Sample Paper 01

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, aeen provided in few questions. Only one
of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. In the above picture of sorrien’s utopian vision, the saints, angle and Christ symbolise-

(a) Equality among people

(b) Fraternity among nations

(c) Freedom of nations

(d) Resentment against nations

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 01 NODIA

2. Certain events are given below. Choose the appropriate chronological order :

1. Coming of Simon Commission to India

2. Demand of Purna Swaraj in Lahore Session of INC.

3. Government of India Act, 1919

4. Champaran Satyagraha Choose the correct option :

(a) 3 - 2 - 4 - 1 (b) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3

(c) 2 - 3 - 1 - 4 (d) 4 - 3 - 1 - 2

3. Which of the following was a major reason for the expansion of international trade in the 19th century?

(a) The rise of European colonial empires and advancements in transportation.

(b) The abolition of slavery, which reduced the need for international trade.

(c) The decline in demand for raw materials like cotton and sugar.

(d) The establishment of the World Trade Organization, regulating global trade.

4. The invention of the printing press by Johannes Gutenberg revolutionized the spread of information in
Europe. Which of the following were effects of the invention of the printing press?

1. Rapid spread of new ideas and knowledge

2. Growth of literacy and education

3. Decline in religious authority

4. Strengthening of monarchies

Options :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2, and 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

5. Which resource is renewable and can be replenished over a relatively short period of time through natural
processes?

(a) Fossil fuels like coal and petroleum, which take millions of years to form.

(b) Solar energy from the sun, which is available in abundance and continuously replenished.

Install
(c) Mineral resources such NODIA
as iron ore, App
which are toover
formed See the time scales.
geological
Solutions.
 (d) Non-renewable resources like natural gas, which cannot be regenerated once consumed.

6. The Western Ghats are recognized as one of the world’s biodiversity hotspots. Analyze the following
statements about the Western Ghats:

1. They are home to a vast number of endemic plant and animal species.

2. The Western Ghats stretch across eight Indian states from Gujarat to Tamil Nadu.

3. Deforestation and habitat destruction are major threats to their biodiversity.

4. The Western Ghats are primarily desert regions with sparse vegetation.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

[Link] koHke [Link] ngst aell .link/app

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 01 Page 3

7. Match Column - A with Column - B and choose the correct option:

Column-A (River) Column-B (Dam)

A. Mahanadi 1. Sardar Sarovar
B. Narmada 2. Hirakud
C. Chambal 3. Salal
D. Chenab 4. Rana Pratap
Sagar
Options:

(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1

(b) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

(c) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

(d) A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

1.

2. The power-sharing arrangement can be easily changed by the Union government.

Options :

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1 and 4

8. What is Caste Discrimination, and why is it considered a major social issue in India?

(a) Treating individuals based on their caste, leading to social inequality and exclusion.

(b) Promoting caste-based systems to maintain social order and hierarchy.

(c) Encouraging the mixing of different castes to create a unified society.

(d) Ignoring caste differences to ensure everyone is treated equally.

9. India has a multi-party system, providing voters with a wide range of choices. Which of the following
statements about political party systems are correct?

1. A two-party system limits voter choice.

2. A multi-party system encourages coalition governments.

3. A one-party system Install NODIA

is more democratic App
than to See
a multi-party the
system.
Solutions.
 4. A multi-party system provides more representation to diverse groups.

[Link] .link/app

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 01 NODIA

Options :

(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4

10. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Democracy in India ensures the protection of individual rights and freedoms.

Statement II: In a democracy, the government is not accountable to the people. Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

11. The power-sharing model of is considered one of the most complex, involving equal representation
of both Dutch and French-speaking communities.

(a) India (b) Belgium

(c) Sri Lanka (d) France

12. Which sector of the Indian economy is primarily involved in the extraction and processing of raw
materials, such as mining and agriculture?

(a) Primary Sector, which includes activities like agriculture, mining, and fishing.

(b) Secondary Sector, which involves manufacturing and industrial production.

(c) Tertiary Sector, which focuses on services and distribution.

(d) Quaternary Sector, which deals with information and research services.

13. Money plays a crucial role in the economy by facilitating transactions. Which of the following are
functions of money in an economy?

1. Medium of exchange

2. Store of value

3. Measure of income

4. Unit of account

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

Install NODIA App to See the
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 3, and 4
Solutions.
 14. The process of globalization has been facilitated by advances in technology, especially in the fields of
communication and .

(a) Manufacturing(b) Mining

(c) Transportation (d) Healthcare

15. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Development is a process that only involves economic growth.

Statement II: Development includes improvements in the standard of living, education, and healthcare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

[Link] koHke [Link] ngst aell .link/app

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 01 Page 5

16. Match the following and choose the correct option.

(Leader) (Role)

A. Victor Emmanuel II 1. Chief Minister of Italy

B. Guiseppe Mazzini 2. Young Italy Movement

C. Guiseppe Garibaldi 3. Conquered the Kingdom of Sicillies

D. Count Cavour 4. Proclaimed as king of Unified Italy

(a) A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 2 (b) A -2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

(c) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1 (d) A - 1, B - 4, C - 2, D - 3

17. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

What is the significance of the 43 percent land under net sown area?

(a) It supports urban development.

(b) It contributes majorly to food production.

(c) It is used for industrial growth.

(d) It is left uncultivated for future use.

18. Read the data given below and answer the question:

State Land Degradation (in % of total land area) Forest Cover (in %)
X 12 22
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
 Y 25 35
Why does state Y have a higher rate of land degradation?

(a) High afforestation rates.

(b) Lack of industrial development.

(c) Increased deforestation for agriculture.

(d) Use of rainwater harvesting.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

[Link] .link/app

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 01 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

19. “The French Revolution led to the rise of nationalism in Europe.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

OR

“The Revolutions of 1848 were significant in the spread of nationalism.” Discuss the role of the 1848
revolutions in promoting nationalist sentiments.

20. “Sustainable development is essential for ensuring the availability of resources for future generations.”
Explain why this is important.

21. “Power sharing is essential in a diverse society like India.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

22. “Income alone is not a measure of development.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

23. Over the past fifty years, India’s literacy rate has significantly increased, leading to a more educated
population. As a result, education has become a central focus in India’s development strategy. Why do you
think education has gained such importance in India’s development? Support your answer by giving any
three reasons.

24. “The formation of the Indian National Congress was a significant step towards Indian nationalism.” Explain
the statement by giving suitable examples.

25. “Ravi owns a large plantation and wants to promote biodiversity. However, he is not familiar with the
types of forests and their significance.” Assist him in identifying the different types of forests and their
importance in promoting biodiversity.

OR

“Neha is passionate about wildlife conservation and wishes to start a sanctuary. She needs guidance on the
factors essential for establishing a wildlife sanctuary.” Help her identify the key factors required to set up a
successful wildlife sanctuar

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
26. “Federalism ensures regional autonomy within a country.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 01 Page 7

27. In recent years, the service sector in India has grown exponentially, becoming the largest contributor to
GDP. As a result, the service sector has emerged as the dominant sector in the Indian economy. Why has
the service sector become so dominant in India’s economy? Support your answer by giving any three
reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

28. ‘The Age of Discovery marked the beginning of global trade networks.’ Substantiate the statement with
key features.

OR

‘Imperialism was driven by economic, political, and cultural motives.’ Explain the statement with relevant
points.

29. Meena’s town is facing water scarcity due to the over-extraction of groundwater. Identify three reasons
for groundwater depletion and suggest ways to conserve water resources.

OR

Arjun’s village is prone to frequent droughts. What water conservation techniques can be adopted in drought-
prone areas to ensure sustainable water use?

30. ‘Caste continues to play a significant role in Indian politics.’ Analyse the impact of caste on political and
social life in India.

OR

‘Gender discrimination is a persistent issue in Indian society.’ Discuss the challenges faced by women in India.

31. Miss X is trying to understand the problems with the barter system. Explain why the barter system was
inefficient due to the need for double coincidence of wants and how money, as a medium of exchange,
solved this problem by making trade more convenient and efficient.

OR

Amit, a farmer, borrows money from a moneylender at high interest rates. What are the consequences of
relying on informal credit, and how can access to formal banking and credit systems be improved in rural
areas?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

[Link] .link/app

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 01 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

32. Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow :

This is how Mercier describes the impact of the printed word, and the power of reading in one of his books:

‘Anyone who had seen me reading would have compared me to a man dying of thirst who was gulping down
some fresh, pure water.... Lighting my lamp with extraordinary caution, I threw myself hungrily into the
reading. An easy eloquence, effortless and animated, carried me from one page to the next without my noticing
it. A clock struck off the hours in the silence of the shadows, and I heard nothing. My lamp began to run out of
oil and produced only a pale light, but still I read on. I could not even take out time to raise the wick for fear of
interrupting my pleasure. How those new ideas rushed into my brain! How my intelligence adopted them!’

Questions:

1. How does the passage reflect the immersive nature of reading of Mercier?

2. Why did Mercier describe himself as a virtual writer?

3. How did reading influence Mercier’s intellectual capacity and his engagement with new concepts?
Explain in any two points.

33. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Today, Indian agriculture finds itself at a crossroads. To make agriculture successful and profitable, proper
thrust should be given to the improvement of the condition of marginal and small farmers. The green
revolution promised much. But today it’s under controversy. The keyword today is “gene revolution”, which
includes genetic engineering. Organic farming is [also] much in vogue today because it is practised without
factory-made chemicals such as fertilisers and pesticides. A few economists think that Indian farmers have a
bleak future if they continue growing food grains on the holdings that grow smaller and smaller as the
population rises. India’s rural population is about 600 million which depends upon 250 million (approximate)
hectares of agricultural land, an average of less than half a hectare per person. Indian farmers should diversify
their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops. This will increase incomes and reduce environmental
degradation simultaneously. Because fruits, medicinal herbs, flowers, vegetables, and bio-diesel crops like
jatropha and jojoba need much less irrigation than rice or sugarcane. India’s diverse climate can be harnessed
to grow a wide range of high-value crops.

Questions :

1. Give two reasons why the Green Revolution is under controversy.

2. .....holdings that grow smaller and smaller as the population rises.’ Evaluate why this is a concern.

3. Bio-diesel crops like jatropha and jojoba have been referred to as high-value crops. Why?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

[Link] koHke [Link] ngst aell .link/app

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 01 Page 9

34. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :

The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies. As we have seen,
large societies need representative democracy. As societies became large and complex, they also needed some
agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government. They needed some
ways, to bring various representatives together so that a responsible government could be formed. They
needed a mechanism to support or restrain the government, make policies, justify or oppose them. Political
parties fulfil these needs that every representative government has. We can say that parties are a necessary
condition for a democracy.

Questions :

1. Explain the meaning of a political party.

2. ‘‘The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representaive democracies.”
Support this statement.

3. Why are political parties a necessary condition for a democracy ? Explain.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

35. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

(A) Indian National Congress session at this place in 1920.

(B) The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the slat law.

(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

(i) A Coal mine in Tamil Nadu.

(ii) A dam built on river Chenab.

(iii)A large natural major seaport located at Andhra Pradesh. (iv)Noida software technology park.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
[Link] .link/app

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 01 NODIA

w w [Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
[Link] koHke [Link] ngst aell .link/app

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 02 1
Sample Paper 02

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Which one of the following option best signifies this picture?

Click Here To
Install
 (a) Indian workers march in south Africa 1913.

(b) The Boycott of foreign cloths 1922.

(c) Chauri Chaura Movement.

(d) Dandi March lead by Mahatma Gandhi.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

httInpstsa:ll/N/[Link]/[Link]

Click Here To
Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 02 NODIA

2. Arrange the following happenings in the correct order-

1. Mahatma Gandhi launched the civil disobedience movement

2. First world war

3. Second world war

4. Establishment of G-77

Options :

(a) 1, 4, 2, 3

(b) 2, 1, 3, 4

(c) 4, 3, 2, 1

(d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. The invention of the printing press by Johannes Gutenberg in the 15th century had what significant
impact on European society?

(a) It led to the spread of new ideas and literacy across Europe.

(b) It allowed the Catholic Church to control the dissemination of information.

(c) It reduced access to books and limited the spread of knowledge.

(d) It was primarily used to print religious texts, with little impact on secular learning.

4. The Napoleonic Code, introduced in 1804, had a significant impact on European legal systems. Which of
the following statements about the Napoleonic Code are correct?

1. It did away with privileges based on birth.

2. It established equality before the law.

3. It restored the feudal system.

4. It simplified administrative divisions. Options :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, and 4

5. Which of the following is a major reason for the decline of biodiversity in Indian forests?

(a) Afforestation efforts led by the government and non-governmental organizations.

Click Here To
Install
 (b) Deforestation due to agricultural expansion and illegal logging activities in forested areas.

(c) Conservation programs aimed at protecting endangered species and their habitats.

(d) Sustainable harvesting of forest resources to meet the needs of local communities.

6. Water is a crucial resource for human survival and economic activities. In India, several measures have
been taken to manage water resources effectively. Consider the following statements about water
conservation practices:

1. Rainwater harvesting involves collecting and storing rainwater for future use.

2. Check dams are constructed to slow down the flow of water and recharge groundwater.

3. Desalination plants convert seawater into potable water to meet drinking needs.

4. Over-extraction of groundwater has no impact on the water table levels.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To
Install
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 02 Page 3

7. Match the following:

List-I (Crops) List-II (Geographical conditions)

A. Barley 1. Hot and dry climate with poor soil

B. Rice 2. Cool climate with poorer soil

C. Millets 3. Warm and moist climate with high

altitude

D. Tea 4. Hot and moist climate with rich soil

Option :

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-3, B-4, C-1,D-2

(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

8. Which of the following statements best defines federalism as practiced in India?

(a) A unitary system where the central government holds all the powers without any state autonomy.

(b) A system where power is divided between a central government and individual state governments.

(c) A confederation where states have complete independence and the central government has limited
powers.

(d) A system where regional leaders have more power than the central government in decision- making.

9. Indian society is divided into various social categories based on gender, religion, and caste. Which of the
following statements about gender inequality in India are correct?

1. Women have equal representation in parliament.

2. Women are paid less than men for the same work.

3. Girls are often not encouraged to pursue higher education.

4. Women are over-represented in decision-making bodies.

Options :

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 4

10. What is one major advantage of a multi-party system in a democratic country like India?

(a) It limits the representation of diverse interests by reducing the number of political voices.
Click Here To
Install
 (b) It ensures broader representation of different societal groups and opinions in governance.

(c) It makes it easier for a single party to dominate the political landscape.

(d) It reduces competition among political parties, ensuring stable governments.

11. Democracy promotes political equality and fairness. Which of the following are key outcomes of a
democratic system?

1. Equal political participation for all citizens

2. Equal economic opportunities for all citizens

3. Protection of individual rights and freedoms

4. Economic growth at the expense of social justice

Click Here To
Install
Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2, and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Power sharing helps in preventing the concentration of power in one group. Statement II: Power
sharing is only applicable at the central level and not at the state level. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?

(a) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect.

(b) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct.

(d) Both I and II are incorrect.

13. In India, the distribution of powers between the Union and State governments is outlined in the

of the Indian Constitution.

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Directive Principles

(c) Seventh Schedule

(d) Ninth Schedule

14. How do banks create money through the lending process in India’s financial system?

(a) By printing physical currency notes and distributing them to the public.

(b) By accepting deposits and lending a portion of those deposits to borrowers, creating new money.

(c) By investing in foreign markets and bringing back profits as domestic money.

(d) By restricting the supply of money to control inflation and stabilize the economy.

15. Globalization refers to the increasing interconnection of economies worldwide. Which of the following are
key features of globalization?

1. Increased trade between countries

2. Flow of capital and technology across borders

3. Isolation of domestic markets

Click Here To
Install
 4. Restricted movement of people across countries

Options :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 3

16. The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistic of life expectancy, education, and

per capita, which is used to rank countries by their level of human development.

(a) National income

(b) GDP

(c) Gross National Income (GNI)

(d) Personal wealth

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To
Install
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 02 Page 5

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The primary sector includes activities like agriculture, mining, and fishing.

Statement II: The tertiary sector is involved in manufacturing goods. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct.

(b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct.

(d) Neither I nor II is correct.

18. Match the column A and column B and choose the correct option.

Column A Column B

A Giuseppe Mazzini 1. Ruler of an Italian princely house

B King Victor Emmanuel II 2. Revolutionary who tried to unify Italy

C Chief Minister Cavour 3. led an army of volunteers to Rome to fight the last obstacle to
the unification of Italy, the Papal States where a French garrison
was stationed.

D Giuseppe Garibaldi 4. Through a tactful diplomatic alliance with France he succeeded

in defeating the Austrian forces in 1859
(a) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4

(b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3

(c) A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4

(d) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Click Here To
Install
Why does alluvial soil cover 35% of the total area?

(a) It is mostly found in river basins.

(b) It is used for growing forests.

(c) It is found in desert regions.

(d) It is used for industrial purposes.

httInpstsa:ll/N/[Link]/[Link]

Click Here To
Install
Page 6 Sample Paper 02 NODIA

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

State Forest Area (in % of total area) Deforestation Rate (per year)
A 30 2%
B 50 0.5%
Why does state B have a lower deforestation rate?

(a) It has high agricultural demand.

(b) It is a highly industrialized state.

(c) It has better forest management practices.

(d) It focuses on mining activities.

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “The Indian National Congress was founded to voice Indian aspirations.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

OR

“The partition of Bengal in 1905 sparked nationalist protests.” Discuss the impact of the partition of Bengal on
Indian nationalism.

22. “Forests play a vital role in maintaining ecological balance.” Explain their importance.

23. “Federalism promotes regional autonomy in India.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

24. “The primary sector is crucial for the livelihood of a large section of India’s population.” Justify the
statement with suitable arguments.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

Click Here To
Install
 25. Over the past four decades, the manufacturing sector in India has expanded rapidly, contributing
significantly to GDP growth. As a result, the manufacturing sector has become a major pillar of the Indian
economy. Why has the manufacturing sector become so important in India’s economy? Support your
answer by giving any three reasons.

26. “The Age of Discovery led to the creation of global trade networks.” Explain the statement by giving
suitable examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To
Install
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 02 Page 7

27. “Sunita has acquired a piece of land and wants to ensure a steady water supply for irrigation. She is
unfamiliar with the types of irrigation methods suitable for her area.” Help her identify appropriate
irrigation methods based on local water resources and soil conditions.

OR

“Mohit plans to build a small hydroelectric power plant. However, he lacks knowledge about the factors that
determine the feasibility of such a project.” Guide him in identifying the key factors that make a location
suitable for a hydroelectric power plant.

28. “Gender equality ensures equal opportunities for women and men.” Explain the statement by giving any
three examples.

29. Between 1991 and 2020, India’s credit market has expanded, providing businesses with necessary funding
for growth. As a result, credit availability has become crucial for India’s economic development. Why is
credit availability important for India’s economy? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The invention of the printing press revolutionized the spread of knowledge.’ Substantiate the statement
with key features.

OR

‘The role of newspapers was crucial in mobilizing public opinion during the nationalist movements.’ Explain the
statement with relevant points.

31. Sunita notices that farmers in her area depend heavily on monsoons for agriculture. What are the
limitations of monsoon-dependent agriculture, and how can irrigation help overcome them?

OR

Ravi’s region specializes in the cultivation of rice, a water-intensive crop. What are the advantages and
disadvantages of growing water-intensive crops, and what alternatives can be suggested?

32. ‘Political parties are essential for the functioning of a democracy.’ Analyse the role of political parties in
democratic governance.

Click Here To
Install
OR

‘Political parties today face several challenges that impact their democratic functioning.’ Discuss the challenges
faced by political parties.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

httInpstsa:ll/N/[Link]/[Link]

Click Here To
Install
Page 8 Sample Paper 02 NODIA

33. Miss X is learning about globalization and wants to understand its impact on India’s economy. Explain how
globalization has influenced India’s trade, investment, and industries, and how the country has benefited
from increased integration with the global economy.

OR

A cotton farmer in India sells his crop to an international clothing company. How does this connect him to the
global market, and what are the potential benefits and risks of participating in global supply chains for small
farmers?

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Ernst Renan, ‘What is a Nation?’: In a lecture delivered at the University of Sorbonne in 1882, the French
philosopher Ernst Renan (1823-92) outlined his understanding of what makes a nation. The lecture was
subsequently published as a famous essay entitled ‘Qu’ est-cequ’ une nation?’ (‘What is a Nation?’). In this
essay Renan criticises the notion suggested by others that a nation is formed by a common language, race,
religion, or territory: ‘A nation is the culmination of a long past of endeavours, sacrifice and devotion. A heroic
past, great men, glory, that is the social capital upon which one bases a national idea. To have common glories
in the past, to have a common will in the present, to have performed great deeds together, to wish to perform
still more, these are the essential conditions of being a people. A nation is therefore a large-scale solidarity... Its
existence is a daily plebiscite... A province is its inhabitants; if anyone has the right to be consulted, it is the
inhabitant. A nation never has any real interest in annexing or holding on to a country against its will. The
existence of nations is a good thing, a necessity even. Their existence is a guarantee of liberty, which would be
lost if the world had only one law and only one master.

Questions :

1. What do you mean by the term Nation?

2. Write any two requirements for the formation of a nation.

3. How does a heroic past helps in the formation of a nation?

35. Read the given case and answer the questions that follow :

Energy is a basic requirement for economic development. Every sector of the national economy — agriculture,
industry, transport, commercial and domestic — needs inputs of energy. The economic development plans
implemented since independence necessarily required increasing amounts of energy to remain operational. As
a result, consumption of energy in all forms has been steadily rising all over the country. In this background,
Click Here To
Install
there is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development. Promotion of energy
conservation and increased use of renewable energy sources are the twin planks of sustainable energy. India is
presently one of the least energy efficient countries in the world. We have to adopt a cautious approach for the
judicious use of our limited energy resources. For example, as concerned citizens we can do our bit by using
public transport systems instead of individual vehicles; switching off electricity when not in use, using power-
saving devices and using non-conventional sources of energy. At last “Energy Saved is energy produced”

Click Here To
Install
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 02 Page 9

Questions :

1. Why is sustainable energy a key to sustainable development ?

2. Why is consumption of energy rising in all over India?

3. Explain ‘Energy saved is energy produced’.

36. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

Arguments about democracy tend to be very passionate. This is how it should be, for democracy appeals to
some of our deep values. These debates cannot be resolved in a simple manner. But some debates about
democracy can and should be resolved by referring to some facts and figures. The debate about the economic
outcomes of democracy is one such debate. Over the years many students of democracy have gathered careful
evidence to see what the relationship of democracy with economic growth and economic inequalities is.

A particular study shows that on an average dictatorial regimes have had a slightly better record of economic
growth. But when we compare their record only in poor countries, there is virtually no difference. While
another study shows that within democracies there can be very high degree of inequalities. In democratic
countries like South Africa and Brazil, the top 20 per cent people take away more than 60 per cent of the
national income, leaving less than 3 per cent for the bottom 20 per cent population. Countries like Denmark
and Hungary are much better in this respect.

One can easily infer that there is often inequality of opportunities available to the poorer sections.

Questions :

1. Which type of outcomes of democracy can be resolved with the help of facts or figures analysis?

2. Benefits of higher national income are enjoyed by a’ small proportion of its population while a larger
proportion has to settle with the remaining small portion of the national income. What is strongly
indicated by this fact?

3. Differentiate between democracy and dictatorship form of government.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the lines drawn near them.

A. The place associated with the Jallianwala Bagh incident.

B. The place where the December 1920 session of the Indian National Congress took place.

Click Here To
Install
httInpstsa:ll/N/[Link]/[Link]

Click Here To
Install
Page 10 Sample Paper 02 NODIA

(b) On the outline map of India, mark and locate the following with suitable symbols.

C. An airport

D. A software technology park

E. A dam

F. A seaport in Goa

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 03 1
Sample Paper 03

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Which one of the following option best signifies this picture?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 03 NODIA

(a) Criminals. (b) Lost citizens of Central Africa.

(c) Photograph of indentured labourers. (d) None of these.

2. Arrange the following options in the correct sequence-

1. Press came to be made out of metal.

2. Offset press was developed.

3. Gutenberg perfected the system by olive press.

4. China first introduced hand- printing technology into Japan.

Option:

(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 2, 4, 3, 1

(c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

3. Which treaty, signed in 1815, aimed to restore monarchies in Europe after Napoleon’s defeat and
establish a balance of power?

(a) Treaty of Versailles, which ended World War I and reshaped Europe.

(b) Treaty of Vienna, which restored traditional monarchies and balanced European powers.

(c) Treaty of Paris, which concluded the Napoleonic Wars and redrew European borders.

(d) Treaty of Tordesillas, which divided newly discovered lands between Spain and Portugal.

4. The Indian National Congress launched the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920 under the leadership of
Mahatma Gandhi. Which of the following were objectives of the Non-Cooperation Movement?

1. Boycott of British goods

2. Surrender of government titles

3. Promotion of Hindu-Muslim unity

4. Acceptance of British reforms

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 5. Which of the following is a common method used for rainwater harvesting to conserve water in rural
areas of India?

(a) Building large dams to control river flow and generate electricity.

(b) Constructing tanks and ponds to store rainwater for agricultural use.

(c) Deforestation to increase the amount of water available for irrigation.

(d) Draining wetlands to convert them into agricultural land for farming.

6. Agriculture plays a vital role in the Indian economy. Identify the correct statements related to Indian
agriculture.

1. India is the largest producer of rice and wheat in the world.

2. The Green Revolution significantly increased agricultural productivity in the 1960s.

3. Agriculture in India is entirely dependent on monsoon rains.

4. Horticulture contributes minimally to India’s agricultural sector.

Options:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 03 Page 3

7. Match the following and choose correct option.

Column-I Column-II
A. Terrace farming 1. Different crops grown parallely
B. Strip cropping 2. Hill slopes are used as cultivable land in the form of flat cut regions
of slope
C. Contour ploughing 3. Along the slope of mountain
D. Crop rotation 4. Different crops grown in systematic succession
Option :

(a) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4

(b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2

(c) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2

(d) A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3

8. Which of the following best describes the term Gender Equality?

(a) Treating individuals differently based on their gender to promote fairness.

(b) Ensuring equal rights, responsibilities, and opportunities for all genders.

(c) Giving preferential treatment to women in all aspects of society.

(d) Maintaining traditional gender roles to preserve cultural values.

9. Political parties play a crucial role in the functioning of a democracy. Which of the following are functions
of political parties in a democracy?

1. Contest elections

2. Formulate policies and programs

3. Ensure military control over government

4. Provide a platform for public debate

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 10. How does democracy contribute to the social development of a country like India?

(a) By restricting access to social services and maintaining traditional structures.

(b) By promoting inclusive policies, ensuring equal opportunities, and addressing social inequalities.

(c) By prioritizing economic growth over social welfare and education.

(d) By centralizing decision-making processes and reducing community involvement.

11. Belgium is known for its power-sharing model. Which of the following are key features of the power-
sharing arrangement in Belgium?

1. Equal representation of Dutch and French-speaking communities in the central government.

2. Special laws require the support of the majority of each linguistic group.

3. Power is concentrated in the hands of the majority community.

4. Community government exists for cultural, educational, and language-related matters.

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 03 NODIA

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In a federal system, both the central and state governments have their own powers and
responsibilities.

Statement II: In India, the central government can unilaterally abolish state governments without any
constitutional provisions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. The Indian Constitution provides equality before the law and prohibits discrimination on the basis of
, caste, religion, or place of birth.

(a) Education (b) Gender

(c) Wealth (d) Profession

14. What is globalization, and how has it impacted the Indian economy?

(a) Globalization refers to the isolation of national economies, reducing trade and investment
opportunities.

(b) Globalization is the integration of national economies through trade, investment, and technology
exchange, boosting economic growth in India.

(c) Globalization involves the strict regulation of international trade, limiting India’s economic expansion.

(d) Globalization focuses solely on cultural exchange without affecting economic activities in India.

15. Development has different meanings for different people. Which of the following best describes
development for a rural farmer?

1. Access to modern agricultural tools

2. A high salary in an urban job

3. Better education for their children

4. Owning a large piece of farmland

Options :

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) Only 2

16. The primary sector in India involves activities such as agriculture, fishing, and that directly extract or
use natural resources.

(a) Transport (b) Mining

(c) Retail (d) Tourism

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Money serves as a medium of exchange, a unit of account, and a store of value.

Statement II: Credit involves lending and borrowing money with interest. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 03 Page 5

18. Match the columns P and column Q and select correct option :

Column P Column Q
A. MNCs buy at cheap rates from small producers 1. Automobiles machinery hemo.
B. Quotas and taxes on imports are used to regulate trade 2. Garments, foot wear, sports.
items.
C. Indian companies who have invested abroad. 3. Call centres.
D. IT has helped in spreading of production of services. 4. Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy
E. Several MNCs have invested in setting up factories in India 5. Trade barriers
for production.
Option :

(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 5, E - 1

(b) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 5, E - 4

(c) A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3, E - 5

(d) A - 2, B - 5, C - 4, D - 3, E - 1

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

What is the significance of 22 percent land under forests?

(a) It provides timber and forest products.

(b) It is mostly used for industrial purposes.

(c) It is reserved for urban development.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (d) It helps in mineral extraction.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

State Annual Rainfall (in mm) Irrigated Area (% of total cultivated land)
C 1200 40%
D 600 75%
Why does state D have a higher percentage of irrigated area despite lower rainfall?

(a) It has abundant river systems.

(b) It has better water conservation methods.

(c) It has fewer water storage facilities.

(d) It depends solely on rain-fed agriculture.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 03 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “World War I transformed global political boundaries.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

OR

“The Treaty of Versailles was a catalyst for World War II.” Discuss the reasons why the Treaty of Versailles
contributed to the outbreak of World War II.

22. “Water scarcity is a growing global concern.” Explain the reasons behind it.

23. “Gender equality is fundamental to a just society.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

24. “Money facilitates trade by eliminating the inefficiencies of barter.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Over the past few decades, the number of banking institutions in India has increased, enhancing financial
inclusion. As a result, banking has become a fundamental part of India’s financial system. Why has the
banking sector become so important in India? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

26. “The invention of the printing press revolutionized the dissemination of knowledge.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 27. “Rohit has started organic farming on his land and wants to improve soil fertility naturally. He is unfamiliar
with organic farming techniques.” Assist him in identifying effective organic farming practices to enhance
soil fertility.

OR

“Anjali plans to cultivate multiple crops on her farm to increase productivity. However, she is unsure about crop
rotation and its benefits.” Guide her in understanding and implementing crop rotation to improve farm
productivity.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 03 Page 7

28. “Political parties play a crucial role in a democracy.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

29. With the influx of foreign direct investment (FDI), India’s industrial sector has seen substantial growth and
modernization. Consequently, FDI has become a key driver of India’s economic development. Why has
foreign direct investment become so significant in India? Support your answer by giving any three
reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The Treaty of Vienna depicted the spirit of conservatism.’ Substantiate the statement with key features of
the treaty.

OR

‘The Industrial Revolution played a crucial role in the rise of nationalism in Europe.’ Explain the statement with
relevant points.

31. Ravi’s village is located near a coal mine, and he is concerned about its environmental impact. What are
the environmental consequences of coal mining, and how can these be mitigated?

OR

Meena observes that the use of renewable energy is increasing in her town. What are the benefits of
renewable energy sources, and why should they be promoted over non-renewable resources?

32. ‘Democracy is expected to produce a responsive and accountable government.’ Explain how democracy
ensures accountability.

OR

‘The outcomes of democracy must be measured in terms of both political and social indicators.’ Analyse the
broader outcomes of democracy.

33. Miss X wants to improve the economic condition of her village. She strongly believes that human
development is a key factor for sustained growth. How can investments in education, healthcare, and

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 social services contribute to the overall development of her region, and how can this improvement lead to
economic progress? Provide examples and reasons to support your answer.

OR

Mr. P, from a well-developed city, moves to a rural area and finds that despite economic growth, basic
amenities like clean water and schools are lacking. How does this reflect the concept of development? Suggest
ways to improve development in such areas, focusing on both economic and social factors.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 03 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

Mahatma Gandhi returned to India in January 1915. As you know, he had come from South Africa where he
had successfully fought the racist-regime with a novel method of mass agitation, which he called satyagaha. It
suggested that if the cause was true, if the struggle was against injustice, then physical force was not necessary
to fight the oppressor. Without seeking vengeance or being aggressive, a satyagrahi could win the battle
through non-violence.

On l3 April a large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwalla Bagh. Some came to protest against
the government’s new repressive measures. Other had come to attend the annual Baisakhi fair. Being from
outside the city, many villagers were unaware of the martial law that had been imposed. Dyer entered the
area, blocked the exit points, and opened fire on the crowd killing hundreds.

The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands of students left government-
controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned and lawyers gave up their legal practices.
The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras.

Questions :

1. What do you mean by the idea of Satyagraha?

2. By which episode most of the people gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh?

3. Which movement was talking about in the paragraph? What does it mean to the people?

35. Read the given case and answer the questions that follow :

Challenges faced by the Jute industry include stiff competition in the international market from synthetic
substitutes and from other competitors like Bangladesh, Brazil, Philippines, Egypt and Thailand. However, the
internal demand has been on the increase due to the Government policy of mandatory use of jute packaging.
To stimulate demand, the products need to be diversified. In 2005, National Jute Policy was formulated with the
objective of increasing productivity, improving quality, ensuring good prices to the jute farmers and enhancing
the yield per hectare. The main markets are U.S.A., Canada, Russia, United Arab Republic, U.K. and Australia.
The growing global concern for environment friendly, biodegradable materials, has once again opened the
opportunity for jute products.

Questions :

1. Mention any two challenges faced by ‘jute industry’ in India.

2. What was the main objective of National Jute Policy formulated in 2005 ?

3. How has jute industry once again opened the new opportunities for its products ?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 03 Page 9

36. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure
dominance over government by virtue of their majority. As a result, the democratically elected government
adopted a series of MAJORITARIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. In 1956, an Act was passed to
recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil.

The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official language, for
regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs. But their demand for more
autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied. By 1980’s several political organisations
were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelam (state) in northern and eastern parts of Sri Lanka.

The Belgian leaders took a different path. They recognised the existence of regional differences and cultural
diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to work out an
arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country. The arrangement they
worked out is different from any other country and is very innovative.

Questions:

1. Which act recognises the Sinhala as the only official language?

2. Who launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official language?

3. How many time Belgium amended their constitution?

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

(A) The place where Indian National Congress session was held in December 1920.

(B) The place where Salt Law was broken by Mahatma Gandhi.

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable Symbols:

(i) Paradwip-Major Seaport

(ii) Noida-Software Technology Park (iii)Salem-Iron and Steel industry (iv)Kalpakkam-Nuclear Power Plant

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 03 NODIA

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 04 1
Sample Paper 04

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Identify the picture-

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (a) Tripitaka Korena (b) Diamond sutra

(c) Ukiyo (d) Jikji

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 04 NODIA

2. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence and select correct option.

1. Frederic Sorrieu prepared a series of 4 paintings.

2. French Revolution.

3. Napoleon was defeated.

4. Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed the king of united Italy. (a) 3, 4, 1, 2 (b) 2, 3, 1, 4

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

3. The Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 aimed to achieve which of the
following objectives?

(a) To demand complete independence through non-violent means and self-rule.

(b) To overthrow British rule by using armed rebellion and force.

(c) To promote cooperation between Indians and the British government for reforms.

(d) To negotiate for dominion status with limited self-government under British rule.

4. The ‘Silk Route’ was an important trade route that linked the East and the West. Which of the following
goods were commonly traded along the Silk Route?

1. Silk and spices

2. Precious metals like gold and silver

3. Slaves and textiles

4. Cotton and sugar

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

5. Which of the following crops is grown mainly in regions with high temperatures and heavy rainfall in
India?

(a) Wheat, which is suited for cooler climates and requires moderate rainfall.

(b) Rice, which thrives in areas with high temperatures and abundant water.

(c) Maize, which can grow in a variety of climates but requires moderate rainfall.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (d) Barley, which is primarily grown in cooler regions with low rainfall.

6. Minerals and energy resources are crucial for India’s development. Identify the correct statements.

1. Coal is the most abundant mineral resource in India.

2. India is the largest producer of bauxite in the world.

3. Petroleum is primarily extracted from the eastern regions of India.

4. Renewable energy sources are negligible in India’s energy mix.

Options:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 04 Page 3

7. Choose the correct option from columns A and B.

Column A Column B
A. Chandrapur Thermal power plant 1 Odisha
B. Mayurbhanj iron ore mines 2. Amarkantak
C. Kalol oil fields 3. Gujarat
D. Bauxite mines 4. Jharkhand
Option :

(a) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2 (b) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1

(c) A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1 (d) A - 3, B - 1, C -4, D - 2

8. Why are political parties considered essential for the functioning of a democracy?

(a) They concentrate power in the hands of a few leaders to ensure efficient governance.

(b) They provide a platform for representing diverse interests and forming governments.

(c) They eliminate the need for elections by controlling all aspects of governance.

(d) They focus solely on maintaining law and order without engaging in policy-making.

9. Democracy provides people with the opportunity to choose their representatives. Which of the following
are outcomes of democratic elections?

1. Free and fair elections

2. Choice of multiple political parties

3. Representation of all social groups

4. Government accountability to the people

Options :

(a) 1, 3, and 4 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

10. Which principle ensures that no single branch of government in India becomes too powerful, thereby
maintaining a balance of power?

(a) Federalism (b) Separation of Powers

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(c) Judicial Review (d) Parliamentary Sovereignty

11. Federalism allows for the division of powers between different levels of government. Which of the
following subjects fall under the State List in India’s federal system?

1. Police and public order

2. Defense and foreign affairs

3. Agriculture

4. Communication

Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) 2 and 3

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 04 NODIA

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Indian Constitution provides for the abolition of untouchability.

Statement II: Discrimination based on caste is still prevalent in many parts of India despite constitutional
provisions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. In India, the Election Commission is responsible for recognizing political parties as either

parties or regional parties based on their performance in elections.

(a) National (b) Parliamentary

(c) State (d) Local

14. Which of the following indicators is commonly used to measure the economic development of a country
by assessing its overall wealth and standard of living?

(a) Gross Domestic Product (GDP), which calculates the total economic output.

(b) Literacy Rate, which measures the educational attainment of the population.

(c) Life Expectancy, which indicates the average lifespan of citizens.

(d) Human Development Index (HDI), which combines multiple social and economic factors.

15. The three sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, and tertiary) are interdependent. Which of the
following statements about the Indian economy are correct?

1. The primary sector includes agriculture and related activities.

2. The tertiary sector provides services like education and healthcare.

3. The secondary sector produces raw materials for the primary sector.

4. The tertiary sector is the largest employer in India.

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2, and 4 (d) 3 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 16. In modern economies, most transactions are made using money, such as currency notes and bank
deposits, which are widely accepted as a medium of exchange.

(a) Barter (b) Commodity

(c) Plastic (d) Paper

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Globalization leads to increased interconnectedness of economies around the world.

Statement II: Globalization has no impact on cultural exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 04 Page 5

18. Match the following and choose correct option:

Problems faced by farming sector Some possible measures

1. Unirrigated land A. a Setting up agro-based mills
2. Low prices for crops B. b Cooperative marketing societies
3. Debt burden C. c Procurement of food grains by government
4. No job in the off season D. d Construction of canals by the government
5. Compelled to sell their grains to the local E. e Banks to provide credit with low interest
traders soon after harvest
(a) 1-A 2-B 3-C 4-D 5-E

(b) 1-D 2-C 3-E 4-A 5-B

(c) 1-C 2-D 3-E 4-A 5-B

(d) 1-B 2-C 3-E 4-D 5-A

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why do tropical deciduous forests cover 35% of the total forest cover?

(a) These forests are found in high-altitude regions.

(b) They shed their leaves in the dry season.

(c) They are found in the coastal areas.

(d) They are mostly located in desert regions.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

State Wheat Production (in tons per hectare) Rice Production (in tons per hectare)
E 3 4.5
F 2.5 6
Why does state F have higher rice production compared to wheat production?

(a) It has better soil for rice cultivation.

(b) It has fewer farmers involved in wheat farming.

(c) It lacks rice cultivation techniques.

(d) It has poor irrigation facilities.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 04 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Gutenberg’s printing press revolutionized information dissemination.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

OR

“The printing press played a crucial role in the Reformation.” Explain how the printing press influenced the
Protestant Reformation.

22. “Green Revolution transformed Indian agriculture.” Explain its impact.

23. “Political parties are essential for democratic functioning.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

24. “Globalization has led to greater interdependence among nations.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Since the economic liberalization in 1991, India’s trade with other countries has increased significantly,
enhancing export and import activities. As a result, international trade has become a vital part of India’s
economy. Why has international trade become so important for India’s economy? Support your answer by
giving any three reasons.

26. “The French Revolution created a sense of national unity and identity.” Explain the statement by giving
suitable examples.

27. “Arun is exploring investment opportunities in the mining sector but is unsure about the key minerals
found in his region.” Help him identify the major minerals available in his area and their potential uses.

OR

“Nisha wants to set up a small-scale energy plant using renewable resources. She is unfamiliar with the types of
renewable energy suitable for her location.” Guide her in identifying the most appropriate renewable energy
sources for her area based on local conditions.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
28. “Democracy promotes equality among citizens.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 04 Page 7

29. In the last few decades, India has made significant progress in reducing poverty levels through various
government initiatives. As a result, poverty alleviation has become a major focus in India’s development
agenda. Why is poverty alleviation crucial for India’s overall development? Support your answer by giving
any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The Partition of Bengal ignited the nationalist movement in India.’ Substantiate the statement with key
features.

OR

‘The Non-Cooperation Movement was a significant phase in India’s struggle for independence.’ Justify the
statement with suitable arguments.

31. Sunil notices that industries in his town are polluting the nearby river. What are the environmental
impacts of industrial pollution, and what steps can industries take to reduce pollution?

OR

Rani’s town is known for its textile industry, but many workers face poor working conditions. What are the
challenges faced by workers in the manufacturing sector, and how can their working conditions be improved?

32. ‘Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy.’ Analyse the statement with relevant points.

OR

‘Belgium’s model of power sharing helped to avoid a civil war.’ Justify this statement with suitable examples.

33. Miss X is interested in understanding why the tertiary sector has grown faster than the primary and
secondary sectors in recent years. Explain the reasons for the rapid growth of the tertiary sector,
particularly in services like IT, healthcare, and education, and how this shift has impacted the Indian
economy.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
OR

Ramesh, a fisherman (primary sector), sells his catch to traders who process and package it (secondary sector),
and then it’s sold in urban markets (tertiary sector). How do these sectors interact, and what role does each
play in the economy?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 04 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :

The exchange of goods among people, states and countries is referred to as trade. The market is the place
where such exchanges take place. Trade between two countries is called international trade. It may take place
through sea, air or land routes. While local trade is carried in cities, towns and villages, state level trade is
carried between two or more states. Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its
economic prosperity. It is, therefore, considered the economic barometer for a country.

As the resources are space bound, no country can survive without international trade. Export and import are
the components of trade. The balance of trade of a country is the difference between its export and import.
When the value of export exceeds the value of imports, it is called a favourable balance of trade. On the
contrary, if the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, it is termed as unfavourable balance of trade.

India has trade relations with all the major trading blocks and all geographical regions of the world. The
commodities exported from India to other countries include gems and jewellery, chemicals and related
products, agriculture and allied products, etc.

The commodities imported to India include petroleum crude and products, gems and jewellery, chemicals and
related products, base metals, electronic items, machinery, agriculture and allied products. India has emerged
as a software giant at the international level and it is earning large foreign exchange through the export of
information technology.

Questions :

1. What do you mean by international trade?

2. What is meant by favourable and unfavourable balance of trade?

3. What are the commodities export and imported by India in international trade?

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion. The processes of
soil formation and erosion go on simultaneously and generally there is a balance between the two. Sometimes,
this balance is disturbed due to human activities like deforestation, over-grazing, construction and mining etc.,
while natural forces like wind, glacier and water lead to soil erosion. The running water cuts through the clayey
soils and makes deep channels as gullies. The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land. In
the Chambal basin such lands are called ravines. Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large areas down a
slope. In such cases the top soil is washed away. This is known as sheet erosion. Wind blows loose soil off flat or
sloping land known as wind erosion. Soil erosion is also caused due to defective methods of farming. Ploughing
in a wrong way i.e. up and down the slope form channels for the quick flow of water leading to soil erosion.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes. This is called contour
ploughing. Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces. Terrace cultivation restricts erosion. Western
and central Himalayas have well developed terrace farming. Large fields can be

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 04 Page 9

divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow between the crops. This breaks up the force of the wind. This
method is known as strip cropping. Planting lines of trees to create shelter also works in a similar way. Rows of
such trees are called shelter belts. These shelter belts have contributed significantly to the stabilisation of sand
dunes and in stabilising the desert in western India.

Questions:

1. The balance of soil formation and erosion is disturbed due to human activities. Give one example to
prove the statement.

2. What is soil conservation?

3. Differentiate between gully erosion and sheet erosion.

36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :

DECENTRALISATION IN INDIA

This new system of local government is the largest experiment in democracy conducted anywhere in the world.
There are now about 36 lakh elected representatives in the panchayats and municipalities etc., all over the
country. This number is bigger then the population of many countries in the world. Constitutional status for
local government has helped to deepen democracy in our country. It has also increased women’s
representation and voice in our democracy. At the same time, there are many difficulties. While elections
are held regularly of Panchayats and people participate enthusiastically in it but meetings of gram sabhas are
not held regularly.

Questions :

1. Why is Indian decentralisation considered as the largest experiment in democracy ?

2. Analyse how constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy in India ?

3. Explain any two steps taken by the Indian Government for decentralisation.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the lines drawn near them.

A. The location of the Indian National Congress Session of 1927.

B. A place where Gandhiji ceremonially violated the Salt Law and manufactured salt by boiling salt
sea water.
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 04 NODIA

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

C. A major port on the South-East coast of India.

D. A major sugarcane producing state.

E. A Software Technology Park

F. A major dam in Odisha.

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 05 1
Sample Paper 05

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Study the picture and answer the following question-

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Who designed the cover of German almanac?

(a) Otto von Bismarck (b) Andreas Rebmann

(c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Napoleon

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 05 NODIA

2. Arrange the following events in the ascending year of their occurrence :-

1. Poona Act

2. Mahatma Gandhi got arrested

3. Gandhi Irwin Pact

4. Bhagat singh and two others were sentenced to death

Options :

(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1

(c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. The Great Depression of 1929 had a devastating impact on the global economy. Which was a primary
cause?

(a) The collapse of the stock market in the United States, leading to economic instability worldwide.

(b) The end of colonialism, which disrupted trade and investment between Europe and Asia.

(c) The rapid industrialization of Africa and South America, which caused a decline in European markets.

(d) The invention of steam engines, which reduced demand for labor in Europe and the US.

4. In colonial India, print culture played a significant role in spreading nationalist ideas. Which of the
following contributed to the growth of print culture in India?

1. Establishment of printing presses in the 19th century

2. Growth of vernacular languages

3. Rise of reform movements

4. Suppression of political dissent by the British

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

5. Which of the following is a conventional source of energy that is widely used for generating electricity in
India?

(a) Wind energy, which is a renewable source of energy.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (b) Coal, which is a fossil fuel and the main source of electricity generation.

(c) Solar energy, which is increasingly being used in some regions.

(d) Biomass energy, which is derived from organic matter.

6. Manufacturing industries are essential for India’s economic growth. Identify the correct statements.

1. The textile industry is one of the oldest and largest manufacturing sectors in India.

2. The automobile industry in India primarily produces vehicles for domestic consumption only.

3. Small-scale industries contribute significantly to employment in India.

4. Information technology is not considered a part of manufacturing industries.

Options:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 05 Page 3

7. Match the following items given in column-I with those in column-II. Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below :

Column-I Column-II
A. Contour ploughing 1. Planting lines of trees.
B. Strip cropping 2. Western and Eastern Himalaya.
C. Shelter belts 3. Grass are left to grow between crops.
D. Terrace cultivation 4. Decelerate the flow of water
Option :

(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2

(b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2

(c) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1

(d) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

8. Which of the following is a positive outcome of democracy in India?

(a) Increased political participation and representation of diverse groups.

(b) Concentration of power in the hands of a few individuals.

(c) Suppression of dissenting voices and opposition parties.

(d) Limited access to education and healthcare services.

9. Power-sharing is an essential feature of democracy. Which of the following statements about power-
sharing are correct?

1. Power is concentrated in the hands of the majority.

2. Power is shared among different levels of government.

3. Power-sharing helps reduce the possibility of conflict in society.

4. Power is divided equally among all citizens.

Options :

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 10. Which list in the Indian Constitution contains subjects on which only the central government can
legislate?

(a) State List (b) Concurrent List

(c) Union List (d) Regional List

11. Religious diversity is a defining characteristic of India. Which of the following statements about secularism
in India are correct?

1. The government recognizes one religion as the official religion.

2. The state treats all religions equally.

3. Citizens are free to practice any religion.

4. Religious communities are required to follow government-imposed practices.

Options :

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 05 NODIA

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Political parties are essential for the functioning of a democracy.

Statement II: All political parties in India must be registered under the Representation of the People Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. One of the key outcomes of democracy is the promotion of equality, where every adult citizen has the
right to vote regardless of their social or economic status.

(a) Political (b) Economic

(c) Religious (d) Gender

14. How does the secondary sector contribute to the Indian economy?

(a) By providing services such as education, healthcare, and banking.

(b) By transforming raw materials into finished goods through manufacturing and construction.

(c) By engaging in activities related to information technology and research.

(d) By focusing on agricultural production and resource extraction.

15. Credit plays an important role in the economy by providing financial resources to individuals and
businesses. Which of the following are advantages of taking credit?

1. Ability to purchase expensive goods and services

2. Increased ability to start or expand a business

3. No need to pay back the borrowed amount

4. Greater financial flexibility

Options :

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2, and 4

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 16. Multinational corporations (MNCs) are a key driver of globalization, as they operate in multiple countries
and often establishin developing nations to reduce production costs.

(a) Offices(b) Industries

(c) Subsidiaries (d) Supply chains

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Human Development Index (HDI) measures economic development only. Statement II: HDI
includes indicators such as life expectancy, education, and per capita income. Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 05 Page 5

18. Match the words in column A with suitable options in column B.

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’

A. Silk routes 1. Institution set-up to finance postwar reconstruction.
B. G-77 2. Carnival in Trinidad
C. Canal colonies 3. Pre-modern trade links
D. World Bank 4. Countries demanding a new international economic order
E. Hosay 5. Semi-desert wastes in the Punjab transformed by irrigation
(a) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2. E - 5

(b) A - 3, B - 4, C - 5, D - 1, E - 2

(c) A - 3, B - 4, C - 5, D - 1, E - 2

(d) A - 5, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1, E - 2

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

What is the significance of 50 percent of the land being used for wildlife sanctuaries?

(a) It helps in the conservation of biodiversity.

(b) It is primarily used for agricultural purposes.

(c) It promotes urban development.

(d) It is used for grazing livestock.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

State Coal Production (in million tons) Iron Ore Production (in million tons)
G 15 20
H 10 25
Why does state H have higher iron ore production than coal production?

(a) It has more iron ore reserves.

(b) It has a higher demand for coal.

(c) It lacks the technology for coal mining.

(d) It imports iron ore from other states.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 05 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Napoleon played a crucial role in spreading nationalist ideas across Europe.” Explain how Napoleon
contributed to European nationalism.

OO

“Unification of Germany was largely driven by nationalist movements.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

22. “Coal is a vital energy resource in India.” Explain its significance.

23. “Democracy ensures accountability of the government.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

24. “Poverty is the most serious obstacle to development.” Explain why this is true.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Between 1980 and 2020, India’s healthcare facilities have expanded, resulting in improved health
outcomes and increased life expectancy. Consequently, the healthcare sector has become a key
component of India’s development. Why has the healthcare sector become so vital in India’s development
process? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

26. “Mahatma Gandhi’s leadership transformed the nature of the Indian national movement.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.

27. “Rahul wants to start a small-scale garment manufacturing unit. However, he is unfamiliar with the raw
materials and machinery required.” Assist him in identifying the essential raw materials and machinery
needed for garment manufacturing.

OO

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
“Sneha plans to establish an automobile assembly plant but lacks knowledge about the critical factors for
setting up such an industry.” Guide her in identifying the key factors necessary for establishing a successful
automobile assembly plant.

28. “Power sharing is necessary to prevent dictatorship.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 05 Page 7

29. With the advent of information technology, the IT sector in India has experienced significant growth,
attracting foreign investments. Consequently, the IT sector has become a key driver of India’s economic
development. Why has the IT sector become so influential in India’s economy? Support your answer by
giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. The Industrial Revolution transformed the global economy.’ Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

OO

‘The Scramble for Africa was a direct consequence of European imperialism.’ Substantiate the statement with
key features.

31. Ravi notices that many rivers in his region are highly polluted. What are the main causes of water
pollution, and what measures can be taken to control it?

OO

Rani sees that a nearby dam project has displaced many families. What are the advantages and disadvantages
of large dam projects, and how can displacement issues be addressed?

32. ‘Federalism promotes unity while respecting diversity.’ Analyse this statement with relevant points.

OO

‘India’s federal structure is unique due to its union of states.’ Explain the features of Indian federalism.

33. Mr. Y is learning about the role of banks in the modern economy. How do commercial banks create credit,
and why is the availability of credit important for promoting investment and economic growth?

OO

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
A small business owner is denied a loan from a bank due to lack of collateral. How does the lack of formal
credit access affect small businesses, and what alternatives could help entrepreneurs get the credit they need?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 05 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:

Gutenberg was the son of a merchant and grew up on a large agricultural estate. From his childhood, he had
seen wine and olive presses. Subsequently, he learnt the art of polishing stones, became a master goldsmith,
and also acquired the expertise to create lead moulds used for making trinkets. Drawing on this knowledge,
Gutenberg adapted existing technology to design his innovation. The olive press provided the model for the
printing press, and moulds were used for casting the metal types for the letters of the alphabet. By 1448,
Gutenberg perfected the system. The first book he printed was the Bible. About 180 copies were printed and it
took three years to produce them. By the standards of the time this was fast production.

Questions:

1. Who was Gutenberg?

2. What were some of the professional skills acquired by Gutenberg?

3. What contribution was made by Gutenberg in the field of press?

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion. The processes of
soil formation and erosion, go on simultaneously, and generally there is balance between the two.

Sometimes, this balance is disturbed due to human activities like deforestation, over-grazing, construction and
mining, etc. While natural forces like wind, glacier and water lead to soil erosion, the running water cuts
through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies.

The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land. In the Chambal basin, such lands are called
ravines. Sometimes, water flows as sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases the top soil is washed
away. This is known as sheet erosion.

Wind blows loose soil off flat or sloping land known as wind erosion. Soil erosion is also caused due to defective
methods of farming. Ploughing in a wrong way i.e. up and down the slope from channels for the quick flow of
water leading to soil erosion.

Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes. This is called contour
ploughing. Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces. Terrace cultivation restricts erosion. Western
and Central Himalayas have well developed terrace farming. Large field can be divided into strips. Strips of
grass are left to grow between the crops.

This breaks up the force of the wind. This method is known as strip cropping. Planting line of trees to create
shelter also works in similar way. Rows of such trees are called shelter belts. These shelter belts have
contributed significantly to the stabilisation of sand dunes and in stabilising the desert in Western India.

Questions :

1. Are humans responsible for soil erosion? If yes, How?

Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
2. What are the negative consequences of deforestation over soil erosion?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 05 Page 9

3. State any two positive and negative impacts of soil erosion on biodiversity.

36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :

How many languages do we have in India ? The answer depends on how one counts it. The latest information
that we have is from the Census of India held in 2011. This census recorded more than 1300 distinct languages
which people mentioned as their mother tongues. These languages were grouped together under some major
languages. For example languages like Bhojpuri, Magadhi, Bundelkhandi, Chhattisgarhi, Rajasthani and many
others were grouped together under ‘Hindi’. Even after this grouping, the Census found 121 major languages.
Of these 22 languages are now included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and are therefore
called ‘Scheduled Languages’. Others are called ‘Non-Scheduled Languages’. In terms of languages, India is
perhaps the most diverse country in the world.

Questions :

1. Explain the importance of language diversity in India.

2. Differentiate between Scheduled and Non-Scheduled Languages.

3. The fusion of languages has united the country into one cultural entity.’ Explain the statement with an
example.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

(A) Peasant Satyagrah in Gujarat.

(B) Jallianwalla Bagh incident

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any 3 of the following with suitable symbols.

(i) A place where Arid soil is found

(ii) Tungabhadra Dam

(iii)Largest producer of tea in India. (iv)Mumbai High

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 05 NODIA

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 06 1
Sample Paper 06

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Study the following picture and choose the correct option :

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) Women were neither encouraged nor allowed to join national freedom movement.

(b) For the first time women joined nationalist processions in masses.

(c) Britishers were not very much concerned about such movements.

(d) Women were forced to join the freedom movements.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 06 NODIA

2. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence-

1. The great depression on the Indian economy

2. The death of men of working-age in Europe because of the world war

3. The British government’s decision to abolish the corn laws

4. The decision of MNCs to relocate production to Asian countries

Options :

(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 1, 1, 3, 4

(c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. The print revolution played a key role in spreading Reformation ideas in Europe during the 16th century.
How did this happen?

(a) Reformers printed books and pamphlets that reached a large audience, promoting their views.

(b) The Church used printing to suppress Reformation ideas and prevent public discussion.

(c) Reformers discouraged the use of printing, relying solely on oral debates.

(d) Printing limited the spread of Reformation ideas to only a few educated elites.

4. The unification of Germany is considered one of the key events in 19th-century European history. Which
of the following events is associated with the unification of Germany?

1. The leadership of Otto von Bismarck

2. The defeat of Napoleon III

3. The Congress of Vienna

4. The Treaty of Versailles Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

5. Which of the following industries is known as the backbone of industrial development in India?

(a) Information Technology industry, focused on software services.

(b) Iron and steel industry, which provides raw materials for other industries.

(c) Textile industry, which is important but not the backbone.

(d) Cement industry, which is vital but not the backbone of development.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 6. The following are characteristics of Kharif crops in India. Identify the correct statements.

1. Kharif crops are sown during the monsoon season.

2. Examples include rice, maize, and cotton.

3. They require minimal rainfall and are drought-resistant.

4. Harvesting typically occurs between March and June.

Options:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 06 Page 3

7. Choose the incorrect option from column A and column B.

Column A Column B

(a) Landless rural labourers More days of work and better wages
(b) Prosperous farmers from Punjab Availability of other sources of irrigation
(c) Farmers who depend only on rain for growing Assured a higher support prices for their crops
crops
(d) A rural woman from a land owning family Regular job and high wages to increase her
income

8. In the context of power sharing, what role does the judiciary play in maintaining the balance of power in
India?

(a) It executes laws and ensures that governmental actions comply with the Constitution.

(b) It creates laws and manages the legislative processes within the government.

(c) It interprets laws and acts as a check on the executive and legislative branches.

(d) It oversees the financial management and economic policies of the government.

9. Federalism promotes decentralization of power. Which of the following statements are features of
federalism in India?

1. There are two levels of government – Union and State.

2. The Constitution divides powers between different levels of government.

3. Only the central government has the authority to make laws.

4. Local governments are the most powerful level of government.

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

10. How does Religious Pluralism contribute to the social fabric of India?

(a) By encouraging the dominance of one religion over others.

(b) By fostering mutual respect and coexistence among diverse religious communities.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (c) By eliminating all religious differences and promoting secularism exclusively.

(d) By segregating different religious groups to prevent conflict.

11. India has both national and regional political parties. Which of the following are examples of national
political parties in India?

1. Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)

2. Indian National Congress (INC)

3. Shiv Sena

4. Communist Party of India (CPI)

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 06 NODIA

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Regular elections are a feature of a democratic system.

Statement II: Authoritarian regimes also conduct regular free and fair elections. Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. In Sri Lanka, the government adopted a policy, which gave preferential treatment to the Sinhala-
speaking majority, leading to tensions with the Tamil-speaking minority.

(a) Federal (b) Majoritarian

(c) Secular (d) Liberal

14. What is the primary function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in regulating money supply?

(a) To distribute currency notes to commercial banks and the public.

(b) To set interest rates, control inflation, and manage the country’s monetary policy.

(c) To provide loans to individual customers and businesses directly.

(d) To oversee foreign exchange transactions and international trade agreements.

15. Multinational corporations (MNCs) play a significant role in the process of globalization. Which of the
following are characteristics of MNCs?

1. They operate in multiple countries.

2. They produce goods only in their home countries.

3. They invest in foreign economies.

4. They focus on local markets only.

Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 16. Development for some may mean achieving a high income, while for others, it may mean greater access
to facilities such as health and education.

(a) Economic (b) Basic

(c) Employment (d) Agricultural

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The secondary sector deals with the production of services.

Statement II: The secondary sector includes industries like manufacturing and construction. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 06 Page 5

18. Match the following items given in column A with those in column B. Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :

Column A Column B
A. Rashsundari Debi 1. Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal
B. Sudarshan Chakra 2. Kesari
C. Kashibaba 3. Amar Jiban
D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak 4. Sacchi Kavitayen
Options

(a) A – 4, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2 (b) A – 4, B – 1, C – 2, D – 3

(c) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4 (d) A – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

What is the importance of 45 percent land under reserved forests?

(a) It is used for growing timber for commercial use.

(b) It is primarily reserved for wildlife protection.

(c) It is left unused for future land development.

(d) It is mostly used for urban development.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 Country Per Capita Income (in USD) Life Expectancy (in years)
X 2000 65
Y 15000 78
Why does country Y have a higher life expectancy compared to country X?

(a) It lacks industrial development.

(b) It has low population density.

(c) It has better healthcare facilities.

(d) It has higher birth rates.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 06 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Mahatma Gandhi’s principles were essential for India’s independence.” Explain how Gandhi’s philosophy
contributed to India’s freedom movement.

OO

“The Swadeshi movement was a significant phase in Indian nationalism.” Justify this statement with suitable
arguments.

22. “The textile industry is a major sector in India.” Explain its significance.

23. “The concept of cooperative federalism strengthens the unity of India.” Explain why cooperative
federalism is important.

24. “The secondary sector is the backbone of industrialization in India.” Explain why this is true.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Between 1980 and 2020, India’s agricultural productivity has increased due to modern farming
techniques. Consequently, agriculture remains a crucial sector in India’s economy. Why does the
agricultural sector continue to play a vital role in India’s economy? Support your answer by giving any
three reasons.

26. “The Columbian Exchange had profound impacts on the global economy and societies.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.

27. “Geeta is concerned about water scarcity in her village. She wants to implement measures to conserve
and efficiently use water resources.” Assist her in identifying effective water conservation and
management strategies for her village.

OO

“Ramesh intends to start a fishery business but is unsure about the water quality parameters essential for
successful fish farming.” Help him identify the crucial water quality parameters necessary for fish farming.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
28. “Federalism allows for diversity in governance.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 06 Page 7

29. In recent years, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has implemented various monetary policies to control
inflation and stabilize the economy. Consequently, RBI’s role has become central to India’s financial
stability. Why is the RBI’s role so crucial in India’s economy? Support your answer by giving any three
reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. Print media played a significant role in the dissemination of revolutionary ideas.’ Justify the statement
with suitable arguments.

OO

‘The spread of education was facilitated by the growth of print culture.’ Substantiate the statement with key
features.

31. ChapRohit’s village faces severe soil erosion due to deforestation. What can be the reasons behind this
issue, and suggest five ways to manage the land resources to prevent further degradation.

OO

Seema observes that different states in India have varied land use patterns. Identify five factors that influence
the land use pattern in a particular region.

32. ‘The Indian Constitution guarantees equal rights for all citizens irrespective of gender, religion, or caste.’
Explain how the Constitution ensures equality.

OO

‘Caste inequalities have been reduced but not eliminated in India.’ Analyse the current status of caste-based
inequalities in India.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 33. Mr. Y is researching the role of multinational companies (MNCs) in India’s economy. How do MNCs
contribute to the globalization process and economic growth by bringing in foreign investment,
technology, and employment opportunities?

OO

A multinational company sets up a manufacturing plant in India, employing local workers. How does foreign
direct investment (FDI) impact local businesses and job creation, and what are the pros and cons of such
investments?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 06 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

The Civil Code of 1804 – usually known as the Napoleonic Code – did away with all privileges based on birth,
established equality before the law and secured the right to property. This Code was exported to the regions
under French control. In the Dutch Republic, in Switzerland, in Italy and Germany, Napoleon simplified
administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues. In
the towns too, guild restrictions were removed. Transport and communication systems were improved.
Peasants, artisans, workers and new businessmen enjoyed a new-found freedom.

In Western and parts of Central Europe the growth of industrial production and trade meant the growth of
towns and the emergence of commercial classes whose existence was based on production for the market.
Industrialisation began in England in the second half of the eighteenth century, but in France and parts of the
German states it occurred only during the nineteenth century. In its wake, new social groups came into being: a
working-class population, and middle classes made up of industrialists, businessmen, professionals.

Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism.
Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society

– like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should be preserved. Most
conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realised,
from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like
the monarchy.

Questions :

1. What was the core concept of the Napoleonic Code?

2. Who were the new middle class in Europe?

3. What do you meant by conservatism?

35. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:

Conservation strategies are not new in our country. We often ignore that in India, forests are also home to
some of the traditional communities. In some areas of India, local communities are struggling to conserve these
habitats along with government officials, recognising that only this will secure their own long-term livelihood.
In Sariska Tiger Reserve, Rajasthan, villagers have fought against mining by citing the Wildlife Protection Act. In
many areas, villagers themselves are protecting habitats and explicitly rejecting government involvement. The
inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district of Rajasthan have declared 1,200 hectares of forest as the
Bhairodev Dakav ‘ Sonchuri’ , declaring their own set of rules and regulations which do not allow hunting, and
are protecting the wildlife against any outside encroachments.

Questions :

1. How are forests related with Communities?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
2. Explain the aim of ‘Wildlife Protection Act.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 06 Page 9

3. How are communities working for the conservation of Wildlife ? Explain with example.

“Habitat destruction, hunting, poaching, over-exploitation, environmental pollution, poisoning and forest fires
are factors, which have led to the decline in India’s biodiversity. Other important causes of environmental
destruction are unequal access, inequitable consumption of resources and differential sharing of responsibility
for environmental well-being. Over-population in third world countries is often cited as the cause of
environmental degradation.”

Questions:

1. How has destruction of forests and wildlife affected the indigenous and other forest dependent
communities?

2. Why the conservation of forests and wildlife is valuable for human beings .?

36. Read the passage, observe the image given below and answer the questions that follow.

The cartoon above refers to the problems of running Germany’s grand coalition government that includes the
country’s two major parties, namely the Christian Democratic Union and the Social Democratic Party. The two
parties are rivals to each other. They had to form a coalition government because neither of them got a clear
majority of seats on their own in the 2005 elections. They take divergent positions on several policy matters but
jointly run the government.

Questions :

1. Which disadvantage of coalition governments is the image highlighting?

2. Why did the rival parties choose to make a coalition despite being rivals?

3. How does a democratic system, at times, cause such a challenge?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 06 NODIA

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on that given outline map of India. Identify them and write their
correct names on the lines drawn near them.

A. A place where Civil Disobedience Movement started.

B. A place where Gandhiji went to organise a Satyagraha Movement amongst cotton mill workers.

(b) On the same map of India, locate and label any three among the following with symbol.

C. Tehri Dam

D. Chennai Software Technology Park

E. Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 F. Narora Nuclear Power Plant

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 07 1
Sample Paper 07

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Study the picture and answer the following question :

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 07 NODIA

Transportation of meat from America to Europe was possible only after-

(a) Reducing the tax of transportation.

(b) Development of a new technology namely, refrigerated ships.

(c) After exporting less amount of meat at a time.

(d) Exporting small animals on the place of bigger ones.

2. Arrange the following books in the ascending order of the dates of their publication-

1. ‘Kesari’ written by Balgangadhar Tilak.

2. ‘Gulamgiri’ written by Jyotiba Phule.

3. 1st printed edition of ‘The Ramcharitmanas of Tulsidas’.

4. ‘The Sambad Kaumudi’ published by Ram Mohan Roy.

Option:

(a) 3, 1, 2, 4 (b) 3, 4, 2, 1

(c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

3. Who was the primary leader responsible for the unification of Germany through the policy of ‘blood and
iron’ ?

(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi, an Italian nationalist leader.

(b) Otto von Bismarck, the Chancellor of Prussia who led German unification.

(c) Napoleon Bonaparte, the French Emperor who sought European dominance.

(d) Victor Emmanuel II, the King of Sardinia-Piedmont and later Italy.

4. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre of 1919 was a turning point in India’s struggle for independence. Which of
the following were immediate consequences of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre?

1. End of the Rowlatt Satyagraha

2. Strengthening of nationalist sentiments

3. Formation of the Khilafat Committee

4. Call for complete independence from British rule

Options :
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 2, 3, and 4 (d) 1, 3, and 4

5. Which river in India is considered to be the most polluted, facing serious challenges due to industrial
and domestic waste?

(a) The Brahmaputra, which flows through northeastern India and faces some pollution challenges.

(b) The Yamuna, which flows through the city of Delhi and is heavily polluted by sewage and industrial
waste.

(c) The Narmada, which is used for irrigation and has relatively clean waters compared to other rivers.

(d) The Godavari, which is primarily used for irrigation but does not face serious pollution issues.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 07 Page 3

6. Conservation of forest is essential for maintaining ecological balance and supporting human livelihoods. In
India, one of the key practices undertaken in this direction is Joint Forest Management (JFM). Identify the
correct information related to Joint Forest Management.

1. It involves local communities in the management and restoration of degraded forests.

2. The programme has been in formal existence since 1980.

3. Jharkhand passed the first resolution for Joint Forest Management.

4. The members of local village communities are entitled to intermediary benefits like non-timber forest
products.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

7. Match the following and choose correct option.

List I (Types) ListII (Method)

A. Terrace farming 1. Different crops grown parallely
B. Strip cropping 2. Hill slopes are used as cultivable land in the form of flat cut
regions of slope
C. Contour ploughing 3. Along the slope of mountain
D. Crop rotation 4. Different crops grown in systematic succession
(a) A−1, B−4, C−3, D−2 (b) A−3, B−4, C−1, D−2

(c) A−4, B−1, C−3, D−2 (d) A−2, B−1, C−3, D−4

8. How does the Indian Constitution ensure a balance of power between the central and state governments?

(a) By granting all legislative powers to the central government and ignoring state jurisdictions.

(b) By dividing powers through Union, State, and Concurrent Lists, clearly outlining each level’s
responsibilities.

(c) By allowing states to create their own constitutions independent of the central government.

(d) By centralizing all executive powers in the hands of the Prime Minister and the central cabinet.

9. Caste has played an important role in Indian politics. Which of the following are examples of caste-based
political mobilization?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 1. Political parties appealing to specific caste groups for votes

2. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in legislatures

3. Campaigns promoting caste discrimination

4. Political parties ignoring caste issues

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 07 NODIA

10. How do political parties contribute to the policy-making process in a democracy?

(a) They implement policies without considering public opinion or needs.

(b) They formulate and propose policies that reflect their ideologies and the interests of their supporters.

(c) They restrict policy-making to the executive branch, excluding legislative input.

(d) They focus only on electoral campaigns and do not engage in policy development.

11. Democracies aim to reduce inequalities in society. Which of the following are examples of social outcomes
of democracy?

1. Equal access to public services like healthcare and education

2. Representation of marginalized groups in decision-making

3. Discrimination based on social class

4. Freedom of expression and thought

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, power is shared between the Union and the States.

Statement II: The Union Government has absolute power over the States without any restrictions. Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. Federalism allows for multiple levels of government to exist, with power shared between the central
government and governments in India.

(a) Panchayat (b) District

(c) State (d) City

14. How has foreign direct investment (FDI) influenced the industrial sector in India?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (a) FDI has led to the decline of Indian industries by promoting foreign ownership exclusively.

(b) FDI has provided capital, technology, and management expertise, fostering growth in Indian
industries.

(c) FDI has had no significant impact on the development of Indian industries.

(d) FDI has restricted the growth of Indian industries by imposing stringent regulations.

15. The Human Development Index (HDI) is an important indicator of development. Which of the following
are components of the HDI?

1. Life expectancy at birth

2. Gross national income (GNI) per capita

3. Educational attainment

4. Infant mortality rate

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 07 Page 5

16. The contribution of the sector to India’s GDP has been steadily increasing over the years, reflecting its
importance in providing services such as banking, education, and IT.

(a) Primary (b) Industrial

(c) Secondary (d) Tertiary

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Inflation refers to the general increase in prices of goods and services over time. Statement II:
Deflation is the opposite of inflation and leads to a decrease in the general price level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

18. Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option from the following

I. Treaty of Constantinople

II. Defeat of Napoleon

III. Unification of Italy

IV. Unification of Germany

Options :

(a) I, II, IV and III (b) II, III, I and IV

(c) II, I, III and IV(d) IV, I, III and II

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Why does groundwater constitute 60 percent of water usage?

(a) It is more reliable than surface water.

(b) It is mainly used for urban areas.

(c) It is the only source available for agriculture.

(d) It requires less infrastructure for extraction.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 07 NODIA

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

Sector Contribution to GDP (in %) Employment Rate (in %)

Primary Sector 25 50
Secondary Sector 30 30
Tertiary Sector 45 20
Why does the tertiary sector have a higher contribution to GDP but lower employment?

(a) It is underdeveloped in rural areas.

(b) It is dependent on the primary sector.

(c) It lacks demand for services.

(d) It requires skilled labor and technology.

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “The Russian Revolution had a profound impact on global politics.” Explain how the Russian Revolution
influenced the world.

OR

“The interwar period saw the rise of totalitarian regimes.” Explain the factors that led to the emergence of
totalitarian governments in the interwar period.

22. “Monsoon is crucial for agriculture in India.” Discuss its importance.

23. “The division of powers in federalism ensures balanced governance.” Explain how the division of powers
achieves balance.

24. “Banking services are essential for economic development.” Explain why banking is important for the
economy.

SECTION - C

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. With the advent of digital payments, the use of electronic money has surged in India, reducing reliance on
cash transactions. Consequently, electronic money has become a pivotal aspect of India’s financial
landscape. Why has electronic money become so significant in India? Support your answer by giving any
three reasons.

26. “Print culture played a key role in the spread of Enlightenment ideas.” Explain the statement by giving
suitable examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 07 Page 7

27. “Anil has recently inherited a piece of land and wants to set up a solar power plant. However, he is unsure
about the factors that determine the suitability of his land for solar energy production.” Help him identify
the key factors that make his land suitable for a solar power plant.

OR

“Priya is planning to start a small-scale industry producing handmade textiles. She is uncertain about the
resources she needs to efficiently run her business.” Assist her in identifying the essential resources required
for her textile industry.

28. “Respecting religious diversity strengthens societal harmony.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

29. In recent years, the IT and software services sector in India has thrived due to globalization, serving clients
worldwide. As a result, the IT sector has become a major contributor to India’s economy. Why has the IT
sector benefited so much from globalization in India? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. Liberalism emphasized individual freedoms and rights.’ Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

OR

‘The French Revolution was a turning point for European nationalism.’ Substantiate this statement with key
events.

31. In Rina’s village, many animal species are becoming endangered due to deforestation. Identify three steps
the community and government can take to protect wildlife.

OR

Suresh observes that illegal logging is a major issue in his forested region. What are the potential impacts of
deforestation on biodiversity and climate, and suggest ways to prevent illegal logging.

32. ‘A multi-party system ensures a broader representation of people’s interests.’ Justify the advantages of a
multi-party system.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
OR

‘The lack of internal democracy in political parties is a major concern.’ Explain the need for internal democracy
within political parties.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 07 NODIA

33. Mr. Y argues that measuring development solely through per capita income is not sufficient to assess the
real progress of a country. Explain why relying only on per capita income is an incomplete measure of
development, and discuss the importance of other indicators like literacy rates, life expectancy, and
human development index (HDI) in giving a more holistic view of development.

OR

Two countries, X and Y, have the same per capita income. However, in X, most people have access to
healthcare, while in Y, healthcare is inadequate. How would you assess the development indicators of these
two countries, and why might Country X be considered more developed?

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

Against this background the new Tory government in Britain constituted a Statutory Commission under Sir John
Simon. Set up in response to the nationalist movement, the commission was to look into the functioning of the
constitutional system in India and suggest changes. The problem was that the commission did not have a single
Indian member. They were all British.

When the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928, it was greeted with the slogan ‘Go back Simon’. All
parties, including the Congress and the Muslim League, participated in the demonstrations. In an effort to win
them over, the viceroy, Lord Irwin, announced in October 1929, a vague offer of ‘dominion status’ for India in an
unspecified future, and a Round Table Conference to discuss a future constitution. This did not satisfy the
Congress leaders. The radicals within the Congress, led by Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose, became
more assertive.

The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax. Salt was something consumed by the rich and
the poor alike, and it was one of the most essential items of food. The tax on salt and the government
monopoly over its production, Mahatma Gandhi declared, revealed the most oppressive face of British rule.

Questions :

1. Why did Tory government set up Simon Commission?

2. Why did Lord Irwin announced dominion status?

3. Why did Gandhiji find in salt is a powerful symbol of unity?

35. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow :

In ancient India, along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures, there existed an extraordinary tradition of
water-harvesting system. People had an in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and soil types and developed
wide ranging techniques to harvest groundwater, rainwater, river water and flood water in keeping with the
local ecological conditions and their water needs. In hilly and mountainous regions, people built diversion
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
channels like the kuls and guls of Western Himalayas for agriculture. Rooftop rainwater harvesting was very
commonly practised to store drinking water, particularly in Rajasthan.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 07 Page 9

Questions :

1. Mention any two methods of traditional water-harvesting used in India.

2. How do people of Rajasthan utilise rainwater ?

3. Explain any two benefits of rainwater harvesting.

36. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

The recent efforts and suggestions in our country to reform political parties and its leaders:

The Constitution was amended to prevent elected MLAs and MPs from changing parties. This was done
because many elected representatives were indulging in Defection in order to become ministers or for cash
rewards. Now the law says that if any MLA or MP changes parties, he or she will lose the seat in the
Legislature.

This new law has helped bring defection down. At the same time this has made any dissent even more difficult.
MPs and MLAs have to accept whatever the party leaders decide. The Supreme Court passed an order to reduce
the influence of money and criminals. Now, it is mandatory for every candidate who contests elections to file an
Affidavit giving details of his property and criminal cases pending against him. It should be made mandatory
for political parties to give a minimum number of tickets, about one-third, to women candidates. Similarly,
there should be a quota for women in the decision making bodies of the party. There should be state funding of
elections. The government should give parties money to support their election expenses. This support could be
given in kind : petrol, paper, telephone etc. Or it could be given in cash on the basis of the votes secured by the
party in the last election.

Questions :

1. Explain the meaning of the term ‘Defection’ with reference to political party system of India.

2. Evaluate the significance of an Affidavit which is given by the candidate while contesting elections.

3. State any one suggestion which is made to reform the position of women in Indian political party
system. What is the significance of this suggestion?

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two features (A) and (B) are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify these features with the
help of the information provided and write their correct names on the lines marked on the map.

(A) Place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in September 1920.

(B) The place where the cotton mill workers satyagraha organised in 1918.

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
(i) The Khetri mines.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 07 NODIA

(ii) A Software-Technology Park in Karnataka.

(iii)The Southernmost city of the North-south Corridor. (iv)Kandla Seaport.

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 08 1
Sample Paper 08

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).+

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Identity the picture-

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 08 NODIA

(a) A page from the diamond sutra.

(b) A page taken from the Gutenberg bible.

(c) A page taken from the Jikji.

(d) A page taken from the Ramcharit manas.

2. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence and select correct option.

1. Fall of Napoleon.

2. Napoleon invades Italy.

3. The defeat of Napoleon by Britain, Russia.

4. Napoleon lost the battle of Leipzig.

(a) 3, 4, 1, 2 (b) 2, 4, 3, 1

(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 2, 1, 3, 4

3. The Simon Commission, formed in 1927 by the British government, faced opposition from Indian leaders
for what reason?

(a) It did not include any Indian members, leading to widespread protests against its recommendations.

(b) It proposed granting immediate independence to India, which Indian leaders were not ready for.

(c) It focused on increasing Indian representation in the British government.

(d) It aimed to divide India based on religious and ethnic lines, which Indian leaders opposed.

4. The Industrial Revolution in Europe brought significant changes to global trade. Which of the following
were outcomes of the Industrial Revolution on global trade?

1. Increased demand for raw materials

2. Expansion of European markets

3. Decline of European colonialism

4. Growth of industrial production in European countries

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, and 4

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
5. Which of the following was a key outcome of the print revolution in Europe during the early modern
period?

(a) The rapid spread of literacy and the democratization of knowledge.

(b) A decline in book production due to censorship by European monarchs.

(c) The elimination of newspapers and pamphlets due to printing costs.

(d) The rise of hand-copied manuscripts as the primary method of communication.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 08 Page 3

6. Which type of soil is most suitable for the cultivation of cotton, especially in the Deccan Plateau region of
India?

(a) Red soil found in dry areas, lacking in nutrients for cotton farming.

(b) Alluvial soil found in river basins, excellent for rice and wheat cultivation but less suited for cotton.

(c) Black soil known for retaining moisture and rich in nutrients, ideal for cotton farming.

(d) Laterite soil rich in iron and aluminium, commonly found in tropical regions but not suitable for
cotton.

7. Joint Forest Management (JFM) in India aims to involve local communities in forest conservation. Consider
the following statements:

1. JFM allows villagers to participate in forest protection and restoration activities.

2. The program began in the early 1990s as a response to forest degradation.

3. Under JFM, communities receive financial incentives for protecting forests.

4. JFM restricts the use of forest resources exclusively to government authorities.

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

8. India’s increasing demand for water has led to the construction of large dams, such as the

Dam on the Narmada River.

(a) Bhakra Nangal (b) Hirakud

(c) Sardar Sarovar (d) Tehri

9. Which legal provision in India aims to prevent discrimination based on caste, religion, gender, or other
factors?

(a) The Right to Education Act

(b) The Protection of Civil Rights Act

(c) The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act

(d) The National Integration Act

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 10. Political parties are essential to the democratic process. Which of the following are challenges faced by
political parties in India?

1. Lack of internal democracy

2. Excessive influence of money and muscle power

3. Free and fair elections

4. Nepotism and favoritism

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 08 NODIA

11. Democracies aim to ensure political stability and order. Which of the following outcomes contribute to
political stability in a democracy?

1. Regular elections and peaceful transfer of power

2. Rule of law and judicial independence

3. Suppression of dissent and opposition

4. Government accountability to the people

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

12. Power sharing helps to reduce conflict in societies with diverse social groups by ensuring that power is
distributed among different segments of society, such as and ethnic groups.

(a) Economic (b) Religious

(c) Military (d) Intellectual

13. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Constitution of India provides for a single integrated judiciary. Statement II: The Supreme
Court of India is the highest judicial authority in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

14. Match the following items given in column A with those in Column B. Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:

Column A Column B
A. A form of guarantee against loan 1. Gomasthas
B. Supervise Weavers, collect supplies, and examine the quality of 2. Shroffs and Chettairs
cloth
C. Group of bankers and traders who financed export of agriculture 3. Collateral

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 D. Caste system was based on exclusion and discrimination against 4. Outcaste

Options

(a) A – 4, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2 (b) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2, D – 4

(c) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4 (d) A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1

15. How does sustainable development differ from traditional development models in terms of resource
utilization?

(a) Sustainable development focuses on short-term economic gains without considering future
generations.

(b) Sustainable development emphasizes the balanced use of resources to meet present needs without
compromising future availability.

(c) Traditional development models prioritize environmental conservation over economic growth.

(d) Traditional development models encourage renewable resource usage exclusively.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 08 Page 5

16. The primary sector continues to employ a large portion of India’s population. Which of the following best
explains why the primary sector employs so many people?

1. Indian economy is largely agrarian.

2. Lack of adequate job opportunities in the secondary and tertiary sectors.

3. Government policies favor the primary sector.

4. High demand for agricultural products in urban areas.

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Commercial banks are financial institutions that accept deposits and provide loans.

Statement II: Microfinance institutions only provide credit to large businesses. Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

18. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B. Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:

Column A Column B
A. Supervision of functioning of banks. 1. Japan
B. First Asian country to be Industralised. 2. Henry Ford
C. Pioneer of the system of mass production. 3. Secularism
D. No official religion, constitution does not give any special status. 4. Reserve Bank of India
Options

(a) A – 4, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2 (b) A – 4, B – 1, C – 2, D – 3

(c) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4 (d) A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Why do wells and tubewells contribute to 50% of the irrigated area?

(a) They are the most cost-effective irrigation method.

(b) They are used in high-rainfall areas.

(c) They require complex technology.

(d) They are used primarily in desert regions.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 08 NODIA

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

Bank Interest Rate on Loans (in %) Interest Rate on Deposits (in %)

Bank A 8% 4%
Bank B 10% 5%
Why would customers prefer to deposit their money in Bank B?

(a) It offers a higher interest rate on deposits.

(b) It provides better customer service.

(c) It has lower loan interest rates.

(d) It has fewer branches.

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Print culture contributed to the Scientific Revolution.” Discuss the impact of print culture on the
development of scientific thought.

22. “The distribution of natural resources varies across different regions.” Discuss the factors influencing this
distribution.

OR

“Renewable resources can be replenished naturally over time.” Provide examples and explain their significance.

23. “Secularism in India promotes religious harmony.” Explain why secularism is important for religious
harmony.

24. “Liberalization is a key aspect of globalization.” Explain why liberalization is important in the context of
globalization.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
25. “Mercantilism shaped the economic policies of European powers during the colonial period.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.

26. “Liberalism played a crucial role in the growth of nationalism in 19th-century Europe.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 08 Page 7

27. “Arjun wants to engage in sustainable logging practices on his property. He is unaware of the sustainable
methods and their benefits.” Guide him in identifying sustainable logging practices and their advantages.

28. “Political parties educate the public about political issues.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

OR

“Political parties ensure accountability in governance.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

29. Over the years, India’s infrastructure, including roads, bridges, and telecommunications, has seen
substantial improvements. Consequently, infrastructure development has become essential to India’s
progress. Why is infrastructure development considered important for India’s development? Support your
answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘Mahatma Gandhi’s principles of non-violence and Satyagraha were central to Indian nationalism.’ Explain
the statement with relevant points.

OR

‘The role of women was crucial in the Indian nationalist movement.’ Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

31. Vijay’s city has started rainwater harvesting programs to combat water scarcity. How can rainwater
harvesting contribute to water conservation, and what challenges might arise in its implementation?

OR

Rahul observes frequent floods in his region. What are the causes of floods, and how can proper water
management prevent such disasters?

32. ‘Democratic governments are more likely to respect the rights of citizens.’ Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

OR

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
‘Democracy ensures that every individual has a voice in the decision-making process.’ Explain how democracy
promotes inclusiveness.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 08 NODIA

33. Mr. Y works in agriculture and wants to understand why the contribution of the primary sector to India’s
GDP has been declining over time, despite a large number of people still depending on it for their
livelihood. What factors have contributed to this shift in the economic structure, and how has it affected
the workforce?

OR

India’s agriculture sector is heavily dependent on monsoons, making it vulnerable to climate change. How does
this impact employment and income for agricultural workers, and what can be done to reduce these risks?

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

Through the ‘right of inheritance’ leading to the division of land among successive generations has rendered
land-holding size uneconomical, the farmers continue to take maximum output from the limited land in the
absence of alternative source of livelihood. Thus, there is enormous pressure on agricultural land.

The main characteristic of commercial farming is the use of higher doses of modern inputs. e.g. High Yielding
Variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides in order to obtain higher productivity.

The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies from one region to another. For example, rice is a
commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a subsistence crop.

Questions :

1. State the ways through which farmers continue to make maximum output from limited land.

2. What is the reason behind rice being a subsistence crop in Odisha?

3. Mention the name of Indian states which produce rice commercially.

35. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow :

Belgium is a small country in Europe, smaller in area than the state of Haryana. It has borders with France, the
Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg. It has a population of a little over one crore, about half the population
of Haryana. The ethnic composition of this small country is ve per cent lives in the Flemish region and speaks
Dutch language. Another 40 per cent people live in the Wallonia region and speak French. Remaining one per
cent of the Belgians speak German. In the capital city Brussels, 80 per cent of the people speak French while 20
per cent are Dutch-speaking.

Questions:

1. Explain the ethnic composition of Belgium.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
2. How did the Belgian Government solve their ethnic problem ? Explain.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 08 Page 9

36. Read the given extract and answer questions that follow.

Mahesh tells us that every season he needs loans for cultivation on his 1.5 acres of land. Till a few years back,
he would borrow money from the village moneylender at an interest rate of five per cent per month (60% per
annum). For the last few years, Mahesh has been borrowing from an agricultural trader in the village at an
interest rate of three per cent per month. At the beginning of the cropping season, the trader supplies the farm
inputs on credit, which is to be repaid when the crops are ready for harvest.

Besides the interest charge on the loan, the trader also makes the farmers promise to sell the crop to him. This
way the trader can ensure that the money is repaid promptly. Also, since the crop prices are low after the
harvest, the trader is able to make a profit from buying the crop at a low price from the farmers and then
selling it later when the price has risen.

We next meet Arun who is supervising the work of one farm labourer. Arun has seven acres of land. He is one of
the few persons in Sonpur to receive a bank loan for cultivation.

The interest rate on the loan is 8.5 per cent per annum, and can be repaid anytime in the next three years. Arun
plans to repay the loan after harvest by selling a part of the crop. He then intends to store the rest of the
potatoes in a cold storage and apply for a fresh loan from the bank against the cold storage receipt. The bank
offers this facility to farmers who have taken crop loans from them.

Questions :

1. When Mahesh was borrowing from a local agricultural trader, he paid a lesser interest rate. Why?

2. In the above case/source, which is the most favourable term of credit/loan borrowed by Arun for land
cultivation?

3. State the merits of formal sector of credit.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the lines drawn near them.

A. The place associated with the Jallianwala Bagh incident.

B. The place where the December 1920 session of the Indian National Congress took place.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 08 NODIA

(b) On the outline map of India, mark and locate the following with suitable symbols.

C. An airport

D. A software technology park

E. A dam

F. A seaport in Goa

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 09 1
Sample Paper 09

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Which of the following aspect best signifies this image?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) A map explaining the sea routes used in 18th century by Europeans

(b) A map celebrating the British Empire.

(c) A map showcasing the importance of British Empire.

(d) A map expressing the British ambitions of contouring the world.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 09 NODIA

2. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence-

1. Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa.

2. Congress gave its support to Khilafat Movement.

3. Dandi March

4. Mahatma Gandhi travelled to champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the
oppressive plantation system.

Options :

(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1

(c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. How did European colonization contribute to the rise of the global economy in the 19th century?

(a) Colonies provided raw materials and markets for European manufactured goods.

(b) Colonies became self-sufficient and independent of European powers.

(c) Colonies refused to trade with European countries, limiting economic growth.

(d) Colonies focused solely on agriculture, ignoring global trade networks.

4. The Protestant Reformation in Europe was closely linked to the spread of printed materials. Which of the
following were outcomes of the Protestant Reformation and the spread of print culture?

1. Increased questioning of religious authority

2. Growth of literacy among ordinary people

3. Strengthening of the Catholic Church

4. Translation of the Bible into local languages

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4

5. What was the significance of the Frankfurt Parliament of 1848 in the context of German unification?

(a) It successfully drafted and implemented a constitution for a unified Germany.

(b) It was an attempt to create a democratic constitution for a united German nation but ultimately
failed.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (c) It declared the end of the Holy Roman Empire and established the German Confederation.

(d) It led to the immediate unification of Germany under Prussian leadership.

6. Which of the following is classified as a critically endangered species in India under the Wildlife Protection
Act of 1972?

(a) The Royal Bengal Tiger, which is classified as endangered but not critically endangered.

(b) The Great Indian Bustard, which is on the brink of extinction and critically endangered.

(c) The Asian Elephant, which is classified as vulnerable but not critically endangered.

(d) The Indian Peacock, which is not considered endangered and is the national bird of India.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 09 Page 3

7. The Yamuna River faces severe pollution due to various factors. Evaluate the following statements about
the pollution of the Yamuna River:

1. Industrial waste discharge is a major contributor to the Yamuna’s pollution.

2. Domestic sewage from cities along the river exacerbates its contamination levels.

3. Agricultural runoff has no effect on the water quality of the Yamuna.

4. Efforts to clean the Yamuna have included setting up sewage treatment plants.

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

8. India is one of the leading producers of rice, and this crop requires conditions for its growth, including
plenty of water and high temperatures.

(a) Arid (b) Humid

(c) Semi-arid (d) Dry

9. Which of the following is a challenge faced by political parties in India today?

(a) Ensuring internal democracy and preventing leadership from becoming dynastic.

(b) Achieving complete dominance in the political landscape without opposition.

(c) Eliminating all forms of corruption and maintaining pure governance.

(d) Avoiding participation in electoral processes to focus on policy-making.

10. Democracies promote accountability of governments to the people. Which of the following measures
promote accountability in a democracy?

1. Regular elections and voter participation

2. Judicial independence and rule of law

3. Concentration of power in the executive

4. Media censorship to prevent criticism of the government

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

11. The Sri Lankan government’s approach to power-sharing differed from Belgium’s. Which of the following
were features of Sri Lanka’s power-sharing arrangement?

1. Sinhala community was given preferential treatment.

2. Tamil-speaking minorities were denied equal rights.

3. Equal rights were granted to both Sinhala and Tamil communities.

4. The government adopted majoritarian policies.

Options :

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, and 4

12. The system of has further decentralized the power in India by establishing local governments in rural
and urban areas through the 73rd and 74th amendments.

(a) Panchayati Raj (b) Municipal governance

(c) Cooperative federalism (d) Direct democracy

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 09 NODIA

13. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Right to Education Act in India aims to provide free and compulsory education to all children.

Statement II: Gender discrimination in education has been eradicated in India. Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

14. Match the following keywords from column A with their explanation in column B :

Column A Column B
A. Ethnic I A belief that let majority community to rule a country.
B. Civil war II Calculation of gains and losses.
C. Prudential III Conflicts between opposing groups.
D. Majoritarian IV Based on shared culture.
(a) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV (b) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

(c) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV (d) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

15. Which sector of the Indian economy is most associated with the provision of services like banking,
education, and transportation?

(a) Primary Sector, which deals with natural resources and agriculture.

(b) Secondary Sector, which focuses on industrial and manufacturing activities.

(c) Tertiary Sector, which encompasses a wide range of service-based industries.

(d) Quaternary Sector, which involves high-level information services and research.

16. Formal and informal sectors provide credit in the economy. Which of the following are characteristics of
the formal sector in India?

1. Regulated by the government

2. Higher interest rates

3. Loans given by commercial banks and cooperative societies

4. No requirement for collateral

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2, and 4

(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) 2 and 3

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Globalization has increased trade between countries. Statement II: Globalization has led to the
isolation of national economies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 09 Page 5

18. Choose the correct option from column A and column B -

Column A Column B
A. Broken chains 1. Symbol of the German empire – strength
B. Breastplate with eagle 2. Readiness to fight
C. Sword 3. Being freed
D. Rays of the rising sun 4. Beginning of a new era
(a) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4 (b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3

(c) A - 3, B - 1, C - 2, D - 4 (d) A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why does the Ganga basin contribute to 35 percent of total water flow?

(a) It receives water from glaciers and rain.

(b) It is located in a desert area.

(c) It supports industrial growth.

(d) It flows through the mountainous region.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

Company Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India (in billion USD) Exports (in billion
USD)
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 Company A 3 5
Company B 1.5 7
Why does Company B have higher exports despite lower FDI?

(a) It imports all its raw materials.

(b) It focuses only on the domestic market.

(c) It lacks production technology.

(d) It is involved in labor-intensive production.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 09 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Italian unification was achieved through nationalist aspirations.” Explain the factors that led to the
unification of Italy.

22. “Deforestation leads to environmental degradation.” Discuss the consequences.

OO

“Wildlife conservation is essential for maintaining biodiversity.” Justify this statement.

23. “Ideological parties strengthen political discourse.” Explain how ideological parties impact political
discussions.

24. “Human Development Index (HDI) is a better indicator of development than GDP.” Justify the statement
with suitable arguments.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. “The rise of vernacular languages in print contributed to national identities.” Explain the statement by
giving suitable examples.

26. “The role of the press was crucial in the spread of nationalism in India.” Explain the statement by giving
suitable examples.

27. “Pooja wants to reduce water pollution in her town. She is unaware of the sources of water pollution and
the ways to mitigate them.” Guide her in identifying the main sources of water pollution and effective
mitigation methods.

28. “Democracy protects individual freedoms and rights.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

OO

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
“Democracy fosters economic development.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

29. Over the years, India’s textile industry has expanded, becoming one of the largest employers in the
country. As a result, the textile sector has become a significant part of India’s economy. Why has the
textile sector become so important in India? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 09 Page 7

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The Atlantic slave trade had a profound impact on global societies.’ Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

OO

‘Globalization has led to increased cultural exchanges.’ Substantiate the statement with key features.

31. Meena learns that many farmers are moving away from traditional farming methods. What are the
differences between traditional and modern farming techniques, and how do they impact agricultural
productivity?

OO

Suresh’s village practices subsistence farming, which only meets the basic needs of the family. What are the
limitations of subsistence farming, and how can farmers be encouraged to shift to commercial farming?

32. Dynastic succession affects the democratic functioning of political parties.’ Analyse how dynastic politics
impact political parties.

OO

‘Horizontal power sharing ensures checks and balances in a democracy.’ Explain the statement with relevant
points.

33. Miss A is curious about how the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) controls the supply of money in the economy.
Explain the role of the RBI in regulating money supply through monetary policy and why it is important to
maintain stability in the economy.

OO

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Sunita, a shop owner, takes a bank loan and repays it in monthly installments. How does the availability of
formal credit through banks contribute to economic growth, especially for small business owners like her?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 09 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Study the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:

Energy can be generated from fuel minerals like coal, petroleum, natural gas, uranium and from electricity.
Energy resources can be classified as conventional and nonconventional sources. Conventional sources include:
firewood, cattle dung cake, coal, petroleum, natural gas and electricity (both hydel and thermal). Non-
conventional sources include solar, wind, tidal, geothermal, biogas and atomic energy.

Energy is a basic requirement for economic development. Every sector of the national economy – agriculture,
industry, transport, commercial and domestic – needs inputs of energy.

Geologists define mineral as a “homogenous, naturally occurring substance with a definable internal structure.”
Minerals are found in varied forms in nature, ranging from the hardest diamond to the softest talc.

Questions :

1. How is energy classified?

2. What is the basic requirement for economic development?

3. How do geologists define minerals as?

35. Read the given extract and answer all questions :

DECENTOALISATION IN INDIA

When power is taken away from Central and State governments and given to local government, it is called
decentralization. The basic idea behind decentralization is that there are a large number of problems and issues
which are best settled at the local level. People have better knowledge of problems in their localities. They also
have better ideas on where to spend money and how to manage things more efficiently. Besides, at the local
level it is possible for the people to directly participate in decision making. This helps to inculcate a habit of
democratic participation. Local government is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy,
namely local self-government.

The need for decentralisation was recognized in our Constitution. Since then, there have been several
attempts to decentralize power to the level of villages and towns. Panchayats in villages and municipalities in
urban areas were set up in all the States. But these were directly under the control of State Governments.
Elections to these local governments were not held regularly.

Questions :

1. Explain Decentralization in democracy.

2. Explain the importance of Local self Government in democracy.

3. Describe any two steps taken by Indian government for decentralization.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 09 Page 9

36. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.

Chinese manufacturers learn of an opportunity to export toys to India, where toys are sold at a high price. They
start exporting plastic toys to India. Buyers in India now have the option of choosing between Indian and
Chinese toys. Because of the cheaper prices and new designs, Chinese toys have become more popular in the
Indian markets. Within a year, 70 to 80 per cent of the toy shops have replaced Indian toys with Chinese toys.

Toys are now cheaper in the Indian markets than earlier. What is happening here? As a result of trade, Chinese
toys come into the Indian markets. In the competition between Indian and Chinese toys, Chinese toys prove
better. Indian buyers have a greater choice of toys and at lower prices. For the Chinese toy makers, this provides
an opportunity to expand business. The opposite is true for Indian toy makers. They face losses, as their toys are
selling much less.

Questions :

1. What was the most appropriate reason for calling exporting toys to India by the Chinese ‘an
opportunity’ ?

2. What stands true in reference to the consumer behaviour as shown by Indian buyers in the toy
market?

3. Why Chinese toys have taken over the Indian toy market?

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

(A) The place where Indian National Congress Session (Dec. 1920) was held.

(B) Movement of Indigo Planters.

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

(i) Kolkata - An International airport

(ii) Bokaro - An iron and steel ptant (iii)Thiruvananthapuram - A software technology park
(iv)Ramagundam - A thermal power plant

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 09 NODIA

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 10 1
Sample Paper 10

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Identify the man who is sitting fifth from right?

(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(c) Subhas Chandra Bose (d) Mahatma Gandhi

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 10 NODIA

2. Arrange the following in correct sequence :

1. Formation of G-77

2. Bretton Woods Conference.

3. Discovery of America

4. Great Depression

Options

(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 3, 4, 2, 1

(c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. In colonial India, the spread of print culture contributed to the rise of which movement?

(a) It spread nationalist ideas and helped create awareness about colonial exploitation.

(b) It encouraged British missionaries to print religious texts in Indian languages.

(c) It focused on spreading European customs and traditions among Indian elites.

(d) It led to a decline in social reform movements and discouraged political activism.

4. The French Revolution was a turning point in world history and inspired several nationalist movements
across Europe. Which of the following were effects of the French Revolution on European nationalism?

1. Spread of the ideas of liberty, equality, and fraternity

2. End of absolute monarchies across Europe

3. Establishment of parliamentary rule in all European countries

4. Emergence of nationalism as a powerful force

Options :

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4

5. The Quit India Movement of 1942 was launched with what immediate goal by the Indian National
Congress?

(a) To demand the complete withdrawal of British rule from India without any negotiations.

(b) To promote cooperation between Indians and the British during World War II.

(c) To negotiate for constitutional reforms and limited self-government under British rule.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (d) To encourage Indians to contribute to the war effort in exchange for future independence.

6. What is the primary purpose of building multi-purpose projects like the Bhakra Nangal Dam in India?

(a) Generating hydroelectricity, providing irrigation, and controlling floods in the surrounding areas.

(b) Supporting large-scale commercial fishing and improving water quality in nearby rivers.

(c) Conserving forests and wildlife in the surrounding region by diverting river water.

(d) Promoting urbanization and expanding industrial activities near the dam site.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 10 Page 3

7. Which of the following practices are used in modern Indian agriculture? Identify the correct statements.

1. Use of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds.

2. Implementation of drip irrigation systems.

3. Exclusive reliance on traditional ploughing methods.

4. Adoption of crop rotation to maintain soil fertility.

Options:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

8. India’s rich deposits of ore, a key ingredient in steel production, are found in states like Odisha and
Jharkhand.

(a) Iron (b) Bauxite

(c) Manganese (d) Limestone

9. What role does free and fair elections play in the democratic process of India?

(a) They ensure that the ruling party maintains its power indefinitely without accountability.

(b) They allow citizens to choose their representatives and hold the government accountable for its
actions.

(c) They limit the participation of minority groups in the political process.

(d) They prevent new parties from emerging and challenging established ones.

10. Power-sharing arrangements can take different forms in different countries. Which of the following is an
example of vertical power-sharing?

1. Power shared between the central and state governments

2. Power shared between different social groups

3. Power shared between different organs of government

4. Power shared among different political parties

Options :

(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3

11. India’s federal system allows for flexibility in power-sharing arrangements. Which of the following features
make Indian federalism unique?

1. A strong central government

2. Division of powers between the Union and State governments

3. Union government’s control over state laws

4. Flexibility to change the division of powers

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4

12. refers to a system where social divisions are based on hereditary occupation, which continues to
impact Indian society despite legal measures against discrimination.

(a) Secularism (b) Federalism

(c) Caste system(d) Patriarchy

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 10 NODIA

13. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: National political parties operate in multiple states across India.

Statement II: Regional political parties focus on issues specific to particular states or regions. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

14. Match Column - A with Column - B and choose the correct option:

Column - A (Subjects) Column - B (List)

A. E-Programming 1. Concurrent List
B. Police 2. Union List
C. Education 3. State List
D. Defence 4. Residuary List
Options:

(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2 (b) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

(c) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2 (d) A - 4, B - 2, C - 1, D - 3

15. Which of the following best describes credit in the context of money and economic activities?

(a) The physical currency used for everyday transactions and purchases.

(b) An arrangement where a lender provides money to a borrower with the agreement of repayment,
often with interest.

(c) The total amount of money circulating in an economy at a given time.

(d) The financial reserves maintained by banks to ensure stability and trust in the banking system.

16. Globalization has led to the spread of technology across countries. Which of the following are impacts of
technological advancements on globalization?

1. Faster communication between countries

2. Easier transportation of goods and people

3. Increased barriers to international trade

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 4. Greater integration of world economies

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Poverty eradication is a part of the development process. Statement II: Economic development
always leads to reduction in poverty. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct.

(b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct.

(d) Neither I nor II is correct.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 10 Page 5

18. Complete the table with the correct information:

Round table conference Held in Meeting outcome

First round table conference Nov 1930-Jan 1931 The British government understood the
importance and the need for the congress
party to make any decision
Second round table conference A-? This conference was deemed a failure
because of the many disagreements among
the participants.
Third round table conference Nov- Dec 1932 B-?
(a) A - Sep - Dec 1927, B - Government of India Act (1932) was passed

(b) A - Sep - Dec 1927, B - Government of India Act (1935) was passed

(c) A - Sep - Dec 1931, B - Government of India Act (1935) was passed

(d) A - Sep - Dec 1931, B - Government of India Act (1932) was passed

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why is 35 percent of the total cultivated area under rice?

(a) Rice is a staple food for a large population.

(b) It requires less water compared to other crops.

(c) It is primarily grown in dry regions.

(d) It is a major cash crop in India.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

State Net Sown Area (% of total land area) Percentage of Irrigated Area
A 55 60%
B 65 40%

Why does state A have a higher percentage of irrigated area compared to state B?

(a) It receives more rainfall.

(b) It has more fertile land.

(c) It has a more developed irrigation infrastructure.

(d) It is dependent on rain-fed agriculture.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 10 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “The Non-Cooperation Movement was pivotal in India’s struggle for independence.” Explain why the Non-
Cooperation Movement was important for Indian nationalism.

22. “Integrated Water Resources Management (IWRM) is essential for sustainable water use.” Discuss its
importance.

OR

“Pollution of water bodies affects human health and the environment.” Provide examples.

23. “Freedom of expression is a vital outcome of democracy.” Explain why freedom of expression is important
in a democracy.

24. “The tertiary sector plays a vital role in the service-based economy of India.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. “The Industrial Revolution transformed the economic structure of European societies.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.

26. “The rise of capitalism transformed global economic relations.” Explain the statement by giving suitable
examples.

27. “Vikas wants to adopt modern farming techniques to boost his wheat production. He needs to know
which technologies are best suited for his region.” Help him identify suitable modern farming technologies
that can enhance wheat production based on local conditions.

28. “Majority rule and minority rights are essential for power sharing.” Explain the statement by giving any
three examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
OR

“Power sharing enhances stability in a country.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 10 Page 7

29. With the growth of microfinance institutions, access to credit has improved for small entrepreneurs in
India. As a result, microfinance has become an important tool for economic empowerment. Why has
microfinance become so important in India? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘Books and pamphlets were powerful tools in the fight against colonialism.’ Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

OR

‘Print culture contributed to the rise of secular and scientific thinking.’ Substantiate the statement with key
features.

31. Suresh’s region is rich in mineral resources, but these resources are not being fully utilized. What
challenges exist in the extraction of minerals, and how can these challenges be overcome?

OR

Vandana learns that non-renewable energy sources are depleting rapidly. What are the consequences of over-
reliance on non-renewable energy sources, and how can the transition to renewable energy be encouraged?

32. ‘The creation of linguistic states strengthened federalism in India.’ Justify the statement with suitable
examples.

OR

‘Federalism ensures the decentralization of power.’ Explain how decentralization functions in a federal system.

33. Miss A is interested in understanding the role of foreign direct investment (FDI) in India’s development.
Explain how FDI helps in improving infrastructure, creating jobs, and boosting the overall economic
growth of the country.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
OR

An Indian software company provides services to clients in the US. How has globalization enabled such
international interactions, and what are the advantages and challenges for Indian companies in a globalized
market?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 10 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the source given below and answer the following questions.

Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country. This
was the main philosophy behind public sector industries and joint sector ventures in India. It was also aimed at
bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas.

Questions :

1. Distinguish between Joint sector and Public sector industries.

2. Analyse the importance of public sector and Joint sector ventures for the Indian economy.

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

Communalism becomes more acute when religion is expressed in politics in exclusive and partisan terms, when
one religion and its followers are pitted against another. This happens when beliefs of one religion are
presented as superior to those of other religions, when the demands of one religious group are formed in
opposition to another and when state power is used to establish domination of one religious group over the
rest. This manner of using religion in politics is communal politics.

Communal politics is based on the idea that religion is the principal basis of social community. Communalism
involves thinking along the following lines. The followers of a particular religion must belong to one community.
Their fundamental interests are the same. Any difference that they may have is irrelevant or trivial for
community life. It also follows that people who follow different religions cannot belong to the same social
community. If the followers of different, religion have some commonalities these are superficial and immaterial.
Their interests are bound to be different and involve a conflict. In its extreme form communalism leads to the
belief that people belonging to different religions cannot live as equal citizens within one nation.

Either, one of them has to dominate the rest or they have to form different Nations.

This belief is fundamentally flawed. People of one religion do not have the same interests and aspirations in
every context. Everyone has several other roles, positions and identities. There are many voices inside every
community. All these voices have a right to be heard. Therefore, any attempt to bring all followers of one
religion together in context other than religion is bound to suppress many voices within that community.

Questions :

1. State the circumstances due to which communalism happen in our society

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
2. What are the consequences faced when the followers of different religion have some communalities?

3. When does a communal politics is able to suppress many voices within same community?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 10 Page 9

36. Read the information about climate-smart agriculture and answer the question that follows.

Climate-smart agriculture (CSA) is an approach that helps guide actions to transform agri-food systems
towards green and climate-resilient practices. CSA supports reaching internationally-agreed goals such as the
Sustainable Development Goals and the Paris Agreement on climate change. CSA supports the Food and
Agriculture Organisation Strategic Framework 2022-2031 based on the Four Betters: better production, better
nutrition, a better environment and a better life for all, leaving no one behind.

Source (edited): Food and Agriculture Organisation

Questions :

1. A CSA expert suggested increased production and consumption of millets in India. Justify their stance.

2. What is the necessity to think of CSA in India?

3. Suggest two methods through which India can shift towards CSA.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the lines drawn near them. Identify the following features marked on the map.

A. The place where the Congress Session adopted the Non-Cooperation Programme.

B. The place where the Movement of Indigo Planters took place.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 10 NODIA

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

C. Rarnagundam Thermal Power Plant

D. Mumbai Port

E. Hyderabad International Airport

F. Tehri Dam

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 11 1
Sample Paper 11

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Study the picture and answer the question that follows: What this picture of Bharat Mata depicts ?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 11 NODIA

(a) Power and authority (b) Power and prestiges

(c) Authority and dominance (d) Ascetic quality

2. Arrange the following countries on the basis of “Print technology” started in these countries-

1. Japan 2. China

3. Korea 4. India

Option:

(a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 3, 4, 2, 1

(c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

3. The Italian nationalist Giuseppe Mazzini is best known for founding which organization aimed at
promoting Italian unification?

(a) Young Italy, which sought to create a unified and independent Italian state.

(b) The Carbonari, a secret society focused on Italian independence.

(c) The National Fascist Party, which later led Italy under Mussolini.

(d) The Roman Republic, which aimed to establish a democratic government in Rome.

4. The Khilafat Movement, launched in 1919, aimed at protecting the Ottoman Caliphate. Which of the
following were objectives of the Khilafat Movement?

1. To pressurize the British government to protect the Caliphate

2. To demand the formation of a separate Muslim state

3. To unite Hindus and Muslims in India

4. To end British rule in India

Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2, and 4

(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) 2 and 4

5. Which of the following best describes the role of the Bretton Woods system established after World War
II?

(a) To regulate international financial institutions and promote global economic stability.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (b) To enforce colonial control over newly independent nations in Africa and Asia.

(c) To develop new trade routes between Europe and Asia for resource extraction.

(d) To create military alliances between European countries to prevent future wars.

6. Which type of farming is typically practiced in India to produce food grains primarily for family
consumption, using traditional tools?

(a) Subsistence farming, which focuses on producing enough food for the farmer’s family.

(b) Commercial farming, which involves large-scale production for sale in the market.

(c) Plantation farming, which is centered on the cultivation of a single cash crop for export.

(d) Intensive farming, which requires high inputs of labor and capital to maximize output.

7. Regarding India’s energy resources, identify the correct statements.

1. Coal accounts for the majority of India’s electricity generation.

2. Hydroelectric power is the most rapidly growing energy source in India.

3. India has no reserves of natural gas.

4. Solar energy is being increasingly harnessed as a renewable energy source.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 11 Page 3

Options:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

8. The textile industry in India is one of the largest contributors to industrial employment and is based
primarily on the production of and jute.

(a) Cotton(b) Rubber

(c) Tea (d) Coffee

9. How does federalism contribute to power sharing in the Indian political system?

(a) By centralizing all powers in the national government for uniform policy implementation.

(b) By dividing powers between the central government and state governments for localized governance.

(c) By allowing the judiciary to oversee both state and national governmental functions.

(d) By enabling political parties to control both state and national levels of government.

10. The Indian Constitution provides for three lists of subjects. Which of the following subjects are included in
the Concurrent List?

1. Education 2. Police and law and order

3. Trade and commerce 4. Forests

Options:

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) 2 and 4

11. Caste continues to influence social and political life in India. Which of the following statements about
caste in India are true?

1. Caste inequalities have declined over time.

2. Caste-based discrimination is illegal in India.

3. Caste no longer plays a role in Indian elections.

4. Caste-based reservations are provided in government jobs.

Options :

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4

12. A multi-party system is a feature of Indian democracy, allowing the existence of multiple political parties,
providing voters with a wide range of during elections.

(a) Policies (b) Leaders

(c) Options (d) Manifestos

13. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In a democracy, the rule of law ensures that everyone is subject to the law equally. Statement II:
The judiciary in a democracy does not have the power to review the actions of the legislature and the
executive.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 11 NODIA

14. Match List I (forms of power-sharing) with List II (forms of government) and select the correct answer
using codes given below the lists:

List I List II
I. Power sharing among different organs of government A. Communist government
II. Power shared among government at different levels B. Separation of powers
III. Power shared by different social groups C. Coalition of government
IV. Power shared by two or more political parties D. Federal government
Option :

(a) I - D, II - A, III - B, IV - C (b) II - B, II - C, III - D, IV - A

(c) III - B, II - D, III - A, IV - C (d) IV - C, II - D, III - A, IV - B

15. Which of the following is a major advantage of outsourcing for Indian companies in the context of
globalization?

(a) It increases production costs and reduces profit margins for Indian businesses.

(b) It allows Indian companies to focus on their core competencies by delegating non-core activities to
external firms.

(c) It limits access to global markets and reduces the competitiveness of Indian firms.

(d) It decreases the quality of products and services offered by Indian companies.

16. Sustainable development is essential to preserve resources for future generations. Which of the following
practices contribute to sustainable development?

1. Using renewable energy sources

2. Practicing deforestation for expanding agriculture

3. Reducing pollution and waste

4. Over-extraction of natural resources

Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

17. Consider the following statements:

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Statement I: The tertiary sector includes activities such as retail, banking, and education. Statement II: The
tertiary sector has a higher employment potential compared to the primary sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

18. Match column A and column B and choose the correct option.

Column A Column B
A. Absolutist 1. A vision of society
B. Utopian 2. A form of government
C. Plebiscite 3. A system of direct vote
D. Suffrage 4. A system of holding election

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 11 Page 5

(a) A - 2, B - 3, C - 1, D - 4 (b) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1

(c) A - 3, B - 1, C - 2, D - 4 (d) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why does wheat account for 30 percent of total production?

(a) It is grown in high-altitude regions. (b) It is the main food crop for many states.

(c) It requires less water than rice. (d) It is grown in desert regions.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

State Forest Cover (% of total area) Protected Area (% of forest area)

C 35% 12%
D 50% 20%
Why does state D have a higher percentage of protected forest area compared to state C?

(a) It lacks infrastructure development.

(b) It has fewer forested areas.

(c) It has better wildlife management practices.

(d) It has a lower population density.

SECTION - B

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “The League of Nations aimed to prevent future wars.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

22. “Sustainable agriculture practices are important for long-term food security.” Explain why.

OO

“Irrigation systems enhance agricultural productivity.” Discuss their role.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 11 NODIA

23. “Decentralization of power empowers local governments.” Justify this statement with suitable examples.

24. “Credit plays a vital role in economic growth.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. “The Non-Cooperation Movement united various sections of Indian society.” Explain the statement by
giving suitable examples.

26. “Newspapers became a tool for political awareness and participation in the modern world.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.

27. “Pranav plans to invest in the petroleum industry but lacks knowledge about the extraction and refining
processes of crude oil.” Assist him in understanding the key steps involved in the extraction and refining of
crude oil.

28. “Federalism supports economic development.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

OO

“Federalism provides better public services.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

29. With the expansion of multinational corporations in India, various industries have gained access to global
technologies and practices. Consequently, multinational corporations have become influential in India’s
economy. Why have multinational corporations become so important in India? Support your answer by
giving any three reasons.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘Romanticism contributed significantly to the growth of nationalist movements.’ Justify the statement
with suitable arguments.

OO

‘The concept of nation-state emerged as a result of rising nationalism.’ Explain the statement with relevant
points.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 11 Page 7

31. Kamla’s village has seen rapid industrialization, but agricultural land is being lost. What are the
consequences of converting agricultural land for industrial purposes, and how can a balance be
maintained?

OO

Ravi observes that industrialization has brought jobs but also increased air pollution. How can industries
contribute to economic growth while minimizing environmental degradation?

32. ‘Secularism is a core principle of Indian democracy.’ Justify the importance of secularism in India’s
democratic framework.

OO

‘Communalism poses a threat to national unity.’ Analyse the impact of communalism on Indian society and
politics.

33. Miss A is worried about the environmental impacts of rapid industrial activities in her village. How do
sustainable development practices ensure that economic growth continues without harming the
environment, and why is it important to focus on long-term environmental sustainability?

OO

A government policy focuses on increasing GDP but does not address income inequality. How can this impact
the development of the country? Discuss the potential negative consequences of growing income inequality.

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :

Many thought that given the disadvantages and rising resistance against the multi purpose projects, water
harvesting system was a viable alternative, both socio-economically and environmentally. In ancient India,
along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures, there existed an extraordinary tradition of water harvesting
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
system. People had in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and soil types and developed wide ranging
techniques to harvest rainwater, groundwater, river water and flood water in keeping with the local ecological
conditions and their water needs. In hill and mountainous regions, people built diversion channels like the ‘guls’
or ‘kuls’ of the Western Himalayas for agriculture. ‘Rooftop rainwater harvesting’ was commonly practised to
store drinking water, particularly in Rajasthan. In the flood plains of Bengal, people developed inundation
channels to irrigate their fields. In arid and semi-arid regions, agricultural fields were converted into rain fed
storage structures that allowed the water to stand and moisten the soil like the ‘khadins’ in Jaisalmer and
‘Johads’ in other parts of Rajasthan.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 11 NODIA

Questions :

1. Why is water harvesting system a viable alternative ?

2. Describe the process of ‘rooftop rainwater harvesting.’

3. Mention any two methods adopted by ancient India for water conservation.

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

In some countries, power usually changes between two main parties. Several other parties may exist, contest
elections and win a few seats in the national legislatures. But, only the two main parties have a serious chance
of winning majority of seats to form government. Such a party system is called two-party system. The United
States of America and the United Kingdom are examples of two-party system.

If several parties compete for power, and more than two parties have a reasonable chance of coming to power
either on their own strength or in alliance with others, we call it a multi-party system. Thus in India, we have a
multi-party system. In this system, the government is formed by various parties coming together in a coalition.
When several parties in a multi-party system join hands for the purpose of contesting elections and winning
power, it is called an alliance or a front.

For example, in India there were three such major alliances in 2004 Parliamentary elections- the National
Democratic Alliance, the United Progressive Alliance and the Left Front. The multi-party system often appears
very messy and leads to political instability. At the same time, this system allows a variety of interests and
opinions to enjoy political representation.

So, which of these is better? Perhaps the best answer to this very common question is that, this is not a very
good question. Party system is not something any country can choose. It evolves over a long time, depending
on the nature of society, its social and regional divisions, its history of politics and its system of elections. These
cannot be changed very quickly. Each country develops a party system that is conditioned by its special
circumstances.

For example, if India has evolved a multi-party system, it is because the social and geographical diversity in
such a large country is not easily absorbed by two or even three parties. No system is ideal for all countries and
all situations.

Questions :

1. What do you understand by multi-party system?

2. Why political parties are necessary in smooth functioning of democracy?

3. Highlight any two differences between multi-party and bi-party system.

36. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

Over the forty years between 1973-74 and 2013-14, while production in all the three sectors has increased, it
has increased the most in the tertiary sector. As a result, in the year 2013-14, the tertiary sector has emerged
as the largest producing sector in India replacing the primary sector. Why is the tertiary sector becoming so
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
important in India? There could be several reasons. First, in any country several services such as hospitals,
educational institutions, post and telegraph services, police stations, courts, village administrative offices,
municipal corporations, defence transport, banks, insurance companies, etc, are required. These can be
considered as basic services. In a developing country the government has to take responsibility for the provision
of these services.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 11 Page 9

Second, the development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of services such as transport,
trade, storage and the like, as we have already seen. Greater the development of the primary and secondary
sectors, more would be the demand for such services.

Third as income levels rise, certain sections of people start demanding many more services like eating out.
tourism, shopping, private hospitals, private schools, professional training etc. You can see this change quite
sharply in cities, especially in big cities. Fourth, over the past decade or so certain new services such as those
based on information and communication technology have become important and essential. The production of
these services has been rising rapidly.

Questions :

1. What do you understand about the primary sector of an economy?

2. What is the reason behind shift in the labour force from primary sector to secondary and tertiary
sectors?

3. Briefly define the differences between primary and tertiary sector.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

(A) A place where cotton mill workers organised Satyagraha.

(B) An incident took place here due to which the Non-cooperation movement was called off.

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following:

(i) Coimbatore - Cotton textile centre in Tamil Nadu

(ii) Bhilai - Iron and steel plant in Chhattisgarh (iii)Marmagao - A major port in Goa (iv)Naraura - A
thermal power plant

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 11 NODIA

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 12 1
Sample Paper 12

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Which one of the following option best signifies this picture?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 12 NODIA

(a) Traditional family roles.

(b) Cultural impact of the west which has turned the family upside down.

(c) Destruction of proper family relations.

(d) Teaching women how to be obedient wires.

2. Arrange the following events related to the formation of nation-state of Britain in chronological order :

I. Act of Union between England and Scotland.

II. English Parliament seized power from Monarchy.

III. Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom.

IV. Catholic revolt against British dominance.

Options :

(a) III – I – II – IV(b) I – II – III – IV

(c) IV – I – II – III (d) II – I – IV – III

3. The Civil Disobedience Movement, launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930, was initiated with which goal?

(a) To challenge the British monopoly on salt and defy colonial laws through non-violent protest.

(b) To demand full independence from British rule by organizing violent uprisings.

(c) To promote industrial development in India by cooperating with British businesses.

(d) To negotiate for more representation of Indians in the British Parliament.

4. The Great Depression of 1929 had widespread economic effects across the world. Which of the following
were major impacts of the Great Depression?

1. Unemployment and poverty in industrialized countries

2. Collapse of international trade

3. Expansion of colonial empires

4. Decline in agricultural prices

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, and 4

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
5. The first printed book in the world, using movable type, was printed by Johannes Gutenberg in 1455.
What was the title of this book?

(a) The Bible, which was printed in Latin and distributed widely in Europe.

(b) The Quran, which was printed in Arabic for the first time.

(c) The Bhagavad Gita, which was published in India during the 16th century.

(d) The Analects of Confucius, which was a Chinese text printed in movable type.

6. Which of the following states is the leading producer of coal in India, accounting for a significant portion
of the country’s output?

(a) Gujarat, known for its oil reserves but not coal production.

(b) Jharkhand, which has abundant coal reserves and is the largest producer.

(c) Kerala, known for mineral sands but not coal.

(d) Tamil Nadu, which has lignite deposits but not the highest coal production.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 12 Page 3

7. Regarding the growth of the textile industry in India, identify the correct statements.

1. Mumbai-Pune region is a major hub for textile manufacturing.

2. The industry solely relies on traditional handloom techniques without mechanization.

3. Textile exports contribute significantly to India’s foreign exchange earnings.

4. The sector is not affected by fluctuations in global demand for textiles.

Options:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

8. Land degradation in India is mainly caused by activities such as deforestation, overgrazing, mining, and
of land for urban and industrial use.

(a) Afforestation (b) Expansion

(c) Desertification (d) Over-irrigation

9. What is the purpose of the Concurrent List in the Indian federal structure?

(a) To allocate exclusive legislative powers to the state governments.

(b) To list subjects where both central and state governments can make laws.

(c) To identify subjects under the exclusive control of the central government.

(d) To provide a list of non-political subjects for administrative purposes.

10. Efforts have been made to address gender disparities in Indian society. Which of the following measures
have been introduced to promote gender equality?

1. Reservation of seats for women in local governments

2. Equal pay for equal work legislation

3. Separate electorates for women

4. Banning women from certain professions

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 11. India’s political landscape includes a variety of regional parties. Which of the following are examples of
regional political parties in India?

1. Trinamool Congress

2. Telugu Desam Party (TDP)

3. Communist Party of India (CPI)

4. Aam Aadmi Party (AAP)

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2, and 4 (d) 2 and 4

12. Democracy allows for the peaceful transfer of power through elections, ensuring accountability of
the government to the people.

(a) Direct (b) Regular

(c) Local (d) Indirect

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 12 NODIA

13. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The British model of government inspired the power-sharing arrangement in India. Statement II:
Power sharing ensures that minorities are adequately represented in the government. Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

14. Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :

Column I (List) Column II (Jurisdiction Sphere)

I. Union list subjects A. State Governments alone make laws on it.
II. State list subjects B. For uniformity Central Government Legislates on it.
III. Concurrent subjects C. Subjects under Jurisdiction of Centre and State
Governments.
IV. Residuary subjects D. Central Government legislates on new subjects.

I II III IV
(a) A B C D
(b) C D A B
(c) D C B A
(d) B A C D

15. What role does education play in the economic development of a country like India?

(a) Education has minimal impact on economic development as it focuses solely on individual growth.

(b) Education enhances human capital by increasing productivity and fostering innovation, thereby
driving economic growth.

(c) Education primarily serves to maintain traditional cultural practices without influencing the economy.

(d) Education diverts resources away from economic activities, hindering development.

16. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is used to measure the output of an economy. Which of the following
sectors are included in the calculation of GDP?

1. Primary sector 2. Secondary sector

3. Tertiary sector 4. Informal sector

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of the country and controls the issuance of
currency.

Statement II: Commercial banks are regulated by the RBI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 12 Page 5

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

18. Match the columns and choose correct option.

Column -I Column -II

A. 1797 1. Vienna Peace Settlement
B. 1814 2. Invasion of Italy
C. 1821 3. Revolution in Europe
D. 1848 4. Struggle for Independence in Greek.
(a) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4 (b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3

(c) A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4 (d) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

What is the significance of 60 percent land under subsistence farming?

(a) It primarily focuses on producing food for local consumption.

(b) It is used for export-oriented crops.

(c) It requires advanced technology.

(d) It is practiced only in urban areas.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

State Annual Rainfall (in mm) Percentage of Groundwater Usage

E 1000 50%
F 600 80%
Why does state F have higher groundwater usage compared to state E?

(a) It has more water conservation programs.

(b) It has higher rainfall.

(c) It has insufficient surface water resources.

(d) It is primarily a desert region.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 12 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “The rise of vernacular languages was influenced by print culture.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

22. “India has abundant reserves of iron ore.” Discuss its importance for the economy.

OR

“Renewable energy sources are essential for sustainable development.” Explain why.

23. “Fiscal federalism enhances economic cooperation between center and states.” Justify this statement with
suitable examples.

24. “Globalization has both advantages and disadvantages for the Indian economy.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. “The Industrial Revolution facilitated the expansion of global markets.” Explain the statement by giving
suitable examples.

26. “The unification movements in Germany and Italy were driven by nationalist sentiments.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.

27. “Vikram is interested in the textile industry and wants to understand the role of technology in modern
textile manufacturing.” Help him identify the technological advancements that have transformed textile
manufacturing and their benefits.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 28. “Empowering women contributes to the overall development of society.” Explain the statement by giving
any three examples.

OR

“Secularism ensures equal treatment of all religions by the state.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 12 Page 7

29. With the rise of environmental awareness, India has increasingly focused on sustainable development
practices. As a result, sustainable development has become a cornerstone of India’s growth strategy. Why
has sustainable development become so significant in India’s development? Support your answer by
giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The Swadeshi Movement promoted indigenous industries in India.’ Substantiate the statement with key
features.

OR

The Indian National Congress was the leading organization in India’s fight for freedom.’ Explain the statement
with relevant points.

31. Vandana’s community depends on forest resources for their livelihood, but overexploitation has led to
forest degradation. How can the balance between forest resource use and conservation be maintained?

OR

Anita’s village has started a reforestation program. What are the benefits of afforestation, and how does it
contribute to wildlife conservation?

32. ‘The rise of regional parties reflects the diversity of Indian society.’ Justify the role of regional parties in
Indian democracy.

OR

‘Political parties play a crucial role in shaping public opinion.’ Explain how political parties influence public
opinion and policy-making.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 33. Miss A is learning about the differences between the organized and unorganized sectors of the economy.
Explain how these sectors differ in terms of job security, wages, working conditions, and benefits, and why
workers in the unorganized sector face greater challenges compared to those in the organized sector.

OR

A group of textile workers in the unorganized sector face irregular work and low wages. What are the
challenges they face, and how can the government improve their working conditions and job security?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 12 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

Alluvial soil is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire Northern plains are made of alluvial
soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems-the Indus, the Ganga and the
Brahmaputra. These soils also extend Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor. Alluvial soil is also
found in the Eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the
Kaveri rivers.

The alluvial soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay. As we move inlands towards the river
valleys, soil particles appear some what bigger in size. In the upper reaches of the river valley i.e. near the place
of the break of slope, the soils are coarse. Such soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos
and Terai. Apart from the size of their grains or components, soils are also described on the basis of their age.
According to their age alluvial soils can be classified as old alluvial (Bangar) and new alluvial (Khadar). The
Bangar soil has higher concentration of kanker nodules than the Khadar soil. It has more fine particles and is
more fertile than the Bangar.

Questions :

1. Why alluvial soil requires least water?

2. What is the reason behind high fertility of alluvial soil?

3. In India, where can one find alluvial soil? Which Indian state has largest deposits of alluvial soil?

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives.
Parallel to the process of bringing individuals into the political arena on an equal footing, we find growing
economic inequalities. A small number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and
incomes. Not only that, their share in the total income of the country has been increasing. Those at the bottom
of the society have very little to depend upon. Their incomes have been declining. Sometimes they find it
difficult to meet their basic needs of life, such as food, clothing, house, education and health.

Questions :

1. “Democracy ensures reduction of inequalities and poverty”. Explain the statement.

2. List the factors that affect economic growth.

3. How can accommodation of social diversity work in a democracy?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 12 Page 9

36. Study the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:

The various types of loans can be conveniently grouped as formal sector loans and informal sector loans.
Among the former are loans from banks and cooperatives. The informal lenders include moneylenders, traders,
employers, relatives and friends, etc.

The people are divided into four groups, from poor to rich. 85 per cent of the loans taken by poor households in
the urban areas are from informal sources. Compare this with the rich urban households. Only 10 per cent of
their loans are from informal sources, while 90 per cent are from formal sources. A similar pattern is also found
in rural areas. The rich households are availing cheap credit from formal lenders whereas the poor households
have to pay a heavy price for borrowing! What does all this suggest? First, the formal sector still meets only
about half of the total credit needs of the rural people. The remaining credit needs are met from informal
sources.

Most loans from informal lenders carry a very high interest rate and do little to increase the income of the
borrowers. Thus, it is necessary that banks and cooperatives increase their lending particularly in the rural
areas, so that the dependence on informal sources of credit reduces.

Questions :

1. Give any one example of formal sector source and of informal sector source of credit in India.

2. Which sector is dominant source of rural credit in India?

3. Why is it necessary to reduce dependence on informal sources of credit?

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the lines drawn near them.

A. The location of Indian National Congress Session of 1927.

B. The place where the Civil Disobedience Movement started.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 12 NODIA

(b) On the same political map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

C. Namrup Thermal Power Plant

D. Kandla Port

E. Tungabhadra Dam

F. Raja Sansi International Airport

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 13 1
Sample Paper 13

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Consider these statements about the Image given below

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
1. Title of this caricature is “The Club of Thinkers”.

2. he plaque on the left bears the inscription: ‘The most important question of today’s meeting: How
long will thinking be allowed to us?”

3. This was a caricature of meeting called by liberals.

4. This caricature was created in 1820.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 13 NODIA

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) A. 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1 , 2 and 4

2. Arrange the following in correct sequence:

1. Gandhi-Irwin Pact

2. Gandhi sent letter to Viceroy Lord Irwin.

3. Violation of Salt Act. by Mahatma Gandhi.

Options :

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 1

(c) 3, 2, 1 (d) 2, 1, 3

3. The system of indentured labor migration in the 19th century involved which of the following?

(a) Workers from Asia and Africa were contracted to work on European plantations.

(b) Wealthy European farmers migrated to Asia in search of better job opportunities.

(c) Slaves were transported from Africa to work on European-owned plantations in the Americas.

(d) European workers voluntarily moved to colonies for higher wages and better living conditions.

4. Print culture in 18th century Europe influenced the ideas of the Enlightenment thinkers. Which of the
following statements about the influence of print on the Enlightenment are correct?

1. Print helped spread ideas of reason and rationality.

2. Print allowed for greater criticism of absolute monarchy.

3. Print restricted the dissemination of revolutionary ideas.

4. Print contributed to the decline of scientific inquiry.

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4

5. Which of the following best describes the impact of print culture on social reform movements in colonial
India during the 19th century?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (a) Reformers used print to spread ideas on caste discrimination, education, and women’s rights.

(b) Print culture had no significant impact on Indian society, as literacy rates were low.

(c) British authorities used print to suppress Indian reformers and limit their influence.

(d) Print culture focused mainly on promoting British economic policies and infrastructure.

6. Which of the following regions in India is known for its concentration of cotton textile industries?

(a) Mumbai-Pune region, which has a large number of textile mills.

(b) Kerala, which is primarily known for its rubber and spice plantations.

(c) Assam, known for tea plantations but not textiles.

(d) Rajasthan, which focuses more on handicrafts and marble production.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 13 Page 3

7. Wildlife sanctuaries and national parks play a crucial role in conserving biodiversity. Evaluate the following
statements:

1. National parks have stricter regulations compared to wildlife sanctuaries.

2. Poaching is a major threat faced by wildlife in protected areas.

3. Both national parks and wildlife sanctuaries prohibit any human activities within their boundaries.

4. Wildlife corridors are established to connect different protected areas and facilitate animal
movement.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

8. Soil conservation methods, such as terrace farming and ploughing, are essential in preventing soil
erosion in hilly areas.

(a) Contour (b) Strip

(c) Vertical (d) Reverse

9. What is the significance of the Reservation Policy in India?

(a) To provide reserved seats in educational institutions and government jobs for marginalized
communities.

(b) To allocate exclusive rights to certain castes for government positions.

(c) To reserve specific areas in cities for minority religious groups.

(d) To restrict employment opportunities for upper-caste individuals in favor of lower castes.

10. In a democracy, political parties represent the interests of various groups. Which of the following
measures can help in reforming political parties in India?

1. Ensuring internal democracy within parties

2. Reducing the role of money in politics

3. Imposing restrictions on party formation

4. Promoting transparency in party funding

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 11. Democracy promotes inclusiveness and participation in governance. Which of the following outcomes of
democracy enhance participation?

1. Equal voting rights for all citizens

2. Inclusion of diverse social groups in governance

3. Restricted access to decision-making for certain groups

4. Promotion of political awareness among citizens

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

12. refers to a system where social divisions are based on hereditary occupation, which continues to
impact Indian society despite legal measures against discrimination.

(a) Secularism (b) Federalism

(c) Caste system(d) Patriarchy

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 13 NODIA

13. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India’s federal structure, the states have the power to legislate on subjects listed in the State
List.

Statement II: The Union List in the Indian Constitution contains subjects on which only state governments can
legislate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

14. Match the following and choose correct option.

Column A Column B
A. Gram sabha I. Gram panchayat group together to form this unit.
B. Gram panchayat II. It reviews the performance of the gram panchayat.
C. Zila parishad III. Decision making body for the entire village.
D. Mandals IV. Mandals in a district together constitute zilla . parishad
(a) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (b) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

15. What is the main focus of the quaternary sector in the Indian economy?

(a) Extracting natural resources and farming activities.

(b) Manufacturing goods and constructing infrastructure.

(c) Providing services related to information, research, and technology.

(d) Retailing and wholesale trading of products.

16. The informal credit sector plays a significant role in rural India. Which of the following are characteristics
of informal sector credit?

1. Unregulated by the government

2. Higher interest rates compared to formal sector loans

3. Loans are generally provided without any collateral

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 4. Loans are available only from banks

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Outsourcing is a consequence of globalization where companies transfer production to other

countries.

Statement II: Globalization has no impact on employment in developing countries. Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 13 Page 5

18. Match the following columns :

Column-I (Type of Soil) Column-II (Crops Grown)

A. Arid soil 1. Cotton and groundnut

B. Black soil 2. Jowar and Bajra
C. Laterite soil 3. Tea and coffee
D. Mountain/Forest soil 4. Cashew and spices
Option :

(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2 (b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2

(c) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3 (d) A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why does iron ore account for 50 percent of total mineral production?

(a) It is used in steel production.

(b) It is mainly used for making fertilizers.

(c) It is found in desert regions.

(d) It is primarily used in the agricultural sector.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 Crop State A Yield (tons/hectare) State B Yield (tons/hectare)
Rice 4 6
Wheat 3 4.5
Why does state B have higher crop yields for both rice and wheat compared to state A?

(a) It depends on manual plowing.

(b) It has less fertile soil.

(c) It has more labor-intensive farming.

(d) It uses modern agricultural techniques.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 13 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Nationalism weakened the multi-ethnic empires in Europe.” Discuss how nationalist movements
contributed to the decline of empires like Austria-Hungary and the Ottoman Empire.

22. “Automobile industry plays a key role in economic development.” Discuss its impact.

OO

“Small-scale industries are vital for rural economies.” Explain how.

23. “Affirmative actions are essential for caste equality.” Justify this statement with suitable examples.

24. “Employment is a key indicator of development.” Explain the importance of employment in measuring
development.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. “The press was instrumental in mobilizing public opinion during the French Revolution.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.

26. “The impact of World War I accelerated the growth of Indian nationalism.” Explain the statement by giving
suitable examples.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 27. “Vijay plans to harvest rainwater to supplement his farm’s water supply. He needs to understand the best
practices for rainwater harvesting.” Assist him in identifying effective rainwater harvesting techniques
suitable for his farm.

28. “Political parties facilitate voter choice and participation.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

OO

“Political parties help in organizing the government.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 13 Page 7

29. Between 1991 and 2020, India’s automotive industry has grown substantially, contributing to exports and
employment. Consequently, the automotive sector has become a vital component of the Indian economy.
Why has the automotive sector become so significant in India? Support your answer by giving any three
reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The spread of the English language was a result of British imperialism.’ Explain the statement with
relevant points.

OO

‘The Silk Road facilitated not only trade but also cultural and technological exchanges.’ Justify the statement
with suitable arguments.

31. Neha’s village experiences excessive soil erosion during the rainy season. What measures should the
government take to conserve the soil, and how can community participation aid in this?

OO

Raju finds that many resources around him, such as forests and minerals, are underutilized. What are the
reasons for the underutilization of resources in developing countries like India?

32. ‘Economic inequality remains a major challenge in democratic societies.’ Discuss how democracies
address or fail to address economic inequalities.

OO

‘Corruption remains a persistent problem in many democracies.’ Discuss how corruption affects the functioning
of democratic governments.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 33. Mr. B is interested in learning how loans can help small businesses grow. Explain how access to credit
from formal financial institutions, such as banks, can support entrepreneurs in expanding their businesses
and generating employment in their communities.

OO

In a rural village, the expansion of banking services has allowed people to open accounts and save money. How
does the expansion of formal banking reduce dependence on informal credit, and how does it promote
financial inclusion?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 13 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

Reserved and protected forests are also referred to as permanent forest estates maintained for the purpose of
producing timber and other forest produce, and for protective reasons. Madhya Pradesh has the largest area
under permanent forests, constituting 75 percent of its total forest area. Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh,
Uttarakhand, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, and Maharashtra have large percentages of reserved forests of
its total forest area whereas Bihar, Haryana, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Odisha and Rajasthan have a bulk of it
under protected forests.

Some estimates suggest that at least 10 percent of India’s recorded wild flora and 20 percent of its mammals
are on the threatened list. Many of these would now be categorised as ‘critical’, that is on the verge of
extinction like the cheetah, pink-headed duck, mountain quail, forest spotted owlet, and plants like madhuca
insignis (a wild variety of mahua) and hubbardia heptaneuron, (a species of grass). In fact, no one can say how
many species may have already been lost.

The world’s fastest land mammal, the cheetah (Acinonyx jubantus), is a unique and specialised member of the
cat family and can move at the speed of 112 km./hr. The cheetah is often mistaken for a leopard. Its
distinguishing marks are the long teardrop shaped lines on each side of the nose from the corner of its eyes to
its mouth. Prior to the 20th century, cheetahs were widely distributed throughout Africa and Asia. Today, the
Asian cheetah is nearly extinct due to a decline of available habitat and prey. The species was declared extinct
in India long back in 1952.

Questions:

1. Which Indian state cover 75% total forest area in India?

2. How many percent of mammals are on the threatened list in India?

3. How can we distinguish Cheetah from leopard?

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and movements
control or influence those in power. In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom to choose among various
contenders for power. In contemporary democracies, this takes the form of competition among different
parties. Such competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand. In the long run, power is shared
among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups. Sometimes this kind of
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
sharing can be direct, when two or more parties form an alliance to contest elections. If their alliance is elected,
they form a coalition government and thus share power. In a democracy, we find interest groups such as those
of traders, businessmen, industrialists, farmers and industrial workers. They also will have share in
governmental power, either through participation in governmental committees or bringing influence on the
decision- making process.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 13 Page 9

Questions:

1. ‘Power sharing is an essential component of democracy.’ Give one example to prove the statement.

2. How is alliance building an example of power sharing?

3. How Political parties, pressure groups and movements help in controlling or influencing those who are
in power?

36. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

In June 1992, more than 100 heads of states met in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil, for the first International Earth
Summit. The Summit was convened for addressing urgent problems of environmental protection and socio-
economic development at the global level. The assembled leaders signed the Declaration on Global Climatic
Change and Biological Diversity. The Rio Convention endorsed the global Forest Principles and adopted Agenda
21 for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st century.

It is the declaration signed by world leaders in 1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment and
Development (UNCED), which took place at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. It aims at achieving global sustainable
development. It is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through global co-operation
on common interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities. One major objective of the Agenda 21 is that
every local government should draw its own local Agenda 21.

Questions :

1. When and where was the first International Earth Summit held?

2. Analyse the reason for adopting Agenda 21 for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st
century.

3. Mention the aims of United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), which
took place at Rio de Janeiro.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write
their correct Name on the line drawn near them.

(A) A place marked by a where the satyagraha movement of former took place.

(B) The place where Indian congress session was held in 1927.

(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbol.

(i) Ramagundan-Thermal power plant

(ii) Tarapur-Atomic power plant (iii)Indore-Cotton textile Industry center (iv)Bhilai-Iron and steel plant
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 13 NODIA

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 14 1
Sample Paper 14

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Following portrait of Bal Gangadhar Tilak is surrounded by symbols of

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 14 NODIA

(a) Symbols of Freedom (b) Symbols of Unity

(c) Symbols of Equality (d) Symbols of Nationalism

2. Arrange the following in the chronological order :

1. Kheda Satyagraha

2. Non-cooperation movement

3. Simon commission

4. Rowlatt Act

5. Salt March

Options :

(a) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 (b) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1

(c) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 (d) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5

3. The Vernacular Press Act passed by the British government in 1878 had what impact on Indian
newspapers?

(a) It allowed the British to censor and suppress any content that was critical of their rule.

(b) It encouraged the growth of vernacular newspapers by offering financial incentives.

(c) It promoted the use of English as the official language in all Indian newspapers.

(d) It restricted Indian access to newspapers and books printed in Britain.

4. The Congress of Vienna, held in 1815, was aimed at restoring the balance of power in Europe after the
Napoleonic Wars. Which of the following were objectives of the Congress of Vienna?

1. Restore the pre-Napoleonic monarchies

2. Create a unified Germany

3. Prevent future French expansion

4. Maintain a balance of power between European states

Options :

(a) 1, 3, and 4 (b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
5. Which social class was instrumental in driving the nationalist movements in Europe during the 19th
century?

(a) The aristocracy, who aimed to maintain their traditional privileges.

(b) The bourgeoisie, including educated middle-class professionals and businessmen.

(c) The peasantry, who were primarily concerned with agricultural issues.

(d) The working class, who focused on labor rights and industrial reforms.

6. Which of the following is an example of an inland river basin in India where groundwater depletion has
become a significant problem?

(a) The Ganga-Brahmaputra Basin, which receives heavy rainfall and has abundant water resources.

(b) The Indus Basin, where intensive agriculture has led to the over-extraction of groundwater.

(c) The Amazon River Basin, located in South America, not affecting India.

(d) The Rhine River Basin, which is located in Europe and not relevant to Indian geography.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 14 Page 3

7. Sustainable development focuses on meeting present needs without compromising future generations. In
the context of India’s development, several strategies have been implemented to achieve sustainability.
Consider the following statements:

1. Sustainable development emphasizes the balanced use of natural resources.

2. It prioritizes economic growth over environmental conservation.

3. Renewable energy sources are a key component of sustainable development.

4. Sustainable development disregards social equity and focuses solely on economic factors.

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

8. The term refers to the variety of plant and animal life in a given area, and it is essential for the stability of
ecosystems.

(a) Biodiversity (b) Wildlife sanctuary

(c) Conservation (d) National park

9. What is the role of opposition parties in a democratic system?

(a) They support the ruling government and help implement its policies.

(b) They hold the government accountable and provide alternative policies and viewpoints.

(c) They discourage public participation in elections by minimizing their presence.

(d) They focus only on winning elections without engaging in governance.

10. One of the key outcomes of democracy is the protection of individual freedoms. Which of the following
are examples of individual freedoms protected in a democracy?

1. Freedom of speech and expression

2. Freedom to participate in peaceful protests

3. Freedom to elect and be elected to public office

4. Freedom to limit other citizens’ rights

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

11. Power-sharing in democracies helps to avoid conflicts. Which of the following best describes horizontal
power-sharing?

1. Power shared between the central and state governments.

2. Power shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive, and judiciary.

3. Power shared between different social groups.

4. Power shared among different levels of government.

Options :

(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 14 NODIA

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Political parties are essential for the functioning of a democracy.

Statement II: All political parties in India must be registered under the Representation of the People Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Secularism in India ensures equal treatment of all religions by the state.

Statement II: Religious personal laws apply uniformly to all citizens irrespective of their religion. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

14. Match the following items given in column-I with those in column-II. Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below :

Column-I Column-II
A. Gully erosion 1. Develop under tropical and subtropical climate
B. Bad land 2. Old Alluvial soil
C. Laterite soil 3. Chambal Basin
D. Bhangar 4. Land unfit for cultivation
Option :

(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1 (b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2

(c) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2 (d) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1

15. How does savings contribute to the availability of funds for credit in the banking system?

(a) Savings are kept as idle funds and do not influence credit availability.

(b) Savings deposited in banks are used by banks to provide loans and credit to borrowers.

(c) Savings are directly lent out by individuals to other individuals without bank involvement.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (d) Savings reduce the amount of money available for banks to lend, limiting credit.

16. Trade liberalization refers to the removal of trade barriers between countries. Which of the following are
examples of trade liberalization policies?

1. Reducing import duties

2. Removing restrictions on the movement of goods

3. Increasing subsidies for domestic producers

4. Imposing quotas on foreign goods

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 14 Page 5

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Sustainable development aims to meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability
of future generations to meet their own needs.

Statement II: Sustainable development focuses solely on economic growth without considering environmental
aspects.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

18. Match the following:

List I List I
A. Soybean 1. Kharif
B. Peas 2. Leguminous
C. Groundnut 3. Zaid
D. Watermelon 4. Rabi
Option :

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-3, B-4, C-2,D-1

(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Why does coal contribute 60 percent of the total energy produced?

(a) It is widely used in thermal power plants.

(b) It is a renewable source of energy.

(c) It is cheaper than other energy sources.

(d) It requires less infrastructure for extraction.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 14 NODIA

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

State Copper Production (in tons) Bauxite Production (in tons)

G 5000 10,000
H 8000 15,000
Why does state H have higher production of both copper and bauxite compared to state G?

(a) It imports raw materials.

(b) It has more mineral reserves.

(c) It lacks mineral resources.

(d) It is a less industrialized state.

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. The role of the Muslim League was significant in Indian nationalism.” Discuss the contribution of the
Muslim League to the nationalist movement in India.

22. Diversification in agriculture reduces risks and enhances income.” Explain how.

OO

Agricultural practices influence the environment.” Discuss the positive and negative impacts.

23. Regional parties address local issues effectively.” Justify this statement with suitable examples.

24. Agriculture remains the dominant sector in India’s economy.” Explain the reasons supporting this
statement.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
25. The Napoleonic Wars spread the ideas of nationalism across Europe.” Explain the statement by giving
suitable examples.

26. Imperialism was driven by the quest for new markets and resources.” Explain the statement by giving
suitable examples.

27. Raj wants to invest in the service sector by opening a restaurant. However, he lacks knowledge about the
infrastructural resources necessary for this venture.” Guide him in identifying the infrastructural resources
needed to establish a successful restaurant.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 14 Page 7

28. Democracy enhances social justice.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

OO

Democracy promotes peace and stability.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

29. Over the years, India’s stock market has grown, providing companies with avenues to raise capital and
investors with investment opportunities. Consequently, the stock market has become a key component of
India’s financial system. Why has the stock market become so significant in India? Support your answer by
giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. The emergence of vernacular languages in print media strengthened regional identities.’ Explain the
statement with relevant points.

OO

The role of literature was pivotal in shaping modern national identities.’ Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

31. Rahul finds that the wildlife population in his region has significantly declined. What might be the reasons
for the loss of biodiversity, and how can forest policies help in wildlife conservation?

OO

Suraj observes frequent conflicts between wildlife and local communities due to shrinking forest habitats. What
steps should be taken to minimize human-wildlife conflicts?

32. Sri Lanka’s majoritarianism led to civil unrest and conflict.’ Analyse the consequences of majoritarianism in
Sri Lanka.

OO

Vertical power sharing distributes power across different levels of government.’ Substantiate the statement
with examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 33. Mr. B wants to know about the effects of globalization on Indian agriculture. How has globalization
impacted the agricultural sector in India, especially in terms of export opportunities and competition with
foreign products?

OO

A small handicraft producer in India struggles to compete with cheaper imported goods. How does
globalization affect small-scale producers in developing countries, and what can the government do to help
these industries remain competitive?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 14 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :

Most of the objections to the projects arose due to their failure to achieve the purposes for which they were
built. Ironically, the dams that were constructed to control the floods have triggered floods due to
sedimentation in the reservoir. Moreover, the big dams have mostly been unsuccessful in controlling floods at
the time of excessive rainfall. You may have seen or read how the release of water from the dams during heavy
rains aggravated the flood situation in Maharashtra and Gujarat in 2006. The floods have not only devastated
life and property but also caused extensive soil erosion. Sedimentation also meant that the flood plains were
deprived of silt, a natural fertiliser, further adding on to the problem of land degradation. It was also observed
that the multi-purpose projects induced earthquakes, caused water-borne diseases and pests and pollution
resulting from excessive use of water.

Questions :

1. Name the movement against the river project in Gujarat.

2. How have the big dams mostly been unsuccessful in controlling floods at the time of excessive
rainfall ?

3. Analyse any two merits of multi-purpose river projects.

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give the status of national
language to any one language.

Hindi was identified as the official language. But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of
Indians. Therefore, there were many safeguards to protect other languages. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other
languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. A candidate in an examination conducted
for the Central Government positions may opt to take the examination in any of these languages.

States too have their own official languages. Much of the government work takes place in the official language
of the concerned state. Unlike Sri Lanka, the leaders of our country adopted a very cautious attitude in
spreading the use of Hindi.

According to the Constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in 1965. However, many non-
Hindi speaking states demanded that the use of English continue. In Tamil Nadu, this movement took a violent
form. The Central Government responded by agreeing to continue the use of English along with Hindi for official
purposes.

Many critics think that this solution favoured the English speaking elite. Promotion of Hindi continues to be the
official policy of the Government of India. Promotion does not mean that the Central Government can impose
Hindi on states where people speak a different language. The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders helped
our country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 14 Page 9

Questions :

1. Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Why?

2. Evaluate the importance of continuing English as the official language of India.

3. State the differences between India and Sri Lanka on the basis of status of language.

36. Read the passage given below and answer the questions followed:

Population trends and dynamics can have an enormous effect on prospects for poverty reduction and
sustainable development. Poverty is influenced by – and influences – population dynamics, including population
growth, age structure, and rural-urban distribution. All of this has a critical impact on a country’s development
prospects and prospects for raising living standards for the poor. Investments in better health, including
reproductive health, are essential for individual security and for reducing mortality and morbidity (the condition
of suffering from a disease or medical condition), which in turn improve a country’s productivity and
development prospects.

Questions :

1. How does investing in improved healthcare infrastructure contribute to the reduction of preventable
diseases and chronic conditions?

2. Explain the relationship between population trends and poverty reduction.

3. ‘Poverty is influenced by – and influences – population dynamics, including population growth, age
structure, and rural-urban distribution.’ Analyse the statement and highlight the mutual relationship
between poverty and population.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the lines drawn near them.

A. The location of the Indian National Congress Session of 1927.

B. A place where Gandhiji ceremonially violated the Salt Law and manufactured salt by boiling salt
sea water.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 14 NODIA

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

C. A major port on the South-East coast of India.

D. A major sugarcane producing state.

E. A Software Technology Park

F. A major dam in Odisha.

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 15 1
Sample Paper 15

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Which one of the following option best signifies this picture?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) Overseas trade in western Indian ocean.

(b) Indian indentured labourers.

(c) Diggers at work in the Transvaal gold fields.

(d) Emigrants waiting to board the ship.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 15 NODIA

2. At which place, Catholic priests printed the first Tamil book in 1579?

(a) Cuttack (b) Cochin

(c) Calcutta (d) Madras

3. The Zollverein, formed in 1834, was a customs union among German states. What was its primary
objective?

(a) To create a military alliance against external threats.

(b) To eliminate internal tariffs and promote economic unity among German states.

(c) To establish a federal constitution for a unified Germany.

(d) To divide German territories among competing regional powers.

4. The Salt March, or Dandi March, in 1930 was a pivotal moment in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Which of the following were objectives of the Salt March?

1. Protest against the salt tax imposed by the British

2. Demand for Purna Swaraj (complete independence)

3. Strengthening of the Swadeshi movement

4. Establishment of British dominance in Indian markets

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

5. Which method is commonly used to prevent soil erosion on hilly terrains by constructing steps on slopes
to slow down water flow?

(a) Contour ploughing, which involves ploughing along the contour lines of the land.

(b) Terrace farming, which involves creating flat surfaces on slopes to prevent soil erosion.

(c) Strip cropping, where crops are grown in alternate strips to prevent water runoff.

(d) Mulching, where a layer of organic material is spread to protect the soil from erosion.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 6. The Chipko Movement was a significant environmental movement in India. Analyze the following
statements about the Chipko Movement:

1. It was a non-violent movement aimed at protecting forests from commercial logging.

2. The movement involved villagers physically hugging trees to prevent them from being cut down.

3. The Chipko Movement was initiated in the state of Rajasthan.

4. It led to the passing of stricter forest conservation laws in India.

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

7. Which of the following problems is commonly associated with the overuse of groundwater resources in
agricultural areas?

(a) Waterlogging, which damages crops by causing excessive water retention in the soil.

(b) Soil erosion, where topsoil is carried away by wind or water.

(c) Depletion of the water table, making it difficult to access groundwater for irrigation.

(d) Forest degradation, which occurs when trees are cut down for agricultural expansion.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 15 Page 3

8. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Monsoon is the main source of irrigation in India.

Statement II: The Green Revolution increased agricultural production through the use of high- yielding varieties
of seeds and fertilizers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

9. Which of the following is a negative outcome of democracy that can pose challenges to governance?

(a) Encouragement of diverse opinions and healthy debates.

(b) Slow decision-making due to extensive consultation and consensus-building.

(c) Empowerment of marginalized communities through inclusive policies.

(d) Increased transparency and accountability in government operations.

10. The principle of majoritarianism was adopted in Sri Lanka, leading to civil strife. Which of the following
were reasons for the Tamil protests in Sri Lanka?

1. Denial of equal political rights

2. Discrimination in jobs and education

3. The use of Sinhala as the official language

4. Equal treatment of all linguistic groups

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) 2 and 4

11. Local governments in India have been empowered by constitutional amendments. Which of the following
are functions of local governments under the 73rd Amendment Act?

1. Decision-making on local issues

2. Raising taxes for local development

3. Control over defense and national security

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 4. Implementation of rural development programs

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

12. Secularism in India means that the state does not promote any one , and citizens are free to practice,
propagate, and profess their religious beliefs.

(a) Language (b) Religion

(c) Political party (d) Culture

13. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The main function of political parties is to mobilize support for government policies.

Statement II: Political parties in India are prohibited from collaborating with each other. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 15 NODIA

14. Match Column - A with Column - B and choose the correct option:

Column-A (River) Column-B (Dam)

A. Mahanadi 1. Sardar Sarovar
B. Narmada 2. Hirakud
C. Chambal 3. Salal
D. Chenab 4. Rana Pratap Sagar
Options:

(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1 (b) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

(c) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3 (d) A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

15. How has globalization affected the employment opportunities in the service sector of India?

(a) It has reduced employment opportunities by automating service jobs.

(b) It has increased employment opportunities by expanding industries like IT, BPO, and tourism.

(c) It has had no impact on the service sector’s employment landscape.

(d) It has shifted employment from the service sector to the primary and secondary sectors.

16. Per capita income is often used to compare countries’ levels of development. Which of the following
statements about per capita income are correct?

1. It is the total income of the country divided by its population.

2. It does not reflect income inequalities within a country.

3. It is a reliable indicator of the quality of life.

4. Higher per capita income always leads to better development.

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 1

17. Underemployment or disguised unemployment is prevalent in the sector, where more people are
employed than actually required.

(a) Tertiary (b) Primary

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(c) Secondary (d) Manufacturing

18. Match the following columns :

Column-I (Type of Soil) Column-II (States)

A. Laterite soil 1. Western Madhya Pradesh

B. Alluvial soil 2. Western Rajasthan
C. Black soil 3. Karnataka
D. Arid soil 4. Uttar Pradesh
Option :

(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2 (b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2

(c) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2 (d) A - 3, B - 1, C - 2, D - 1

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 15 Page 5

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why does India hold 30% of the world’s iron ore reserves?

(a) India has rich deposits of high-grade iron ore.

(b) It exports most of its iron ore.

(c) It uses iron ore for chemical production.

(d) It focuses on domestic iron ore consumption.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

Country Literacy Rate (%) Life Expectancy (in years)

Country X 70 68
Country Y 85 75
Why does Country Y have a higher life expectancy than Country X?

(a) It lacks natural resources. (b) It has a lower birth rate.

(c) It has a higher population density. (d) It has better healthcare facilities.

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 21. The Holocaust was a tragic outcome of World War II.” Explain the causes and consequences of the
Holocaust.

22. Non-renewable resources are limited and can be exhausted.” Justify this statement with suitable
examples.

23. Democracy promotes social justice and equality.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

OR

Economic development is linked to democratic governance.” Explain the relationship between democracy and
economic growth.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 15 NODIA

24. Inflation affects the value of money.” Explain how inflation impacts the purchasing power of money.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Sonia aims to start a dairy farm and is unaware of the best practices for animal husbandry to ensure high
milk yield.” Assist her in identifying effective animal husbandry practices for a successful dairy farm.

26. The emergence of periodicals facilitated the exchange of scientific and literary ideas.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.

27. Suresh aims to protect endangered species in his local area. He is unsure about the measures that can be
taken to safeguard these species.” Help him identify effective measures to protect endangered wildlife
species.

28. Power sharing promotes equality among different groups in society.” Explain the statement by giving any
three examples.

29. Over the past few decades, India’s participation in global supply chains has increased, integrating its
industries with the world market. As a result, supply chain integration has become crucial for India’s
economic growth. Why is supply chain integration important for India? Support your answer by giving any
three reasons.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
OR

With the growth of global tourism, India has attracted visitors from around the world, boosting its tourism
industry. Consequently, global tourism has become a significant part of India’s economy. Why has global
tourism become so important in India? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 15 Page 7

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. The Concert of Europe aimed to maintain the balance of power.’ Substantiate the statement with key
features of the Concert.

OR

The ideas of Johann Gottfried Herder influenced European nationalism.’ Explain the statement with relevant
points.

31. Sunil learns that water resources are unevenly distributed in India. What factors contribute to the uneven
distribution of water resources, and how can this issue be addressed?

OR

Kamla’s village practices traditional methods of irrigation that waste water. What modern irrigation methods
can be adopted to improve water-use efficiency?

32. The division of powers between the Centre and States is a key feature of federalism.’ Analyse the
importance of this division of power.

OR

The success of federalism in India can be attributed to democratic politics.’ Substantiate this statement with
relevant examples.

33. Rural development is critical for a country like India, where a significant portion of the population lives in
villages. Explain how government programs aimed at improving infrastructure, agriculture, and access to
education can contribute to rural development and enhance the overall growth of the nation.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
OR

In a town, the average income has increased, but environmental degradation has also worsened. Explain why
sustainable development is important in this scenario and suggest ways to balance economic growth with
environmental conservation.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 15 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

Boys and girls are brought up to believe that the main responsibility of women is housework and bringing up
children. This is reflected in a Sexual Division of Labour in most families; women do all work inside the home
such as cooking, cleaning, washing clothes, tailoring, looking after children, etc., and men do all the work
outside the home. It is not that men cannot do housework; they simply think that it is for women to attend to
these things. When these jobs are paid for, men are ready to take up these works, Most tailors or cooks in
hotels are men. Similarly, it is not that women do not work outside their home. In villages, women fetch water,
collect fuel and work in fields. In urban areas, poor women work as domestic helper in middle class homes,
while middle class women work in offices. In fact the majority of women do some sort of paid work in addition
to domestic labour. But their work is not valued and does not get recognition.

Questions :

1. “Our society is still male-dominated patriarchal society”. Give an example to support the statement.

2. Mention any one feature of a patriarchal society.

3. How does the Indian Constitution ensure equal representation for women?

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

The Government in India buys wheat and rice from farmers at a ‘fair price’. This it stores in its godowns and
sells at a lower price to consumers through ration shops. The government has to bear some of the cost. In this
way, the government supports both farmers and consumers. There are a large number of activities which are
the primary responsibility of the government. The government must spend on these. Providing health and
education facilities for all is one example. Running proper schools and providing quality education, particularly
elementary education, is the duty of the government. India’s size of illiterate population is one of the largest in
the world. Similarly, we know that nearly half of India’s children are malnourished and a quarter of them are
critically ill. The infant mortality rate of Odisha (40) or Madhya Pradesh (48) is higher than some of the poorest
regions of the world. Government also needs to pay attention to aspects of human development such as
availability of safe drinking water, housing facilities for the poor and food and nutrition. It is also the duty of the
government to take care of the poorest and most ignored regions of the country through increased spending in
such areas.

Questions :

1. Why is there a need of public sector in an economy?

2. Give some examples of public sector.

3. Differentiate between the private and public sectors.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 15 Page 9

36. Study the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

Over a long time (more than hundred years), and especially because new methods of manufacturing were
introduced, factories came up and started expanding. Those people who had earlier worked on farms, now
began to work in factories in large numbers. People began to use many more goods that were produced in
factories at cheap rates. Secondary sector gradually became the most important in total production and
employment. Hence, over time, a shift had taken place. This means that the importance of the sectors had
changed.

The unorganised sector is characterised by small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of
the government. There are rules and regulations, but these are not followed. Jobs here are low-paid and often
not regular. There is no provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays, leave due to sickness etc. Employment is
not secure. People can be asked to leave without any reason. When there is less work, such as during some
seasons, some people may be asked to leave. A lot also depends on the whims of the employer. This sector
includes a large number of people who are employed on their own doing small jobs such as selling on the street
or doing repair work. Similarly, farmers work on their own and hire labourers as and when they require.

More than half of the workers in the country are working in the primary sector, mainly in agriculture, producing
only a quarter of the GDP. In contrast to this, the secondary and tertiary sectors produce three fourth of the
products whereas they employ less than half of the people. Does this mean that the workers in agriculture are
not producing as much as they could? What it means is that there are more people in ag-riculture than is
necessary. So, even if you move a few people out, production will not be affected. In other words, workers in
agricultural sector are underemployed.

Question :

1. This means that the importance of the sectors had changed. Which sector has lost its prior
importance?

2. Why do most people engage in unorganized sector in spite of it’s bad working conditions?

3. “What it means is that there are more people in agriculture than is necessary. So, even if you move a
few people out, production will not be affected”. What type of employment or unemployment
situation is referred by this statement?

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

(A) The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the salt law.

(B) The place where mass massacre took place in Amritsar on 13 April 1919.

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any 3 of the following with suitable symbols.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(i) Haldia - Major sea port

(ii) Nuclear Power Plant in UP

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 15 NODIA

(iii)Tehri - Dam

(iv) Thiruvananthapuram - International Airport

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 16 1
Sample Paper 16

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Which of the following best signifies the above image?

(a) Jikji of Korea

(b) A Portrait of Johann Gutenberg, 1584

(c) Gutenberg Printing Press

(d) Pages of Gutenberg’s Bible

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 16 NODIA

2. Arrange the following events of world history in increasing order of their date of occurrence

1. Unification of Italy

2. Vienna Peace Settlement

3. Napoleon wars begin

4. Unification of Germany

(a) 3, 2, 1, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1

(c) 2, 4, 3, 1 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

3. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre in 1919 had what significant impact on the Indian freedom struggle?

(a) It led to widespread anger and the beginning of the Non-Cooperation Movement.

(b) It convinced Indian leaders to cooperate with the British for gradual reforms.

(c) It caused Mahatma Gandhi to abandon non-violence in favor of armed rebellion.

(d) It resulted in the British government granting limited self-rule to India.

4. The 19th century saw the rise of a global agricultural economy. Which of the following contributed to the
creation of a global agricultural economy?

1. Expansion of European colonialism

2. Growth of international markets for agricultural products

3. Mechanization of farming in colonies

4. Development of global transport networks

Options :

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2, and 4

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, and 3

5. Which of the following biogeographical regions in India is known for its unique and rich biodiversity,
including several endemic species?

(a) The Deccan Plateau, which is primarily known for its arid climate and mineral resources.

(b) The Western Ghats, a biodiversity hotspot with a high number of endemic plant and animal species.

(c) The Thar Desert, which is a dry region with limited biodiversity compared to other areas
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (d) The Indo-Gangetic Plains, which are known for their fertile soil but not high biodiversity.

6. India has implemented several large-scale water projects to manage its water resources. Analyze the
following statements about multi-purpose projects like the Bhakra Nangal Dam:

1. These projects are designed solely for hydroelectric power generation.

2. They provide irrigation facilities to large agricultural areas, enhancing food production.

3. Multi-purpose projects help in flood control by regulating river flow.

4. Such dams have no impact on local ecosystems and communities.

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 16 Page 3

7. Which of the following agricultural practices helps in conserving soil and water by growing different types
of crops on the same piece of land?

(a) Crop rotation, where different crops are grown in succession to improve soil health.

(b) Monoculture, which involves growing only one type of crop year after year.

(c) Shifting cultivation, where land is cleared for farming and then abandoned after a few years.

(d) Slash and burn agriculture, where vegetation is burned to clear land for cultivation.

8. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Coal is a non-metallic mineral. Statement II: India has significant reserves of iron ore. Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct.

(b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct.

(d) Neither I nor II is correct.

9. What is the significance of cooperative federalism in India’s power-sharing mechanism?

(a) It encourages states to work independently without interference from the central government.

(b) It promotes collaboration between the central and state governments to achieve common goals.

(c) It allows the central government to impose policies on states without their consent.

(d) It restricts states from enacting their own laws, ensuring uniformity across the country.

10. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments were passed to strengthen local government institutions.
Which of the following provisions were introduced by these amendments?

1. Reservation of seats for women in local bodies

2. Introduction of local governments in urban and rural areas

3. Central government control over local governments

4. Regular elections to local government institutions

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

11. Gender inequality persists in India despite legal safeguards. Which of the following are challenges faced
by women in India?

1. Unequal access to education

2. Domestic violence

3. Equal representation in parliament

4. Unequal wages for the same work

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) 2 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 16 NODIA

12. One of the major challenges facing political parties in India is the lack of democracy within parties,
where decisions are often made by a few top leaders rather than through consultation with members.

(a) Public (b) Local

(c) Internal (d) Electoral

13. Consider the following statements regarding power-sharing in Belgium and choose the correct answer:

Statement I : Belgium’s power-sharing model accommodated different linguistic groups by ensuring an equal
number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers.

Statement II : Belgium’s unique arrangement led to a peaceful and stable political environment.

(a) Only Statement I is correct

(b) Only Statement II is correct

(c) Both Statements I and II are correct

(d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

14. Match the following:

List-I (Crops) List-II (Geographical conditions)

A. Barley 1. Hot and dry climate with poor soil
B. Rice 2. Cool climate with poorer soil
C. Millets 3. Warm and moist climate with high altitude
D. Tea 4. Hot and moist climate with rich soil
Option :

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-3, B-4, C-1,D-2

(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

15. Which of the following best explains the concept of economic inequality within a developing country?

(a) Uniform distribution of income and wealth among all citizens.

(b) Significant disparities in income and wealth distribution, leading to social and economic divisions.

(c) Complete absence of poverty and equitable access to resources for everyone.

(d) Government policies that ensure equal opportunities for all economic classes.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 16. The secondary sector is crucial for industrial growth in India. Which of the following industries belong to
the secondary sector?

1. Textile production

2. Mining and quarrying

3. Manufacturing

4. Banking and finance

Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 3 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 16 Page 5

17. Formal credit institutions, such as banks and cooperatives, are monitored by the to ensure that loans
are given at reasonable rates of interest.

(a) Finance Ministry

(b) World Bank

(c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

(d) Commercial Banks

18. Match the following from List I and List II:

List I List II

A. Rice 1. Temperature- 25° C, Rainfall- 100 cm-200 cm

B. Wheat 2. Temperature- 20-25° C, Rainfall- 50 cm-75 cm

C. Maize 3. Temperature- 21-25° C, Rainfall- 50 cm-75 cm

D. Pulses 4. Temperature- 20-25° C, Rainfall- 50 cm-75 cm

Option :

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

(b) A-3, B-4, C-2,D-1

(c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

(d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Why does the steel industry contribute 30 percent of total industrial output?

(a) It supports infrastructure development.

(b) It is mostly used for the textile industry.

(c) It requires less energy than other industries.

(d) It is primarily used in agriculture.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 16 NODIA

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

Sector Contribution to GDP (in %) Employment (in %)

Primary Sector 25 50

Secondary Sector 30 25
Tertiary Sector 45 25

Why does the tertiary sector have the highest contribution to GDP but lower employment?

(a) It is a labor-intensive sector.

(b) It lacks growth potential.

(c) It requires more skilled labor and technology.

(d) It depends on primary sector output.

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Print media was instrumental in the spread of nationalist ideas.” Explain how print media fostered
nationalism.

22. “Protected areas are important for wildlife preservation.” Explain how they contribute.

23. “Joint decision-making between center and states is a feature of power sharing.” Explain the significance
of this feature.

OO

“Federalism in India accommodates its vast diversity.” Justify the statement with appropriate arguments.

24. “Information Technology is a driving force behind globalization.” Explain how IT has facilitated
globalization.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. “Lalita is concerned about the depletion of fossil fuels and wants to explore alternative energy options for
her household.” Help her identify sustainable and alternative energy sources that can replace fossil fuels
for household use.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 16 Page 7

26. Romanticism influenced the development of national consciousness in Europe.” Explain the statement by
giving suitable examples.

27. Vikas plans to enhance the healthcare infrastructure in his region. He is unsure about the critical elements
that make up a robust healthcare system.” Help him identify the key elements required to develop a
strong and effective healthcare infrastructure in his region.

28. Federalism accommodates regional differences in a nation.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

29. Between 1990 and 2020, India has witnessed a rise in urbanization, leading to the growth of cities and
urban areas. Consequently, urban development has become a key aspect of India’s development plans.
Why has urban development become so important in India’s development strategy? Support your answer
by giving any three reasons.

OO

India has made strides in improving gender equality over the past few decades, enhancing women’s
participation in various sectors. As a result, gender equality has become a vital component of India’s
development agenda. Why is gender equality important for India’s overall development? Support your answer
by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. The Salt March symbolized the unity and strength of the Indian nationalist movement.’ Substantiate the
statement with key features.

OO

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
The role of leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose was instrumental in shaping Indian
nationalism.’ Explain the statement with relevant points.

31. Arjun notices that the use of chemical fertilizers is leading to soil degradation in his village. What are the
impacts of overusing chemical fertilizers, and how can organic farming be promoted?

OO

Vandana’s community is interested in crop diversification. What are the benefits of crop diversification, and
how can it help improve farmers’ income?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 16 NODIA

32. ‘Affirmative action policies have helped in addressing caste discrimination.’ Explain the role of reservation
policies in promoting social justice.

OO

‘The intersection of caste, gender, and religion creates multiple layers of discrimination.’ Analyse how these
factors contribute to social inequalities.

33. Mr. B is interested in starting a small manufacturing unit in his village. How does the growth of the
secondary sector, especially in industries and manufacturing, contribute to the economic development of
a country, and how can it create more employment opportunities for people?

OO

Young people are migrating from rural areas to cities for jobs in the service sector. What are the benefits of this
migration for the economy, and what challenges does it pose for rural communities?

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

We can understand the necessity of political parties by imagining a situation without parties. Every candidate in
the elections will be independent. So, no one will be able to make any promises to the people about any major
policy changes. The government may be formed, but its utility will remain ever uncertain.

Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency for what they do in the locality. But, no one
will be responsible for how the country will be run.

We can also think about it by looking at the non-party based elections to the panchayat in many states.
Although, the parties do not contest formally, it is generally noticed that the village gets split into more than
one faction, each of which puts up a ‘panel’ of its candidates.

Thus, it exactly what the party does. That is the reason, we find political parties in almost all countries of the
world whether these countries are big or small, old or new, developed or developing .

The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies. As we have seen,
large societies need representative democracy. As societies became large and complex, they also needed some
agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government. They needed some
ways, to bring various representatives together so that a responsible government could be formed. They
needed a mechanism to support or restrain the government, make policies, justify or oppose them. Political
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
parties fulfill these needs that every representative government has. We can say that parties are a necessary
condition for a democracy.

Questions :

1. What is the necessity of political parties in the efficient and effective running of the democracy?

2. What do you understand by the term ‘responsible government’ ?

3. State any two features of representative democracy.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 16 Page 9

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

Money is a fascinating subject and full of curiosities. The history of money and how various forms were used at
different times is an interesting story. Modern forms of money are linked to the banking system. The present
situation in India, where newer forms of money are slowly spreading with computerisation of the banking
system, offers many opportunities to students to explore on their own. We need not get into a formal discussion
of the ‘functions of money’ but let it come up as questions. The stock of money consists of currency held by the
public and the demand deposits that they hold with the banks. This is the money that people can use as they
wish and the government has to ensure that the system works smoothly. What would happen when the
government declares that some of the currency notes used by people would be made invalid and would be
replaced by new currency? In India, during November 2016, currency notes in the denomination of ` 500 and

` 1,000 were declared invalid. People were asked to surrender these notes to the bank by a specific period and
receive new ` 500, ` 2,000 or other currency notes. This is known as ‘demonetisation’.

Since then, people were also encouraged to use their bank deposits rather than cash for transactions. Hence,
digital transactions started by using bank-to-bank transfer through the internet or mobile phones, cheques,
ATM cards, credit cards and Point of Sale (POS) swipe machines at shops. This is promoted to reduce the
requirement of cash for transactions and also control corruption.

Questions :

1. What can be counted as a modern form of money?

2. Which factor according to the given case primarily facilitates the expansion of newer currency?

3. State the possible benefits from demonetisation.

36. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows :

Every loan agreement specifies an interest rate which the borrower must pay to the lender along with the
repayment of the principal. In addition, lenders may demand collateral (security) against loans. Collateral is an
asset that the borrower owns (such as land, building, vehicle, livestocks, deposits with banks) and uses this as a
guarantee to a lender until the loan is repaid.

The various types of loans can be conveniently grouped as formal sector loans and informal sector loans.
Among the former are loans from banks and cooperatives. The informal lenders include moneylenders, traders,
employers, relatives and friends, etc. The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of
loans. For instance, we have seen that the banks maintain a minimum cash balance out of the deposits they
receive. The RBI monitors the banks in actually maintaining cash balance.

Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits as cash with themselves. For example, banks in India these
days hold about 15 per cent of their deposits as cash. This is kept as provision to pay the depositors who might
come to withdraw money from the bank on any given day. Since, on any particular day, only some of its many
depositors come to withdraw cash, the bank is able to manage with this cash.

Questions :

1. What do you mean by collateral in banking system?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 2. Who supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans?

3. What per cent of deposits is used as cash by Bank?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 16 NODIA

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the outline map of India. Identify them and write their
correct names on the line drawn near them.

A. The place associated with the Congress session of September 1920.

B. The place where a violent incident caused Mahatma Gandhi to call off the Non-Cooperation
Movement.

(b) On the same outline map of India label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

C. Noida Software Technology Park

D. A dam located in Mahanadi river

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 E. An airport in Chennai

F. Tarapur nuclear power plant

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 17 1
Sample Paper 17

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Choose the correct statement about the image given bellow.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) This image was painted by artist Lorenz Clasen.

(b) This image was painted by artist Julius Hübner

(c) Germania guarding the Rhine was the title of this painting.

(d) Philip Veit, was the artist who have made this painting.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 17 NODIA

2. Arrange the following in the correct sequence: The Rowlatt Act:

1. Martial law was imposed, and General Dyer took command.

2. Gandhiji decided to launch a nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act.

3. Local leaders were picked up from Amritsar, and Mahatma Gandhi was barred from entering Delhi.

4. It gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities.

Options

(a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1

(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

3. Which of the following describes the impact of the First World War on the global economy?

(a) European economies were devastated, and colonies were heavily taxed to fund the war.

(b) The war led to an economic boom in Europe due to increased industrial production.

(c) The war had little impact on European economies, which continued to prosper.

(d) European economies flourished, and global trade expanded rapidly during the war.

4. Newspapers became an important medium for spreading political ideas in the 19th century. Which of the
following were roles played by newspapers in promoting political awareness?

1. Informing the public about government policies

2. Criticizing colonial rule in India

3. Supporting the status quo and opposing reform movements

4. Spreading nationalist ideas across the country

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

5. Which of the following traditional methods of irrigation is commonly practiced in the arid and semi-arid
regions of Rajasthan?

(a) Drip irrigation, which uses pipes to deliver water directly to the roots of plants.

(b) Tank irrigation, where rainwater is stored in tanks and ponds for agricultural use.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (c) Canal irrigation, where water is transported through canals from rivers and dams.

(d) Sprinkler irrigation, where water is sprayed over crops using mechanized sprinklers.

6. Regarding the challenges faced by Indian agriculture, identify the correct statements.

1. Dependence on monsoon rains affects crop production.

2. Overuse of chemical fertilizers leads to soil degradation.

3. Lack of technological advancements hampers growth.

4. Excessive mechanization reduces employment opportunities.

Options:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 17 Page 3

7. Which of the following states is the leading producer of iron ore in India, contributing significantly to the
steel industry?

(a) Odisha, which is rich in iron ore deposits.

(b) Rajasthan, known for marble and limestone but not for iron ore.

(c) Punjab, which has limited mineral resources.

(d) Assam, known for its oil fields rather than iron ore.

8. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Small-scale industries play a vital role in the economic development of a country. Statement II:
Large-scale industries require less capital investment compared to small-scale industries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

9. How does the Indian Constitution address disputes between the central and state governments regarding
legislative powers?

(a) By allowing the central government to override any state laws without consultation.

(b) By appointing a special committee to negotiate and resolve conflicts amicably.

(c) By empowering the Supreme Court to adjudicate and resolve such disputes.

(d) By ignoring disputes and allowing both governments to enforce their own laws independently.

10. Indian politics has seen significant changes in the role of religion. Which of the following statements about
religion and politics are correct?

1. Religion and politics are kept completely separate in a democracy.

2. Political parties sometimes make appeals to religious groups.

3. Citizens are allowed to express their religious beliefs through political action.

4. Religious conflicts have no impact on political decisions.

Options :

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 4

11. Democratic systems benefit from the competition between political parties. Which of the following best
describes the role of opposition parties in a democracy?

1. Criticizing the policies of the ruling party

2. Supporting the ruling party’s decisions unconditionally

3. Offering alternative policies to the public

4. Encouraging political debate and dissent

Options :

(a) 1, 3, and 4 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 17 NODIA

12. In a democratic system, the government is accountable to the people and is expected to work for the
welfare of citizens, promoting social and economic justice.

(a) Some (b) Majority

(c) All (d) Wealthy

13. Consider the following features of Indian federalism and choose the correct answer:

Statement I : Indian federalism ensures that power is divided between the central and state governments.

Statement II : The Indian Constitution provides states with equal powers.

(a) Only Statement I is correct (b) Only Statement II is correct

(c) Both Statements I and II are correct (d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

14. Choose the correct option from columns A and B.

Column A Column B
A. Chandrapur Thermal power plant 1 Odisha
B. Mayurbhanj iron ore mines 2. Amarkantak
C. Kalol oil fields 3. Gujarat
D. Bauxite mines 4. Jharkhand
Option :

(a) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2 (b) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1

(c) A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1 (d) A - 3, B - 1, C -4, D - 2

15. How does the primary sector impact the overall economic development of India?

(a) By limiting economic growth to only industrial activities.

(b) By providing essential raw materials for other sectors, supporting agriculture and mining industries.

(c) By focusing solely on information technology and service-based industries.

(d) By restricting the development of manufacturing and service sectors.

16. Credit can also lead to debt traps in certain cases. Which of the following situations can lead to a debt
trap?
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 1. High-interest rates on loans

2. Failure of the borrower’s business or crop

3. Taking multiple loans to repay old loans

4. Loans provided with no repayment terms

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 3, and 4

17. Globalization has led to the integration of production and markets across the world, resulting in increased
between businesses globally.

(a) Competition b) Partnership

(c) Fragmentation (d) Collaboration

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 17 Page 5

18. Match the following:

Problem faced by farming sector Some possible measures

A. Setting up agro-based mills 1. Unirrigated land
B. Cooperative marketing societies 2. Low prices for crops
C. Procurement of foodgrains by government 3. Debt burden
D. Construction of canals by the government 4. No job in the off season
E. Banks to provide credit with low interest 5. Compelled to sell their grains to the local traders
soon after harvest.
Option :

(a) A - 3, B - 1, C - 2, D - 5, E - 3 (b) A - 3, B - 5, C - 1, D - 2, E - 4

(c) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1, E - 5 (d) A - 4, B - 5, C - 2, D - 1, E - 3

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why does Maharashtra contribute 20 percent to industrial GDP?

(a) It has well-developed ports and industrial hubs.

(b) It focuses more on agriculture.

(c) It has fewer manufacturing industries.

(d) It imports most raw materials from other states.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 Bank Interest Rate on Loans (in %) Interest Rate on Deposits (in %)
Bank A 7% 4%
Bank B 9% 5%
Why would customers prefer to deposit their money in Bank B?

(a) It provides better customer service.

(b) It has a lower loan interest rate.

(c) It has more ATMs.

(d) It offers a higher interest rate on deposits.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 17 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. The concept of national identity emerged prominently during the 19th century.” Explain the factors that
contributed to the rise of national identity in Europe.

22. Rainwater harvesting can alleviate water scarcity.” Explain how.

23. The role of the Finance Commission is pivotal in Indian federalism.” Explain the significance of the Finance
Commission.

OR

Emergency provisions affect federalism in India.” Justify this statement with suitable arguments.

24. Social indicators are essential to assess development.” Justify the statement with suitable examples.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Priya wants to reduce waste in her plastic manufacturing business. She is unaware of sustainable
manufacturing practices that can help achieve this goal.” Assist her in identifying sustainable
manufacturing practices that can minimize waste in plastic production.

26. Reform movements in the 19th century laid the foundation for Indian nationalism.” Explain the statement
by giving suitable examples.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
27. Manish wants to implement drip irrigation on his crop fields but is not familiar with its advantages and
installation process.” Guide him in understanding the benefits of drip irrigation and how to set it up
effectively on his farm.

28. Affirmative action helps in uplifting marginalized communities.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 17 Page 7

29. In the last few decades, India’s pharmaceutical industry has advanced, making it a global supplier of
generic drugs. As a result, the pharmaceutical sector has become an important part of India’s economy.
Why has the pharmaceutical sector gained prominence in India? Support your answer by giving any three
reasons.

OR

With increasing emphasis on renewable energy, India’s renewable energy sector has seen rapid growth,
reducing dependence on fossil fuels. Consequently, the renewable energy sector has become a key player in
India’s economy. Why has the renewable energy sector become so important in India? Support your answer by
giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. The impact of colonialism on indigenous economies was largely exploitative.’ Explain the statement with
relevant points.

OR

The rise of capitalism was intertwined with the process of globalization.’ Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

31. Arjun’s village has recently started using solar energy for electricity. What are the advantages of solar
energy, and how can it contribute to sustainable development in rural areas?

OR

Rina notices that large-scale mining activities are leading to land degradation in her region. What are the
environmental and social impacts of mining, and how can mining activities be made more sustainable?

32. The increasing use of money and muscle power in elections undermines democratic processes.’ Discuss
the impact of money and muscle power on elections.

OR

Political parties offer various policy options to voters.’ Explain how political parties shape the policy-making
process.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 33. Miss C wants to understand the differences between formal and informal sources of credit. Explain the
advantages and disadvantages of borrowing from formal sources, like banks, versus informal sources, such
as moneylenders, and discuss the significance of interest rates and repayment terms.

OR

A rural family borrows money for farming but faces a crop failure and can’t repay the loan. What are the
potential consequences, and how can farmers be protected from debt traps?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 17 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the extracts carefully and answer the following questions:

Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings. Often conflicts arise among individuals because
some feel that they are not treated with due respect. The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of
democracy. Democracies throughout the world have recognised this, at least in principle. This has been
achieved in various degrees in various democracies.

Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the
individual. Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings. Non-democratic regimes often turn a
blind eye to or suppress internal social differences. Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is
thus a definite plus point of democratic regimes. It is necessary to understand that democracy is not simply rule
by majority opinion.

Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making that affects them
all. Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal
status and equal opportunity. There are instances still of caste-based inequalities and atrocities, but these lack
the moral and legal foundations. Perhaps it is the recognition that makes ordinary citizens value their
democratic rights.

Questions :

1. What are the basis of democracy?

2. Why democracy is considered as the superior form of government?

3. How does the Indian democracy strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated
castes?

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

Most regions of the world are getting increasingly interconnected. While this interconnectedness across
countries has many dimensions — cultural, political, social and economic - this chapter looks at globalisation in
a more limited sense. It defines globalisation as the integration between countries through foreign trade and
foreign investments by Multinational Corporations (MNCs).

If we look at the past thirty years or so, we find that MNCs have been a major force in the globalisation process
connecting distant regions of the world. Why are the MNCs spreading their production to other countries and
what are the ways in which they are doing so? In order to discuss this rather than relying on quantitative
estimates, the rapid rise and influence of the MNCs has been shown through a variety of examples, mainly
drawn from the Indian context. Globalisation has been facilitated by several factors.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Three of these have been highlighted: rapid improvements in technology, liberalisation of trade and investment
policies and pressures from international organisations such as the WTO. Improvement in technology is a
fascinating area for students and you may, with a few directions, encourage them to do their own explorations.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 17 Page 9

Questions :

1. Which factors are kept in mind by the MNC’s for setting up the production?

2. How an MNC exert strong influence on production at distant locations?

3. State the factors which facilitated Globalisation.

36. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:

Until the middle of the twentieth century, production was largely organised within countries. What crossed the
boundaries of these countries were raw material, food stuff and finished products. Colonies such as India
exported raw materials and food stuff and imported finished goods. Trade was the main channel connecting
distant countries. This was before large companies called Multinational Corporations (MNCs) emerged on the
scene.

Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets, i.e., markets of
their own countries, Producers can sell their produce not only in markets located within the country but can
also compete in markets located in other countries of the world. Similarly, for the buyers, import of goods
produced in another country is one way of expanding the choice of goods beyond what is domestically
produced.

Globalisation and greater competition among producers–both local and foreign producers–has been of
advantage to consumers, particularly the well-off sections in the urban areas. There is greater choice before
these consumers who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products. As a result, these
people today, enjoy much higher standards of living than was possible earlier.

Questions :

1. How are MNCs a major force in connecting the countries of the world?

2. How does foreign trade become a main channel in connecting countries?

3. How is globalisation beneficial for consumers?

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

(A) The place where Indian National Congress session was held in December, 1920.

(B) The place associated with Cotton Mill Workers Satyagraha.

(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

(i) Tuticorin Major Sea Port

Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
(ii) Bengaluru - Software Technology Park (iii)Mayurbhanj - Iron Ore Mines (iv)Indira Gandhi International
Airport

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 17 NODIA

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 18 1
Sample Paper 18

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Which of the following aspects best suits the ‘sword’ in the image?

(a) Heroism (b) Symbol of Strength

(c) Readiness to Fight (d) Symbol of freedom

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 18 NODIA

2. Arrange the following in the correct sequence of occurrence:

1. Formation of World Bank

2. Bretton Woods Conference

3. The Great Depression

4. First World War

Options :

(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 3, 4, 2, 1

(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. The spread of print culture in 19th-century Europe contributed to which major social development?

(a) It helped spread new political ideas and facilitated discussions on democracy and rights.

(b) It led to a decrease in public interest in politics and social reforms.

(c) It caused a decline in religious discussions and limited the role of the Church.

(d) It restricted access to education and made books more expensive and inaccessible.

4. Romanticism was a cultural movement that played an important role in fostering nationalist feelings in
19th-century Europe. Which of the following are characteristics of Romanticism?

1. Emphasis on reason and logic

2. Focus on emotion and intuition

3. Celebration of folk traditions and cultural heritage

4. Promotion of industrial development

Options :

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4

5. Which of the following is a Kharif crop grown during the rainy season in India?

(a) Wheat, which is grown during the winter season and harvested in the spring.

(b) Cotton, which is a Kharif crop that requires a warm climate and is grown in the rainy season.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (c) Gram, which is grown in the winter as a Rabi crop.

(d) Barley, which is grown in the Rabi season, not during the rainy months.

6. Which of the following minerals are primarily used in the production of steel? Identify the correct
statements.

1. Iron ore 2. Limestone

3. Bauxite 4. Coal

Options:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

7. Which industry is known as a basic industry because its products are used as raw materials for many other
industries?

(a) Cement industry, which is important for construction.

(b) Iron and steel industry, which provides materials for other industries.

(c) Jute industry, focused on making goods for specific uses.

(d) Sugar industry, which provides food products but not raw materials.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 18 Page 3

8. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Human resources include the knowledge, skills, and health of the population.

Statement II: Natural resources are not renewable and cannot be replenished. Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?

(a) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect. (b) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Both I and II are incorrect.

9. How does Gender-Based Violence impact society in India?

(a) It reinforces gender stereotypes and undermines the safety and dignity of individuals.

(b) It promotes gender equality by highlighting the differences between genders.

(c) It has minimal impact as it is not a prevalent issue in India.

(d) It primarily affects only the economic aspects of society without social implications.

10. India’s political party system encourages coalition governments. Which of the following are reasons for
the rise of coalition governments in India?

1. No single party gaining a majority in elections

2. Formation of alliances between regional and national parties

3. Decline of two-party dominance

4. Political instability leading to frequent elections

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 3 b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

11. Democratic systems are designed to reduce economic inequalities. Which of the following are examples of
economic outcomes of democracy?

1. Reduction of income inequality

2. Access to basic services like healthcare and education

3. Equal distribution of wealth among all citizens

4. Economic development that benefits all sections of society

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

12. In the context of the power-sharing model adopted by Belgium, which ensures peace among different
linguistic groups, the Constitution specifically mandates that the number of Dutch and French-speaking
ministers shall be in the central government to avoid any form of linguistic discrimination.

(a) Unequal (b) Equal

(c) Proportional (d) Based on elections

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 18 NODIA

13. Consider the following statements about gender inequality in India and choose the correct answer:
Statement I : The Indian Constitution provides equal rights to men and women in all aspects of life.

Statement II : In practice, women often face discrimination and inequality in various sectors like employment
and education.

(a) Only Statement I is correct (b) Only Statement II is correct

(c) Both Statements I and II are correct (d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

14. Choose the incorrect option from column A and column B.

Column A Column B

(a) Landless rural labourers More days of work and better wages
(b) Prosperous farmers from Punjab Availability of other sources of irrigation
(c) Farmers who depend only on rain for Assured a higher support prices for their crops
growing crops
(d) A rural woman from a land owning family Regular job and high wages to increase her income

15. What is the role of interest rates in the economy, particularly in the context of credit and borrowing?

(a) Interest rates determine the cost of borrowing money and influence consumer and business
spending.

(b) Interest rates have no significant impact on the borrowing habits of individuals and businesses.

(c) Interest rates are solely determined by the government without input from the banking sector.

(d) Interest rates are fixed and do not fluctuate based on economic conditions.

16. Globalization has led to greater competition in the global market. Which of the following are effects of
increased competition due to globalization?

1. Better quality products for consumers

2. Reduced prices of goods and services

3. Protection of local industries

4. Increased efficiency in production

Options :
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

17. In comparing countries’ development, income is a crucial measure that shows the average income of
citizens in a country.

(a) Gross (b) Total

(c) Per capita (d) National

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 18 Page 5

18. Match the following:

List I List II
A. Cotton Textile 1. Nitric acid
B. Chemical Industries 2. Potash
C. Cement Industry 3. Yarn
D. Fertiliser Industry 4. Gypsum
Option :

(a) C - 1, A - 2, D - 3, B - 4 (b) C - 1, A - 2, D - 4, B - 3

(c) C - 3, A - 2, D - 4, B - 1 (d) C - 3, A - 1, D - 2, B - 4

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why do small-scale industries provide 50 percent of total industrial employment?

(a) They require less capital and infrastructure.

(b) They use advanced technology.

(c) They focus on export-oriented goods.

(d) They are located in urban areas.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 Company Investment in India (in million USD) Exports (in million USD)
Company A 50 75
Company B 80 90

Why does Company B have higher exports compared to Company A?

(a) It imports raw materials from India.

(b) It is involved in small-scale industries.

(c) It focuses more on labor-intensive production.

(d) It lacks technological resources.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 18 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a prominent leader in Indian nationalism.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

22. Communication infrastructure supports national development.” Discuss its importance.

23. Women’s participation in politics strengthens democracy.” Explain how women’s participation benefits
democracy.

OO

Caste-based discrimination hinders social progress.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

24. Industrial growth is essential for the economic development of India.” Justify this statement with suitable
arguments.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Meera is interested in setting up a wastewater treatment plant for her community. She lacks knowledge
about the processes involved in wastewater treatment.” Help her understand and identify the key
processes involved in wastewater treatment for community use.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
26. Technological advancements in navigation and transportation connected different parts of the world.”
Explain the statement by giving suitable examples.

27. Siddharth wants to start a business in the recycling of minerals but is unsure about the process and the
types of minerals that can be recycled.” Guide him in understanding the mineral recycling process and
identifying recyclable minerals.

28. Political parties represent the interests of different sections of society.” Explain the statement by giving
any three examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 18 Page 7

29. In the last few decades, India’s insurance sector has expanded, offering financial protection to individuals
and businesses. As a result, insurance has become an integral part of India’s financial planning. Why has
the insurance sector gained importance in India? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

OO

With the introduction of financial technologies (FinTech), India’s financial services have become more
accessible and efficient. Consequently, FinTech has become a transformative force in India’s financial
landscape. Why has FinTech become so influential in India? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The accessibility of printed materials democratized knowledge and education.’ Explain the statement
with relevant points.

OO

The development of periodicals enhanced continuous public engagement in societal issues.’ Substantiate the
statement with key features.

31. Meena learns that the government is promoting small-scale industries in her area. What are the benefits
of small-scale industries for local economies, and how can they contribute to sustainable development?

OO

Ramesh sees that industries in his region are adopting automation. What are the advantages and
disadvantages of automation in manufacturing industries?

32. ‘Democracy promotes dignity and freedom of individuals.’ Explain how democracy upholds human dignity
and freedom.

OO

‘Democracy does not always lead to the most efficient decision-making.’ Analyse the challenges of decision-
making in democratic systems.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 33. Miss C is studying the role of technology in accelerating globalization. Explain how advancements in
communication, transport, and digital technologies have made it easier for countries to trade and invest
globally, and how this has affected India’s economy.

OO

An Indian consumer buys a smartphone made by a foreign company. How has globalization changed the
availability of goods and services in India, and how has it influenced consumer choices?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 18 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

Belgium and Sri Lanka both are democracies. Yet, they dealt with the question of power sharing differently. In
Belgium, the leaders have realised that the unity of the country is possible only by respecting the feelings and
interests of different communities and regions. Such a realisation resulted in mutually acceptable arrangements
for sharing power. Sri Lanka shows us a contrasting example. It shows us that if a majority community wants to
force its dominance over others and refuses to share power, it can undermine the unity of the country.

Questions:

1. How was the power sharing arrangement in Belgium different from that of in Sri Lanka?

2. Explain why power sharing is desirable.

3. List any two steps taken by the leaders of Belgium to accommodate all the communities.

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

However, for comparison between countries, total income is not such an useful measure. Since, countries have
different populations, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn. Hence,
we compare the average income which is the total income of the country divided by its total population. The
average income is also called Per Capita Income.

In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, this criterion is used in classifying countries.
Countries with Per Capita Income of US $ 12,056 per annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries and
those with her capita income of US $ 955 or less are called low-income- countries. India comes in the category
of low middle income countries because its Per Capita Income in 2017 was just US $ 1820 per annum. The rich
countries, excluding countries of Middle East and certain other small countries, are generally called developed
countries.

Questions :

1. Which factors are not considered while calculating total income?

2. What is the significance of classification of countries by the World Bank?

3. World Development Report has categorised the India as low middle income country. Do you agree
with theresults of this report.

36. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :

“Money in your pocket cannot buy all the goods and services that you may need to live well. So, income by itself
is not a completely adequate indicator of material goods and services that citizens are able to use. For example,
normally, your money cannot buy you a pollution-free environment or ensure that you get unadulterated

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
medicines, unless you can afford to shift to a community that already has all these things. Money may also not
be able to protect you from infectious diseases, unless the whole of your community takes preventive steps.”

Questions :

1. Between Punjab and Kerala which state has more average income but lags behind in public facilities ?

2. What is the value of providing some services collectively? Explain with examples.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 18 Page 9

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the lines drawn near them.

A. The place associated with the cotton Mill’s worker’s Satyagraha

B. The place where an incident occurred due to which Mahatma Gandhi called off the Non-
Cooperation Movement.

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

C. A dam in Rajasthan

D. Namrup Nuclear Power Plant

E. A Software Technology Park in Uttar Pradesh

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 F. A Seaport in West Bengal

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 19 1
Sample Paper 19

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Which of the following aspect best signifies in the above image?

(a) Silk Route (b) Industrialisation

(c) World War (d) Irish Potato Famine

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 19 NODIA

2. Arrange the following in the correct sequence of occurrence:

1. Dandi March

2. Kheda Satyagraha

3. Champaran Satyagraha

4. Arrival of Gandhiji

Options :

(a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1

(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

3. Which event marked the final step in the unification of Germany and the proclamation of the German
Empire?

(a) The signing of the Treaty of Versailles in 1919.

(b) The proclamation of the German Empire at the Palace of Versailles in 1871.

(c) The Congress of Vienna in 1815.

(d) The Frankfurt Assembly of 1848.

4. The Simon Commission, appointed by the British government in 1927, was boycotted by Indian political
leaders. Which of the following were reasons for the boycott of the Simon Commission?

1. Lack of Indian representation in the commission

2. Demand for dominion status for India

3. Opposition to British reforms

4. The commission’s failure to address communal issues

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3, and 4

5. Which of the following minerals is the primary source of aluminum and is mined extensively in India?

(a) Bauxite, which is the raw material for aluminum production.

(b) Copper, which is used in electrical industries.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (c) Iron ore, which is primarily used for steel production.

(d) Mica, which is used in electrical appliances.

6. Which of the following factors influence the location of manufacturing industries in India? Identify the
correct statements.

1. Proximity to raw materials reduces transportation costs.

2. Availability of skilled labor is not a significant factor.

3. Good infrastructure and connectivity facilitate industrial growth.

4. Access to markets and export facilities determines industrial location.

Options:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 19 Page 3

7. The Chipko Movement in India was primarily aimed at achieving which of the following goals?

(a) Protecting forests from deforestation by hugging trees to prevent them from being cut.

(b) Promoting commercial logging for economic development in forested regions of India.

(c) Encouraging mining activities in forested areas to exploit natural resources.

(d) Encouraging the expansion of agricultural land by clearing forests for farming.

8. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced
within a country.

Statement II: Human Development Index (HDI) considers factors like life expectancy, education, and per capita
income.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

9. How does the presence of multiple political parties benefit the democratic process in India?

(a) It creates confusion among voters and weakens the electoral system.

(b) It promotes competition, encourages diverse viewpoints, and enhances voter choice.

(c) It leads to frequent changes in government, causing instability in the political system.

(d) It restricts the formation of coalition governments by limiting party alliances.

10. Democracies are expected to promote transparency in governance. Which of the following measures
ensure transparency in democratic governance?

1. Access to information about government policies and actions

2. Judicial independence to review government actions

3. Closed-door decision-making by political leaders

4. Media freedom to report on government activities

Options :

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

11. Belgium’s system of power-sharing has been effective in maintaining peace. Which of the following
statements about Belgium’s power-sharing model are correct?

1. Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities have equal representation.

2. There is no separate government for the Brussels region.

3. Community governments can make decisions on cultural issues.

4. Power-sharing led to the division of the country.

Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4

12. In India’s federal system, which ensures a proper balance of power between different levels of
government, it is crucial that power is divided between the Union and State governments as per the
provisions laid down by the .

(a) Parliament (b) Constitution

(c) President (d) Supreme Court

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 19 NODIA

13. Consider the following regarding political parties in India and choose the correct answer: Statement I :
National political parties aim to represent the interests of the entire country. Statement II : Regional
parties focus on representing the specific interests of people in their respective states or regions.

(a) Only Statement I is correct (b) Only Statement II is correct

(c) Both Statements I and II are correct (d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

14. Match the columns P and column Q and select correct option :

Column P Column Q
A. MNCs buy at cheap rates from small producers 1. Automobiles machinery hemo.
B. Quotas and taxes on imports are used to regulate trade 2. Garments, foot wear, sports.
items.
C. Indian companies who have invested abroad. 3. Call centres.
D. IT has helped in spreading of production of services. 4. Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy
E. Several MNCs have invested in setting up factories in India 5. Trade barriers
for production.
Option :

(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 5, E - 1 (b) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 5, E - 4

(c) A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3, E - 5 (d) A - 2, B - 5, C - 4, D - 3, E - 1

15. What is the role of export promotion in India’s economic growth under globalization?

(a) Export promotion restricts India’s access to international markets and limits economic growth.

(b) Export promotion helps India increase its foreign exchange earnings and expand its global market
presence.

(c) Export promotion leads to a decline in domestic production and economic stagnation.

(d) Export promotion focuses only on agricultural products, neglecting industrial growth.

16. Developmental goals can vary from person to person. Which of the following could be considered
developmental goals for women in rural areas?

1. Equal pay for equal work

2. Access to clean drinking water

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 3. Free higher education

4. Better job opportunities in cities

Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2, and 3

(c) 1, 2, and 4 (d) 2 and 4

17. The value of goods and services produced in all three sectors of the economy during a given year is known
as the of the country.

(a) Net National Product (b) Gross National Product

(c) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) (d) Per capita income

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 19 Page 5

18. Match the following and choose correct option:

Problems faced by farming sector Some possible measures

1. Unirrigated land A. a Setting up agro-based mills

2. Low prices for crops B. b Cooperative marketing societies

3. Debt burden C. c Procurement of food grains by government

4. No job in the off season D. d Construction of canals by the government

5. Compelled to sell their grains to the local E. e Banks to provide credit with low interest
traders soon after harvest

(a) 1-A 2-B 3-C 4-D 5-E (b) 1-D 2-C 3-E 4-A 5-B

(c) 1-C 2-D 3-E 4-A 5-B (d) 1-B 2-C 3-E 4-D 5-A

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why do roadways handle 50 percent of freight movement?

(a) Road transport is more flexible and accessible.

(b) Roadways are used only for long distances.

(c) It is the most cost-effective mode of transportation.

(d) It is mostly used in mountainous regions.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

State Per Capita Income (in USD) Infant Mortality Rate (per 1000 births)
State A 3000 30
State B 5000 10
Why does State B have a lower infant mortality rate compared to State A?

(a) It has lower literacy rates.

(b) It has more agricultural workers.

(c) It has better healthcare facilities.

(d) It has higher levels of industrialization.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 19 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Decolonization accelerated after World War II.” Discuss the factors that contributed to the acceleration of
decolonization post-World War II.

22. “Petroleum is a non-renewable resource with strategic importance.” Discuss its role.

23. “Two-party systems can lead to political stability.” Explain the advantages of a two-party system.

OR

“Multiparty systems represent diverse interests.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

24. “Formal credit is more reliable than informal credit.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. “Sita aims to improve the agricultural productivity on her farm but is unaware of the various types of
resources that can aid in this goal.” Help her identify the different resources that can enhance agricultural
productivity.

26. “Print media influenced the strategies and successes of nationalist movements.” Explain the statement by
giving suitable examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
27. “Deepak plans to set up a food processing unit and needs to understand the infrastructure and resources
required for efficient operations.” Guide him in identifying the necessary infrastructure and resources for
establishing a food processing unit.

28. “Democracy ensures government responsiveness to the needs of the people.” Explain the statement by
giving any three examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 19 Page 7

29. In recent times, the ease of doing business in India has improved, attracting foreign entrepreneurs and
investors. As a result, business facilitation has become a key aspect of India’s economic strategy. Why is
improving the ease of doing business important for India? Support your answer by giving any three
reasons.

OR

Between 2000 and 2020, India’s export of goods and services has grown, contributing to foreign exchange
earnings. Consequently, exports have become a critical component of India’s economy. Why have exports
become so important for India? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘Nationalism led to the unification of Germany and Italy.’ Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

OR

‘The Revolutions of 1848 spread nationalist ideas across Europe.’ Substantiate the statement with key events.

31. Priya’s area is experiencing a reduction in forest cover. What are the ecological and economic
consequences of deforestation for her region?

OR

Ramesh lives near a protected wildlife sanctuary, but illegal hunting still occurs. What steps should be taken to
enforce wildlife protection laws and prevent poaching?

32. ‘Power sharing is essential to avoid social conflicts.’ Justify the importance of power sharing in a multi-
ethnic society.

OR

‘Power sharing in Belgium involved both linguistic and regional divisions.’ Explain how Belgium’s power-sharing
model accommodated diversity.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 33. Miss B strongly believes that public facilities like healthcare, education, and sanitation are essential to
improving people’s quality of life. How do the availability and accessibility of public services contribute to
human development and help in raising the overall standard of living in a community?

OR

A village has improved healthcare, resulting in lower child mortality rates and higher life expectancy. How do
such healthcare improvements contribute to the village’s long-term development?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 19 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various
constituent units of the country. Usually, a federation has two levels of government. One is the government for
the entire country that is usually responsible for a few subjects of common national interest. The others are
governments at the level of provinces or states that look after much of the day-to-day administering of their
state. Both these levels of governments enjoy their power independent of the other.

Questions :

1. How is unitary form of government different from federal form of government?

2. Mention any one aspect of Federalism.

3. Differentiate between coming together and holding together federations.

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

Another way of classifying economic activities into sectors could be on the basis of who owns assets and is
responsible for the delivery of services. In the public sector, the government owns most of the assets and
provides all the services. In the private sector, ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the hands of
private individuals or companies.

Railways or post office is an example of the public sector whereas companies like Tata Iron and Steel Company
Limited (TISCO) or Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) are privately owned.

Activities in the private sector are guided by the motive to earn profits. To get such services we have to pay
money to these individuals and companies.

The purpose of the public sector is not just to earn profits. Governments raise money through taxes and other
ways to meet expenses on the services rendered by it.

Modern day governments spend on a whole range of activities. There are several things needed by the society
as a whole but which the private sector will not provide at a reasonable cost.

Questions :

1. On what basis the bifurcation of public and private sector takes place?
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
2. Define the reason behind counting the railways and post office as a public sector.

3. Why public sector is needed in our country?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 19 Page 9

36. Study the given sources and answer the questions that follows:

Over the thirty years between 1973 and 2003, while production in all the three sectors has increased, it has
increased the most in the tertiary sector. As a result, in the year 2003, the tertiary sector has emerged as the
largest producing sector in India replacing the primary sector.

Every state or region has potential for increasing the income and employment for people in that area. It could
be tourism, or regional craft industry, or new services like IT. Some of these would require proper planning and
support from the government. For example, a study by the Planning Commission says that if tourism as a sector
is improved, every year we can give additional employment to more than 35 lakh people.

Workers in the organised sector enjoy security of employment. They are expected to work only a fixed number
of hours. If they work more, they have to be paid overtime by the employer. They also get several other benefits
from the employers. What are these benefits? They get paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund,
gratuity etc. They are supposed to get medical benefits, and, under the laws, the factory manager has to
ensure facilities like drinking water and a safe working environment. When they retire, these workers get
pensions as well.

Questions :

1. Which sector has the highest share in the year 2003?

2. How to create more employment in rural areas?

3. Write any two benefits of organised sector employees.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

(A) The place where Indian National Congress session was held in December, 1920.

(B) The place associated with calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.

(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

(i) New Mangalore - Major Sea Port

(ii) Mumbai - Software Technology Park (iii)Bailadila - Iron Ore Mines (iv)Kakrapara - Nuclear Power Plant

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 19 NODIA

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 20 1
Sample Paper 20

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Which of the following aspect best signifies the above image?

(a) Romanticism (b) Conservatism

(c) Federalism (d) Feminism

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 20 NODIA

2. Arrange the following events of German unification in increasing order of their date of occurrence

1 Friedrich Wilhelm IV rejected the demand of all German national assembly

2. The Frankfurt parliament convened in the Church of St Paul.

3. Kaiser William I of Prussia was proclaimed as the new German emperor.

4. Three wars over 7 years with Austria, Denmark and France was fought. (a) 3, 2, 1, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1

(c) 2, 1, 4, 2 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

3. Why did Mahatma Gandhi call off the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922, despite its growing success?

(a) The Chauri Chaura incident, where violence erupted, caused Gandhi to halt the movement.

(b) Gandhi decided to negotiate directly with the British for India’s independence.

(c) The movement had achieved its goals, and there was no longer a need for protests.

(d) The British government promised to grant full independence within a few years.

4. Indentured labor was a system that facilitated the migration of workers from Asia and Africa to European
colonies. Which of the following were features of the indentured labor system?

1. Workers were bound by contracts to work for a fixed period.

2. They were often treated like slaves.

3. They could freely return to their home countries after their contract ended.

4. They worked in plantations and mines in colonies.

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3

5. Which of the following factors is most important for the location of industries in a particular area?

(a) Availability of raw materials, which reduces transportation costs.

(b) Proximity to tourist attractions, which has little impact on industries.

(c) Climate conditions, which are important but secondary.

(d) Cultural heritage of the area, which doesn’t significantly affect industries.

6. Groundwater depletion is a significant issue in many parts of India. Consider the following statements:

1. Over-extraction of groundwater for agricultural purposes leads to the lowering of the water table.
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
 2. Groundwater depletion can cause land subsidence and reduced water availability for future use.

3. Artificial recharge of groundwater involves methods like percolation tanks and recharge wells.

4. Groundwater is a non-renewable resource and cannot be replenished naturally.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

7. Which of the following resources is classified as a biotic resource, derived from living organisms and
renewable in nature?

(a) Solar energy, which is a renewable but abiotic resource.

(b) Animals, which are living organisms and can reproduce, making them biotic resources.

(c) Iron ore, which is a non-living and non-renewable abiotic resource.

(d) Water, which is essential for life but classified as an abiotic resource.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 20 Page 3

8. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Tropical forests are rich in biodiversity and are found near the equator.

Statement II: Deciduous forests are also known as monsoon forests and lose their leaves during the dry season.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

9. How does democracy promote economic development in a country like India?

(a) By centralizing economic decisions in the hands of a few leaders.

(b) By encouraging free-market policies, investment, and entrepreneurial activities through stable
governance.

(c) By limiting foreign investments and focusing solely on domestic industries.

(d) By reducing competition and ensuring monopolistic practices in key sectors.

10. In democratic countries, power is shared among various institutions. Which of the following is an example
of power-sharing among social groups?

1. Community governments in Belgium

2. Reserved constituencies for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in India

3. Separation of powers between the legislature, executive, and judiciary

4. Division of powers between central and state governments

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 3

11. The Indian federal system provides for the division of powers between the Union and State governments.
Which of the following best describes a federal government?

1. A system of government where power is concentrated at the center.

2. A system of government where power is divided between a central authority and constituent political
units.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 3. A system where all decisions are taken by the central government.

4. A system where states have no power over central laws.

Options :

(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 4

12. In India, caste-based politics has a significant influence on the democratic process, often resulting in the
of certain social groups in government decision-making and policies, ensuring that their voices are
heard.

(a) Exclusion (b) Inclusion

(c) Marginalization (d) Domination

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 20 NODIA

13. Consider the following about the outcomes of democracy in India and choose the correct answer:
Statement I : Democracies are more accountable and responsive to the needs of their citizens compared
to other forms of government.

Statement II : Democracies always ensure economic equality and eliminate poverty.

(a) Only Statement I is correct

(b) Only Statement II is correct

(c) Both Statements I and II are correct

(d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

14. Match the following and choose the correct option.

Leader Role
A. Victor Emmanuel II 1. Chief Minister of Italy
B. Guiseppe Mazzini 2. Young Italy Movement
C. Guiseppe Garibaldi 3. Conquered the Kingdom of Sicillies
D. Count Cavour 4. Proclaimed as king of Unified Italy
(a) A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 2 (b) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

(c) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1 (d) A - 1, B - 4, C - 2, D - 3

15. How does industrialization contribute to the development of a country’s economy?

(a) By reducing the production capacity and limiting economic activities.

(b) By increasing employment opportunities, enhancing productivity, and fostering technological

advancements.

(c) By focusing solely on agricultural growth and neglecting other sectors.

(d) By decreasing the need for education and skilled labor in the workforce.

16. The tertiary sector has expanded rapidly in recent years. Which of the following are examples of jobs in
the tertiary sector?

1. Teaching and healthcare services 2. Automobile manufacturing

3. IT services and banking 4. Farming and mining

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4

17. When banks provide loans to individuals or businesses, they require as security against non-
repayment of the loan.

(a) Promissory notes (b) Collateral

(c) Interest (d) Credit rating

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 20 Page 5

18. Match the following items given in column A with those in Column B. Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:

Column A Column B
A. A form of guarantee against loan 1. Gomasthas
B. Supervise Weavers, collect supplies, and examine the quality of cloth 2. Shroffs and Chettairs

C. Group of bankers and traders who financed export of agriculture 3. Collateral

D. Caste system was based on exclusion and discrimination against 4. Outcaste
Options

(a) A – 4, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2 (b) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2, D – 4

(c) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4 (d) A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why does Mumbai handle 25 percent of India’s total trade?

(a) It is located on the west coast and has a natural harbor.

(b) It has fewer competitors.

(c) It handles only industrial exports.

(d) It primarily handles agricultural imports.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 State Net Sown Area (% of total land area) Forest Cover (% of total land area)
State A 55% 30%
State B 65% 20%
Why does State A have a higher forest cover than State B?

(a) State A has implemented strict afforestation policies.

(b) State B focuses more on urban development.

(c) State B is primarily an industrial region.

(d) State A has a lower net sown area.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 20 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “The Enlightenment was greatly influenced by print culture.” Discuss the relationship between print
culture and the Enlightenment.

22. “The pharmaceutical industry is essential for public health.” Discuss its importance.

23. “Citizen participation strengthens democratic institutions.” Justify this statement with suitable examples.

OR

“Protection of human rights is an outcome of democracy.” Explain how democracy safeguards human rights.

24. “Globalization has increased cultural exchanges between countries.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. “Lata is interested in promoting eco-tourism in her region. She needs to understand how forest resources
can be utilized for eco-tourism without harming the environment.” Assist her in identifying ways to use
forest resources sustainably for eco-tourism.

26. “The decline of feudalism contributed to the rise of nationalism in Europe.” Explain the statement by
giving suitable examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
27. “Sunita is planning to improve her town’s communication infrastructure. She lacks knowledge about the
different types of communication networks and their benefits.” Guide her in identifying the various
communication networks and how they can enhance her town’s connectivity and economic activities.

28. “Power sharing helps in better governance.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 20 Page 7

29. Over the last forty years, India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has grown consistently, reflecting
economic development. Consequently, economic growth has become a primary focus in India’s
development policies. Why is economic growth essential for India’s development? Support your answer
by giving any three reasons.

OR

In recent years, India has emphasized the importance of rural development to bridge the urban- rural divide. As
a result, rural development initiatives have become central to India’s development plans. Why is rural
development crucial for India’s overall development? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘Revolutionary activities played a vital role alongside non-violent protests in India’s independence.’ Justify
the statement with suitable arguments.

OR

The Quit India Movement marked a decisive phase in India’s struggle for independence.’ Substantiate the
statement with key features.

31. Meera lives in a region where overgrazing has led to land degradation. Suggest five methods to prevent
land degradation caused by overgrazing.

OR

An urban area faces the challenge of rapid deforestation to meet the demands of housing. What steps should
be taken to balance urban development and resource conservation?

32. ‘India is a quasi-federal country with a strong central government.’ Discuss the extent of federalism in
India.

OR

‘Local governments are an essential part of federalism.’ Explain the role of Panchayats and Municipalities in
Indian federalism.

33. Miss C believes the government should focus more on developing the primary sector, particularly
agriculture, as it is the backbone of rural India. Explain why agriculture remains vital to India’s economy,
despite the growth of other sectors, and how improving agricultural practices can lead to sustainable
development.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
OR

Seema works in a small shop (tertiary sector) but earns much less than her brother, who works in the IT sector.
How does the wage disparity between sectors affect people’s lives, and how can it be reduced?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 20 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

The Census of India records the religion of each and every Indian after every ten years. The person who fills the
Census form visits every household and records the religion of each member of that household exactly the way
each person describes it. If someone says she has ‘no religion’ or that he is an ‘atheist’, this is exactly how it is
recorded. Thus we have reliable information on the proportion of different religious communities in the country
and how it has changed over the years. The pie chart below presents the population proportion of six major
religious communities in the country. Since Independence, the total population of each community has
increased substantially but their proportion in the country’s population has not changed much. In percentage
terms, the population of the Hindus, Jains and Christians has declined marginally since 1961. The proportion of
Muslim, Sikh and Buddhist population has increased slightly. There is a common but mistaken impression that
the proportion of the Muslims in the country’s population is going to overtake other religious communities.
Expert estimates done for the Prime Minister’s High Level Committee (popularly known as Sachar Committee)
show that the proportion of the Muslims is expected to go up a little, by about 3 to 4 per cent, in the next 50
years. It proves that in overall terms, the population balance of different religious communities is not likely to
change in a big way.

Questions :

1. What do you mean by atheist?

2. How much growth rate of Muslim population fall in compare to last decadal census?

3. What did happen in population proportion of six major religious communities in India since
Independence?

35. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows :

Every loan agreement specifies an interest rate which the borrower must pay to the lender along with the
repayment of the principal. In addition, lenders may demand collateral (security) against loans. Collateral is an
asset that the borrower owns (such as land, building, vehicle, livestocks, deposits with banks) and uses this as a
guarantee to a lender until the loan is repaid.

The various types of loans can be conveniently grouped as formal sector loans and informal sector loans.
Among the former are loans from banks and cooperatives. The informal lenders include moneylenders, traders,
employers, relatives and friends, etc. The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of
loans. For instance, we have seen that the banks maintain a minimum cash balance out of the deposits they
receive. The RBI monitors the banks in actually maintaining cash balance.

Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits as cash with themselves. For example, banks in India these
days hold about 15 per cent of their deposits as cash. This is kept as provision to pay the depositors who might

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
come to withdraw money from the bank on any given day. Since, on any particular day, only some of its many
depositors come to withdraw cash, the bank is able to manage with this cash.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 20 Page 9

Questions :

1. What do you mean by collateral in banking system?

2. Who supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans?

3. What per cent of deposits is used as cash by Bank?

36. Read the extract and answer the questions that follows:

There is an interesting mechanism at work here. Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits as cash
with themselves. For example, banks in India these days hold about 15 percent of their deposits as cash. This is
kept as provision to pay the depositors who might come to withdraw money from the bank on any given day.
Since, on any particular day, only some of its many depositors come to withdraw cash, the bank is able to
manage with this cash. Banks use the major portion of the deposits to extend loans. There is a huge demand
for loans for various economic activities. We shall read more about this in the following sections. Banks make
use of the deposits to meet the loan requirements of the people. In this way, banks mediate between those who
have surplus funds (the depositors) and those who are in need of these funds (the borrowers). Banks charge a
higher interest rate on loans than what they offer on deposits. The difference between what is charged from
borrowers and what is paid to depositors is their main source of income. A large number of transactions in our
day to-day activities involve credit in some form or the other. Credit (loan) refers to an agreement in which the
lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future payment.

Questions :

1. What do you understand by the term credit?

2. Who will mediate between those who have surplus funds (the depositors) and those who are in need
of these funds (the borrowers)?

3. What does bank do with the deposits of public?

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the lines drawn near them.

A. The place where Congress Session was held in September 1920.

B. A place associated with Peasant Satyagraha.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 20 NODIA

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

C. Singrauli Thermal Power Plant

D. A Major Seaport in Kerala

E. An International Airport in Punjab

F. A Software Technology Park in Uttar Pradesh.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 21 1
Sample Paper 21

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Which of the following aspect best signifies this image?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) Round table conference at London

(b) Constituent Assembly of India

(c) The Frankfurt Parliament in the church of St. Paul

(d) The Hall of Mirrors of Versailles

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 21 NODIA

2. Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

1. Chauri Chaura Incident

2. Khilafat Movement

3. Jallianwala Bagh Incident

4. Mahatma Gandhi returned to India

Options

(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1

(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. Which of the following was an outcome of the Great Depression on European colonies?

(a) Colonies were forced to grow cash crops, leading to widespread poverty.

(b) Colonies became self-sufficient and independent of European powers.

(c) Colonies began industrializing rapidly, reducing dependence on European goods.

(d) Colonies gained political independence, ending European domination.

4. Print culture influenced debates on social issues in colonial India, particularly related to caste and gender.
Which of the following statements about print culture and social reform are correct?

1. Print culture provided a platform for social reformers to challenge orthodox practices.

2. The spread of print helped promote traditional caste hierarchies.

3. Women’s issues such as education were discussed through printed pamphlets and books.

4. Print culture was used by the British to suppress reform movements.

Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) 2 and 3

5. Which of the following is a characteristic of intensive subsistence farming in densely populated regions of
India?

(a) Use of high amounts of labor and fertilizers to increase crop production.

(b) Dependence on large machinery and automation for crop production.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (c) Growing a single crop over large areas for export to international markets.

(d) Use of traditional tools and minimal inputs to cultivate small plots of land.

6. In the classification of resources, understanding the difference between renewable and non- renewable
resources is crucial for sustainable management. Evaluate the following statements about renewable
resources in India:

1. Solar energy is a renewable resource that is abundant and sustainable.

2. Coal is considered a renewable resource as it can be replenished naturally over time.

3. Wind energy is harnessed as a renewable source through the use of wind turbines.

4. Timber from forests is a non-renewable resource due to its limited availability.

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) All statements are correct

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 21 Page 3

7. In India, which of the following activities is allowed in biosphere reserves but restricted in national parks
and wildlife sanctuaries?

(a) Commercial mining, which is strictly prohibited in all protected areas.

(b) Agriculture and the sustainable use of natural resources by local communities.

(c) Poaching and hunting of wild animals for sport or profit.

(d) Large-scale deforestation to clear land for urban development.

8. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Ganges River originates in the Himalayas.

Statement II: Groundwater recharge occurs when excess rainwater percolates through the soil to replenish
aquifers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

9. Which feature of the Indian Constitution ensures that both the central and state governments have their
own distinct areas of authority?

(a) Concurrent List (b) Union List

(c) State List (d) Federal Structure

10. India’s federal system provides for different types of power-sharing arrangements. Which of the following
is an example of vertical power-sharing in India?

1. Power shared between the central government and state governments

2. Power shared between different organs of government

3. Power shared between different social groups

4. Power shared among different levels of local government

Options :

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 1

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 11. Caste inequalities are deeply rooted in Indian society. Which of the following statements about caste
inequalities are correct?

1. Caste inequalities have been addressed by legal measures.

2. Caste-based reservations are provided in educational institutions.

3. Discrimination based on caste is permitted in rural areas.

4. Caste inequalities no longer exist in urban areas.

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

12. Political parties are an integral part of a democracy, and their main role includes representing the people
and ensuring that their voices are heard in governance. One of the most important functions of political
parties is .

(a) Imposing laws (b) Making policies

(c) Contesting elections (d) Suppressing opposition

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 21 NODIA

13. Which of the following is a key feature of power-sharing arrangements in a democracy? Statement I : It
prevents the domination of any one group by ensuring that power is shared across all levels of
government.

Statement II : Power-sharing helps in reducing conflicts between different social groups.

(a) Only Statement I is correct

(b) Only Statement II is correct

(c) Both Statements I and II are correct

(d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

14. Match the following:

List I List I
A. Soybean 1. Kharif
B. Peas 2. Leguminous
C. Groundnut 3. Zaid
D. Watermelon 4. Rabi
Option :

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

15. Which of the following activities is part of the secondary sector of the Indian economy?

(a) Cultivating crops and raising livestock.

(b) Manufacturing automobiles and textiles.

(c) Providing healthcare and education services.

(d) Conducting scientific research and information technology services.

16. Collateral is often required by banks before giving loans. Which of the following best describes collateral?

1. A small deposit made by the borrower

2. A guarantee provided by a third party

3. An asset that the borrower owns and pledges as security for the loan
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 4. A gift given by the lender to the borrower

Options :

(a) Only 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4

17. India’s policy of liberalization, which began in 1991, encouraged foreign investment by removing trade
barriers, such as import and export restrictions.

(a) Taxes (b) Duties

(c) Quotas (d) Subsidies

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 21 Page 5

18. Match List I (forms of power-sharing) with List II (forms of government) and select the correct answer
using codes given below the lists:

List I List II

I. Power sharing among different organs of government A. Communist government

II. Power shared among government at different levels B. Separation of powers

III. Power shared by different social groups C. Coalition of government

IV. Power shared by two or more political parties D. Federal government

Option :

(a) I - D, II - A, III - B, IV - C (b) II - B, II - C, III - D, IV - A

(c) III - B, II - D, III - A, IV - C (d) IV - C, II - D, III - A, IV - B

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why do mobile services account for 60 percent of the total telecommunication users?

(a) Mobile services are more affordable and accessible.

(b) Mobile phones are used primarily in rural areas.

(c) Landline services are more efficient.

(d) Internet services require complex infrastructure.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

State Deforestation Rate (per year) Reforestation Rate (per year)

State A 3% 2%
State B 1.5% 4%
Why does State B have a better forest cover recovery rate compared to State A?

(a) State A has a lower reforestation rate.

(b) State A has higher urbanization rates.

(c) State B focuses more on industrial development.

(d) State B has implemented better forest management programs.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 21 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Bismarck’s Realpolitik was instrumental in German unification.” Justify this statement with suitable
arguments.

22. “Transportation networks are essential for economic growth.” Explain their role.

23. “The division of powers prevents concentration of authority.” Explain how the division of powers achieves
this.

OR

“Flexibility in the Indian Constitution aids in effective power sharing.” Justify this statement with suitable
examples.

24. “Gender equality is crucial for development.” Explain why gender equality contributes to development.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. “Kiran has recently moved to a new city and wants to understand the importance of transportation
systems in the economy. He is unfamiliar with how different modes of transport contribute to economic
activities.” Help him identify the role of various transportation systems in supporting economic growth
and development.

26. “The partition of Bengal in 1905 ignited nationalist sentiments in India.” Explain the statement by giving
suitable examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
27. “Vikram is interested in starting a tech company but is unclear about the natural and human resources
essential for its success.” Assist him in identifying the natural and human resources necessary for
launching a tech company.

28. “Federalism enhances citizen participation in governance.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 21 Page 7

29. Over the past fifty years, India’s mining sector has expanded, contributing significantly to raw material
supply for various industries. As a result, the mining sector remains a critical part of the Indian economy.
Why does the mining sector continue to be important in India? Support your answer by giving any three
reasons.

OR

In recent times, the tourism industry in India has flourished, attracting millions of visitors annually.
Consequently, the tourism sector has become a major contributor to India’s economy. Why has the tourism
sector become so significant in India? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘Technological advancements played a crucial role in the expansion of empires.’ Substantiate the
statement with key features.

OR

‘Migration has been a significant factor in shaping global populations.’ Explain the statement with relevant
points.

31. In Sanjay’s region, forest fires are a common occurrence. What are the causes of forest fires, and what
measures can be taken to control and prevent them?

OR

Vandana learns that non-renewable energy sources are depleting rapidly. What are the consequences of over-
reliance on non-renewable energy sources, and how can the transition to renewable energy be encouraged?

32. ‘Political empowerment of women remains a challenge despite legal provisions.’ Discuss the
representation of women in Indian politics.

OR

‘The principle of secularism ensures that religion does not interfere with politics.’ Explain how secularism is
practiced in India.

33. Mr. D is studying the functions of commercial banks. Explain how banks contribute to economic
development by providing credit to industries, small businesses, and individuals, and why their role in
financial intermediation is crucial for the growth of the economy.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
OR

Sunita deposits her savings in a bank and earns interest. Explain how banks act as intermediaries between
savers and borrowers and how this helps channel funds into productive investments.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 21 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

We have seen how crucial political parties are for the working of democracy. Since parties are the most visible
face of democracy, it is natural that people blame parties for whatever is wrong with the working of
democracy. All over the world, people express strong dissatisfaction with the failure of political parties to
perform their functions well. This is the case in our country too. Popular dissatisfaction and criticism has
focused on four problem areas in the working of political parties. Political parties need to face and overcome
these challenges in order to remain effective instruments of democracy.

In order to face these challenges, political parties need to be reformed. The question is: Are political parties
willing to reform? If they are willing, what has prevented them from reforming so far? If they are not willing, is
it possible to force them to reform? Citizens all over the world face this question. This is not a simple question to
answer. In a democracy, the final decision is made by leaders who represent political parties. People can replace
them, but only by another set of party leaders. If all of them do not wish to reform, how can anyone force them
to change?

Questions :

1. How can you say that there is lack of internal democracy within political parties?

2. List any one major challenge which the political parties face in the present era?

3. “Defection makes democracy weak” Explain the steps taken by our leaders to end defection.

35. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

In general, MNCs set up production where it is close to the markets, where there is skilled and unskilled labour
available at low costs and where the availability of other factors of production is assured. In addition,

MNCs might look for government policies that look after their interests. Having assured themselves of these
conditions, MNCs set up factories and offices for production. The money that is spent to buy assets such as
land, building, machines and other equipment is called investment. Investment made by MNCs is called foreign
investment. Any investment is made with the hope that these assets will earn profits.

At times, MNCs set up production jointly with some of the local companies of these countries. The benefit to the
local company of such joint production is two-fold. First, MNCs can provide money for additional investments,
like buying new machines for faster production. Second, MNCs might bring with them the latest technology for
production.

But the most common route for MNC investments is to buy up local companies and then to expand production.
MNCs with huge wealth can quite easily do so. To take an example, Cargill Foods, a very large American MNC,
has bought over smaller Indian companies such as Parakh Foods. Parakh Foods had built a large marketing
network in various parts of India, where its brand was well-reputed. Also, Parakh Foods had four oil refineries,
whose control has now shifted to Cargill. Cargill is now the largest producer of edible oil in India, with a

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
capacity to make 5 million pouches daily. In fact, many of the top MNCs have wealth exceeding the entire
budgets of the developing

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 21 Page 9

country governments. With such enormous wealth, imagine the power and influence of these MNCs.

Questions :

1. Write any two conveniences for which MNCs set production.

2. What is the difference between investment and foreign investment?

3. What is the common route for MNC investments? Give an example.

36. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

Colonies such as India exported raw materials and food stuff and imported finished goods. Trade was the main
channel connecting distant countries. This was before large companies called multinational corporations
(MNCs) emerged on the scene. A MNC is a company that owns or controls production in more than one nation.
MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap labour and other
resources.

MNCs set up factories and offices for production: The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building,
machines and other equipment is called investment. Investment made by MNCs is called foreign investment.
Any investment is made with the hope that these assets will earn profits.

Even more remarkable have been the developments in information and communication technology. In recent
times, technology in the areas of telecommunications, computers, Internet has been changing rapidly.
Telecommunication facilities (telegraph, telephone including mobile phones, fax) are used to contact one
another around the world, to access information instantly, and to communicate from remote areas. This has
been facilitated by satellite communication devices.

Questions :

1. Why some companies called multinational corporations (MNCs)?

2. What do you understand by foreign investment?

3. What type of technology are used to contact one another around the world?

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them on the map
and write their correct names on the line drawn near them.

A. A place where Congress session was held in 1920.

B. A place where Congress session was held in 1927.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 21 NODIA

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

C. Hirakud dam

D. Tungabhadra darm

E. Bhakra Nangal dam

F. Salal dam

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 22 1
Sample Paper 22

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Which of the options best signifies this cartoon-

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) Showing the fine German engineering.

(b) Problems of running the Germany’s grand coalition Government that includes the two major parties
of the country.

(c) The two parties of the country are historically partners to each other.

(d) How smoothly the German Government is running.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 22 NODIA

2. Trace the growth of different strands of National movement in India according to their sequence of timing.

1. Establishment of Depressed Class-Association

2. Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress

3. “Purna Swaraj”

4. Non-Cooperation and Khilafat movement

Options :

(a) 4, 1, 2, 3 (b) 4, 2, 3, 1

(c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. The Calcutta Gazette, established in 1780, was the first newspaper published in which country?

(a) India, where it marked the beginning of a thriving press culture.

(b) Britain, as part of the British colonial government’s communication efforts.

(c) The United States, where it promoted the abolition of slavery.

(d) France, where it was used to spread revolutionary ideas during the French Revolution.

4. In the 19th century, nationalist movements sought to unify people based on common linguistic and
cultural characteristics. Which of the following was a key demand of nationalist movements during this
period?

1. Establishment of democratic governments

2. Restoration of the feudal system

3. Strengthening of imperial rule

4. Preservation of monarchies

Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2

5. What percentage of India’s land area is considered degraded due to deforestation, overgrazing, and
industrial activities, requiring reclamation efforts?

(a) 28% of India’s total land area is degraded and in need of reclamation measures.

(b) 33% of India’s total land area is considered degraded, affecting agricultural productivity.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (c) 17% of India’s total land area has been identified as degraded, mostly due to human activities.

(d) 45% of India’s total land area is under severe degradation and needs immediate attention.

6. Biodiversity conservation in India involves several strategies and initiatives. Consider the following
statements:

1. Project Tiger was launched to protect the Bengal tiger population in India.

2. The National Wildlife Action Plan outlines strategies for wildlife conservation.

3. Habitat fragmentation is beneficial for the growth of wildlife populations.

4. Community reserves involve local communities in wildlife protection efforts.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

7. Water scarcity in India is caused by uneven distribution of rainfall, over-exploitation, and

pollution, affecting the availability of clean drinking water.

(a) Industrial (b) Thermal

(c) Marine (d) Radioactive

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 22 Page 3

8. Which feature of Indian federalism allows the central government to intervene in state matters under
certain conditions?

(a) Cooperative Federalism (b) Exclusive Federalism

(c) Strong Central Control (d) Asymmetrical Federalism

9. Secularism is one of the key features of the Indian Constitution. Which of the following are characteristics
of Indian secularism?

1. Equal treatment of all religions by the state

2. Ban on religious practices in public life

3. Freedom to profess and propagate any religion

4. Support for one religion over others

Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4

10. In the context of Belgium’s power-sharing model, which is designed to accommodate its diverse linguistic
and cultural groups, which of the following statements accurately reflects the challenges and successes of
this approach?

1. The model has led to significant political stability and reduced tensions between communities.

2. It has resulted in a fragmented political landscape with multiple parties representing various interests.

3. The power-sharing arrangement is rigid and does not allow for any changes over time.

4. The model has effectively marginalized certain linguistic groups.

Options:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, and 4

11. In Sri Lanka, the prolonged political conflict that arose over time was mainly due to the demands of the
community, which insisted on equal recognition and rights from the government dominated by the
majority ethnic group.

(a) Sinhala (b) Tamil

(c) Buddhist (d) Christian

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 12. Consider the following regarding power-sharing in Sri Lanka and choose the correct answer: Statement I :
The Sri Lankan government refused to share power with the Tamil minority, leading to civil unrest.

Statement II : The Sinhalese majority had no influence on the creation of discriminatory policies.

(a) Only Statement I is correct

(b) Only Statement II is correct

(c) Both Statements I and II are correct

(d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 22 NODIA

13. Match the following and choose the correct option.

(Leader) (Role)
A. Victor Emmanuel II 1. Chief Minister of Italy
B. Guiseppe Mazzini 2. Young Italy Movement
C. Guiseppe Garibaldi 3. Conquered the Kingdom of Sicillies
D. Count Cavour 4. Proclaimed as king of Unified Italy
(a) A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 2 (b) A -2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

(c) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1 (d) A - 1, B - 4, C - 2, D - 3

14. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The primary sector is decreasing in importance in India.

Statement II: The tertiary sector is growing faster than the primary and secondary sectors in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

15. Which of the following is a consequence of excessive credit in an economy?

(a) Reduced inflation and increased purchasing power of consumers.

(b) Increased debt burden on individuals and businesses, potentially leading to defaults.

(c) Enhanced financial stability and reduced risk of economic downturns.

(d) Decreased levels of consumer spending and investment in the economy.

16. The Indian economy has experienced both positive and negative impacts due to globalization. Which of
the following are positive effects of globalization on India?

1. Increased foreign investment

2. Growth of the information technology (IT) sector

3. Decline in agricultural production

4. Wider availability of goods and services

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

List-I (Crops) List-II (Geographical conditions)

A. Barley 1. Hot and dry climate with poor soil
B. Rice 2. Cool climate with poorer soil
C. Millets 3. Warm and moist climate with high altitude
D. Tea 4. Hot and moist climate with rich soil
Option :

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 22 Page 5

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-3, B-4, C-1,D-2

(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

18. Which sector of the Indian economy is directly involved in innovation, research, and development?

(a) Primary Sector, dealing with natural resources.

(b) Secondary Sector, focusing on manufacturing and construction.

(c) Tertiary Sector, providing various services to consumers.

(d) Quaternary Sector, specializing in information and knowledge-based services.

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why does 45 percent of the land in this country go under agriculture?**

(a) It provides raw materials for industries.

(b) Agriculture employs the majority of the population.

(c) Most of the land is fertile.

(d) It has abundant water resources.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

State Annual Rainfall (mm) Percentage of Area Irrigated

State A 1200 35%
State B 800 50%
Why does State B have a higher percentage of irrigated area despite receiving less rainfall than State A?

(a) State A is a highly industrialized state.

(b) State A relies on rain-fed agriculture.

(c) State B has a more developed irrigation system.

(d) State B has fewer water bodies.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 22 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “The Civil Disobedience Movement strengthened Indian nationalism.” Explain how the Civil Disobedience
Movement reinforced the nationalist movement.

22. “Human activities significantly impact the availability of natural resources.” Explain how.

23. “Inter-state councils facilitate cooperation among states.” Explain how inter-state councils contribute to
federalism.

24. “The service sector is the fastest-growing sector in India.” Explain why this sector is expanding rapidly.

OR

“The primary sector faces several challenges in India.” Discuss the main challenges faced by the primary sector.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. “Democracy encourages political pluralism.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

26. “The Atlantic slave trade was a key component of the early global economy.” Explain the statement by
giving suitable examples.

OR

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
“The formation of global alliances reshaped political dynamics in the 19th century.” Explain the statement by
giving suitable examples.

27. “Meena is interested in setting up a reliable electricity supply for her rural community. She is unaware of
the different sources of energy and their suitability for rural areas.” Help her identify the most suitable
energy sources for establishing a reliable electricity supply in her rural community.

28. “Religious tolerance is essential for peaceful coexistence.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 22 Page 7

29. Between 2000 and 2020, India’s foreign exchange reserves have grown, providing economic stability and
confidence. As a result, foreign exchange management has become crucial for India’s financial health.
Why is foreign exchange management important for India? Support your answer by giving any three
reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The use of print media in propaganda was instrumental during both World Wars.’ Justify the statement
with suitable arguments.

OR

‘The role of print media in the Renaissance was fundamental to cultural transformation.’ Substantiate the
statement with key features.

31. Manoj lives in a region that is prone to water scarcity. What role can community participation play in
water resource management to ensure sustainable access to water?

OR

Rani’s town is known for its textile industry, but many workers face poor working conditions. What are the
challenges faced by workers in the manufacturing sector, and how can their working conditions be improved?

32. ‘Political parties serve as a link between the government and the people.’ Justify the importance of
political parties in a democracy.

OR

‘Gender discrimination is a persistent issue in Indian society.’ Discuss the challenges faced by women in India.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 33. Mr. D is concerned about the impact of globalization on small-scale industries. How has increased
competition from foreign companies affected small industries in India, and what challenges do they face
in competing with larger multinational corporations?

OR

A multinational company outsources its customer service operations to India. How does the globalization of
services create employment in developing countries like India, and what impact does it have on the local
economy?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 22 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

The idea of development or progress has always been with us. We have aspirations or desires about what we
would like to do and how we would like to live. Similarly, we have ideas about what a country should be like.
What are the essential things that we require? Can life be better for all? How should people live together? Can
there be more equality? Development involves thinking about these questions and about the ways in which we
can work towards achieving these goals.

In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, this criterion is used in classifying countries.
Countries with per capita income of US $ 12,056 per annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries and
those with per capita income of US $ 955 or less are called low-income countries. India comes in the category of
low middle income countries because its per capita income in 2017 was just US $ 1820 per annum.

Groundwater is an example of renewable resources. These resources are replenished by nature as in the case of
crops and plants. However, even these resources may be overused. For example, in the case of groundwater, if
we use more than what is being replenished by rain then we would be overusing this resource.

Questions :

1. What do you mean by economic development?

2. Why India comes in the category of low middle income countries?

3. Why groundwater is the best example of renewable resources?

35. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

Ideas of national unity in early-nineteenth-century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism. The
term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber, meaning free. For the new middle classes liberalism stood for
freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law. Politically, it emphasised the concept of
government by consent. Since the French Revolution, liberalism had stood for the end of autocracy and clerical
privileges, a constitution and representative government through parliament. Nineteenth-century liberals also
stressed the inviolability of private property.

Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism.
Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society – like the monarchy, the
Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not
propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by
Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make
state power more effective and strong. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the
abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe.

Conservative regimes set up in 1815 were autocratic. They did not tolerate criticism and dissent, and sought to
curb activities that questioned the legitimacy of autocratic governments. Most of them imposed censorship

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
laws to control what was said in newspapers, books, plays and songs and reflected the ideas of liberty and
freedom associated with the French Revolution. The memory of the

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 22 Page 9

French Revolution nonetheless continued to inspire liberals. One of the major issues taken up by the liberal-
nationalists, who criticised the new conservative order, was freedom of the press.

Questions :

1. What is the literal meaning of ‘liberalism’ ?

2. What was the belief of Conservatives?

3. Why Conservative regimes was characterised by the autocrats?

36. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

This type of farming is practised in areas of high population pressure on land. It is labour-intensive farming,
where high doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher production. Though the
‘right of inheritance’ leading to the division of land among successive generations has rendered land-holding
size uneconomical, the farmers continue to take maximum output from the limited land in the absence of
alternative source of livelihood. Thus, there is enormous pressure on agricultural land.

The main characteristic of this type of farming is the use of higher doses of modern inputs, e.g. high yielding
variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides in order to obtain higher productivity. The
degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies from one region to another. For example, rice is a commercial
crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a subsistence crop. Plantation is also a type of commercial
farming. In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface of
agriculture and industry. Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of
migrant labourers. All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries.

Questions:

1. With what objective ‘Intensive Subsistence Farming’ is practised?

2. Mention any one feature of commercial farming.

3. What is plantation farming? Name some important plantation crops which are grown in India.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the lines drawn near them. Identify the following features marked on the map.

A. The place where the Congress Session adopted the Non-Cooperation Programme.

B. The place where the Movement of Indigo Planters took place.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 22 NODIA

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

C. Rarnagundam Thermal Power Plant

D. Mumbai Port

E. Hyderabad International Airport

F. Tehri Dam

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 23 1
Sample Paper 23

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. The picture portrays about the :

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) Uneven Dispersal of power between the Centre and State.

(b) Lack of harmonization between Centre and State.

(c) The states plead for more power.

(d) Demand for power by the states can never be met.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 23 NODIA

2. Arrange the following in the sequence in which the events occurred:

1. Chauri-Chaura

2. Khilafat Movement

3. Second Round Table Conference

4. Civil Disobedience Movement

Options :

(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1

(c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. How did the Industrial Revolution contribute to the rise of nationalism in Europe?

(a) By reducing the need for national identity through increased global trade.

(b) By fostering economic growth and creating a sense of national pride and unity.

(c) By weakening the power of the middle class and promoting aristocratic rule.

(d) By promoting agrarian lifestyles and reducing urbanization.

4. Mahatma Gandhi’s concept of Satyagraha was central to the Indian independence movement. Which of
the following are key features of Gandhian Satyagraha?

1. Non-violence and civil disobedience

2. Use of violent protests

3. Moral resistance against injustice

4. Acceptance of unjust laws

Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) 1 and 2

5. Which type of forest is found in areas with heavy rainfall, such as the Western Ghats and parts of
northeastern India?

(a) Tropical deciduous forests, which shed leaves during the dry season.

(b) Tropical rainforests, known for their dense vegetation and biodiversity.

(c) Temperate forests, which are characterized by cold climates and coniferous trees.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (d) Mangrove forests, which are found in coastal areas and tidal zones.

6. The Indus Water Treaty between India and Pakistan plays a crucial role in water resource management.
Evaluate the following statements about the treaty:

1. The treaty allocates the use of rivers between the two countries to prevent disputes.

2. It grants India exclusive rights to the use of the Indus River system.

3. The treaty allows Pakistan to use the three western rivers for irrigation and hydropower projects.

4. The Indus Water Treaty has been successful in managing water sharing between India and Pakistan.

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

7. The Green Revolution, introduced in the 1960, significantly increased agricultural production in India
through the use of high-yielding varieties (HYVs) of .

(a) Wheat and rice (b) Cotton and sugarcane

(c) Tea and coffee (d) Pulses and oilseeds

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 23 Page 3

8. Which of the following is a common form of Caste-Based Discrimination in India?

(a) Equal access to education for all castes

(b) Denial of entry into temples based on caste

(c) Promotion of inter-caste marriages

(d) Representation of all castes in government jobs

9. Political parties play a key role in ensuring that democracy functions smoothly. Which of the following
statements about political parties are correct?

1. Political parties are necessary for the smooth functioning of democracy.

2. Political parties provide voters with multiple choices during elections.

3. Political parties are required by law to be non-partisan.

4. Political parties can represent the interests of specific social groups.

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

10. Which of the following statements accurately capture the advantages and potential pitfalls of federalism
as a system of governance that aims to accommodate diversity and promote local decision-making?

1. Federalism enhances the representation of local interests in government decisions.

2. It can lead to a lack of coordination between various levels of government.

3. Federalism simplifies the decision-making process by consolidating power at the top.

4. It encourages innovation in governance through localized solutions. Options:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

11. Federalism in India is designed to ensure that certain key subjects, such as defense, foreign affairs, and
communications, remain under the direct control of the government, while other matters are managed
by the state governments.

(a) Local (b) State

(c) Central (d) Municipal

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 12. Which of the following is true about the distribution of powers in India’s federal system? Statement I : The
division of powers between the Union and State governments is clearly listed in the Constitution through
three lists – Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.

Statement II : States have the right to secede from the Union if they disagree with federal policies.

(a) Only Statement I is correct

(b) Only Statement II is correct

(c) Both Statements I and II are correct

(d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 23 NODIA

13. Match List I (forms of power-sharing) with List II (forms of government) and select the correct answer
using codes given below the lists:

List I List II
I. Power sharing among different organs of government A. Communist government
II. Power shared among government at different levels B. Separation of powers
III. Power shared by different social groups C. Coalition of government
IV. Power shared by two or more political parties D. Federal government
Option :

(a) I - D, II - A, III - B, IV - C (b) II - B, II - C, III - D, IV - A

(c) III - B, II - D, III - A, IV - C (d) IV - C, II - D, III - A, IV - B

14. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Globalization has facilitated the flow of technology across countries. Statement II: Globalization
has reduced competition among businesses globally. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

15. How has globalization influenced the agricultural sector in India?

(a) It has led to the decline of agricultural exports and reduced farmers’ incomes.

(b) It has facilitated access to advanced technologies, increasing agricultural productivity and exports.

(c) It has isolated the agricultural sector from global markets, limiting growth opportunities.

(d) It has primarily benefited only the industrial and service sectors, neglecting agriculture.

16. National income is often used as a measure of a country’s development. Which of the following
statements about national income are correct?

1. It is the total value of goods and services produced within a country.

2. It includes income earned by nationals abroad.

3. It excludes income generated by foreign nationals within the country.

4. It reflects the distribution of income within the population.

Options :

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

17. Choose the incorrect option from column A and column B.

Column A Column B

(a) Landless rural labourers More days of work and better wages
(b) Prosperous farmers from Punjab Availability of other sources of irrigation
(c) Farmers who depend only on rain for growing Assured a higher support prices for their crops
crops
(d) A rural woman from a land owning family Regular job and high wages to increase her
income

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 23 Page 5

18. How does inflation affect the value of money and purchasing power in an economy?

(a) Inflation increases the value of money, enhancing purchasing power.

(b) Inflation decreases the value of money, reducing the purchasing power of consumers.

(c) Inflation has no impact on the value of money or consumer purchasing power.

(d) Inflation stabilizes the value of money by maintaining consistent prices.

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

What is the significance of 35 percent area being covered by alluvial soil?

(a) Alluvial soil supports dry farming.

(b) It is found in desert areas.

(c) It is highly fertile and suitable for growing crops.

(d) It is poor in nutrients and supports fewer crops.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 State Rice Yield (tons/hectare) Wheat Yield (tons/hectare)
State A 4 3
State B 5 4
Why does State B have higher yields of both rice and wheat than State A?

(a) State A has less fertile soil.

(b) State B uses modern farming techniques.

(c) State A lacks advanced agricultural infrastructure.

(d) State B has better irrigation facilities.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 23 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “The Cold War shaped international relations in the modern world.” Explain how the Cold War influenced
global politics and alliances.

22. “Illegal logging has severe impacts on forests.” Discuss its effects.

23. “Religious freedom is a cornerstone of Indian democracy.” Explain the importance of religious freedom in
India.

24. “Digital banking is transforming the financial sector.” Explain the impact of digital banking on the
economy.

OR

“Savings are essential for investment and economic growth.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. “Power sharing accommodates diversity in a nation.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

26. “The accessibility of printed material democratized education and literacy.” Explain the statement by
giving suitable examples.

OR

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
“The proliferation of books and pamphlets in the 19th century contributed to social and political reforms.”
Explain the statement by giving suitable examples.

27. “Rohit wants to understand the role of the banking sector in the national economy. He lacks knowledge
about how banks contribute to economic development.” Guide him in identifying the various ways the
banking sector supports economic growth and development in the nation.

28. “Power sharing promotes equality among different groups in society.” Explain the statement by giving any
three examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 23 Page 7

29. With the advent of global media and communication technologies, India’s culture and products have
gained international visibility. As a result, cultural globalization has influenced India’s economy. Why has
cultural globalization become significant in India? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The concept of self-determination was central to nationalist movements.’ Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

OR

‘The role of intellectuals was pivotal in shaping nationalist ideologies.’ Substantiate the statement with key
features.

31. Kamal lives in a drought-prone region where agriculture is challenging. What alternative agricultural
practices can be adopted in arid and semi-arid regions to ensure sustainability?

OR

Priya sees that many farmers in her area are burdened with debt due to crop failures. How can the government
and financial institutions support farmers to reduce their financial risks?

32. ‘Democracies may not guarantee economic development but promote equality.’ Justify the role of
democracy in promoting social and political equality

OR

‘The strength of a democracy is measured by how well it performs in addressing social issues.’ Analyse the role
of democracy in tackling social challenges.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 33. Mr. Z is concerned about the growing gap between the rich and poor in his country. How can policies that
focus on equitable wealth distribution and access to opportunities contribute to reducing income
inequality and improving the overall development of a nation?

OR

A country with a high Human Development Index (HDI) struggles to provide clean drinking water to a large
portion of its population. How can this issue be addressed to ensure that development reaches all sectors of
society?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 23 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Money or material things that one can buy with it, is one factor on which our life depends. But the quality of
our life also depends on non-material things mentioned above. If it is not obvious to you, then just think of the
role of your friends in your life. You may desire their friendship. Similarly, there are many things that are not
easily measured but they mean a lot to our lives. These are often ignored. However, it will be wrong to conclude
that what cannot be measured is not important.

Consider another example. If you get a job in a far-off place, before accepting it you would try to consider many
factors, apart from income, such as facilities for your family, working atmosphere, or opportunity to learn. In
another case, a job may give you less pay but may offer regular employment that enhances your sense of
security. Another job, however, may offer high pay but no job security and also leave no time for your family.
This will reduce your sense of security and freedom. Similarly, for development, people look at a mix of goals. It
is true that if women are engaged in paid work, their dignity in the household and society increases. However,
it is also the case that if there is respect for women there would be more sharing of household work and a
greater acceptance of women working outside. A safe and secure environment may allow more women to take
up a variety of jobs or run a business. Hence, the developmental goals that people have are not only about
better income but also about other important things in life.

Questions :

1. “It will be wrong to conclude that what cannot be measured is not important.” Explain the statement
in the context of development.

2. What do you mean by the term ‘Job Security’ ?

3. What can be a development goal for an employee?

35. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

Let us look at Romanticism, a cultural movement which sought to develop a particular form of nationalist
sentiment. Romantic artists and poets generally criticised the glorification of reason and science and focused
instead on emotions, intuition and mystical feelings. Their effort was to create a sense of a shared collective
heritage, a common cultural past, as the basis of a nation.

The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe. The first half of the nineteenth century saw an
enormous increase in population all over Europe. In most countries there were more seekers of jobs than
employment. Population from rural areas migrated to the cities to live in overcrowded slums.

In other parts of Europe where independent nation-states did not yet exist – such as Germany, Italy, Poland, the
Austro-Hungarian Empire – men and women of the liberal middle classes combined their demands for

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
constitutionalism with national unification. They took advantage of the growing popular unrest to push their
demands for the creation of a nation-state on parliamentary principles

– a constitution, freedom of the press and freedom of association.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 23 Page 9

Questions :

1. What are the other aspect of idea of nationalism?

2. What do you meant by economic hardship in Europe?

3. What were the demand of Liberals?

36. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.

Decaying plants in swamps produce peat which has a low carbon and high moisture content and low heating
capacity. Lignite is low grade brown coal, which is soft with high moisture content. The principal lignite reserves
are in Neyveli in Tamil Nadu and are used for generation of electricity. Coal that has been buried deep and
subjected to increased temperatures is bituminous coal. It is the most popular coal in commercial use.
Metallurgical coal is high grade bituminous coal which has a special value for smelting iron in blast furnaces.
Anthracite is the highest quality hard coal.

In India coal occurs in rock series of two main geological ages, namely Gondwana, a little over 200 million years
in age and in tertiary deposits which are only about 55 million years old. The major resources of Gondwana
coal, which are metallurgical coal, are located in Damodar valley (West Bengal, Jharkhand). Jharia, Raniganj,
Bokaro are important coalfields. The Godavari, Mahanadi, Son and Wardha valleys also contain coal deposits.
Tertiary coals occur in the North-Eastern States of Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.

Questions :

1. Which reserves in Tamil Nadu is an important source of lignite in India?

2. What is bituminous coal? Also evaluate its any one property.

3. State the reason due to which coal is associated with geological ages.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the line drawn near them.

A. Movement of Indigo Planters

B. Peasant Satyagraha

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 23 NODIA

(b) On the same map of India, locate and label any three among the following with suitable symbols.

C. Bengaluru Software Technology Park

D. Mangaluru Seaport

E. Indira Gandhi International Airport

F. Kakrapara Nuclear Plant

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 24 1
Sample Paper 24

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. The following picture talks about the reality of Indian Political System intended for:

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) Political Biasness against women for more representation in Parliament.

(b) Lesser participation of women in Parliament.

(c) Lack of women movements for more participation in Elected bodies.

(d) Reluctant Ness in women for their political right.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 24 NODIA

2. Arrange the following in the chronological order :

1. Adoption of the Non-Cooperation Programme

2. Lahore Congress session

3. Dandi March

Options :

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 1

(c) 2, 1, 3 (d) 1, 3, 2

3. The idea of Swaraj, as popularized by Mahatma Gandhi during the Indian freedom struggle, refers to
which concept?

(a) Self-rule or complete independence from British colonial rule.

(b) Economic development through cooperation with British businesses.

(c) The overthrow of British rule through violent rebellion and force.

(d) A federal system of government with limited British oversight.

4. The Bretton Woods Conference of 1944 established a new international economic order. Which of the
following institutions were created at the Bretton Woods Conference?

1. International Monetary Fund (IMF)

2. World Trade Organization (WTO)

3. World Bank

4. United Nations (UN)

Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 1, 3, and 4

5. The Tehri Dam, built on the Bhagirathi River, is primarily used for which purpose?

(a) Flood control, irrigation, and generating hydroelectric power in northern India.

(b) Promoting tourism and recreational activities in the region.

(c) Providing drinking water to major cities in the region.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (d) Supporting fishing and aquaculture in the surrounding areas.

6. The Green Revolution in India was characterized by the following features. Identify the correct
statements.

1. Introduction of high-yielding varieties of seeds.

2. Increased use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.

3. Promotion of organic farming techniques.

4. Expansion of irrigation facilities through canals and tube wells.

Options:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

7. Non-conventional sources of energy, such as solar and wind power, are gaining importance in India
because they are and environmentally friendly.

(a) Exhaustible (b) Expensive

(c) Renewable (d) Traditional

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 24 Page 3

8. What is the main reason behind the formation of coalition governments in India?

(a) To ensure a single party holds absolute power without any opposition.

(b) To combine forces of multiple parties to form a stable government when no single party has a
majority.

(c) To prevent smaller parties from having any influence in the government.

(d) To expedite the legislative process by reducing the number of parties involved.

9. One of the key promises of democracy is the protection of minority rights. Which of the following
outcomes of democracy help protect the rights of minorities?

1. Legal safeguards to prevent discrimination

2. Representation of minorities in decision-making bodies

3. Exclusive political power for majority groups

4. Protection of cultural and religious rights

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

10. The impact of gender-based discrimination on social development is a significant concern in India. Which
of the following statements effectively illustrate the various dimensions of this issue in the context of
women’s rights and social justice?

1. Women often face barriers to education and employment opportunities.

2. The legal framework effectively addresses all forms of gender discrimination.

3. Empowering women leads to broader social and economic development.

4. Gender biases have been completely eradicated in contemporary society.

Options:

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3, and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 11. The practice of discrimination on the basis of caste, which was prevalent in many parts of India, has been
formally abolished by the Indian government, with the being the primary legal framework for
ensuring equality.

(a) Civil Rights Act (b) Constitution

(c) Parliament (d) Supreme Court

12. Consider the following statements about the role of religion in Indian politics and choose the correct
answer:

Statement I : Religion plays no role in Indian politics due to the secular nature of the Constitution.

Statement II : Political leaders sometimes use religious issues to mobilize voters during elections.

(a) Only Statement I is correct

(b) Only Statement II is correct

(c) Both Statements I and II are correct

(d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 24 NODIA

13. Match the following from List I and List II:

List I List II
A. Rice 1. Temperature- 25° C, Rainfall- 100 cm-200 cm
B. Wheat 2. Temperature- 20-25° C, Rainfall- 50 cm-75 cm
C. Maize 3. Temperature- 21-25° C, Rainfall- 50 cm-75 cm
D. Pulses 4. Temperature- 20-25° C, Rainfall- 50 cm-75 cm
Option :

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-3, B-4, C-2,D-1

(c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

14. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Sustainable development aims to meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability
of future generations to meet their own needs.

Statement II: Economic development always leads to environmental degradation. Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

15. What is the significance of the poverty line in assessing economic development?

(a) It measures the total population of a country without considering income levels.

(b) It identifies the minimum income level required to meet basic needs, helping to evaluate poverty
levels.

(c) It calculates the average wealth of the richest individuals in a society.

(d) It determines the optimal economic policies for maximizing GDP growth.

16. Public and private sectors play different roles in the economy. Which of the following are characteristics of
the public sector?

1. The government owns and operates public sector enterprises.

2. Private individuals own the majority of public sector enterprises.

3. Public sector enterprises are established to provide essential services.

4. Profit maximization is the primary goal of the public sector.

Options :
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4

17. Match the following and choose correct option:

Problems faced by farming sector Some possible measures

1. Unirrigated land A. Setting up agro-based mills
2. Low prices for crops B. Cooperative marketing societies
3. Debt burden C. Procurement of food grains by government
4. No job in the off season D. Construction of canals by the government
5. Compelled to sell their grains to the local E. e Banks to provide credit with low interest
traders soon after harvest

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 24 Page 5

(a) 1-A 2-B 3-C 4-D 5-E (b) 1-D 2-C 3-E 4-A 5-B

(c) 1-C 2-D 3-E 4-A 5-B (d) 1-B 2-C 3-E 4-D 5-A

18. How has technology transfer through globalization benefited the Indian manufacturing sector?

(a) It has made Indian manufacturing less competitive by introducing outdated technologies.

(b) It has enhanced productivity and quality in manufacturing through the adoption of advanced
technologies.

(c) It has had no significant impact on the technological capabilities of Indian manufacturers.

(d) It has restricted Indian manufacturers from innovating independently by relying on foreign
technologies.

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why does deforestation contribute to 30 percent of land degradation?

(a) It reduces the amount of forest cover.

(b) It leads to overgrazing.

(c) It improves soil fertility.

(d) It increases the amount of barren land.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 State Rice Yield (tons/hectare) Wheat Yield (tons/hectare)
State A 4 3
State B 5 4
Why does State B have higher yields of both rice and wheat than State A?

(a) State A has less fertile soil.

(b) State B uses modern farming techniques.

(c) State A lacks advanced agricultural infrastructure.

(d) State B has better irrigation facilities.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 24 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Censorship challenged the freedom of print media in the modern world.” Explain the impact of
censorship on print culture.

22. “Groundwater is a crucial source of water for many regions.” Discuss its significance and challenges.

23. “The role of opposition parties is crucial in democracy.” Explain why opposition parties are important.

24. “India has benefited from globalization through increased foreign investment.” Explain the benefits of
foreign investment for India.

OR

“Globalization can lead to the loss of local industries.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. “Federalism helps in managing regional conflicts.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

26. “The Congress of Vienna aimed to suppress nationalist movements in Europe.” Explain the statement by
giving suitable examples.

OR

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
“Economic competition among European powers fostered nationalist rivalries.” Explain the statement by giving
suitable examples.

27. “Kavita is interested in growing vegetables commercially but lacks knowledge about the necessary
infrastructure and resources.” Help her identify the essential infrastructure and resources required for
commercial vegetable farming.

28. “Federalism accommodates regional differences in a nation.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 24 Page 7

29. India has invested heavily in technological advancements and innovation, leading to a knowledge- based
economy. Consequently, technological development has become a key driver of India’s progress. Why has
technological development become so important in India’s development? Support your answer by giving
any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘Economic exploitation by the British fueled the nationalist sentiments in India.’ Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

OR

‘The influence of global events like World War I and II accelerated India’s fight for independence.’ Substantiate
the statement with key features.

31. Suresh is concerned about the rising demand for energy in his industrial town. What are the different
types of energy resources, and how can the demand for energy be met without compromising
environmental sustainability?

OR

Priya sees that many people in her village rely on firewood for cooking. What are the disadvantages of using
firewood, and how can cleaner energy alternatives be introduced to rural areas?

32. ‘Majoritarianism undermines the spirit of democracy.’ Analyse the impact of majoritarianism on
democratic governance.

OR

‘The concept of community government in Belgium is an innovative form of power sharing.’ Substantiate this
statement.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 33. Mr. D is learning about the informal sector in India and wants to understand its significance. How does the
informal or unorganized sector contribute to employment and income generation in the country, and why
is it important to recognize the role of this sector in the economy?

OR

Farmers in rural areas are often unemployed during off-seasons. What is seasonal unemployment, and how can
the government support rural workers during these times?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 24 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the extract and answer the questions that follows:

There are many activities that are undertaken by directly using natural resources. Take, for example, the
cultivation of cotton. It takes place within a crop season. For the growth of the cotton plant, we depend mainly,
but not entirely, on natural factors like rainfall, sunshine and climate. The product of this activity, cotton, is a
natural product. Similarly, in the case of an activity like dairy, we are dependent on the biological process of the
animals and availability of fodder etc. The product here, milk, also is a natural product. Similarly, minerals and
ores are also natural products. When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the
primary sector. This is because it forms the base for all other products that we subsequently make. Since most
of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry, this sector is also called agriculture
and related sector. The secondary sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into other
forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step after primary
sector activities if the product is not produced by nature but has to be made and therefore some process of
manufacturing is essential. After primary and secondary sector activities there is a third category of activities
that falls under tertiary sector and is different from the above two. These are activities that help in the
development of the primary and secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but
they are an aid or a support for the production process. For example, goods that are produced in the primary or
secondary sector would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in wholesale and retail shops.

Questions :

1. What do you understand by primary sector? What is the other name of primary sector?

2. What do you understand by secondary activities?

3. What do you understand by tertiary activities? What is the other name for tertiary sector?

35. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:

In Africa, in the 1890s, a fast-spreading disease of cattle plague or rinderpest had a terrifying impact on
people’s livelihoods and the local economy. This is a good example of the widespread European imperial impact
on colonised societies. It shows how in this era of conquest even a disease affecting cattle, reshaped the lives
and fortunes of thousands of people and their relations with the rest of the world. Historically, Africa had
abundant land and a relatively small population. For centuries, land and livestock sustained African livelihoods
and people rarely worked for a wage. In late nineteenth- century Africa, there were few consumer goods that
wages could buy. If you had been an African possessing land and livestock - and there was plenty of both - you
too would have seen little reason to work for a wage.

Questions :

1. What was Rinderpest?

2. What were the two main sources of African economy for past centuries?
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
3. How cattle plague affected the situation of people in Africa?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 24 Page 9

36. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

In most industrial regions workers came from the districts around. Peasants and artisans who found no work in
the village went to the industrial centres in search of work. Over 50 per cent workers in the Bombay cotton
industries in 1911 came from the neighbouring district of Ratnagiri, while the mills of Kanpur got most of their
textile hands from the villages within the district of Kanpur. Most often mill workers moved between the village
and the city, returning to their village homes during harvests and festivals.

European Managing Agencies, which dominated industrial production in India, were interested in certain kinds
of products. They established tea and coffee plantations, acquiring land at cheap rates from the colonial
government; and they invested in mining, indigo and jute. Most of these were products required primarily for
export trade and not for sale in India.

From 1906, moreover, the export of Indian yam to China declined since produce from Chinese and Japanese
mills flooded the Chinese market. So industrialists in India began shifting from yam to cloth production. Cotton
piece-goods production in India doubled between 1900 and 1912.

Questions :

1. Where did the workers come in cotton mills in India during 1900s?

2. What helped the European Managing Agencies to dominate the Indian markets?

3. Why did industrialists shift from yarm to cloth production ?

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their
correct names on the lines drown near them.

A. The place where Peasant Satyagraha took place.

B. The place associated with Jallianwala Bagh incident.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 24 NODIA

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

C. Airport in Punjab

D. Software Technology Park in Maharashtra

E. Marmagao Sea Port

F. Kakrapara Nuclear Power Plant

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 25 1
Sample Paper 25

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Following Caricature about political parties of India portrays that:

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) We have very large political parties base compared to any other country in the world.

(b) Political parties can have different opinions based upon different interest Groups.

(c) Most political parties have detailed agenda for development and progress during elections time but
disappear during time of peril.

(d) In democracy,having large population all the promises written in party manifesto can’t be fulfilled.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 25 NODIA

2. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence-

1. Quit India movement launched

2. Muslim League Established

3. Death of Lala Lajpat Rai

4. Formation of federation of Indian Chamber of commerce and industries

Options

(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1

(c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. The development of new trade routes during the 19th century, such as the Suez Canal, had what effect on
global trade?

(a) It reduced travel time and boosted trade between Europe and Asia.

(b) It made global trade more expensive due to increased tariffs.

(c) It caused a decline in demand for goods produced in Europe.

(d) It led to the isolation of Asian economies from the global market.

4. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was a significant event in the history of Indian print culture. Which of
the following were provisions of the Vernacular Press Act?

1. It allowed the government to censor the press.

2. It targeted newspapers in Indian languages.

3. It promoted the growth of vernacular newspapers.

4. It gave newspapers complete freedom of expression.

Options :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

5. Which type of irrigation method is most commonly used in dry regions of India where water is scarce?

(a) Drip irrigation, which delivers water directly to the roots of crops to minimize wastage.

(b) Sprinkler irrigation, which sprays water over crops using mechanized sprinklers.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (c) Canal irrigation, which relies on water transported through canals from rivers and dams.

(d) Flood irrigation, where fields are entirely flooded with water for crop production.

6. Concerning India’s energy policy, identify the correct statements.

1. India aims to increase its reliance on fossil fuels exclusively.

2. There is a focus on expanding renewable energy sources like wind and solar.

3. Nuclear energy plays a significant role in India’s energy strategy.

4. Energy conservation measures are being neglected in policy planning.

Options:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

7. The location of industries depends on several factors, including the availability of raw materials, labor,
capital, and facilities for easy transportation of goods.

(a) Banking (b) Export

(c) Trading (d) Transport

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 25 Page 3

8. In what way does democracy enhance individual freedoms and rights in India?

(a) By imposing strict regulations that limit personal freedoms for societal stability.

(b) By ensuring the protection of fundamental rights and allowing citizens to express their opinions freely.

(c) By restricting media freedom to control public discourse and maintain order.

(d) By centralizing authority and reducing the autonomy of individuals in decision-making.

9. The idea of power-sharing promotes stability in diverse societies. Which of the following is an example of
horizontal power-sharing?

1. Power shared among different levels of government

2. Power shared among different organs of government

3. Power shared among different social groups

4. Power shared among political parties

Options :

(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 4

10. Political parties are fundamental to the functioning of democracy, serving various critical roles in the
political landscape. Which of the following statements correctly illustrate the primary functions of political
parties in a democratic setup?

1. They serve as a bridge between the government and the public, facilitating communication.

2. Political parties are exclusively focused on gaining power for their leaders, disregarding public
interests.

3. They organize elections and mobilize voter support for candidates.

4. Political parties discourage public participation in political processes.

Options:

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4

11. When no single political party wins a clear majority in an election, multiple parties may come together to
form a government, ensuring that a stable administration can be maintained.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (a) Simple(b) Two-thirds

(c) Absolute (d) Coalition

12. Political parties have several roles to play in a democracy. Consider the following: Statement I : Political
parties are responsible for nominating candidates for elections. Statement II : Political parties do not
influence public opinion on major national issues.

(a) Only Statement I is correct

(b) Only Statement II is correct

(c) Both Statements I and II are correct

(d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 25 NODIA

13. Match the following:

Problem faced by farming sector Some possible measures

A. Setting up agro-based mills 1. Unirrigated land
B. Cooperative marketing societies 2. Low prices for crops
C. Procurement of foodgrains by government 3. Debt burden
D. Construction of canals by the government 4. No job in the off season
E. Banks to provide credit with low interest 5. Compelled to sell their grains to the local
traders soon after harvest.
Option :

(a) A - 3, B - 1, C - 2, D - 5, E - 3

(b) A - 3, B - 5, C - 1, D - 2, E - 4

(c) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1, E - 5

(d) A - 4, B - 5, C - 2, D - 1, E - 3

14. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The primary objective of wildlife sanctuaries is to protect animals without human interference.

Statement II: National parks have stricter protection regulations compared to wildlife sanctuaries. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

15. What role does the tertiary sector play in enhancing the quality of life in India?

(a) By increasing the production of raw materials for industrial use.

(b) By offering essential services such as healthcare, education, and transportation, thereby improving
living standards.

(c) By focusing exclusively on agricultural development and resource extraction.

(d) By limiting access to services and focusing on industrial growth only.

16. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) plays a crucial role in regulating the financial system. Which of the
following are functions of the RBI?
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 1. Controlling inflation and monitoring the money supply

2. Issuing new currency notes and coins

3. Regulating formal credit institutions

4. Providing loans to the public

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 25 Page 5

17. Match the following:

List I List I
A. Soybean 1. Kharif
B. Peas 2. Leguminous
C. Groundnut 3. Zaid
D. Watermelon 4. Rabi
Option :

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-3, B-4, C-2,D-1

(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

18. How does technological advancement influence the economic development of a nation?

(a) It leads to job losses without any increase in productivity or economic output.

(b) It enhances productivity, creates new industries, and improves the overall standard of living.

(c) It has no significant impact on the economic structures of a country.

(d) It primarily benefits only the technology sector without affecting other areas of the economy.

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why does non-renewable resources make up 60 percent of total resources?

(a) They are exhaustible and take millions of years to form.

(b) They are abundantly available.

(c) They can be replenished within a short period.

Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
 (d) They are produced by natural processes.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

State Coal Production (million tons) Iron Ore Production (million tons
State A 20 25
State B 15 30
Why does State B have higher iron ore production compared to coal production?

(a) State B has more iron ore reserves.

(b) State B focuses on export markets.

(c) State A has better coal mining technology.

(d) State A lacks transportation facilities.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 25 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “The 1848 Revolutions highlighted the role of liberalism in nationalism.” Discuss the interplay between
liberalism and nationalism during the 1848 Revolutions.

22. “Energy infrastructure is a backbone of the economy.” Explain why.

23. “Democracy fosters peaceful resolution of conflicts.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

24. “Education plays a vital role in the development of a country.” Justify this statement with suitable
arguments.

OO

“Healthcare is a fundamental aspect of development.” Explain the importance of healthcare in development.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. “Promoting gender sensitivity leads to a more inclusive society.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

26. “Subhas Chandra Bose’s approach differed from Gandhi’s in the Indian nationalist movement.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.

OO

“The Civil Disobedience Movement was a turning point in India’s struggle for independence.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
27. “Mehul is interested in the diamond industry and wants to know the key regions in India where diamonds
are mined.” Assist him in identifying the major diamond mining regions in India and the factors that make
them suitable for diamond extraction.

28. “Power sharing strengthens democracy.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 25 Page 7

29. With the growth of e-commerce, India’s retail sector has transformed, becoming one of the fastest-
growing segments of the economy. As a result, the retail sector has emerged as a key component of
India’s economic landscape. Why has the retail sector become so important in India? Support your answer
by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The Columbian Exchange transformed diets and economies around the world.’ Substantiate the
statement with key features.

OO

‘The concept of nation-states emerged prominently during the making of global worlds.’ Justify the statement
with suitable arguments.

31. Priya learns that some industries are shifting to eco-friendly practices. What are the benefits of adopting
eco-friendly industrial practices, and how do they contribute to sustainable development?

OO

Vandana notices that many industries in her region are relocating due to better infrastructure in other areas.
What role does infrastructure play in the growth and location of manufacturing industries?

32. ‘The practice of federalism in India ensures both autonomy and unity.’ Justify this statement with suitable
examples.

OO

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
‘Federalism in India has evolved over time to meet regional demands.’ Analyse how federalism has adapted to
changing political realities.

33. Miss E is studying the role of the secondary sector in India’s economic growth. How does the
industrialization of the manufacturing sector contribute to overall economic growth, and what are the key
factors that drive the expansion of industries in developing countries like India?

OO

With the rise of digital payments, many small business owners are moving away from cash transactions. How
does this trend benefit the economy, and what challenges does it pose for those without access to technology?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 25 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the extract and answer the questions that follows:

Tax on imports is an example of trade barrier. It is called a barrier because some restriction has been set up.
Governments can use trade barriers to increase or decrease (regulate) foreign trade and to decide what kinds
of goods and how much of each, should come into the country. The Indian government, after Independence,
had put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment. This was considered necessary to protect the
producers within the country from foreign competition. Industries were just coming up in the 1950s and 1960s,
and competition from imports at that stage would not have allowed these industries to come up. Thus, India
allowed imports of only essential items such as machinery, fertilisers, petroleum etc. Note that all developed
countries, during the early stages of development, have given protection to domestic producers through a
variety of means. Starting around 1991, some far reaching changes in policy were made in India. The
government decided that the time had come for Indian producers to compete with producers around the globe.
It felt that competition would improve the performance of producers within the country since they would have
to improve their quality. This decision was supported by powerful international organisations. Thus, barriers on
foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent. This meant that goods could be imported
and exported easily and also foreign companies could set up factories and offices here. Removing barriers or
restrictions set by the government is what is known as liberalisation.

Questions :

1. What is trade barrier? Give one example.

2. What do you mean by the term liberalisation?

3. How does government regulate foreign trade?

35. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.

New forms of popular literature appeared in print, targeting new audiences. Booksellers employed peddlars
who roamed around villages, carrying little books for sale. There were almanacs or ritual calendars, along
with ballads and folktales. But other forms of reading matters, largely for entertainment, began to reach
ordinary readers as well.

In England, penny chapbooks were carried by petty peddlars known as chapmen, and sold for a penny, so that
even the poor could buy them. In France, were the ‘Biliotheque Bleue’, which were low-priced small books
printed on poor quality paper, and bound in cheap blue covers.

Then there were the romances, printed on four to six pages, and the more substantial ‘histories’ printed on four
to six pages and the more substantial ‘histories’ which were stories about the past. Books were of various sizes,
serving many different purposes and interests.
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 25 Page 9

Questions:

1. Evaluate briefly the term ‘Chapbook’.

2. Write a key difference between Biliotheque Bleue and Chapbook.

3. Comment on the new forms of literature that were introduced in Europe to attract new readers.

36. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:

“At present, there are about 130 million hectares of degraded land in India. Approximately, 28 per cent of it
belongs to the category of forest degraded area, 56 per cent of it is water eroded area and the rest is affected
by saline and alkaline deposits. Some human activities such as deforestation, over grazing, mining and
quarrying too have contributed significantly in land degradation.”

Questions :

1. What are different ways to solve the problems of land degradation ?

2. What is the value of soil as a resource ?

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the lines drawn near them.

A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in September 1920.

B. The place where the Jallianwala Bagh incident took place.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 25 NODIA

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate any three features of the following with suitable symbols.

C. Meenambakkam Airport (Chennai)

D. A major port in Andhra Pradesh

E. A Nuclear Power Plant

F. Tehri Dam

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 26 1
Sample Paper 26

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Following picture about the confidentiality tells that:

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) Government can invade the privacy of people but not vice versa.

(b) People can look into the Government matters if they desire to do so under various IT acts.

(c) It is worldwide practice especially in third world countries to invade the privacy of people by the
Government.

(d) Such practices are now not common due to stringent IT laws.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 26 NODIA

2. Certain events are given below.

Choose the appropriate chronological order :

1. Coming of Simon Commission to India

2. Demand of Puma Swaraj in Lahore Session of INC

3. Government of India Act 1919

4. Champaran Satyagraha

Options

(a) 3 - 2 - 4 - 2 (b) 3 - 3 - 4 - 2

(c) 4 - 2 - 1 - 3 (d) 4 - 3 - 1 - 2

3. How did print culture contribute to the growth of nationalism in India during the late 19th and early 20th
centuries?

(a) It enabled the spread of nationalist literature and ideas, reaching a wide audience across the country.

(b) It allowed British officials to control the flow of information and limit nationalist activities.

(c) It promoted British cultural values and discouraged Indian traditions and practices.

(d) It was used solely for religious purposes, with little impact on political movements.

4. The Balkans was a region that became a hotbed of nationalist tensions in Europe during the 19th century.
Which of the following factors contributed to the rise of Balkan nationalism?

1. Ottoman decline

2. Influence of Romanticism

3. Rivalries between European powers

4. The creation of a united Balkan state

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

5. Which of the following energy resources is considered a non-conventional source of energy?

(a) Solar energy, which is a non-conventional and renewable energy source.

(b) Natural gas, which is a conventional source of energy.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (c) Coal, which is a traditional, conventional energy source.

(d) Petroleum, which is widely used but is a conventional source of energy.

6. Concerning the iron and steel industry in India, identify the correct statements.

1. Odisha is a major producer of iron ore used in steel manufacturing.

2. The steel industry is considered a basic industry as it provides raw materials for other sectors.

3. India’s steel production is entirely dependent on imports.

4. Modern steel plants in India use advanced technologies for production.

Options:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

7. Alluvial soil, which is highly fertile and deposited by rivers, is predominantly found in the

plains of India.

(a) Deccan (b) Coastal

(c) Northern (d) Western

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 26 Page 3

8. How does the principle of decentralization aid in power sharing within the Indian governance framework?

(a) By concentrating administrative powers at the national level for better control.

(b) By delegating administrative powers to local governments, promoting grassroots participation.

(c) By limiting the powers of state governments and increasing central authority.

(d) By ensuring that only the executive branch manages local governance issues.

9. Federalism in India allows for shared responsibilities between the Union and State governments. Which of
the following subjects are included in the Union List?

1. Defense

2. Agriculture

3. Foreign affairs

4. Police and law and order

Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

10. The outcomes of democracy are often assessed through various indicators that reflect the state of
governance and citizen welfare. Which of the following statements accurately describe the key indicators
used to evaluate the effectiveness of democratic governance?

1. The availability of basic services such as education and healthcare to all citizens.

2. The extent to which citizens can participate in the electoral process.

3. The level of economic growth achieved by authoritarian regimes.

4. Protection of fundamental rights and freedoms for all individuals.

Options:

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2

11. A successful democracy is often judged not only by its economic growth but also by its ability to manage
and resolve that may arise among various sections of society, thereby maintaining peace and
stability.

(a) Disagreements(b) Consensus

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(c) Conflicts (d) Alliances

12. Regarding the challenges faced by democratic governments, consider the following:

Statement I : Corruption and inefficiency can undermine the effectiveness of democracy.

Statement II : Democracy has no role in addressing the social inequalities present in a country.

(a) Only Statement I is correct

(b) Only Statement II is correct

(c) Both Statements I and II are correct

(d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 26 NODIA

13. Match the following columns :

Column-I (Type of Soil) Column-II (States)

A. Laterite soil 1. Western Madhya Pradesh
B. Alluvial soil 2. Western Rajasthan
C. Black soil 3. Karnataka
D. Arid soil 4. Uttar Pradesh
Option :

(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2 (b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2

(c) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2 (d) A - 3, B - 1, C - 2, D - 1

14. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Indus Basin is the largest river basin in India.

Statement II: Per capita availability of water in India is higher than the global average. Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

15. What is the money multiplier effect in the banking system?

(a) The process by which banks multiply their physical cash reserves through printing more money.

(b) The increase in the total money supply caused by banks lending out a portion of their deposits.

(c) The reduction of money supply due to banks holding higher reserves and lending less.

(d) The government’s ability to control the money supply by regulating bank reserves.

16. Globalization has also led to challenges for developing countries like India. Which of the following are
challenges faced by India due to globalization?

1. Job losses in certain industries

2. Increased income inequality

3. Growth of small-scale industries

4. Competition from foreign goods

Options :

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

17. Match the columns P and column Q and select correct option :

Column P Column Q
A. MNCs buy at cheap rates from small producers 1. Automobiles machinery hemo.
B. Quotas and taxes on imports are used to regulate trade 2. Garments, foot wear, sports.
items.
C. Indian companies who have invested abroad. 3. Call centres.
D. IT has helped in spreading of production of services. 4. Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy
E. Several MNCs have invested in setting up factories in 5. Trade barriers
India for production.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 26 Page 5

Option :

(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 5, E - 1 (b) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 5, E - 4

(c) A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3, E - 5 (d) A - 2, B - 5, C - 4, D - 3, E - 1

18. How does the secondary sector influence employment opportunities in India?

(a) It creates jobs in agriculture and resource extraction industries.

(b) It generates employment through manufacturing, construction, and industrial activities.

(c) It offers opportunities exclusively in the service and information sectors.

(d) It limits employment by focusing only on high-level research and development.

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

What is the significance of 40 percent land using drip irrigation?

(a) It helps to conserve water in agriculture.

(b) It is a wasteful method of irrigation.

(c) It is the oldest form of irrigation.

(d) It is mostly used in areas of high rainfall.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 State Steel Production (million tons) Cement Production (million tons
State A 8 10
State B 12 15
Why does State B have higher cement production than State A?

(a) State B has better access to raw materials.

(b) State B has more industrial areas.

(c) State A focuses more on steel production.

(d) State A is located far from major markets.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 26 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Cultural revival was integral to Indian nationalism.” Discuss how cultural revival contributed to the
nationalist movement in India.

22. “Bauxite is an important mineral resource in India.” Explain its uses and significance.

23. “Power sharing contributes to political stability in India.” Explain why power sharing is crucial for stability.

24. “The secondary sector contributes significantly to India’s GDP.” Justify this statement with suitable
arguments.

OO

“Urbanization has a profound impact on the tertiary sector in India.” Explain how urbanization affects the
service sector.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. “Political parties contribute to political stability.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

26. “Cultural exchanges during the global expansion period influenced societies worldwide.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.

OO

“Cultural revival played a role in strengthening Indian nationalism.” Explain the statement by giving suitable
examples.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
27. “Anita wants to improve the quality control processes in her steel manufacturing plant. She is unfamiliar
with the best practices for quality assurance.” Help her identify effective quality control measures that can
enhance the quality of steel produced.

28. “Federalism strengthens the unity of a nation.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 26 Page 7

29. In recent years, India’s gold loans have become popular, allowing individuals to access credit by pledging
gold. Consequently, gold loans have become a significant credit option in India. Why have gold loans
become so popular in India? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘Print culture helped in the preservation and promotion of indigenous cultures.’ Explain the statement
with relevant points.

OO

‘The accessibility of print media led to the rise of informed citizenry.’ Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

31. Sunita notices that farmers in her area depend heavily on monsoons for agriculture. What are the
limitations of monsoon-dependent agriculture, and how can irrigation help overcome them?

OO

Ravi’s region specializes in the cultivation of rice, a water-intensive crop. What are the advantages and
disadvantages of growing water-intensive crops, and what alternatives can be suggested?

32. ‘Caste-based political mobilization has both positive and negative consequences.’ Discuss the role of caste
in political mobilization.

OO

‘Gender equality is crucial for a fair and just society.’ Explain the significance of promoting gender equality in
India.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 33. Miss E is learning about outsourcing and its role in India’s economy. Explain how outsourcing of services,
particularly in the IT and customer service sectors, has contributed to India’s economic growth and
created new employment opportunities.

OO

Foreign companies are investing in India’s automobile industry, leading to increased production and exports.
How does this affect employment and technology transfer in the Indian manufacturing sector?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 26 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

The idea of development or progress has always been with us. We have aspirations or desires about what we
would like to do and how we would like to live. Similarly, we have ideas about what a country should be like.
What are the essential things that we require? Can life be better for all? How should people live together? Can
there be more equality? Development involves thinking about these questions and about the ways in which we
can work towards achieving these goals.

In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, this criterion is used in classifying countries.
Countries with per capita income of US $ 12,056 per annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries and
those with per capita income of US $ 955 or less are called low-income countries. India comes in the category of
low middle income countries because its per capita income in 2017 was just US $ 1820 per annum.

Groundwater is an example of renewable resources. These resources are replenished by nature as in the case of
crops and plants. However, even these resources may be overused. For example, in the case of groundwater, if
we use more than what is being replenished by rain then we would be overusing this resource.

Questions :

1. What do you mean by economic development?

2. Why India comes in the category of low middle income countries?

3. Why groundwater is the best example of renewable resources?

35. Read the extract and answer the questions that follows:

Besides seeking more income, one-way or the other, people also seek things like equal treatment, freedom,
security, and respect of others. They resent discrimination. All these are important goals. In fact, in some cases,
these may be more important than more income or more consumption because material goods are not all that
you need to live. Money, or material things that one can buy with it, is one factor on which our life depends. But
the quality of our life also depends on non-material things mentioned above. If it is not obvious to you, then just
think of the role of your friends in your life. You may desire their friendship. Similarly, there are many things
that are not easily measured but they mean a lot to our lives. These are often ignored. However, it will be
wrong to conclude that what cannot be measured is not important. Consider another example, if you get a job
in a far off place, before accepting it you would try to consider many factors, apart from income, such as
facilities for your family, working atmosphere, or opportunity to learn. In another case, a job may give you less
pay but may offer regular employment that enhances your sense of security.

Another job, however, may offer high pay but no job security and also leave no time for your family. This will
reduce your sense of security and freedom. Similarly, for development, people look at a mix of goals. It is true
that if women are engaged in paid work, their dignity in the household and society increases. However, it is
also the case that if there is respect for women there would be more sharing of housework and a greater
acceptance of women working outside. A safe and secure environment may allow more women to take up a
variety of jobs or run a business. Hence, the developmental
Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 26 Page 9

goals that people have are not only about better income but also about other important things in life.

Questions :

1. What do you mean by income?

2. Why people seek things like equal treatment, freedom, security, and respect of others?

3. Why does job may give you less pay but enhances your sense of security?

4. What are the things people seek for development?

36. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

To be revolutionary at this time meant a commitment to oppose monarchical forms that had been
established after the Vienna Congress, and to fight for liberty and freedom. Most of these revolutionaries also
saw the creation of nation-states as a necessary part of this struggle for freedom. One such individual was the
Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini, born in Genoa in 1807, he became a member of the secret society of
the Carbonari. As a young man of 24, he was sent into exile in 1831 for attempting a revolution in Liguria. He
subsequently founded two more underground societies, first, Young Italy in Marseilles, and then, Young Europe
in Berne, whose members were like-minded young men from Poland, France, Italy and the German states.
Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to be the natural units of mankind.

So Italy could not continue to be a patchwork of small states and kingdoms. It had to be forged into a single
unified republic within a wider alliance of nations. This unification alone could be the basis of Italian liberty.
Following his model, secret societies were set up in Germany, France, Switzerland and Poland. Mazzini’s
relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republics frightened the conservatives.
Metternich described him as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’. As conservative regimes tried to
consolidate their power, liberalism and nationalism came to be increasingly associated with revolution in many
regions of Europe such as the Italian and German states, the provinces of the Ottoman Empire, Ireland and
Poland. These revolutions were led by the liberal-nationalists belonging to the educated middle-class elite,
among whom were professors, schoolteachers, clerks and members of the commercial middle classes. The first
upheaval took place in France in July 1830. The Bourbon kings who had been restored to power during the
conservative reaction after 1815, were now overthrown by liberal revolutionaries who installed a constitutional
monarchy with Louis Philippe at its head. ‘When France sneezes,’ Metternich once remarked, ‘the rest of Europe
catches cold.’ The July Revolution sparked an uprising in Brussels which led to Belgium breaking away from the
United Kingdom of the Netherlands.

Questions :

1. In which place the Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini was born? Which secret society was joined
by Giuseppe Mazzini?

2. What was the basis of Italian unification? When did the first upheaval took place?

3. What is the belief of Mazzini on nation?

Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 26 NODIA

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the lines drawn near them.

A. The location of the Indian National Congress Session of 1927.

B. A place where Gandhiji ceremonially violated the Salt Law and manufactured salt by boiling salt
sea water.

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

C. A major port on the South-East coast of India.

D. A major sugarcane producing state.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 E. A Software Technology Park

F. A major dam in Odisha.

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 27 1
Sample Paper 27

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. What does the cartoon represent?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) Concentration of powers which are controlling the democratic regimes of their respective country.

(b) The main leaders of two countries are going somewhere.

(c) More powers were given to the democracy.

(d) Putin is advising bush to control the horse tightly.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 27 NODIA

2. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence-

1. The great depression on the Indian economy

2. The death of men of working-age in Europe because of the world war

3. The British government’s decision to abolish the corn laws

4. The decision of MNCs to relocate production to Asian countries

Options :

(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 1, 1, 3, 4

(c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. Which ideology, advocating for the unification of people with common language and culture, played a
crucial role in the rise of nationalism in Europe?

(a) Liberalism, which focused on individual freedoms and democratic governance.

(b) Nationalism, which emphasized the importance of a unified national identity.

(c) Conservatism, which aimed to preserve traditional institutions and hierarchies.

(d) Socialism, which sought to address economic inequalities through collective ownership.

4. The Civil Disobedience Movement marked a new phase in India’s struggle for freedom. Which of the
following were key features of the Civil Disobedience Movement?

1. Boycott of foreign goods

2. Refusal to pay taxes

3. Violent attacks on British officials

4. Participation of women in large numbers

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 3, and 4

5. Which of the following types of pollution is most commonly associated with manufacturing industries in
India?

(a) Air pollution, caused by emissions from factories and plants.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (b) Light pollution, which is usually an urban issue, not industry-specific.

(c) Sound pollution, mainly due to traffic, not industries.

(d) Electromagnetic pollution, which is not a common industrial issue.

6. Forest fires can have devastating effects on ecosystems. Evaluate the following statements about forest
fires in India:

1. Forest fires lead to the destruction of vegetation and loss of wildlife habitat.

2. They contribute to soil erosion and degradation of land quality.

3. Controlled forest fires are sometimes used as a management tool to clear underbrush.

4. Forest fires have no significant impact on climate change.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

7. The government has established several wildlife sanctuaries and national parks in India to protect

species, such as the Bengal tiger and the Indian rhinoceros.

(a) Endangered (b) Exotic

(c) Herbivorous (d) Migratory

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 27 Page 3

8. What role do the Finance Commission play in India’s federal structure?

(a) They decide the allocation of financial resources between the central and state governments.

(b) They oversee the implementation of economic policies at the state level.

(c) They manage the central government’s budget and expenditures exclusively.

(d) They regulate the financial institutions within each state to ensure uniformity.

9. Efforts to address caste inequalities in India have taken various forms. Which of the following measures
have been taken to reduce caste-based inequalities?

1. Reservation of seats in legislatures for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

2. Reservation in educational institutions and government jobs

3. Abolition of untouchability

4. Ban on inter-caste marriages

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

10. The interrelationship between democracy and development is a subject of considerable discussion. Which
of the following statements best describe the reciprocal effects of democracy on development and vice
versa?

1. Democracies tend to provide more equitable access to resources, promoting social welfare.

2. Economic development strengthens democratic institutions and governance.

3. Authoritarian regimes are more effective in delivering development outcomes than democracies.

4. Democratic governance fosters an environment of innovation and accountability.

Options:

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, and 4

11. Democratic governments around the world, including India, aim to reduce internal conflicts and maintain
peace through various forms of power-sharing mechanisms, one of which is the vertical division of power
between different levels of government. This type of power-sharing is often referred to as .

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (a) Vertical (b) Horizontal

(c) Federal (d) Decentralized

12. Regarding caste in Indian society, consider the following:

Statement I : Caste-based discrimination is outlawed in India by the Constitution.

Statement II : Caste identities continue to play a significant role in elections and political mobilization.

(a) Only Statement I is correct

(b) Only Statement II is correct

(c) Both Statements I and II are correct

(d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 27 NODIA

13. Match the following items given in column A with those in Column B. Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:

Column A Column B
A. A form of guarantee against loan 1. Gomasthas
B. Supervise Weavers, collect supplies, and examine the quality of cloth 2. Shroffs and Chettairs

C. Group of bankers and traders who financed export of agriculture 3. Collateral

D. Caste system was based on exclusion and discrimination against 4. Outcaste
Options

(a) A – 4, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2

(b) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2, D – 4

(c) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4

(d) A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1

14. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Subsistence farming is primarily aimed at producing crops for commercial sale. Statement II:
Commercial farming involves large-scale production of crops like cotton, sugarcane, and tea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

15. What is the impact of global trade agreements on the Indian economy?

(a) They isolate India from international markets, reducing trade opportunities.

(b) They open up new markets for Indian products, enhance trade relations, and boost economic growth.

(c) They restrict India’s ability to set its own trade policies and regulations.

(d) They lead to the decline of local industries by favoring foreign competitors exclusively.

16. The literacy rate is an important indicator of development. Which of the following best explains why
literacy rate is used to measure development?

1. It indicates the level of education in a country.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 2. It reflects the overall health and life expectancy of the population.

3. It directly affects the income-generating capacity of individuals.

4. It influences the economic decisions of a country.

Options :

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 1

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 27 Page 5

17. Choose the correct option from columns A and B.

Column A Column B
A. Chandrapur Thermal power plant 1 Odisha
B. Mayurbhanj iron ore mines 2. Amarkantak
C. Kalol oil fields 3. Gujarat
D. Bauxite mines 4. Jharkhand
Option :

(a) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2 (b) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1

(c) A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1 (d) A - 3, B - 1, C -4, D - 2

18. Which of the following best explains the term monetary policy as implemented by the RBI?

(a) Policies related to government spending and taxation to influence the economy.

(b) Actions taken by the RBI to control the money supply and interest rates to achieve economic
objectives.

(c) Regulations imposed by the RBI on foreign exchange transactions and international trade.

(d) Strategies employed by banks to increase their profits through lending and investment.

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why do tropical evergreen forests make up 40 percent of the total forest cover?

(a) They are located in the arid regions of India.

(b) They have dense canopies and receive heavy rainfall.

Install NODIA App to See the
Solutions.
 (c) They are found at higher altitudes.

(d) They support desert wildlife.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

State Road Density (km per 100 sq km) Railway Network (km)
State A 80 2500
State B 50 3000
Why does State A have a higher road density but a shorter railway network compared to State B?

(a) State A focuses more on road infrastructure.

(b) State A has fewer urban areas.

(c) State B has a higher population density.

(d) State B relies more on air transport.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 27 NODIA

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Technological advancements transformed warfare during the 20th century.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

22. “Information Technology (IT) industry has transformed the global economy.” Explain its influence.

23. “The judiciary plays a crucial role in maintaining federal balance.” Justify the statement with suitable
examples.

24. “Banks play a crucial role in the implementation of government policies.” Explain how banks contribute to
policy implementation.

OR

“Microfinance promotes financial inclusion in India.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. “Religious tolerance is essential for peaceful coexistence.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

26. “Censorship of the press was a method used by governments to control nationalist movements.” Explain
the statement by giving suitable examples.

OR
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
“Romanticism influenced the development of national consciousness in Europe.” Explain the statement by
giving suitable examples.

27. “Ajay wants to invest in the postal services sector but is unsure about the functions and significance of
postal services in the national economy.” Assist him in understanding the key functions of postal services
and their impact on the national economy.

28. “Combating caste-based discrimination is crucial for social justice.” Explain the statement by giving any
three examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 27 Page 7

29. Over the years, India’s participation in international organizations like WTO and BRICS has increased,
shaping its economic policies. Consequently, participation in international organizations has become vital
for India’s economic strategy. Why is participation in international organizations important for India?
Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘Economic factors were as important as political factors in the rise of nationalism.’ Explain the statement
with relevant points.

OR

‘Cultural revival was a strategy used by nationalists to strengthen their movements.’ Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

31. Ravi notices that water resources in his area are being polluted due to industrial waste. What steps should
the local government take to conserve water resources?

OR

Sunita comes across the term “sustainable development” during her studies. Identify five ways her community
can implement sustainable practices in resource management.

32. ‘Coalition governments have become common in Indian politics.’ Analyse the impact of coalition politics
on governance in India.

OR

‘Federalism ensures the decentralization of power.’ Explain how decentralization functions in a federal system.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 33. Miss C is learning about economic growth and development but is confused about the differences
between these two terms. Explain how economic growth, which is typically measured by GDP, differs from
development, which includes social factors such as education, healthcare, and equality.

OR

Two Indian states have similar income levels, but one state has much better access to education and
healthcare. Which state would you consider more developed, and why? Discuss how non- income indicators
play a role in measuring development.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 27 NODIA

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

The central government in India made a law implementing the Right to Work in about 625 districts of India. It is
called Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 (MGNREGA 2005). Under MGNREGA
2005, all those who are able to, and are in need of work in rural areas are guaranteed 100 days of employment
in a year by the government.

The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total
production of the sector for that year. And the sum of production in the three sectors gives what is called the
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country. It is the value of all final goods and services produced within a
country during a particular year.

Another way of classifying economic activities into sectors could be on the basis of who owns assets and is
responsible for the delivery of services. In the public sector, the government owns most of the assets and
provides all the services. In the private sector, ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the hands of
private individuals or companies. Railways or post office is an example of the public sector whereas companies
like Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO) or Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) are privately owned.

Questions :

1. How many days of employment in a year are guaranteed by the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act 2005?

2. What does the Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?

3. Which sector of economies managed by the individual or company?

35. Read the extract and answer the questions that follows:

In his famous book Hind Swaraj (1909) Mahatma Gandhi declared that British rule was established in India
with the cooperation of Indians, and had survived only because of this cooperation. If Indians refused to
cooperate, British rule in India would collapse within a year, and swaraj would come. How could non-
cooperation become a movement? Gandhiji proposed that the movement should unfold in stages. It should
begin with the surrender of titles that the government awarded, and a boycott of civil services, army, police,
courts and legislative councils, schools, and foreign goods. Then, in case the government used repression, a full
civil disobedience campaign would be launched. Through the summer of 1920 Mahatma Gandhi and Shaukat
Ali toured extensively, mobilising popular support for the movement. Many within the Congress were, however,
concerned about the proposals. They were reluctant to boycott the council elections scheduled for November
1920, and they feared that the movement might lead to popular violence. In the months between September
and December there was an intense tussle within the Congress. For a while there seemed no meeting point
between the supporters and the opponents of the movement. Finally, at the Congress session at Nagpur in
December 1920, a compromise was worked out and the Non-Cooperation programme was adopted. The Non-
Cooperation-Khilafat Movement began in January 1921. Various social groups participated in this movement,
each with its own specific aspiration. All of them responded to the call of Swaraj, but the term meant different

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
things to different people. The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands of
students left government-controlled schools

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 27 Page 9

and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers gave up their legal practices. The council
elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras, where the Justice Party, the party of the non-
Brahmans, felt that entering the council was one way of gaining some power-something that usually only
Brahmans had access to. The effects of non-cooperation on the economic front were more dramatic. Foreign
goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The import of foreign
cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from Rs 102 crore to Rs 57 crore. In many places
merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. As the boycott movement
spread, and people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian
textile mills and handlooms went up.

Questions :

1. What was the declaration of Mahatama Gandhi in his famous book Hind Swaraj (1909 AD)?

2. How was the Non-Cooperation Movement started?

36. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

Large-scale development projects have also contributed significantly to the loss of forests. Since 1951, over
5,000 sq. km of forest was cleared for river valley projects. Clearing of forests is still continuing with projects
like the Narmada Sagar Project in Madhya Pradesh, which would inundate 40,000 hectares of forest. Mining is
another important factor behind deforestation. The Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal is seriously threatened
by the ongoing dolomite mining. It has disturbed the natural habitat of many species and blocked the migration
route of several others, including the great Indian elephant.

The Himalayan Yew (Taxus wallachiana) is a medicinal plant found in various parts of Himachal Pradesh and
Arunachal Pradesh. A chemical compound called ‘taxol’ is extracted from the bark, needles, twigs and roots of
this tree, and it has been successfully used to treat some cancers – the drug is now the biggest selling anti-
cancer drug in the world. The species is under great threat due to over-exploitation. In the last one decade,
thousands of yew trees have dried up in various parts of Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh.

“Project Tiger”, one of the well-publicised wildlife campaigns in the world, was launched in 1973. Tiger
conservation has been viewed not only as an effort to save an endangered species, but with equal importance
as a means of preserving biotypes of sizeable magnitude. Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand, Sunderbans
National Park in West Bengal, Bandhavgarh National Park in Madhya Pradesh, Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary in
Rajasthan, Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam and Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala are some of the tiger reserves of
India.

Questions

1. Why is the Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal seriously threatened?

2. From which plant that biggest selling anti-cancer drug in the world is made up of ?

3. Why was tiger conservation launched?

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 27 NODIA

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

(A) Indian National Congress Session was held at this place in 1927.

(B) The place where the movement of Indigo Planters started.

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any 3 of the following with suitable symbols.

(i) Software technology parks in UP.

(ii) A nuclear power plant in Tamil Nadu (iii)Ramagundam thermal power station. (iv)Coal mine in the
state of Jharkhand

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Sample Paper Page
Science 28 1
Sample Paper 28

Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25 Social Science

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question
paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. The below carton clearly state that :

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
(a) Perils of running a coalition Govt.

(b) A coalition govt have more work to do.

(c) The best way to run a democratic country like India is Coalition govt.

(d) Coalition govt increases the overall efficiency of the Govt and hence shall be welcomed.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 2 Sample Paper 28 NODIA

2. Arrange the following in correct sequence :

1. Formation of G-77

2. Bretton Woods Conference.

3. Discovery of America

4. Great Depression

Options

(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 3, 4, 2, 1

(c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. The Salt March, led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930, was a protest against which British law or policy?

(a) The monopoly on salt production and the unfair taxation on salt.

(b) The British control of Indian textiles and the imposition of tariffs on local goods.

(c) The partition of Bengal and the division of the country along religious lines.

(d) The restrictions on Indian political representation in the British Parliament.

4. The global economy underwent significant changes after the end of World War II. Which of the following
were key features of the post-World War II global economy?

1. The dominance of the United States in global trade

2. Decolonization and independence movements in Asia and Africa

3. The rise of socialist economies

4. Creation of economic organizations like the IMF and World Bank

Options :

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2, and 4

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3

5. Which of the following is a highly efficient method of water conservation in agriculture, especially suited
for water-scarce regions?

(a) Intensive irrigation, which uses large amounts of water for crop production.

(b) Drip irrigation, where water is delivered directly to the roots of plants to reduce wastage.

(c) Slash and burn agriculture, which involves clearing land by burning vegetation.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 (d) Mono-cropping, where a single type of crop is grown over a large area.

6. Economic growth is a significant aspect of development, but it must be balanced with social and
environmental considerations. Analyze the following points related to economic development in India:

1. Economic development focuses solely on increasing the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

2. It includes improving infrastructure, education, and healthcare systems.

3. Sustainable economic development ensures that growth does not harm the environment.

4. Economic development neglects the welfare of marginalized communities.

(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

7. Rainwater harvesting is an important method of water resources, especially in regions that experience
seasonal rainfall.

(a) Conserving (b) Utilizing

(c) Overusing (d) Irrigating

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 28 Page 3

8. What role do Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs) play in addressing issues of gender, religion, and
caste in India?

(a) They promote discriminatory practices to maintain social hierarchies.

(b) They work towards social reform, advocacy, and providing support to marginalized communities.

(c) They focus solely on economic development without addressing social issues.

(d) They operate under government directives to implement caste-based policies.

9. Free and fair elections are central to the functioning of political parties in a democracy. Which of the
following measures can ensure fair elections?

1. Strict enforcement of election laws

2. Reducing the influence of money and muscle power

3. Limiting voter turnout

4. Transparent party funding and auditing

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

10. Federalism often necessitates a careful balance of power to ensure that different levels of government
function effectively. Which of the following statements correctly illustrate the importance of federalism in
ensuring a harmonious coexistence between state and national interests?

1. It allows for regional autonomy while maintaining national integrity.

2. It promotes a uniform approach to governance across the country.

3. It prevents the central government from imposing its will on the states.

4. It creates conflict between various levels of government, leading to inefficiency.

Options:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 1 and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 11. The Indian federal system operates with a distinct division of powers between the central and state
governments, allowing each to manage their own domains. Which of the following correctly describes this
division of power in the Indian federal structure?

(a) Equal power for all states

(b) Centralization of power

(c) Division of powers between the central and state governments

(d) Complete independence of the states

12. Regarding the concept of decentralization in Indian federalism, consider the following:

Statement I : Decentralization allows local governments to have autonomy in decision-making.

Statement II : The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments provided for the establishment of local
governments in rural and urban areas, respectively.

(a) Only Statement I is correct

(b) Only Statement II is correct

(c) Both Statements I and II are correct

(d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 28 NODIA

13. Match the following:

List I List II

A. Cotton Textile 1. Nitric acid

B. Chemical Industries 2. Potash

C. Cement Industry 3. Yarn

D. Fertiliser Industry 4. Gypsum

Option :

(a) C - 1, A - 2, D - 3, B - 4

(b) C - 1, A - 2, D - 4, B - 3

(c) C - 3, A - 2, D - 4, B - 1

(d) C - 3, A - 1, D - 2, B - 4

14. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Petroleum is a renewable source of energy. Statement II: India imports most of its crude oil
requirements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I is correct.

(b) Only II is correct.

(c) Both I and II are correct.

(d) Neither I nor II is correct.

15. Which of the following strategies is essential for achieving sustainable economic development in India?

(a) Exploiting natural resources without regard to environmental impact.

(b) Balancing economic growth with environmental conservation and social equity.

(c) Prioritizing industrial expansion over renewable energy sources.

(d) Ignoring technological advancements and focusing solely on traditional industries.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 16. The informal sector plays a significant role in the Indian economy. Which of the following statements
about the informal sector are correct?

1. The informal sector is not regulated by the government.

2. Workers in the informal sector do not receive regular wages.

3. The informal sector contributes significantly to India’s GDP.

4. The informal sector provides benefits like health insurance to workers.

Options :

(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, and 4

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 28 Page 5

17. Match Column - A with Column - B and choose the correct option:

Column-A (River) Column-B (Dam)

A. Mahanadi 1. Sardar Sarovar

B. Narmada 2. Hirakud

C. Chambal 3. Salal

D. Chenab 4. Rana Pratap Sagar

Options:

(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1

(b) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

(c) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

(d) A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

18. What role do multinational corporations (MNCs) play in India’s economy under globalization?

(a) They reduce competition by monopolizing all sectors of the Indian economy.

(b) They bring investment, technology, and managerial expertise, contributing to economic development.

(c) They primarily exploit Indian resources without providing any economic benefits.

(d) They limit the growth of local businesses by forcing them out of the market.

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Why does timber contribute to 50 percent of forest products?

(a) It is used mainly for household purposes.

(b) It is exported and used in industries.

(c) It is primarily used as firewood.

(d) It is the least valuable forest product.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 6 Sample Paper 28 NODIA

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:

Sector Contribution to GDP (%) Employment Rate (%)

Primary Sector 25 55%
Secondary Sector 30 25%
Tertiary Sector 45 20%
Why does the tertiary sector contribute the most to GDP but employ fewer people than the primary sector?

(a) It requires more skilled labor.

(b) It lacks growth opportunities.

(c) It depends on foreign investment.

(d) It focuses on agriculture.

SECTION - B

Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “The rise of mass media transformed societies in the modern world.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

22. “Nuclear energy has both advantages and disadvantages.” Discuss.

23. “Empowering women through education transforms society.” Justify this statement with suitable
examples.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 24. “The automotive industry in India has grown due to globalization.” Explain how globalization has
impacted the automotive sector in India.

OR

“Globalization has contributed to the growth of the service sector in India.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 28 Page 7

SECTION - C

Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. “Power sharing prevents the concentration of power in one person or group.” Explain the statement by
giving any three examples.

26. “The role of intellectuals was pivotal in shaping nationalist ideologies in Europe.” Explain the statement by
giving suitable examples.

OR

“Technological advancements in navigation and transportation connected different parts of the world.” Explain
the statement by giving suitable examples.

27. “Meena wants to develop a sustainable business model for her organic farming venture. She needs to
understand the role of various resources in sustainable development.” Guide her in identifying the
resources that contribute to sustainable agricultural practices.

28. “Federalism enhances citizen participation in governance.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

29. Over the decades, India’s human development indicators, such as the Human Development Index (HDI),
have improved significantly. As a result, human development has become a focal point in India’s
development strategy. Why is human development important for India’s overall progress? Support your
answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D

Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The role of the press and print media was significant in spreading nationalist ideas in India.’ Explain the
statement with relevant points.

OR

‘The idea of Swaraj was central to the Indian nationalist movement.’ Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
 31. ChapRohit’s village faces severe soil erosion due to deforestation. What can be the reasons behind this
issue, and suggest five ways to manage the land resources to prevent further degradation.

OR

Seema observes that different states in India have varied land use patterns. Identify five factors that influence
the land use pattern in a particular region.

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 8 Sample Paper 28 NODIA

32. ‘Public opinion plays an important role in shaping democratic outcomes.’ Explain how public opinion
influences democratic governance.

OR

‘The success of a democracy depends on active citizen participation.’ Justify the importance of civic
engagement in the success of democratic systems.

33. Mr. F is concerned about the issue of disguised unemployment in the agricultural sector. Explain how
disguised unemployment affects the productivity of the primary sector, and how shifting surplus labor to
other sectors like industry and services can improve economic efficiency.

OR

A village is seeing increased demand for services like healthcare, education, and transportation. Why is the
tertiary sector becoming more important in India’s economic growth, especially in developing regions?

SECTION - E

Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

Reserved and protected forests are also referred to as permanent forest estates maintained for the purpose of
producing timber and other forest produce, and for protective reasons. Madhya Pradesh has the largest area
under permanent forests, constituting 75 percent of its total forest area. Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh,
Uttarakhand, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, and Maharashtra have large percentages of reserved forests of
its total forest area whereas Bihar, Haryana, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Odisha and Rajasthan have a bulk of it
under protected forests.

Some estimates suggest that at least 10 percent of India’s recorded wild flora and 20 percent of its mammals
are on the threatened list. Many of these would now be categorised as ‘critical’, that is on the verge of
extinction like the cheetah, pink-headed duck, mountain quail, forest spotted owlet, and plants like madhuca
insignis (a wild variety of mahua) and hubbardia heptaneuron, (a species of grass). In fact, no one can say how
many species may have already been lost.

The world’s fastest land mammal, the cheetah (Acinonyx jubantus), is a unique and specialised member of the
cat family and can move at the speed of 112 km./hr. The cheetah is often mistaken for a leopard. Its
distinguishing marks are the long teardrop shaped lines on each side of the nose from the corner of its eyes to
its mouth. Prior to the 20th century, cheetahs were widely distributed throughout Africa and Asia. Today, the
Asian cheetah is nearly extinct due to a decline of available habitat and prey. The species was declared extinct
in India long back in 1952.

Questions:
Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
1. Which Indian state cover 75% total forest area in India?

2. How many percent of mammals are on the threatened list in India?

3. How can we distinguish Cheetah from leopard?

Contonue Co oueen paueeeeeee

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 28 Page 9

35. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:

The Portuguese and Spanish conquest and colonisation of America was decisively under way by the mid-
sixteenth century. European conquest was not just a result of superior firepower. In fact, the most powerful
weapon of the Spanish conquerors was not a conventional military weapon at all. It was the germs such as
those of smallpox that they carried on their person. Because of their long isolation, America’s original
inhabitants had no immunity against these diseases that came from Europe. Smallpox in particular proved a
deadly killer. Once introduced, it spread deep into the continent, ahead even of any Europeans reaching there.
It killed and decimated whole communities, paving the way for conquest.

Questions :

1. Which two nations were the earliest colonisers in America?

2. What were some of the reasons due to which the colonisers easily established their control over
several parts of America?

3. How smallpox turned into death of native people of America?

36. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:

Given the abundance and renewability of water, it is difficult to imagine that we may suffer from water scarcity.
The moment we speak of water shortages; we immediately associate it with regions having low rainfall or
those that are drought prone. We instantaneously visualise the deserts of Rajasthan and women balancing
many ‘matkas’ (earthen pots) used for collecting and storing water and travelling long distances to get water.
True, the availability of water resources varies over space and time, mainly due to the variations in seasonal
and annual precipitation, but water scarcity in most cases is caused by over- exploitation, excessive use and
unequal access to water among different social groups.

Questions :

1. How do women collect water in Rajasthan?

2. Why is water scarcity in most areas caused?

3. Do you think rainwater harvesting can help ?Give reasons to justify your answer.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the lines drawn near them.

A. The place where Congress Session was held in September 1920.

B. A place associated with Peasant Satyagraha.

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
Page 10 Sample Paper 28 NODIA

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

C. Singrauli Thermal Power Plant

D. A Major Seaport in Kerala

E. An International Airport in Punjab

F. A Software Technology Park in Uttar Pradesh.

.[Link]

Install NODIA App to See the

Solutions.
CBSE Exam Feb 2025 Sample Papers

Class 10th

PRE-BOARD Sample Papers 30 Sets (With Solutions)

All files link are working. Open in Google Drive Only.

Social Sceicne

Social Science Paper 1

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 2

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 3

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 4

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 5

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 6

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 7

PaPer Solution doc

Click any PDF ICON for Sample Papers. All Links are
working properly. If you have any difficulty in opening the
papers, use Google Drive PDF viewer.

For more information whatsapp at 89056 29969

Social Science Paper 8

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 9

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 10

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 11

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 15

PaPer doc
Solution

Download Chapterwise Previous Year Questions

Worksheet
Social Science Paper 12

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 13

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 14

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 15

PaPer doc
Solution

Download Chapterwise Previous Year Questions

Worksheet
Social Science Paper 16

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 17

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 18

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 19

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 23

PaPer doc
Solution

Download Chapterwise Previous Year Questions

Worksheet
Social Science Paper 20

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 21

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 22

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 23

PaPer doc
Solution

Download Chapterwise Previous Year Questions

Worksheet
Social Science Paper 24

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 25

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 26

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 27

PaPer Solution doc

Social Sceicne 2024 Exam Paper

PaPer doc
Solution

Download Chapterwise Previous Year Questions

Worksheet
Social Science Paper 28

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 29

PaPer Solution doc

Social Science Paper 30

PaPer Solution doc

Social Sceicne 2024 Exam Paper

PaPer doc
Solution

Download Chapterwise Previous Year Questions

Worksheet
CBSE Pre Board Sample Papers

Exam Feb 2025

Click your subject and Download 30 Set Sample Papers

If you are not able to open papers after click, please see at the
last page of this PDF

Class 10th

Get all Subject Sample Papers

Click Below to Join our Whatsapp Channel

Class 12th
Class 9th

Get all Subject Sample Papers

Click Below to Join our Whatsapp Channel
File is not opening after click or touch ? What to do ?

If sample paper file is not opening after click or touch, it means

links doesn’t work in you mobile PDF opening app. It seems that
your mobile has WPS office, in which links doesn’t work.

Open this file in Google Drive only.

क्लिक/टच करने से फाइल नहीं खुल रहा है ?

मैं क्ा करूँ

अगर आपके क्लिक करने के बाद सैंपलि पेपर

फाइलि नहीं खुलि रहा है तो आपके PDF खोलि
ने वालिे एपप में ललिक काम नहीं करते
हैं | अगर आपके मोबाइलि में WPS ऑफफस है
तो उसमें भी फाइलि नहीं खुलिेगा |
आप इसे गूगलि ड्ाइव में खोललिये |

Get all Subject Sample Papers

Click Below to Join our Whatsapp Channel