08 SEPTEMBER 2024

No.: 3924769

B
Test Booklet Code

This Booklet contains 28 pages.

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answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B)
as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty Five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All
questions are compulsory.
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5. Syllabus of this test is:
yy Physics: (1) Oscillations, (2) Waves
yy Chemistry: (1) Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles & Techniques, (2) Hydrocarbons
yy Biology: (1) Cell: The Unit Of Life , (2) Biomolecules, (3) Cell Cycle and Cell Division
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 VALOR

Physics - Section A 5 If T1 , T2 , T3 , T4 and T5 represent the tension in the string

of a simple pendulum when the bob is at the left extreme, right
If two identical springs, each with a spring constant k, extreme, mean, any intermediate left and any intermediate
1
right positions, respectively. Then, which of the following
are connected in series, the new spring constant and time relations are correct?
period will change by a factor of: (A) T1 = T2
1 1 (B) T3 > T2
1. , √2 2. , √2
2 4 (C) T4 > T3
1 1 (D) T3 = T4
3. , 2√ 2 4. , 2√ 2
4 2 (E) T5 > T2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
2 Select the correct statement regarding the reflection and below:
refraction of a wave at the interface between mediums 1 and
2. 1. (A), (B) and (C) only
1. The reflected wave always undergoes a phase change of π. 2. (B), (C) and (D) only
The wavelength of the reflected wave is shorter than that of 3. (A), (B) and (E) only
2.
the incident wave. 4. (C), (D) and (E) only
The frequency of the transmitted wave is the same as that
3.
of the incident wave. 6 If the equation of a wave is represented by:
The frequency of the wave changes depends on the nature x
4.
of the boundary. y = 10−4 sin (100t − ) m, where x is in meters and t in
10
seconds, then the velocity of the wave will be:
3 A boy is swinging on a swing. If he stands up (see
1. 100 m/s 2. 4 m/s
figure), the time period will: 3. 1000 m/s 4. 0 m/s

7 A 5 kg collar is attached to a spring with a spring

constant of 500 N/m. The collar slides over a horizontal rod
without friction. The collar is displaced from its equilibrium
position and released. Its period of oscillation will be:
1. 6.3 s 2. 0.63 s
3. 3.14 s 4. 0.314 s

8 The equation of simple harmonic motion may not be

1. first decrease, then increase
expressed as: (where each term has its usual meaning)
2. decrease 1. x = A sin(ωt + ϕ)
3. increase 2. x = A cos(ωt − ϕ)
4. remain the same 3. x = A sin(ωt) + B cos(ωt)
4. x = A sin(ωt + ϕ) + B sin(2ωt + ϕ)
4 Two pendulums with lengths 1.21 m and 1.0 m start
9 Given below are two statements:
vibrating simultaneously. At a certain moment, both
pendulums are at the mean position and in phase. After how If the length of a simple pendulum increases
many vibrations of the longer pendulum will they first return Assertion (A): by 4%, the percentage change in the time
to phase? period is 2%.
1. 10 2. 11 The time period of a simple pendulum is
3. 20 4. 21 Reason (R): directly proportional to the square root of its
length.

1
 VALOR

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 15 A platform with a mass of 2 kg is supported by a spring
1.
explanation of (A). of negligible mass, as shown in the figure. The platform
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct oscillates with a period of 3 s when it is pushed down and
2.
explanation of (A). released. What must be the mass of a block that must be
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. placed on the platform to double the period of oscillation to
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 6 s?

10 Suppose a string is 20 m long. Which of the following

wavelengths is possible for standing waves on this string?
1. 3.5 m 2. 13.3 m
3. 30 m 4. 80 m
1. 1 kg 2. 2 kg
Which, of the following equation represents a travelling 3. 4 kg 4. 6 kg
11
wave? The graph plotted between phase angle (ϕ) and
1. y = A sin(15x − 2t) 16
2
2. y = Ae−x (vt + θ) displacement of a particle from its equilibrium position (y) is
3. y = Aex cos(ωt − θ) a sinusoidal curve, as shown in the figure. Then the best
4. y = A sin x cos ωt matching is:

12 When the frequency of the sound produced by a siren

increases from 400 Hz​ to 1200 Hz​ while the amplitude
remains the same, what is the ratio of the intensity of the
sound wave at frequency 400 Hz​ to the intensity at frequency
1200 Hz?
1. 1 : 1
2. 3 : 1
3. 1 : 9 Column-I Column-II
4. 9 : 1

13 Consider the following relations regarding propagating Kinetic energy versus

A. P.
waves, where symbols have their usual meanings. phase angle curve
2
∂y ∂y
=( )
ω
(a)
∂t k ∂x
2
∂ 2y ∂ 2y
=( )
ω
(b) Potential energy versus
∂t2 k ∂x2 B. Q.
phase angle curve
Which of these equation(s) correctly describes a wave?
1. only (a) 2. only (b)
3. both (a) and (b) 4. neither (a) nor (b)

A clock S operates based on the oscillations of a spring, Total energy versus phase
14 C.
angle curve
R.
while a clock P operates based on pendulum motion. Both
clocks run at the same rate on Earth. On a planet with the
same density as Earth but twice the radius, which of the
following will be true?
Velocity versus phase
1. S will run faster than P . D. S.
angle curve
2. P will run faster than S.
3. Both will run at the same rate.
Both will run at the same rate but different from their rates Codes:
4.
on Earth.

2
 VALOR

A B C D 20 A particle P is moving along a circular path with a radius

1. P Q R S R, as shown in the figure. If the time period is 2 minutes, the
2. Q P R S equation for the projection of particle P on the y-axis
3. Q P S R is: (where t is in seconds) will be:
4. Q R S P

17 A wave traveling on a string is described by the

equation: y(x, t) = 0.005 sin(80.0x − 3.0t). The amplitude
and wavelength of the wave, are respectively: (all numerical
constants are in SI units)

1. 50 mm, 78.5 mm
2. 50 mm, 7.85 cm
] ]
3. 5 mm, 7.85 cm π π π π
1. y = R sin[ t− 2. y = R cos[ t+
60 4 60 4
4. 5 mm, 78.5 cm
] ]
π π π π
3. y = R cos[ t − 4. y = R sin[ t +
The percentage increase in the speed of transverse 60 4 60 4
18
waves produced in a stretched string when the tension is For a particle performing simple harmonic motion, the
increased by 4% is: 21
1. 4% maximum potential energy is 25 J. What is the kinetic energy
2. 3% of the particle when it is at half of its amplitude?
3. 2% 1. 18.75 kJ
4. 1% 2. 18.75 J
3. 9.45 kJ
19 In the simple harmonic motion of a pendulum, the square 4. 9.45 J
of the time period can be plotted against the length of the
22 Three progressive waves A, B and C are shown below.
pendulum (l) as:
With respect to wave A:

1. 2.

Wave C lags behind in phase by π/2 and wave B leads by

1.
π/2.
3. 4.
2. Wave C leads in phase by π and wave B lags behind by π.
Wave C lags behind in phase by π/2 and wave B leads by
3.
π.
4. Wave C lags behind in phase by π and wave B leads by π.

3
 VALOR

23 Consider the following statements: 28 For a particle subject to the force, F = −5(x − 2), the
A seconds pendulum has a time period of 1 nature of the motion is:
Statement I:
second. 1. translatory
It takes precisely one second to move between 2. oscillatory
Statement II:
its two extreme positions. 3. simple harmonic
4. both (2) & (3)
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are False.
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True. 29 The length of a simple pendulum with a period of one
3. Statement I is True but Statement II is False. second on Earth is closest to:
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are True. 1. 0.12 m
2. 0.25 m
24 In a stationary wave: 3. 0.50 m
4. 1.0 m
1. strain is minimum at the nodes
2. strain is maximum at the nodes A simple pendulum is pushed slightly from
30
3. strain is maximum at the antinodes
its equilibrium towards the left and then set free to execute the
4. amplitude is zero at all points. simple harmonic motion. Select the correct graph between its
velocity (v) and displacement (x).
25 A sound wave with a frequency of 100 kHz is
propagating through the air and encounters a water surface.
The transmitted sound wave in the water will have:
1. the same speed but a different frequency 1. 2.
2. a different speed and a different frequency
3. the same speed but a different wavelength
4. a different speed and a different wavelength

26 A body oscillates with simple harmonic motion according

π
to the equation, x = 5 cos(2πt + ) m. The frequency of the
4 3. 4.
oscillation is:
1. 1 s-1
2. 2 s-1
3. π s-1
31 A pulse is generated at the lower end of a hanging rope of
4. 2π s-1
uniform density and length L. The speed of the pulse, when it
27 Given below are two statements: reaches the mid-point of the rope is:
The speed of sound in a given ideal gas is
Assertion (A):
proportional to the rms speed of its molecules.
Both these speeds depend on the absolute
Reason (R): temperature (T ) of the gas in the same
manner.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 1. √2gL 2. √gL
2.
explanation of (A).
√gL
√
gL
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 3. 4.
2 2
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

4
 VALOR

32 The figure shows a string with linear mass density

Physics - Section B
1 g cm-1 on which a wave pulse is travelling. The time taken
for the pulse to travel a distance of 50 cm along the string is: 36 A spring 'lengthens' by l when a block of mass m is
(take g = 10 m s-2) suspended from it. This block is suspended from the same
spring and the system is allowed to oscillate vertically, in
th
space where the gravity is ( 9 ) of its original value. The
1

time period of small oscillations is:

2π√ g 6π√ g
l l
1. 2.

2π√ 2π√ g
9l 3l
3. 4.
8g
1. 5 s (where g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of
2. 0.5 s the Earth)
3. 0.05 s
4. 0.005 s 37 A gas is taken in a closed transparent tube, some

A tuning fork A of unknown frequency produces 5 beats lycopodium powder is spread within the tube, and the tube is
33 placed horizontally. When the mouth of the tube is vibrated
per second with a fork of known frequency of 340 Hz. When with a tuning fork of frequency 1 kHz, and the length of the
fork A is filed, the beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per tube is adjusted: the powder is observed to collect in a wave-
second. What is the frequency of fork A? like pattern with adjacent 'maxima' separated by 20 cm. The
1. 342 Hz 2. 345 Hz speed of sound in the gas is:
3. 335 Hz 4. 338 Hz

34 The vibrations of four air columns under identical

conditions are shown in the figure below. The ratio of their
frequencies np : nq : nr : ns will be:
1. 100 m/s 2. 200 m/s
3. 400 m/s 4. 800 m/s

38 A solid cylinder of density ρ0 , cross-section area A and

length l floats in a liquid of density ρ (ρ > ρ0 ) with its axis
vertical, as shown in the figure. If it is slightly displaced
downward and released, the time period will be:
1. 12 : 6 : 3 : 4 (ignore damping due to the viscosity of the liquid)
2. 1 : 2 : 4 : 3
3. 4 : 2 : 3 : 1
4. 6 : 2 : 3 : 4

35 The displacement of a particle executing simple

harmonic motion is given by,
x = (6 + 6 sin ωt + 8 cos ωt) m.
The amplitude of its oscillation is:
1. 10 m 2. 16 m
3. 20 m 4. 14 m

5
 VALOR

1. 0.5 2. 1
2π√
ρ0 l
2π√
l
1. 2. 3. 2 4. 4
g ρg
ρl l 42 A pendulum-bob A, after being released as shown,
3. 2π√ 4. 2π√
ρ0 g 2g strikes a spring-block system when the bob A reaches its
lowest position; the mass of the bob A being equal to that of
39 The time period of small angular oscillations for a the block (i.e., m) and the stiffness of the spring being k. The
collision between the block and the bob (A) is elastic. The
uniform rod of mass m and length l, suspended from one end,
time period of one complete oscillation is:
is:

1. 2π√ + 2π√ 2. π√ + π√
l m l m
2l
2π√ 2π√
l
1. 2. g k g k
g g
√ l + √ mk 1
√l 1
√ mk
g g
2l l 3. 4.
2π
+ 2π
3. 2π√ 4. 2π√
3g 3g
43 The position-time (y-t) graph of a particle executing

40 Two SHMs given by their displacements along the simple harmonic motion is shown in the figure. If the time
respective directions are superposed: period of the particle is 4 s, what is the equation of the particle
executing simple harmonic motion?
x = A sin ωt (1st SHM along x-axis)

y = A sin (ωt + 2 ) (2nd SHM along y-axis).

π

The resultant motion is:

1. SHM along a straight line
2. SHM along a circular arc
3. uniform circular motion
4. motion along an elliptic path

)
π
A taut string of length 2 m is fixed at both ends and 1. y = 6 sin(2πt +
41 6

)
π π
plucked. The speed of waves on the string is 3 × 104 m/s (see 2. y = 6 sin( 2 t + 3
figure). )
π π
3. y = 6 sin( 2 t + 6

)
π π
4. y = 6 sin( 2 t − 6

44 Two waves of amplitudes A0 and xA0 pass through a

region. If x > 1, then the difference in the maximum and
minimum resultant amplitude possible is:
If the wavelength of the fundamental frequency is λ1 ,​ and the 1. (x + 1)A0 2. (x − 1)A0
wavelength of the second harmonic is λ2 , what is the ratio
λ1 3. 2xA0 4. 2A0
?
λ2

6
 VALOR

45 When a string vibrates in its second harmonic mode, at 50 The differential equation representing the simple
which point on the string is the motion maximal? d2y
harmonic motion of a particle is 16 + 9y = 0. If the
1. One-quarter of the length away from an end. dt2
2. In the middle, between the two ends. particle starts at the mean position, the time taken for the
3. One-third of the length away from an end. particle to reach half of its amplitude for the first time will be:
4π 5π
4. The amplitude is the same at any point on the string. 1. s 2. s
9 9
A student, while performing an experiment with a
π 2π
46 3.
3
s 4.
9
s
sonometer with bridges separated by a distance of 80 cm,
missed some of the observations. However, he claimed that
the three resonant frequencies for a given tuning fork were Chemistry - Section A
84 Hz, 140 Hz and 224 Hz. The speed of transverse waves on
the wire is: 51 The homologue of ethyne is:
1. 33.30 m/s 1. C2 H2
2. 330.0 m/s 2. C2 H6
3. 44.80 m/s 3. C3 H8
4. 448.0 m/s 4. C3 H4

47 A transverse wave travels along a uniform wire with a How many structural isomers are possible with the
52
length of 50 cm and a mass of 10 grams at a speed of 60 m/s. formula C6H14?
If the wire has a cross-sectional area of 2.0 mm2 and a 1. 5 2. 2
Young's modulus of 1.2 × 1011 N/m2, the extension of the 3. 3 4. 4
wire over its natural length due to its tension will be:
1. 0.12 mm 2. 0.15 mm The correct order of stability of the following
53
3. 0.20 mm 4. 0.25 mm
compounds(carbanion intermediate) is:

48 The speed of sound in hydrogen at NTP is 1270 m/s. The

speed of sound in a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen in the
ratio 4 : 1 by volume will be approximately: P. Q.
1. 635 m/s 2. 318 m/s
3. 153 m/s 4. 1270 m/s

49 Select the correct option based on the following

statements:
We can distinguish between two notes of the
Statement I: same frequency, one produced by a violin and R. S.
the other by a guitar.
The quality of a note played on a guitar and a
Statement II: note played on a violin, both of the same
frequency, is different.
1. P> Q > S > R 2. P> R > Q > S
1. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
3. Q> R > S > R 4. S> R > Q > P
2. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

7
 VALOR

54 The increasing order of stability of the compounds given 57 Consider the following sequence of reactions and
below is: identify the unknown reagents (A) and (B) respectively.

1.

2.

3.

(A) : Dil. aq NaOH at 20∘ C

1.
4. (B) : HBr, CH3 COOH
(A) : Dil. aq NaOH at 20∘ C
2.
(B) : Br2 , CHCl3
55 The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with dilute HNO3 (A) : Alc. NaOH at 80∘ C
3.
before testing for halogens because: (B) : HBr, CH3 COOH
1. Ag2S is insoluble in HNO3 (A) : Alc. NaOH at 80∘ C
2. AgCN is soluble in HNO3 4.
(B) : Br2 , CHCl3
3. Na2S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO3
4. Silver halides are soluble in HNO3 58 Given, the following reaction:

56 The major product of the following reaction is :

X and Y, respectively, are:

1.

1. 2.

2.

in all cases

3.
3. 4.
in all cases

4.

8
 VALOR

59 Which of the following will have the shortest C-Cl bond 64 What is the correct order of acidic strength for the
length? following acids?
1. CH3-CH2-Cl 2. PhCH2-Cl HCOOH, CH3 COOH, CH3 CH2 COOH,
3. Ph-Cl 4. CH2=CH-CH2-Cl CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH

Dihedral angle between two methyl groups of n-butane HCOOH < CH3 COOH < CH3 CH2 COOH <
60 1.
CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH
in the gauche and anti forms are:
HCOOH > CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH > CH3 COOH >
1. 60°, 0° 2.
CH3 CH2 COOH
2. 0°, 60°
3. 60°, 180° HCOOH > CH3 COOH > CH3 CH2 COOH >
3.
4. 180°, 60° CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH
CH3 COOH > HCOOH > CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH >
4.
61 The set that contains only electrophiles is: CH3 CH2 COOH
i. BF3 , NH3 , H2 O
65 The IUPAC name of the following compound is:
⊕
ii. AICl3 , SO3 , NO2
⊕ ⊕ ⊕
iii. NO2 , C H3 , CH3 − C= O
⊕
iv. C2 H ⊖5 , Ċ2 H5 , C2 H5
1. (i), (iii)
2. (ii), (iii)
3. (i), (iv) 1. 3-Formylhept-6-enoic acid 2. 3-Aldohept-7-enoic acid
4. (iii), (iv) 3. 3-Ketohept-6-enoic acid 4. 2-Oxohept-6-enoic acid

62 If 0.450 grams of an organic compound containing Which of the following compounds shows a greater
66
Carbon, Hydrogen & Oxygen on complete combustion gives extent of solubility in water?
0.735 grams CO2 and 0.45 grams of water, then the mass % of
oxygen in the compound is:
(Report your answer to the nearest integer)
1. 31 1. 2.
2. 49
3. 44
4. 51

63 The major product (A) of the following addition reaction

is:
Cl2 /H2 O
3. 4.
H3 C − CH = CH2 −−−−−→ (A)

1. 2.

3. 4.

9
 VALOR

67 Which of the following compounds are constitutional 71 Consider the following reaction:
isomers of one another?

A B
The product A and B are:

1.

C D

2.

E
3.

1. A and C only 2. B and D 4.

3. A, C, and E 4. Both (2) and (3)

68 The total number of isomers possible for the molecular 72 The sum of α−hydrogens present in the compound (i) &
formula C₇H₈O are: (ii) is:
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

69 Geometrical isomerism is exhibited by:

1. 2-Methylpent-2-ene
2. 4-Methylpent-2-ene
3. 4-Methylpent-1-ene
1. 13 2. 14
4. 2-Methylpent-1-ene
3. 15 4. 16
70 Which of the following may exist as enantiomers?
73 The IUPAC name of the following compound is :

1.

2. CH2 = CHCH2 CH2 CH3

3.

1. 5-Bromo-3-methylcyclopentanoic acid
2. 4-Bromo-2-methylcyclopentane carboxylic acid
3. 3-Bromo-5-methylcyclopentanoic acid
4. 4. 3-Bromo-5-methylcyclopentane carboxylic acid

10
 VALOR

74 The incorrect statement regarding the aliphatic 79 Which of the following reactions yield(s) propane as a
compounds is: major product?
1. Alkanes are almost non-polar molecules.
2. Alkanes are also known as paraffins and alkenes as olefins. a.
Alkene shows chain, position, functional, and geometrical
3.
isomerism.
b.
Olefins show nucleophilic addition reaction due to the
4.
presence of a double bond.
c.
75 The number of possible conformations due to rotation
around a C-C single bond is/are:
1. 1
d.
2. 2
3. 6
4. Infinite
1. a, c 2. b, c
76 The number of π bonds in the product (B) of 3. b, d 4. None of the above.
the reaction given below is:
80 Which of the following molecules is aromatic?

1. 2.

1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1
3. 4.
77 Consider the following reaction sequence:
Oxidation NaOH Soda lime
C6 H5 CH3 −−−−−→ (A) −−−→ (B) −−−−−→ (C)
Δ
81 The order of priority of the given functional groups, from
The product (C) is:
highest to lowest, is:−SO3 H, −COCl, −CN, −OH, −NH2
1. C6H5OH 2. C 6H 6
1. −COCl > −CN > −OH > −NH2 > −SO3 H
3. C6H5COONa 4. C6H5ONa
2. −CN > −OH > −NH2 > −COCl > −SO3 H
3. SO3 H > −COCl > −CN > −OH > −NH2
78 The total number of secondary carbon atoms present in
4. −CN > −OH > −COCl > −NH2 > −SO3 H
the given compound is:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

11
 VALOR

82 The appropriate stability order of the carbocation

Chemistry - Section B
intermediate is:
86 Which of the following compounds does not exhibit
resonance?

(I) (II)
1. 2.

(III) (IV)
3. 4.

1. I > II > III > IV

2. I > II > IV > III 87 Consider the following species:
3. IV > I > II > III
4. III > I > II > IV

83 Read the statements and mark the correct option:

Structurally, carbocyclic compounds are
Statement
classified into alicyclic and aromatic
I:
compounds.
Statement Tetrahydrofuran is a four-membered
What is the hybridization of the carbon carrying a negative
II: heterocyclic compound.
charge in structures (I) and (II), respectively?

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

1. sp2 and sp2 2. sp2 and sp3
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect 3. sp and sp2 4. sp3 and sp3
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
88 For which of the following molecules is the dipole
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
moment (μ) significantly non-zero?
84 The correct order of alkene reactivity towards an
electrophile is mentioned in:
1. CH2 = CH − Cl > CH2 = CH − OCH3
2. CH2 = CHCl < CH2 = CCl2
3. CH2 = CH2 > CH3 − CH = CH2 (i) (ii)
4. CH2 = CH − OCH3 > CH2 = CH − CH2 OH

85 Propadiene, C3 H4 molecule contains:

1. Two sp2 and one sp hybrid carbon atom
2. One sp2 and two sp hybrid carbon atoms
3. One sp2 and three sp hybrid carbon atoms
4. None of the above.

(iii) (iv)

12
 VALOR

92 Match column I with column II and mark the correct

1. Only (i) 2. (i) and (ii) option:
3. Only (iii) 4. (iii) and (iv) Column II
Column I
(Nature of inductive
Which of the following σ-bonds does not participate in (Compound)
89 effect)
hyperconjugation?

(a) (p) R groups show +I effect

(b) (q) R groups show -I effect

1. Only I and II
2. I, II and III
3. II, III and IV (H2 C = CH−) show +I
(c) (r)
4. I and V effect

90 Given a compound (A) with the molecular formula

(H2 C = CH−) show -I
C₆H₁₀, which reacts with excess H₂ in the presence of Pt to (d) (s)
effect
yield a product with the formula C₆H₁₂ that does not
decolorize Br₂ in CCl₄. When compound (A) undergoes
ozonolysis, it produces 1 mole of formaldehyde (HCHO) and
1. (a) → (q), (b) → (r), (c) → (p), (d) → (s)
1 mole of cyclopentanone.
What is the structure of compound (A)? 2. (a) → (q), (b) → (p), (c) → (r), (d) → (s)
3. (a) → (p), (b) → (q), (c) → (s), (d) → (r)
4. (a) → (r), (b) → (p), (c) → (s), (d) → (q)
1. 2.
93 Which of the following statements is correct regarding
the dihalogenation of an alkene?
1. The addition occurs in a syn manner.
3. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 C ≡ CH 4. 2. The addition occurs in an anti manner.
Iodine readily undergoes addition reaction under normal
3.
conditions.
91 In the four options given below, match the correct 4. All of the above are incorrect.
stationary phase (S) and mobile phase (M) in paper
chromatography.

Options: S M
1. Solvent Chromatography paper
2. Solvent Water
3. Water Solvent
4. Chromatography paper Solvent

13
 VALOR

94 Identify the conformer of 2-Methylpentane: 98 In the Carius method for halogen estimation, 0.69 g of an
organic compound was analyzed and produced 0.42 g of
AgBr. What is the percentage of bromine in the organic
compound?
1. 18.32
1. 2. 2. 13.04
3. 43.70
4. 25.90

99 Which of the following is not an isomer of CH3 COOH?

1. 2.

3. 4.

3. 4. None of these

95 A hydrocarbon 'X' undergoes a reaction with bromine

(Br₂) to produce a substitution product 'Y'. When 'Y' is
subjected to the Wurtz reaction, it yields a gaseous
hydrocarbon 'Z' with a molecular mass of 30. Identify the
hydrocarbon 'X' from the options given below: 100
1. CH4 2. CH3CH3 1-Butyne has a larger dipole moment
Assertion (A):
3. CH3OH 4. CH3CH2OH (0.80 D) than 1-Butene (0.30 D) .
C − Csp bond is more polarized than a
96 In the detection of hydrogen in an organic compound, the Reason (R): C − Csp2 bond because the C with more s
compound is first heated and oxidized to H₂O using a reagent character is more electronegative.
labeled as 'X'. Identify the reagent 'X'.
1. Cu2O Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
2. CuO 1.
explanation of (A).
3. CuSO4.5H2O Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
4. CuSO4 2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
97 The incorrect statement about the nitration of benzene is:
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
+
1. N O2 acts as an electrophile.
2. H2SO4 acts as an acid and HNO3 acts as a base. Biology I - Section A
3. Nitration is an electrophilic substitution reaction.
101 Which of the following is not easily visible under the
4. Nitro group has +I effect in directing substituents.
light microscope in a typical eukaryotic cell, unless stained
specifically by a vital dye?
1. Chloroplast 2. Mitochondria
3. Nucleus 4. Endoplasmic reticulum

14
 VALOR

102 The relationship between mitosis and the cell cycle is 109 The alignment of chromosomes at the equatorial plate
that: during metaphase is essential for:
1. Mitosis is the entire cell cycle 1. Equal distribution of genetic material to daughter cells
2. Mitosis is a stage within the cell cycle 2. Efficient DNA replication
3. Formation of the cell plate
3. The cell cycle occurs independently of mitosis
4. Initiation of cytokinesis
4. Mitosis and the cell cycle are unrelated processes

The primary wall of a young plant cell is capable of

110 The cis and the trans faces of the Golgi apparatus are:
103 1. entirely different, but interconnected.
__________ as the cell matures, while the __________ wall
2. identical, but interconnected.
forms on the inner side of the cell, providing additional
rigidity. 3. entirely different and not interconnected.
1. shrinking, outer 4. identical and not interconnected.
2. breaking down, middle
3. growth, secondary 111 Consider the given two statements:
4. division, primary
Statement Macromolecules are generally polymers of
I: smaller units called monomers.
104 The role of the spindle apparatus during mitosis is to: Statement Lipids are macromolecules due to their high
1. Control the timing of cell division II: molecular weight.
2. Facilitate the movement of chromosomes
3. Produce new DNA molecules
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. Regulate cell growth
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
105 Based on the nature of the R group, amino acids can be 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
classified into various categories. Which of the following 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
amino acids has a hydroxy methyl group as its R group?
1. Glycine 2. Alanine 112 The fundamental structure of collagen is a/an:
3. Serine 4. Valine 1. Beta pleated sheet
2. Triple helix
106 Tonoplast is the name given to the membrane of a: 3. Icosahederon
4. Alpha helix
1. vacuole 2. ribosome
3. lysosome 4. peroxisome 113 How is cytokinesis different in plant cells compared to
animal cells?
107 The ability of starch to form a complex with iodine is
1. A furrow appears in the plasma membrane of plant cells
due to its: 2. Plant cells do not undergo cytokinesis
1. Reducing properties.
Cytokinesis in plant cells involves the formation of a cell
2. Glycosidic linkages. 3.
plate
3. Helical structure.
4. High molecular weight. 4. Plant cells undergo cytokinesis by forming spindle fibers

Who proposed the hypothesis that the bodies of animals 114 If a bacterium lacks fimbriae, it is unlikely to be able to:
108
and plants are composed of cells and products of cells, and 1. adhere to cell surfaces
also noted that the presence of a cell wall is a unique 2. retain the ability to divide
characteristic of plant cells? 3. swim through bodily fluids
1. Matthias Schleiden 2. Rudolf Virchow 4. synthesize proteins
3. Louis Pasteur 4. Theodore Schwann

15
 VALOR

115 Identify the correct statement: 120 Consider the given two statements:
1. The M phase is the longest phase of the cell cycle. In the Watson-Crick model of DNA, the two
Statement
DNA synthesis occurs only during one specific stage in the strands of polynucleotides run parallel to each
2. I:
cell cycle. other.
All cells in an organism divide continuously throughout The nitrogen bases in the DNA double helix are
3. Statement
their life. projected perpendicular to the sugar-phosphate
II:
4. Mitosis occurs only in diploid cells. backbone and face inside.

The concept of "essential" amino acids is directly linked 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
116
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
to:
1. The ability of the body to synthesize them. 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
2. The dietary requirements of an organism. 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3. The role of amino acids in protein structure.
121 When compared to eukaryotic cells, the prokaryotic
4. The genetic code.
cells are generally:
Consider the given two statements: 1. smaller and multiply rapidly
117 2. larger and multiply rapidly
Statement I: Cellulose is a homopolymer of glucose. 3. smaller and multiply slowly
Statement Starch and glycogen are branched 4. larger and multiply rapidly
II: polysaccharides.
122 The cell shown in the given figure is most accurately at:
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

118 The __________ is a double-membrane-bound organelle

containing its own DNA and __________, making it capable
of synthesizing some of its own proteins.
1. nucleus, centrioles
2. ribosome, proteins 1. Early Prophase
3. mitochondrion, ribosomes 2. G2 Phase
4. endoplasmic reticulum, enzymes
3. Late Prophase
4. Transition to Metaphase
119 The molecule shown in the given figure is:
123 What will be true for both erythrocytes of many
mammals and sieve tube cells of vascular plants?
1. They are not considered as living cells.
2. They do not contain a nucleus at maturity.
3. They divide continuously to produce new cells.
They are fragments of larger cells present in early
4.
embryonic stages.

124 The Michaelis-Menten constant (Km) is:

1. The maximum velocity of the reaction.
1. the energy currency of a cell The substrate concentration at which the reaction velocity
2. a biochemical catalyst 2.
is half-maximal.
3. a part of cell membranes
3. The turnover number of the enzyme.
4. a genetic information storage molecule
The equilibrium constant of the enzyme-substrate complex
4.
formation.

16
 VALOR

125 Which organelles, in a eukaryotic cell, can be regarded 131 Consider the following statements regarding prophase
as “Semi-autonomous”? in mitosis:
1. Golgi apparatus and ER Prophase is marked by the initiation of chromatin
2. Nucleus and ER (i)
condensation.
3. Nucleus and Mitochondria Centrosomes, which duplicate during S phase, begin to
4. Mitochondria and Chloroplasts (ii)
move towards opposite poles during prophase.
Which of the following will not be applicable to both Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under the
126 (iii) microscope, do not show Golgi complexes, endoplasmic
prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? reticulum, nucleolus and the nuclear envelope.
1. presence of ribosomes Which of the above statements are correct?
2. arising from pre-existing cells 1. Only (i) and (ii)
3. compartmentalization through membrane bound organelles 2. Only (ii) and (iii)
3. Only (i) and (iii)
4. presence of a cell membrane
4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)

127 Which type of plastid is responsible for storing oils and

132 Which of the following is not a component of the cell
fats in plant cells?
theory as it stands today?
1. Chloroplasts
1. All living organisms are composed of cells.
2. Chromoplasts
3. Leucoplasts The cell is the structural and functional unit of all living
2.
4. Elaioplasts organisms.
3. All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
128 The smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum is expected to be 4. Cells are always visible under a light microscope.
especially abundant in cells that synthesize extensive amounts
of: 133 Which of the following is an example of a prosthetic
1. toxins group?
2. proteins 1. NAD+ 2. FAD
3. enzymes
3. Heme 4. Coenzyme A
4. lipids
A single human somatic cell has approximately:
129 The phase of the cell cycle in which the cell prepares for 134
mitosis is: two metre long thread of DNA distributed among its forty
1.
1. G1 phase 2. S phase six chromosomes.
G2 phase two metre long thread of DNA distributed among its
3. 4. M phase 2.
twenty three chromosomes.
one metre long thread of DNA distributed among its forty
130 The given figure shows the ultrastructure of: 3.
six chromosomes.
one metre long thread of DNA distributed among its twenty
4.
three chromosomes.

135 The middle lamella, which holds neighboring plant cells

together, is primarily composed of which substance?
1. Calcium carbonate 2. Calcium pectate
3. Cellulose 4. Hemicellulose

1. Centriole
2. Cilium
3. Kinetochore
4. Secondary constriction

17
 VALOR

Biology I - Section B 140 Both mitochondria and chloroplasts:

I: can change shape and move around the cell
Lysosomes: II: function to provide energy to the cell
136
1. Only I is correct
I: are membrane bound vesicular structures. 2. Only II is correct
are formed by the process of packaging in the Golgi 3. Both I and II are correct
II:
apparatus. 4. Both I and II are incorrect
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct 141 Consider the following statements regarding the
3. Both I and II are correct G0 phase:
4. Both I and II are incorrect
(i) Cells in the G0 phase are metabolically inactive.
Consider the given two statements: Cells in the G0 phase exit the G1 phase and do not divide
137 (ii)
further.
Fatty acids can be classified as saturated if they
Statement G phase is also known as the quiescent stage of the cell
contain no double bonds between the carbon (iii) 0
I: cycle.
atoms.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Saturated fatty acids are typically more liquid at
Statement 1. Only (ii) and (iii)
room temperature compared to unsaturated fatty
II: 2. Only (i) and (iii)
acids.
3 Only (i) and (ii)
4. Only (iii)
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect 142 Consider the given two statements:
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
Assertion (A): Meiosis does not occur in archaea or bacteria.
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
Archaea or bacteria generally reproduce
Reason (R):
asexually via binary fission.
138 Consider the given two statements:
Statement Rudolph Virchow proved that all life comes Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
I: from pre-existing life. explanation of (A).
Statement Louis Pasteur proved that all cells arise from Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
II: pre-existing cells explanation of (A).
1. Statement I is True; Statement II is True 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. Statement I is True; Statement II is False 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. Statement I is False; Statement II is True
4. Statement I is False; Statement II is False Consider the given two statements:
143
139 Match the following cell structures with their Competitive inhibitors reduce the rate of an
Assertion (A):
enzyme-catalyzed reaction.
descriptions:
Column I Competitive inhibitors bind reversibly to the
Column II (Description) Reason (R):
(Structure) active site of the enzyme.
Double membrane-bound
A. Golgi apparatus 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
organelle with cristae 1.
explanation of (A).
B. Ribosomes 2. Stacked cisternae near the nucleus
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
Non-membrane-bound particles 2.
C. Mitochondria 3. explanation of (A).
involved in protein synthesis
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Smooth Endoplasmic Network of tubular structures
D. 4. 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Reticulum without ribosomes

Options:
1. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
2. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
3. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
4. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

18
 VALOR

144 Consider the given two statements: 148 The molecule shown in the given figure:
Statement Nucleotides consist of a nitrogenous base, a
I: pentose sugar, and a phosphate group.
Statement Uracil is a nitrogenous base found in both DNA
II: and RNA.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

145 What level of protein structural organization is shown in

I: is a substituted purine
the given figure?
II: is a structural component of cholesterol
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

149 Consider the given two statements:

Bacterial flagella are composed of three parts:
Statement I:
filament, hook, and basal body.
Statement II: All bacteria possess flagella.
1. Both Statements I and II are True.
2. Both Statements I and II are False.
1. Primary 3. Statement I is True but Statement II is False.
2. Secondary – alpha helix 4. Statement I is False but Statement II is True.
3. Secondary – beta pleated sheet
4. Tertiary Identify the stage of mitosis shown in the given figure:
150
146 Consider the following statements regarding the cell
cycle:
Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase occurs
(i)
continuously throughout the cell cycle.
DNA synthesis occurs specifically during the G2 phase of
(ii)
the cell cycle.
The interphase occupies more than 95% of the duration
(iii)
of the cell cycle in a typical human cell.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Only (i) and (iii) 1. Prophase 2. Metaphase
2. Only (i) and (ii) 3. Anaphase 4. Telophase
3. Only (ii) and (iii)
4. Only (i)
Biology II - Section A
147 Microbodies:
151 The hydrolytic enzymes within lysosomes are optimally
are membrane bound minute vesicles that contain various
I: active in:
enzymes
1. Neutral pH
II: are present in only animal cells. 2. Slightly alkaline pH
1. Only I is correct 3. Acidic pH
2. Only II is correct 4. Variable pH
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

19
 VALOR

152 A graph shows the effect of pH on enzyme activity. 155 Which of the following best describes the composition
What does the peak of the curve represent? of the cell membrane in human red blood cells (RBCs)?
1. 60% proteins and 40% lipids
2. 40% proteins and 60% lipids
3. 52% proteins and 40% lipids
4. 40% proteins and 52% lipids

156 Consider the following statements about the stages of

prophase I in meiosis:
Leptotene stage is marked by the gradual visibility of
(i)
chromosomes under the light microscope.
Zygotene stage involves the pairing of homologous
(ii)
chromosomes, forming synaptonemal complexes.
Pachytene stage is where the crossing over between non-
(iii)
sister chromatids occurs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. The optimal pH for the enzyme. 1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. The pH at which the enzyme is completely inactive. 2. Only (ii) and (iii)
3. The pH at which the enzyme is most stable. 3. Only (i) and (iii)
4. The pH at which the substrate is most reactive. 4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)

153 Which of the following correctly describes the Of the following living cells, identify the smallest one,
157
relationship between the endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi which is known to be able to survive even without oxygen and
apparatus, and secretory vesicles? lacking a rigid cell wall?
Proteins synthesized on the rough ER are packaged in 1. Mycoplasma
1. transport vesicles, modified in the Golgi, and then secreted 2. Typical bacterial cells
via secretory vesicles. 3. A yeast
Lipids synthesized in the Golgi are transported to the ER 4. Single-celled amoeba
2.
for modification before packaging into secretory vesicles.
The Golgi apparatus produces proteins, which are then 158 Which phase of the cell cycle is characterized by
3.
transported to the ER for modification and packaging. duplication of the centriole in animal cells?
Secretory vesicles transport proteins directly from the ER 1. G1 phase
4.
to the cell membrane without Golgi involvement. 2. S phase
3. G2 phase
154 Regarding the diplotene stage of prophase I: 4. M phase
It begins with the dissolution of the synaptonemal The DNA content of a cell at G1 phase is 2C. What will
(i)
complex. 159
Homologous chromosomes tend to separate except at the be the DNA content after S phase?
(ii) 1. 2C
sites of crossing over.
2. 4C
The recombination nodules become more prominent
(iii) 3. 6C
during diplotene.
4. 8C
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Only (i) and (ii) are correct Consider the given two statements:
2. Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
160
3. Only (i) and (iii) are correct Statement Enzyme activity is highly specific for its
4. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct I: substrate.
Statement The active site of an enzyme can be altered by
II: changes in temperature and pH.
1. Both Statements I and II are correct.
2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
4. Both Statements I and II are incorrect.

20
 VALOR

161 The fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane 166 Regarding the given figure:
emphasizes the:
1. Static nature of the membrane.
2. Asymmetrical distribution of lipids and proteins.
3. Rigid structure provided by phospholipids.
4. Equal distribution of all components within the membrane.

162 A zwitterionic form of an amino acid exists when which

of the following conditions are met in solution?
The amino group is protonated, and the carboxyl group is A is the site for light independent reactions of
1. I:
deprotonated. photosynthesis.
2. Both the amino and carboxyl groups are neutral. B is the site for light dependent reactions of
II:
3. Both the amino and carboxyl groups are protonated. photosynthesis.
4. Both the amino and carboxyl groups are deprotonated. 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
163 What kind of DNA can be found outside the genomic 3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
DNA in bacteria?
1. Plasmid DNA What is the number of types of subunits in the structure
2. Mitochondrial DNA 167
3. Chloroplast DNA of adult human haemoglobin?
4. Viral DNA 1. 1
2. 2
164 The concept of induced fit in enzyme catalysis suggests 3. 3
4. 4
that:
1. The active site is pre-shaped to fit the substrate perfectly. During Anaphase I of Meiosis I:
168
2. The substrate binds to a rigid active site.
1. sister chromatids move toward opposite poles
The enzyme undergoes conformational changes upon
3. 2. homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles
substrate binding.
4. The enzyme and substrate form a covalent bond. 3. homologues move toward the same pole
homologous chromosomes move randomly toward either
4.
pole
165 A factor that is least likely to affect enzyme activity will
be: Which stage of meiosis begins with the simultaneous
1. Temperature 169
2. pH splitting of the centromere of each chromosome, allowing
3. Substrate concentration them to move toward opposite poles of the cell by shortening
4. Enzyme concentration of microtubules attached to kinetochores?
1. Anaphase I
2. Anaphase II
3. Metaphase I
4. Metaphase II

170 Who was the first person to describe a live cell?

1. Robert Brown
2. Matthias Schleiden
3. Anton Von Leeuwenhoek
4. Theodore Schwann

21
 VALOR

171 What is the specific composition of bacterial 177 Which of the following components makes up the
ribosomes? highest percentage of the total cellular mass with respect to an
1. A 60S large subunit and a 40S small subunit average composition of cells?
2. A 50S large subunit and a 30S small subunit 1. Water
2. Proteins
3. An 80S ribosome with equal subunits
3. Carbohydrates
4. A 70S ribosome with multiple subunits 4. Nucleic acids

172 Identify the organelle in a eukaryotic cell that produces Which of the following secondary metabolites is a
178
the energy needed for protein synthesis in the powerful toxin?
endomembrane system: 1. Concanavalin A 2. Codeine
1. endoplasmic reticulum
3. Abrin 4. Vinblastine
2. Golgi apparatus
3. lysosome
179 A single stranded DNA molecule is found to consist of
4. mitochondrion
20% thymine. The percentage of cytosine in this DNA
173 Which of the following statements is incorrect about the molecule:
primary structure of a protein? 1. will be less than 20
2. will be 30
The primary structure determines the sequence of amino
1. 3. will vary between 20 and 30
acids in a protein.
4. cannot be determined by the given data
The first amino acid in a protein is called the N-terminal
2.
amino acid. Which of the following specialized structures within
180
A protein exists as an extended rigid rod throughout its
3. bacterial cells, formed by the inward folding of the plasma
length.
membrane, plays a crucial role in processes such as cell wall
The last amino acid in a protein is called the C-terminal formation, DNA replication, and even respiration?
4.
amino acid. 1. Ribosome-associated particles
2. Mesosomes
174 The physical basis of the genetic process of segregation 3. Flagella-based motility structures
is: 4. Pili for bacterial conjugation
1. Prophase
2. Metaphase 181 The cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells is composed of
3. Anaphase which of the following structures?
4. Telophase 1. Microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments
Which of the following is not one of the recognized 2. Centrioles, ribosomes, and microtubules
175 3. Nucleus, mitochondria, and lysosomes
basic bacterial cell shapes?
4. Golgi apparatus, ER, and cytoplasm
1. Bacillus – rod-shaped
2. Coccus – spherical
3. Vibrio – comma-shaped
4. Squamous – flat and thin

176 Consider the given two statements:

Statement Alkaloids, flavonoids, and antibiotics are
I: examples of primary metabolites.
Statement Secondary metabolites have applications in
II: human welfare.
1. Both Statements I and II are True.
2. Both Statements I and II are False.
3. Statement I is True but Statement II is False.
4. Statement I is False but Statement II is True.

22
 VALOR

182 Match the following cellular processes with their

Biology II - Section B
corresponding terms:
Column I 186 Consider the given two statements:
Column II (Term)
(Process)
Ribosomes are non-membrane bound organelles
Passive Energy-dependent movement of Statement
A. 1. found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells,
transport molecules I:
and they are the sites of protein synthesis.
Diffusion of water across a selectively
B. Active transport 2. Several ribosomes may attach to a single mRNA
permeable membrane Statement
and form a chain called polyribosomes or
Movement of molecules along the II:
C. Osmosis 3. polysome.
concentration gradient
Process of engulfing external materials 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
D. Endocytosis 4.
into the cell
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
Options:
1. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
3. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 187 Interkinesis:
4. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 I: is a period of rest between meiosis I and meiosis II.
II: is characterized by DNA replication.
183 In human foetal oogenesis, all developing oocytes
1. Only I is correct
develop to _______ stage and are arrested in prophase I before 2. Only II is correct
birth. 3. Both I and II are correct
1. Leptotene
4. Both I and II are incorrect
2. Zygotene
3. Pachytene
188 Refer to the graph showing the effect of substrate
4. Diplotene
concentration on enzyme activity. Which of the
184 What type of chromosomes are not shown in the given following statements is correct?
figure?
1. Metacentric
2. Sub-metacentric
3. Acrocentric
4. Telocentric

185 Which cellular structure, containing centrioles, plays a

critical role in the formation of the spindle apparatus during
cell division in animal cells?
1. Centrosome 2. Ribosome
3. Nucleolus 4. Lysosome

​
The reaction rate increases linearly with increasing
1.
substrate concentration.
The reaction rate reaches a maximum at a specific substrate
2.
concentration.
The enzyme is completely saturated with substrate at low
3.
concentrations.
4. The reaction rate is independent of substrate concentration.

23
 VALOR

189 Consider the given two statements: 192 Given the following statements about meiosis:
The optimum temperature for an enzyme is The reduction in chromosome number from diploid to
I.
Assertion (A): the temperature at which it shows maximum haploid occurs exclusively in meiosis I.
activity. Crossing over, a process that contributes to genetic
II.
At higher temperatures, enzymes undergo variation, occurs between sister chromatids.
Reason (R):
denaturation. The end result of meiosis II is the production of four
III.
haploid daughter cells.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct DNA replication occurs twice during the entire meiotic
1. IV.
explanation of (A). process.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct Which of the following combinations is correct?
2.
explanation of (A). 1. I and II only
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 2. I and III only
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 3. II and IV only
4. III and IV only
190 Consider the given two statements:
193 Match the following components of the cell membrane
Statement Coenzymes are organic molecules that assist
with their characteristics:
I: enzymes in catalyzing reactions.
Column I
Statement Coenzymes are permanently bound to the Column II (Characteristic)
(Component)
II: enzyme and are not altered during the reaction.
Embedded in the bilayer, can be
1. Both Statements I and II are correct. A. Phospholipids 1.
integral or peripheral
2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Provides rigidity and stability to the
B. Cholesterol 2.
4. Both Statements I and II are incorrect. membrane
Forms a bilayer with polar heads
C. Proteins 3.
191 Consider the given two statements: and non-polar tails
Often attached to proteins or lipids
Meiosis is the mechanism by which the D. Carbohydrates 4.
on the extracellular surface
conservation of specific chromosome number
Assertion (A):
of each species is achieved across generations
in sexually reproducing organisms. Options:
1. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
Meiosis results in a reduction of chromosome
Reason (R): 2. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
number by half.
3. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
4. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A). 194 Consider the given two statements:
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2. In bacteria, plasmids confer additional
explanation of (A). Assertion (A):
phenotypic traits such as antibiotic resistance.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Plasmids are the main genomic DNA
4. (A) is False but (R) is True Reason (R): responsible for the essential cellular functions
in bacteria.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

24
 VALOR

195 Consider the given two statements: 1. 1

2. 2
Eukaryotic cells exhibit extensive 3. 3
Statement
compartmentalization of cytoplasm due to the 4. 4
I:
presence of membrane-bound organelles.
This compartmentalization is crucial for the 198 Consider the given two statements:
Statement
regulation of various metabolic activities within
II: Meiosis II is initiated immediately after cytokinesis,
the cell. I:
usually before the chromosomes have fully elongated.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct. In contrast to meiosis I, meiosis II resembles a normal
II: mitosis. The nuclear membrane disappears by the end of
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect.
prophase II.
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct.
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect. 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
196 Match the following stages of mitosis with their key
3. Both I and II are correct
events: 4. Both I and II are incorrect
Stages of
Key Events
Mitosis Consider the given two statements:
199
(A) Prophase (i) Chromosomes align at the equator
The primary function of the plasma membrane is
(B) Metaphase (ii) Chromosomes decondense at poles Statement
to maintain cell shape and provide structural
(C) Anaphase (iii) Chromosomal material condenses I:
support.
Centromeres split and chromatids The plasma membrane is selectively permeable
(D) Telophase (iv) Statement
separate and regulates the movement of substances into
1. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv) II:
and out of the cell.
2. A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
3. A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct.
4. A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect.
197 How many of the given pairs are correctly matched 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct.
regarding the description of parts labelled in the given 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect.
diagram?
200 Consider the given two statements:
Statement Enzymes lower the activation energy of
I: biochemical reactions.
Statement Enzymes are consumed in the reactions they
II: catalyze.
1. Both Statements I and II are correct.
2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
4. Both Statements I and II are incorrect.

A: Protein synthesis
B: Power house of the cell
C: Throwing excess water of the cell
D: Lipid synthesis

25
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK