 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 𝐿 (c)𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑘𝑔−1 (d) 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐿
3. A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved at the same temperature and pressure is called
a) Saturated solution (b) Unsaturated solution
c) Super saturated solution (d) Dilute solution
4. Raoult’s law as a special case
a) Henry’s law (b) Boyl’s law (c) Charle’s law (d) Dalton’s law
5. The solution which show a large positive deviation from Raoult’s law form
a) Minimum boiling azeotropes (b) Maximum boiling azeotropes
c) Minimum or maximum boiling azeotropes (d) No azeotropes
6. Colligative property depend on
a) Nature of solvent (b) Nature of solute
c) No. of solute particles present in the solution (d) No. of solvent particles present in the solution.
7. In which of the following case 𝑖 ≠ 1 in their solution
a) Glucose (b) Urea (c) Sucrose (d) 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙

II. Fill in the blanks: 1x3 = 3

(2, maximum boiling azeotrope, more, solute)
8. Solution which show large negative deviation from Raoult’s law is called _______
9. Aquatic species are _______ comfortable in cold water rather than in warm water.
10. Binary solution contains _______ components.
PART – B
III. Answer the following questions each carries two marks: 2x5 = 10
11. Name the two units which depends on temperature.
12. What is mole fraction? Give its mathematical equation.
13. State Henry’s law. What is the significance of Henry’s law constant?
14. Give reason: a) Raw mangoes shrivel when pickled in brine solution. 1
b) Blood cells collapse when suspended in saline water. 1
15. What is osmotic pressure? Write expression to calculate osmotic pressure.

Contd..2.
 //2//
PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions each carries three marks: 3x5 = 15
16. Write any three differences between negative deviation and positive deviation of non-ideal solution?
17. a) What are hypertonic solution? Give example. 2
b) Give an example for semi-permeable membrane. 1
18. a) Draw a graph to show non-ideal solution with negative deviation. 2
b) If 𝑖 > 1 write the significant for 𝑖 value. 1
19. a) What are maximum boiling azeotropes? Give an example. 2
b) What is reverse osmosis? 1
20. a) State Raoult’s law. Write its equation for binary solution. 2
b) Name the law behind the dissociation of 𝐶𝑂2 in soft drinks under high pressure. 1

PART – D
V. Answer the following question each carries Three marks: 3x5 = 15
21. Heptane and octane form an ideal solution. At 373 K, the vapour pressure of the two liquid
components are 105.2 𝑘𝑝𝑎 and 46.8 𝑘𝑝𝑎 respectively. What will be the vapour pressure of
mixture of 26 gm heptane and 35 gm of octane.

22. The vapour pressure of pure benzene at certain temperature is 0.850 bar. A non-volatile, non-
electrolyte solid weighing 0.5 gm when added to 39.0 gm of benzene (molar mass 78 gm mol-1).
Vapour pressure of the solution then is 0.845 bar. What is the molar mass of the solid substance?

23. The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.8gm of a non-volatile solute was dissolved in
90gm of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. Calculate the molar mass of the solute.
(𝐾𝑏 = 2.52 𝐾 𝑘𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 )

24. 12.6 gm of a non-electrolyte is dissolved in 75 gm of water. The freezing point of this solution is
271.9 K. If molar depression constant is 1.86 𝐾 𝑘𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1, calculate the molar mass of the solute.
(Freezing point of pure water = 273.15 K)

25. The osmotic pressure of blood is 7.65 atm at 370C. How much glucose should be used per litre for
an intravenous injection that is to have the same osmotic pressure as blood? (Molar mass of
glucose=180gm mol-1).
 PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 1x7 = 7
1. In a Galvanic cell
a) Chemical reaction produces electrical energy (b) Electrical energy produces chemical reaction.
c) Reduction occur at anode (d) Oxidation occur at cathode.
2. A galvanic cell become electrolytic cellwhen
a) 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 = 𝐸𝑒𝑥𝑡 (b) 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 > 𝐸𝑒𝑥𝑡 (c)𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 = 0 (d) 𝐸𝑒𝑥𝑡 > 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙
3. Standard hydrogen electrode potential is assumed to be taken as
a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) Zero
4. Lithium has lowest electrode potential indicating lithium metal is
a) Strongest oxidizing agent (b) Weakest reducing agent
c) Strongest reducing agent (d) Minimum tendency to undergo oxidation.
5. The quantity of charge required to obtain one mole of aluminium from 𝐴𝑙 +3 is
a) 1𝐹 (b) 6𝐹 (c)3𝐹 (d) 2𝐹
6. Kohlrausch’s law is applicable
a) For concentrated solution (b) At infinite dilution
c) For concentrated as well as dilute solution (d) None of the above
7. The electrolyte used in lead storage battery is
a) 38% sulphuric acid (b) 20% sulphuric acid (c) 𝑃𝑏𝑆𝑂4 (d) 𝑃𝑏𝑂2

II. Fill in the blanks: 1x3 = 3

(Cell constant, Negative, Positive, 𝑲𝑶𝑯 and 𝒁𝒏𝑶)
8. Cell reaction is spontaneous when ∆𝐺 0 is _______
𝑙
9. The quantity of is called _______
𝐴

10. In mercury cell, the electrolyte is a paste of _______.

PART – B
III. Answer the following questions each carries TWO marks: 2x5 = 10
11. What are inert electrrodes? Give an example.
12. Mention any two applications of Kohlrausch’s law.
13. Write the cathodic, anodic and overall reaction for rusting of iron.
Contd..2.
 //2//

14. What is molar conductance? How is it related to concentration ‘C’ 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑚−1 and
conductivity'k'𝑠𝑚−1?
15. Write cathode and anode reactions in lead storage battery.

PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
16. Draw labelled diagram of 𝐻2 − 𝑂2 fuel cell and write anodic and cathodic reaction.
17. Draw the neat labelled diagram of standard hydrogen electrode and write half-cell reaction and
0
mention𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 value.
18. a) What are the products formed during the electrolysis of aqueous solution of sodium chloride?
b) What is over voltage?
19. a) State Faraday’s first law of electrolysis. Write its mathematical form by using usual notation.
b) What are primary batteries?
20. a) Name any two methods to prevent corrosion.
b) Write the Daniel cell representation.

PART – D
V. Answer the following question each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
21. Calculate the ∧0𝑚 for 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 . The limiting molar conductivity of 𝑀𝑔2+ and 𝐶𝑙 − ions are
106.0 𝑆𝑐𝑚2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1and 76.3 𝑆𝑐𝑚2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1respectively.

22. Calculate the EMF of the cell for the reaction:

+ 2+ 0
𝑀𝑔(𝑠) + 2𝐴𝑔(𝑎𝑞) (0.0001) → 𝑀𝑔(𝑎𝑞) (0.001) + 2𝐴𝑔(𝑠)Given: 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 = 3.17 𝑉.

23. Calculate the equilibrium constant of the reaction: 𝐶𝑢(𝑠) + 2𝐴𝑔+ (𝑎𝑞) → 2𝐴𝑔(𝑠) + 𝐶𝑢2+,
0
𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 = 0.46 𝑉.

24. the electrode potential for the Daniel cell given below is 1.1 V
𝑍𝑛(𝑠)|𝑍𝑛2+ (𝑎𝑞)||𝐶𝑢2+ (𝑎𝑞)|𝐶𝑢(𝑠)
Write overall cell reaction and calculate the standard Gibb’s energy for the reaction (F=96500
C/mol)

25. Find the value of ∆𝐺 0 at 250C for the following electrochemical cell.
0
𝐶𝑢|𝐶𝑢2+ (1𝑀)||𝐴𝑔+ (1𝑀)|𝐴𝑔, (𝐸𝑐𝑢
0
= 0.34 𝑉and 𝐸𝐴𝑔 = 0.8 𝑉)(𝐹 = 96500)
 PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 1x7 = 7
1. Transition metals are defined as metals which have
a) Incomplete d-subshell either in neutral atom or in their ions.
b) Completely filled d-subshells only in neutral atom.
c) Partially filled d-subshells only in neutral atom.
d) Partially filled d-subshells only in ionic state.
2. Half filled and completely filled sets of orbitals are relatively
a) Less stable (b) More stable
c) Stability cannot be predicted (d) None o these
3. Which of the following d-block element has high melting point?
a) W (b) Mo (c) Cr (d) Mn
4. The magnetic moment of elements can be calculated by
a) 𝜇 = √𝑛(𝑛 + 2) (b) 𝜇 = √𝑛(𝑛 + 1) (c) 𝜇 = √𝑛(𝑛 − 1) (d) 𝜇 = √𝑛(𝑛 − 2)
5. The structure of dichromate ion (𝐶𝑟𝑂42− ) is
a) Tetrahedral (b) Two tetrahedral sharing one corner with 𝐶𝑟-𝑂-𝐶𝑟 bond angle of 1260.
c) Square planar (d) Pyramidal
6. Acidified potassium dichromate oxidizes hydrogen sulphide to
a) Sulphur (b) Sulphur dioxide (c) Sulphur trioxide (d) All of these
7. Dark purple crystals of 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 are isostructural with
a) 𝐾𝐶𝑙𝑂4 (b) 𝐾2 𝑀𝑛𝑂4 (c) 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 (d) Both (a) and (b)
II. Fill in the blanks: 1x3 = 3
(10, +8, Pd, Mn)
8. The highest oxidation state shown by transition element is _______.
9. The number of elements present in d-block is _______.
10. Outermost electronic configuration of 5𝑆 0 4𝑑10 contained element is _______.

PART – B
III. Answer the following questions each carries TWO marks: 2x5 = 10
11. The transition metal and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity. Give two reasons.
12. Between 𝑇𝑖 +2 and 𝑍𝑛+2 ion which is colourless and why?
13. Calculate spin only magnetic moment of 𝑀𝑛+2.
14. The chemistry of actinoids is more complicated than lanthanoids. Give any two reasons.
15. Give reason: a) Variable oxidation state of transition element
b) 𝐶𝑢+ is diamagnetic.
Contd..2.
 //2//

PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
16. What is lanthanoid contraction? Write any two consequences of it.
17. Give any three differences between lanthanoids and actinoids.
18. a) Write the structure, bond length and bond angle in chromate and dichromate ions.
b) Write the structure of manganate ion.
19. Explain the preparation of potassium permanganate from 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 with equation.
20. Why do transition element form complex compounds? Name the element which exhibit
highest oxidation state in 3d series.
PART – D
V. Answer the following question each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
21. How is potassium dichromate prepared from chromite ore?
22. a) Calculate the spin only magnetic moment of 𝐶𝑟 +3 ion.
b) What are transition elements?
23. a) Between 𝑇𝑖 +2 and 𝑉 +3 which ion contain more number of unpaired electrons?
b) Among 𝑍𝑛 and 𝑆𝑐 which is transition element?
2+ +
c) Among 𝐶𝑢(𝑎𝑞) and 𝐶𝑢(𝑎𝑞) which is more stable?
24. a) Second ionization enthalpy of copper is very high. Give reason.
b) Write the general oxidation state of actinoids.
c) Mention the gas liberated when lanthanoids react with acids.
25. What are interstitial compounds? Mention two properties of interstitial compounds.
 PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 1x10 = 10
1. The primary valences of coordination compounds are
a) Ionisable and satisfied negative ions (b) Non-ionisable and satisfied by positive ions
c) non-ionisable and satisfied by negative ions (d) Ionisable and satisfied by positive ions
2. When a ligand is bound to a metal ion through its several donate atoms, the ligand is said to be
a) Monodentate ligand (b) Didantate ligand (c) Poly dentate ligand (d) None of these
3. In the complex, [𝐹𝑒(𝐶2 𝑂4)3 ]3− the coordination number of Fe is
a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 6
4. The formula of the coordination compound tetramminediaqua cobalt (III) chloride is
a) [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )4 (𝐻2 𝑂)2 ]𝐶𝑙3 (b) [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )4 2𝐻2𝑂]𝐶𝑙3
c) [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )4 𝐻2 𝑂]𝐶𝑙3 (d) [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )3 (𝐻2𝑂)3 ]𝐶𝑙3
5. Number of stereo isomers exhibited by [𝐶𝑜(𝑒𝑛)2𝐶𝑙2 ]+
a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 4

6. Geometrical isomerism is not possible for

a) Square planar complexes (b) Octahedral complexes
c) Tetrahedral complexes (d) All three are trans only
7. Linkage isomerism arises in a coordination compound containing
a) Monodentate ligand (b) Didentate ligand
c) Polydentate ligand (d) Ambidentate ligand
8. According to VBT, 𝑠𝑝 3 𝑑 5 hybridisation found in
a) [𝐶𝑜𝐹6 ]3− (b) [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )6 ]3+ (c) [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑁)4 ]2− (d) [𝑁𝑖𝐶𝑙4 ]2−
9. In CFT, ligands are treated as
a) Point charges in anionic ligands (b) Point dipoles in neutral ligands
c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
10. The oxidation state of metal in metal carbonyl complexes is
a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0
PART – B
II. Answer the following questions each carries TWO marks: 2x5 = 10
11. Give any two differences between double salt and complex salts (Coordination compounds).
12. What is chelating agent? Give an example.
13. What is solvate isomerism or hydrate isomerism? Give an example.
14. What is synergic effect? What is the effect of synergic effect on M-CO bond in metal carbonyls?
15. What are metal carbonyls? Give examples.

Contd…2
 //2//

PART – C

III. Answer the following questions each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
16. Mention the postulates of Werner’s theory of coordination compound.
17. a) Write IUPAC name of [𝐶𝑟(𝑁𝐻3 )3 (𝐻2 𝑂)3 ]𝐶𝑙3 .
b) Write geometrical isomers of [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )4 𝐶𝑙2 ]+ .
18. With the help of valence bond theory explain hybridization geometry and magnetic property
of [𝐶𝑜𝐹6 ]3− ion. [Atomic No. of 𝐶𝑜= 27]
19. a) If ∆0 < 𝑃, on the basis of crystal field theory write the electronic configuration of 𝑑 4 ion in
Octahedral complexes.
b) What are hoeteroleptic complexes?
20. With the help of valence bond theory explain hybridization geometry and magnetic property
of [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑁)4 ]−2 [Atomic No. of 𝑁𝑖= 28]
PART – D
IV. Answer the following question each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
21. a) For a given complex [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )5 𝐵𝑟]𝑆𝑂4 . Write its IUPAC name and ionisation isomer.
b) Which set of d-orbital of a metal atom or ion experience more repulsion in tetrahedral field
created by the ligands?
22. With the help of valence bond theory explain hybridization geometry and magnetic property
of [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )5 ]3+ ion. [Atomic No. of 𝐶𝑜= 27].
23. a) Draw energy level diagram for the splitting of d-orbitals in an octahedral crystal field.
b) How many 𝐶𝑙 − ions can be predicted as 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 by adding excess of aqueous 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 solution into
1 mole of [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )6 ]𝐶𝑙3 ?
24. a) Write the IUPAC name of [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )4 (𝐻2 𝑂)𝐶𝑙]𝐶𝑙2 .
b) Explain coordinate isomerism with example.
25. With the help of valence bond theory explain hybridization geometry and magnetic property
of [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑙)4 ]−2 [Atomic No. of 𝑁𝑖= 28].
 PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 1x7 = 7
1. Vinylic halides in which the halogen atom is bonded to
a) 𝑠𝑝 2 hybridised carbon atom of carbon-carbon double bond.
b) 𝑠𝑝 3 hybridised carbon atom of carbon-carbon single bond.
c) 𝑠𝑝 hybridised carbon atom of carbon-carbon triple bond.
d) All of these
2. The best reagent used for the preparation of alkyl halides from alcohols is thionyl chloride.
This is because
a) The byproduct formed are gas (𝑆𝑂2 and 𝐻𝐶𝑙) and escapable (b) No byproduct are formed
c) Thionyl chloride is easily available and non-toxic (d) All of these
3. In 𝑆𝑁 2 reaction
a) The rate depends upon the concentration of both the reactants (b) No intermediate is formed
c) Inversion of configuration takes place (d) All of these
4. The reactivity of alkyl halides towards 𝑆𝑁 2 reaction
a) Primary halide (10) > secondary halide (20) > tertiary halide (30)
b) Secondary halide (20) > tertiary halide (30) > primary halide (10)
c) Tertiary halide (30) > secondary halide (20) > primary halide (10)
d) Secondary halide (20) > Primary halide (10) > tertiary halide (30)
5. 𝑆𝑁 1 reaction of optically active alkyl halide leads to
a) Retention of configuration (b) Racemisation
c) Inversion of configuration (d) None of these
6. Vicinal dihalide is ________
a) Dichloromethane (b) 1,2-Dichlorethane (c) Vinyl chloride (d) Allyl chloride
7. Chlorobenzene reacts with magnesium in dry ether to give a compound A, A is ____
a) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝑂𝐻 (b) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙 (c) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐶𝐻2 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙 (d) 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2
II. Fill in the blanks: 1x3 = 3
(Methyl chloride, propellant, 𝑹𝑴𝒈𝑿, Ethyl chloride)
8. Ethane nitrile can be prepared by heating ______ with alcoholic 𝐾𝐶𝑁.
9. Dichloromethane is widely used as a solvent as a ______ in aerosols.
10. General formula of Grignard reagent is ______.

PART – B
III. Answer the following questions each carries TWO marks: 2x5 = 10
11. Explain Finkelstein reaction with an example.
12. Explain nitration reaction with equation by taking chlorobenzene as example .
Cont...2.
 //2//
13. Complete the following reaction

14. a) Give reason: Racemic mixture is optically inactive.

b) What are Freon?
15. Define the terms: a) Racemic Mixture (b) Enantiomers

PART – C

IV. Answer the following questions each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
16. a) Explain Wurtz-Fittig reaction with equation. 2
b) What is Racemisation? 1
17. a) Explain Darzen’s process with an example. 2
b) p-dichlorobenzene has higher melting point than those of ortho and meta isomer. 1
18. a) Explain Zaitsev rule with an example. 2
b) Draw the structure of DDT. 1
19. Aryl halides are less reactive than alkyl halides towards nucleophillic substitution reaction. 2
Give any three reason.
20. Write any three differences between 𝑆𝑁 1 and 𝑆𝑁 2 mechanism.

PART – D
V. Answer the following question each carries FIVE marks: 5x3 = 15
21. a) Explain 𝑆𝑁 1 mechanism for the conversion of tert-butyl bromide to tert-butyl alcohol 3
b) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐵𝑟 + 𝐴𝑔𝐹 → 𝐴 + 𝐴𝑔𝐵𝑟. What is A and name the reaction. 2
22. a) Explain 𝑆𝑁 2 mechanism for the conversion of chloromethane to methanol. 3
b) Explain Wurtz reaction with an example. 2
23. a) Explain Fittig reaction with an example. 2
b) How do you convert chlorobenzene into phenol by Dow’s process? 2
∆
c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐵𝑟 + 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑁 → ? +𝐴𝑔𝐵𝑟 1
𝑎𝑙𝑐
 PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 1x10 = 10
1. Which of the following is primary alcohol?

d) Both (a) and (b)

2. The reducing agent used to reduce carboxylic acids to primary alcohols in excellent yields is
a) Platinum (b) 𝑁𝑎𝐵𝐻4 (c) 𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻4 (d) All of these
3. The IUPAC name of the product obtained by the reaction of propanone with methyl magnesium
bromide followed by hydrolysis is
a) Butan-1-dol (b) Propan-2-ol (c) 2-methyl propan-2-ol (d) None of these
4. Solubility of alcohols in water is due to
a) Their ability to form hydrogen bonds with water molecules
b) They do not form hydrogen bonds with water molecules.
c) They are lighter than water molecules.
d) None of these.
5. The heating of phenyl methyl ether with HI produces ____
a) Ethyl chloride (b) Iodobenzene (c) Phenol (d) Benzene
6. Oxidation of phenol by chromic acid gives ___
a) Aldehydes (b) Benzoquinone (c) Acetone (d) Phenol
7. IUPAC name of 𝐶2 𝐻5 𝑂𝐶2 𝐻5 is ____
a) Diethyl ether (b) Ethoxy propane (c) Ethoxy ethane (d) Dimethyl ether
8. When secondary alcohol is heated with 𝐶𝑢 and 573 K, it forms
a) Aldehyde (b) Ketone (c) Carboxylic acid (d) Alkene
9. By product obtained during the preparation of phenol from cumene is
a) Alcohol (b) Acetaldehyde (c) Acetone (d) Cresol

10. In substituted phenols, the presence of electron withdrawing groups such as nitro group
a) Increases the acidic strength (b) Decreases the acidic strength
c) Decrease or increase (d) Unpredictable

P.T.O..2
 //2//
PART – B
II. Answer the following questions each carries TWO marks: 2x5 = 10
11. Explain Kolbe’s reaction.
12. How do you prepare anisole by Williamson ether synthesis?
13. Show that alcohols are acidic in nature with an example.
14. What is esterficiation? Give an example.
15. What happens when phenol is heated with zinc dust? Write equation.

PART – C
III. Answer the following questions each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
16. Explain methanism of acid catalysed dehydration of ethanol to ethane.
17. Explain hydroboration – oxidation reaction with an example.
18. What is Lucas reagent? How do you distinguish between 10, 20 and 30 alcohols using Lucas reagent?
19. Explain the manufacture of phenol by Cumene process.
20. Explain Friedel-Craft alkylation of anisole.

PART – D
IV. Answer the following question each carries FIVE marks: 5x3 = 15
21. a) Explain Reimer-Tiemann. 2
b) What is the effect of 3
i) Electron withdrawing group on acidity of phenols?
ii) Boiling point of alcohols on increasing number of carbon atoms.
22. a) How do you prepare picric acid from phenol? 2
b) Identify A and B in the following equations 2
𝐻2 𝑂/𝐻 + 𝐶𝑟𝑂3
𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2 → 𝐴 → 𝐵
𝐶𝑢
c) 𝑅 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝑂𝐻 → ? 1
573
23. a) How do you prepare aspirin from salicylic acid? 2
b) How would you prepare phenol from benzene via sulphonation? 2
c) Give reason: o-nitrophenol is steam volatile but not p-nitrophenol. 1
 PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 1x10 = 10

1. The functional group of aldehyde is

a) – 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝑅 (b) – 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 (c) – 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐶𝑂 − (d) −𝐶𝐻𝑂

2. Aldehyde which not undergo Aldol condensation reaction is

a) Ethanal (b) Propanal (c) Benzaldehyde (d) Propionaldehyde

3. Acetone reacts with Grignard reagent followed by hydrolysis to form

a) 30 alcohol (b) 20 alcohol (c) Ether (d) No reaction.

4. Oxidising agent used in Etards reaction is

a) 𝐻2 − 𝑃𝑑 (b) 𝐶𝑟𝑂3 (c) 𝐶𝑟𝑂2 𝐶𝑙2 (d) 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4

5. Product obtained when ketone is treated with hydroxyl amine

a) Oxime (b) Hydrazine (c) Imine (d) Hydrazone

6. Carboxylic acids have a higher boiling point than the corresponding alcohols, due to
a) Vanderwaals force (b) Intra molecular H-bonding
c) Extensive H-bonding (d) Covalent bond

7. The IUPAC name of 𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻𝑂 is

a) Formic acid (b) Formaldehyde (c) Methanal (d) Methanol

8. Carboxylic acids exists in dimeric form even in vapour phase due to ___
a) Hydrogen bond (b) Peptide bond (c) Ionic bond (d) Metallic bond

9. The strongest carboxylic acid among the following is ____

a) Acetic acid (b) Trichloroacetic acid
c) Trifluoroacetic acid (d) Dichloroacetic acid

10. Nitriles are converted into ketones by treating with ____

a) Dialkyl cadmium (b) Acyl chloride (c) Grignard reagent (d) Chromyl chloride

PART – B
II. Answer the following questions each carries TWO marks: 2x5 = 10
11. Explain Rosenmund reduction with an example.
12. What is Etard’s reaction? Explain.
13. Explain Gatterman-Koch reaction.
Contd..2.
 //2//
14. What is the Clemmenson’s reduction? Give an example.
15. What is the Wolff-Kishner reduction? Give an example.

PART – C

III. Answer the following questions each carries THREE marks: 3x5 = 15
16. Explain mechanism of addition of 𝐻𝐶𝑁 to aldehyde or ketone.
17. How does aldehydes and ketones reacts with hydroxyl amine? Explain with an example.
18. Explain the reaction of aldehydes and ketones with hydrazine with an example.
19. a) What is haloform reaction? Give an example. 2
b) Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones towards nucleophilic addition reaction. Give one reason.1
20. a) What is aldol condensation? Give an example. 2
b) Mention the hybridized state of carbonyl carbon atom. 1

PART – D
IV. Answer the following question each carries FIVE marks: 5x3 = 15
21. a) What is Cannizarro’s reaction? Give an example. 2
b) How do you prepare carboxylic acids from Grignard reagent? Explain with example. 2
c) 1

22. a) What is the effect on acidity of carboxylic acids 2

i) Presence of electron withdrawing group.
ii) Presence of electron donating group.
b) What is action of ammonia on carboxylic acids? Give an example. 2
c) 1

23. a) What is Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction? Give an example. 2

b) What is Tollen’s reagent and Fehling’s solution? 2
c) Complete the following chemical reaction. 1
𝐴𝑙𝑘𝑎𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑒 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4
𝑅 − 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻 → ?
𝐻3 𝑂+
 '3/4+93 3(/5352+);2+9
PART – A
I. Select the correct option from the given choice: 7x1 = 7
1. A secondary amine is
a) A compound with two carbon atoms and an – 𝑁𝐻2 group.
b) A compound containing two – 𝑁𝐻2 groups.
c) A compound in which hydrogens of 𝑁𝐻3 have been replaced by two alkyl groups.
d) A compound with an – 𝑁𝐻2 group on carbon atom in number two position.
2. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?

a) 2-methyl-4-hexanamine (b) 5-methyl-3-hexanamine

c) 2-methyl-4-amino hexane (d) 5-methyl-3-amino hexane
3. Amylose is a ____ polymer of 𝛼-D glucose units in which chain is formed by ____ glycosidic linkage
where as branching occurs by ____ glycosidic linkage.
a) Branched chain, C1 – C6, C1 – C4 (b) Branch chain, C1 – C4, C1 – C6
c) Unbranched chain, C1 – C4, (d) Unbranch chain, C1 – C6, C1 – C4
4. In the acetylation of glucose, which group is involved in the reaction
a) CHO group (b) >C=O group (c) Alcoholic OH group (d) All of these
5. Which of the following terms refers to the overall three dimensional shape of a protein?
a) Primary structure (b) Secondary structure (c) Tertiary structure (d) Quaternary structure
6. DNA contains
a) Ribose sugar and Thymine (b) Ribose sugar and Uracil
c) Deoxyribose sugar and uracil (d) Deoxyribose sugar and Thymine.
7. Vitamin B1 is known as
a) Pyridoxine (b) Thiamine (c) Tocopherol (d) Riboflavin

II. Fill in the blanks: 3x1 = 3

(Ammonolysis, Benzene diazonium chloride, Aniline, 𝑹𝑵𝑯+ −
𝟑𝑿 )

8. The process of cleavage of 𝐶 − 𝑋 bond by ammonia molecule is known as ________.

9. The general formula of quaternary ammonium salt is ________.
10. ________ is treated with fluoroboric acid to give arene diazonium fluoroborate which on heating
Decomposes to give aryl fluoride.

Contd..2.

//2//
 PART – B
III. Answer the following questions each carries TWO marks: 5x2 = 10
11. Between 𝐶𝐻3 𝑁𝐻2 and 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝑁𝐻2 which is more basic? Give reason.
12. What is ammonolysis? Explain with general equation.
13. What are fibrous proteins? Give example.
14. How does glucose reacts with acetic anhydride? Write it’s chemical reaction.
15. Write any two difference between DNA and RNA.
PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions each carries THREE marks: 5x3 = 15
16. What is Hinsberg’s reagent? How do you distinguish 10, 20 and 30 amines by Hinsberg reagent?
17. a) Explain Gatterman reaction with equation. 2
∆
b) 𝐴𝑟𝑁2+ 𝐶𝑙 + 𝐾𝐼 → ? 1
18. a) What are non-reducing sugar? Give example. 2
b) What is invert sugar? 1
19. a) What are non-essential amino acids? Name naturally occurring 𝛼-amino acid which is optically inactive.2
b) Which vitamin deficiency causes the disease scurvy? 1
20. a) Write zwitter ionic structure of alanine. 1
b) Name the nitrogenous base present in DNA but not in RNA. 1
c) Name the nucleic acid which is responsible for genetic information. 1
PART – D
V. Answer the following question each carries FIVE marks: 3x5 = 15
21. a) How is aniline prepared from nitrobenzene. 2
b) Explain carbylamine reaction with equation. 2
c) Give the IUPAC name of isopropyl amine. 1
22. a) How is methanamine prepared by Hoffmann’s bromamide degradation reaction? Write equation. 2
b) Explain coupling reaction of benzene diazonium chloride with phenol. Write the equation. 2
𝐻+
c) Complete the reaction 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝑁2+ 𝐶𝑙 + 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝑁𝐻2 → ? 1
23. a) Write Haworth structure of 𝛼-D-(+)- maltose. 2
b) What is denaturation of proteins? Which level of structure remain intact during
denaturation of globular protein? 2
c) Name the sugar moiety present in RNA. 1