CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 13 Page 1
Sample Paper 13
Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25
Social Science
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual
inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In addition to
this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
SECTION - A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.
1. Consider these statements about the Image given below
1. Title of this caricature is “The Club of Thinkers”.
2. he plaque on the left bears the inscription: ‘The most important question of today’s meeting:
How long will thinking be allowed to us?”
3. This was a caricature of meeting called by liberals.
4. This caricature was created in 1820.
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Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) A. 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1 , 2 and 4
2. Arrange the following in correct sequence:
1. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
2. Gandhi sent letter to Viceroy Lord Irwin.
3. Violation of Salt Act. by Mahatma Gandhi.
Options :
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 1
(c) 3, 2, 1 (d) 2, 1, 3
3. The system of indentured labor migration in the 19th century involved which of the following?
(a) Workers from Asia and Africa were contracted to work on European plantations.
(b) Wealthy European farmers migrated to Asia in search of better job opportunities.
(c) Slaves were transported from Africa to work on European-owned plantations in the Americas.
(d) European workers voluntarily moved to colonies for higher wages and better living conditions.
4. Print culture in 18th century Europe influenced the ideas of the Enlightenment thinkers. Which of
the following statements about the influence of print on the Enlightenment are correct?
1. Print helped spread ideas of reason and rationality.
2. Print allowed for greater criticism of absolute monarchy.
3. Print restricted the dissemination of revolutionary ideas.
4. Print contributed to the decline of scientific inquiry.
Options :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
5. Which of the following best describes the impact of print culture on social reform movements in
colonial India during the 19th century?
(a) Reformers used print to spread ideas on caste discrimination, education, and women’s rights.
(b) Print culture had no significant impact on Indian society, as literacy rates were low.
(c) British authorities used print to suppress Indian reformers and limit their influence.
(d) Print culture focused mainly on promoting British economic policies and infrastructure.
6. Which of the following regions in India is known for its concentration of cotton textile industries?
(a) Mumbai-Pune region, which has a large number of textile mills.
(b) Kerala, which is primarily known for its rubber and spice plantations.
(c) Assam, known for tea plantations but not textiles.
(d) Rajasthan, which focuses more on handicrafts and marble production.
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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 13 Page 3
7. Wildlife sanctuaries and national parks play a crucial role in conserving biodiversity. Evaluate the
following statements:
1. National parks have stricter regulations compared to wildlife sanctuaries.
2. Poaching is a major threat faced by wildlife in protected areas.
3. Both national parks and wildlife sanctuaries prohibit any human activities within their
boundaries.
4. Wildlife corridors are established to connect different protected areas and facilitate animal
movement.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
8. Soil conservation methods, such as terrace farming and _______ ploughing, are essential in
preventing soil erosion in hilly areas.
(a) Contour (b) Strip
(c) Vertical (d) Reverse
9. What is the significance of the Reservation Policy in India?
(a) To provide reserved seats in educational institutions and government jobs for marginalized
communities.
(b) To allocate exclusive rights to certain castes for government positions.
(c) To reserve specific areas in cities for minority religious groups.
(d) To restrict employment opportunities for upper-caste individuals in favor of lower castes.
10. In a democracy, political parties represent the interests of various groups. Which of the following
measures can help in reforming political parties in India?
1. Ensuring internal democracy within parties
2. Reducing the role of money in politics
3. Imposing restrictions on party formation
4. Promoting transparency in party funding
Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
11. Democracy promotes inclusiveness and participation in governance. Which of the following
outcomes of democracy enhance participation?
1. Equal voting rights for all citizens
2. Inclusion of diverse social groups in governance
3. Restricted access to decision-making for certain groups
4. Promotion of political awareness among citizens
Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
12. _______ refers to a system where social divisions are based on hereditary occupation, which
continues to impact Indian society despite legal measures against discrimination.
(a) Secularism (b) Federalism
(c) Caste system (d) Patriarchy
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13. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India’s federal structure, the states have the power to legislate on subjects listed
in the State List.
Statement II: The Union List in the Indian Constitution contains subjects on which only state
governments can legislate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.
14. Match the following and choose correct option.
Column A Column B
A. Gram sabha I. Gram panchayat group together to form this unit.
B. Gram panchayat II. It reviews the performance of the gram panchayat.
C. Zila parishad III. Decision making body for the entire village.
D. Mandals IV. Mandals in a district together constitute zilla . parishad
(a) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (b) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
15. What is the main focus of the quaternary sector in the Indian economy?
(a) Extracting natural resources and farming activities.
(b) Manufacturing goods and constructing infrastructure.
(c) Providing services related to information, research, and technology.
(d) Retailing and wholesale trading of products.
16. The informal credit sector plays a significant role in rural India. Which of the following are
characteristics of informal sector credit?
1. Unregulated by the government
2. Higher interest rates compared to formal sector loans
3. Loans are generally provided without any collateral
4. Loans are available only from banks
Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
17. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Outsourcing is a consequence of globalization where companies transfer production
to other countries.
Statement II: Globalization has no impact on employment in developing countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.
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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 13 Page 5
18. Match the following columns :
Column-I Column-II
(Type of Soil) (Crops Grown)
A. Arid soil 1. Cotton and groundnut
B. Black soil 2. Jowar and Bajra
C. Laterite soil 3. Tea and coffee
D. Mountain/Forest soil 4. Cashew and spices
Option :
(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2 (b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2
(c) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3 (d) A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3
19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?
Why does iron ore account for 50 percent of total mineral production?
(a) It is used in steel production.
(b) It is mainly used for making fertilizers.
(c) It is found in desert regions.
(d) It is primarily used in the agricultural sector.
20. Read the data given below and answer the question:
Crop State A Yield (tons/hectare) State B Yield (tons/hectare)
Rice 4 6
Wheat 3 4.5
Why does state B have higher crop yields for both rice and wheat compared to state A?
(a) It depends on manual plowing.
(b) It has less fertile soil.
(c) It has more labor-intensive farming.
(d) It uses modern agricultural techniques.
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SECTION - B
Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)
21. “Nationalism weakened the multi-ethnic empires in Europe.” Discuss how nationalist movements
contributed to the decline of empires like Austria-Hungary and the Ottoman Empire.
22. “Automobile industry plays a key role in economic development.” Discuss its impact.
O
“Small-scale industries are vital for rural economies.” Explain how.
23. “Affirmative actions are essential for caste equality.” Justify this statement with suitable examples.
24. “Employment is a key indicator of development.” Explain the importance of employment in
measuring development.
SECTION - C
Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)
25. “The press was instrumental in mobilizing public opinion during the French Revolution.” Explain
the statement by giving suitable examples.
26. “The impact of World War I accelerated the growth of Indian nationalism.” Explain the statement
by giving suitable examples.
27. “Vijay plans to harvest rainwater to supplement his farm’s water supply. He needs to understand
the best practices for rainwater harvesting.” Assist him in identifying effective rainwater harvesting
techniques suitable for his farm.
28. “Political parties facilitate voter choice and participation.” Explain the statement by giving any
three examples.
O
“Political parties help in organizing the government.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 13 Page 7
29. Between 1991 and 2020, India’s automotive industry has grown substantially, contributing to
exports and employment. Consequently, the automotive sector has become a vital component of
the Indian economy. Why has the automotive sector become so significant in India? Support your
answer by giving any three reasons.
SECTION - D
Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)
30. ‘The spread of the English language was a result of British imperialism.’ Explain the statement
with relevant points.
O
‘The Silk Road facilitated not only trade but also cultural and technological exchanges.’ Justify
the statement with suitable arguments.
31. Neha’s village experiences excessive soil erosion during the rainy season. What measures should
the government take to conserve the soil, and how can community participation aid in this?
O
Raju finds that many resources around him, such as forests and minerals, are underutilized. What
are the reasons for the underutilization of resources in developing countries like India?
32. ‘Economic inequality remains a major challenge in democratic societies.’ Discuss how democracies
address or fail to address economic inequalities.
O
‘Corruption remains a persistent problem in many democracies.’ Discuss how corruption affects
the functioning of democratic governments.
33. Mr. B is interested in learning how loans can help small businesses grow. Explain how access to
credit from formal financial institutions, such as banks, can support entrepreneurs in expanding
their businesses and generating employment in their communities.
O
In a rural village, the expansion of banking services has allowed people to open accounts and save
money. How does the expansion of formal banking reduce dependence on informal credit, and how
does it promote financial inclusion?
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SECTION - E
Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)
34. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Reserved and protected forests are also referred to as permanent forest estates maintained for the
purpose of producing timber and other forest produce, and for protective reasons. Madhya Pradesh
has the largest area under permanent forests, constituting 75 percent of its total forest area. Jammu
and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, and Maharashtra
have large percentages of reserved forests of its total forest area whereas Bihar, Haryana, Punjab,
Himachal Pradesh, Odisha and Rajasthan have a bulk of it under protected forests.
Some estimates suggest that at least 10 percent of India’s recorded wild flora and 20 percent of its
mammals are on the threatened list. Many of these would now be categorised as ‘critical’, that is
on the verge of extinction like the cheetah, pink-headed duck, mountain quail, forest spotted owlet,
and plants like madhuca insignis (a wild variety of mahua) and hubbardia heptaneuron, (a species
of grass). In fact, no one can say how many species may have already been lost.
The world’s fastest land mammal, the cheetah (Acinonyx jubantus), is a unique and specialised
member of the cat family and can move at the speed of 112 km./hr. The cheetah is often mistaken
for a leopard. Its distinguishing marks are the long teardrop shaped lines on each side of the nose
from the corner of its eyes to its mouth. Prior to the 20th century, cheetahs were widely distributed
throughout Africa and Asia. Today, the Asian cheetah is nearly extinct due to a decline of available
habitat and prey. The species was declared extinct in India long back in 1952.
Questions:
1. Which Indian state cover 75% total forest area in India?
2. How many percent of mammals are on the threatened list in India?
3. How can we distinguish Cheetah from leopard?
35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and
movements control or influence those in power. In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom
to choose among various contenders for power. In contemporary democracies, this takes the form
of competition among different parties. Such competition ensures that power does not remain in
one hand. In the long run, power is shared among different political parties that represent different
ideologies and social groups. Sometimes this kind of sharing can be direct, when two or more parties
form an alliance to contest elections. If their alliance is elected, they form a coalition government
and thus share power. In a democracy, we find interest groups such as those of traders, businessmen,
industrialists, farmers and industrial workers. They also will have share in governmental power,
either through participation in governmental committees or bringing influence on the decision-
making process.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 13 Page 9
Questions:
1. ‘Power sharing is an essential component of democracy.’ Give one example to prove the
statement.
2. How is alliance building an example of power sharing?
3. How Political parties, pressure groups and movements help in controlling or influencing those
who are in power?
36. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
In June 1992, more than 100 heads of states met in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil, for the first International
Earth Summit. The Summit was convened for addressing urgent problems of environmental
protection and socio-economic development at the global level. The assembled leaders signed the
Declaration on Global Climatic Change and Biological Diversity. The Rio Convention endorsed the
global Forest Principles and adopted Agenda 21 for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st
century.
It is the declaration signed by world leaders in 1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment
and Development (UNCED), which took place at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. It aims at achieving global
sustainable development. It is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through
global co-operation on common interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities. One major
objective of the Agenda 21 is that every local government should draw its own local Agenda 21.
Questions :
1. When and where was the first International Earth Summit held?
2. Analyse the reason for adopting Agenda 21 for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st
century.
3. Mention the aims of United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED),
which took place at Rio de Janeiro.
SECTION-F
Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5
37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them
and write their correct Name on the line drawn near them.
(A) A place marked by a where the satyagraha movement of former took place.
(B) The place where Indian congress session was held in 1927.
(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable
symbol.
(i) Ramagundan-Thermal power plant
(ii) Tarapur-Atomic power plant
(iii)Indore-Cotton textile Industry center
(iv) Bhilai-Iron and steel plant
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