INSTRUMENT / AVIONIC SYSTEM—Instruments

1. Which of these barometric instruments uses a

restrictor to compute its output?.
A. Machmeter. B. VSI. C. ASI.

2. Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at.

A. 2 500 ft radio alt.
B. 1 000 ft radio alt.
C. 10 000 ft radio alt.

3. What is the maximum radio altimeter track altitude?.

A. 500 ft. B. 2,500 ft.C. 10,000 ft.

4. An ECAM system is tested under the following

conditions:-.
A. Aircraft on the ground with one engine running.
B. Aircraft in the air with both engines running.
C. Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on.
5. Which instrument are most likely to damage if you
have a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a pitot-
static leak check?.
A. Altimeter. B. vertical speed indicator.
C. Air speed indicator.
6. The runway heading is.
A. QFU. B. QDM. C. QDR.

7. Apparent drift of a vertical gyro is a function of.

A. tan of latitude.
B. cos of latitude.
C. sin of latitude.

8. A machmeter works.
A. always.
B. above 10,000 ft.
C. always except on the ground.

9. Radio marker information is displayed on.

A. ADI.
B. EICAS.
C. HIS.
10. Angle of Attack alarm is sounding too close to stall.
Rectification is to.
A. move probe down.
B. move probe up.
C. move probe laterally.
11. Where is alpha angle used?.
A. IRS. B. Accelerometer. C. Angle of attack.
12. Where is the spinup/rundown brake on a gyro
instrument?.
A. Outer gimbal. B. Rotating vane. C. Inner gimbal.

13. On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would.

A. align the aircraft onto its A coefficient so that no error
is induced.
B. fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same
position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was
removed from.
C. carry out a check swing after fitment.

14. In Airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the

altimeter set to?.
A. 1013.25. B. QNH. C. QFE.

15. Vibration monitoring signals are sent.

A. via a signal conditioner to the gauge.
B. via a half-wave rectifier to the gauge.
C. direct to the gauge.

16. The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury.

This is from.
A. zero and minus.
B. ambient and minus.
C. zero and positive.

17. A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in

the inlet. This is to.
A. prevent FOD ingestion.
B. dampen sudden pressure changes.
C. allow for calibration.

18. The hot junction of thermocouple is.

A. in the combustion chamber.
B. in the instrument.
C. aft of combustion chamber.

19. When a rad. alt. reaches 2,500 ft. what happens to

the display?.
A. Rad. alt. flag in view.
B. Rad. alt. goes out of view.
C. Error warning in view.

20. Pitot tubes are heated.

A. by compressed bleed air.
B. electrically.
C. by kinetic heating.

21. The suction gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is.

A. above zero pressure.
B. below ambient pressure.
C. above ambient pressure.

22. What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?.
A. Yellow, cyan, magenta.
B. Red, blue, green.
C. Red, blue, yellow.

23. Alpha vane signal could be fed to _________________

________________ when close to stall.
A. flap position.
B. fast/slow switch.
C. thrust levers.

24. When performing maintenance operations on an

aircraft equipped with RVSM system, and a quick release
disconnect connection is disturbed.
A. a full test of the system should be carried out.
B. a full test of the system should be carried out only if
the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so.
C. the allowances for the system should be halved.

25. For aircraft certificated after 1997 and with RVSM, the
maximum tolerance for the system would be.
A. +/- 300 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument errors.
B. +/- 500 feet for the system overall.
C. +/- 200 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument error.

26. The HSI provides information on.

A. VOR, ILS, map, radar, attitude.
B. VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar.
C. VOR, ILS, plan, attitude.
27. The sensing element of the flux valve.
A. aligns itself to the new heading as the aircraft turns.
B. remains in the same position attached to the aircraft
structure.
C. aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it
has stabilised.
28. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South
error - 2 degrees. The coefficient C is.
A. +2 degrees. B. -2 degrees. C. 0 degrees.

29. When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing, the

maximum allowable error is.
A. 5 degrees.B. 1 degrees. C. 3 degrees.

30. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment

of pitot head is carried out with.
A. spirit level. B. an inclinometer. C. micrometer.

31. What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?.

A. Tied down. B. Displacement. C. Space.

32. A radio altimeter system can be self tested.

A. both on the ground only and in the air.
B. on the ground only.
C. in the air only.
33. The apparent wander for directional gyros is.
A. compensated by applying a constant torque.
B. maximum at the pole.
C. dependant on longitude.
34. The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for.
A. erection. B. toppling. C. drift

35. Random drift of a gyro is caused by.

A. error in roll when aircraft is turning.
B. aircraft turning with an error in roll.
C. gyro friction and unbalance.
36. Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars)
exert the most amount of influence.
A. when 90 degrees apart.
B. when parallel to each other.
C. when 45 degrees apart.

37. With engine static and engine blanks fitted, EPR

gauge reads just above 1.
A. Gauge requires re-calibration.
B. Transmitter is unserviceable.
C. This is normal.

38. Coefficient A is adjusted.

A. at 360 degrees. B. at 270 degrees.
C. on any heading.
39. With an aircraft which has more than one compass
system.
A. master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a
corrected compass card.
B. both are adjusted on each heading.
C. master and slave adjusted, correction card for master
only.
40. A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away
from a compass?.
A. 20 inches.
B. 24 inches.
C. So as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of
compass.

41. Which pitot probe provides information to the

captains instruments?.
A. Upper. B. Lower. C. Both.

42. On the CWP, what does amber indicate?.

A. Present status. B. Cautionary info. C. Warning.
43. Which instrument shows Decision Height?.
A. ECAM.
B. HIS.
C. ADI.
44. Where does the HSI receive GND speed information
from?.
A. Pitot static probes.
B. INS.
C. EICAS.

45. When power is switched off, the gimbal brake.

A. stops outer gimbal.
B. restricts outer gimbal.
C. restricts inner gimbal.

46. On an EADI the command bars show the.

A. required flight path compared with horizon.
B. required flight path compared with aircraft position.
C. required flight path compared to planned flight path.

47. The airdata computer inputs to.

A. altimeter, FMC, secondary radar.
B. mach meter, standby altimeter, ASI.
C. cabin rate sensors, mach-meters, ASI, altimeter.

48. What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR

system?.
A. 6°. B. 2.5°.C. 10°.
49. How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be
described?.
A. As a series of radio pulses to the ground their
frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of
an evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar
transducer.
B. As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric
altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013.25mb).
C. As a measure of the time between a RF pulse
transmission and the reception of its echo from the
ground directly below the aircraft.

50. In a compass system, what senses the horizontal

component of the earths magnetic field and where is it
normally fitted?.
A. Directional gyro mounted on the roll axis of the
aircraft.
B. A precession device mounted on the yaw axis of the
aircraft.
C. Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips.

51. An RMI has inputs from VOR and.

A. a remote compass input.
B. an azimuth gyro.
C. no other sources.

52. In a modern HSI, the displays are.

A. course and direction.
B. course and attitude.
C. direction and attitude.

53. At what height does the rising runway appear?.

A. 300 ft.B. 500 ft. C. 200 ft.

54. An H on the EHSI indicates.

A. ILS approach.B. DME hold.C. VOR hold.
55. Compared to air driven gyros, the electric gyro runs.
A. faster. B. slower. C. same speed.

56. A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from.

A. compressor outlet.
B. compressor inlet.
C. reservoir.
57. What is apparent drift due to?.
A. Errors when aircraft banking.
B. Earths rotation.
C. Gyro pivot friction.
58. An aircraft airspeed indicator has.
A. pitot to the capsule.
B. static to the capsule.
C. pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the
capsule.

59. Above 2500 ft. the rad. Alt.

A. pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of
view.
B. continues to indicate but with a warning flag.
C. pointer goes to zero to show system is being
monitored.

60. How does a machmeter work?.

A. Indicated airspeed / temperature.
B. True airspeed and speed of sound.
C. True airspeed / indicated airspeed.
61. When changing a pitot static instrument with quick
release couplings.
A. a leak check is not required.
B. a leak check is always required.
C. a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer.

62. The flux detector element.

A. gives heading with respect to magnetic north.
B. changes heading with the heading of the aircraft.
C. changes it position after the aircraft heading is
changed.

63. If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit,

position indication will.
A. oscillate.B. be sluggish.C. go hard over.

64. The needle of a resolver is connected to.

A. two coils and an electromagnet.
B. two coils and a permanent magnet.
C. two coils only.

65. If the compass fluid has bubbles at low altitude.

A. this is due to excessive high cabin altitude flying.
B. this has no influence on compass readings.
C. this is due to insufficient de-aeration.

66. A remote compass compensator unit is replaced.

Which of the following is correct?.
A. The swing can be performed at a later date.
B. No swing is required if the new heading is within 5
degrees of the old.
C. A compass swing must be performed.

67. A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree. To

steer a true heading of 180 degrees the pilot must steer.
A. 179 degrees. B. 180 degrees. C. 181 degrees.
68. How is a leading edge flap position indicated in the
cockpit?.
A. Servomotor. B. A measuring device. C. Torque synchro.

69. In a Machmeter, what type of compensation is there?.

A. Hair spring.
B. Square-Law compensation.
C. Compensation is not required.
70. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of
gyro rotor speed have?.
A. No effect.
B. Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of
precession. C. Increase the rotor speed, decrease the
rate of precession.
71. A gyroscopic body has its rigidity increased by.
A. decreasing the mass of the rotor.
B. decreasing the rotor speed.
C. increasing the rotor speed.

72. If a constant torque is applied to a gyroscope, the

rate of precession.
A. is unaffected by changes in rotor speed.
B. increases with a higher rotor speed.
C. increases with a lower rotor speed.

73. Random drift of a gyro is caused by.

A. unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro.
B. rotation of the earth.
C. aircraft turning with an error in roll.

74. A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a

gyro horizon works on the principle of.
A. increased reaction of the air from a bisected port.
B. decreased reaction of the air from a fully open port.
C. increased reaction of the air from a fully open port.

75. During the normal straight and level flight, the gyro of
an electrical artificial horizon is kept erect in pitch by a.
A. mercury switch in the fore and aft axis controlling a
torque motor fitted between the inner and outer gimbal
rings.
B. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and
the case controlled by a mercury switch in the
athwartships axis.
C. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and
the case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore and
aft axis.

76. The normal erection supply to the mercury switches

of the artificial horizon is disconnected.
A. for the first 40 seconds after initially switching 'ON'.
B. during turns.
C. when the fast erection button is pressed.

77. The pitch/bank erection system is used in an

electrical gyro horizon to.
A. give full erection control to the roll switch during a
turn.
B. give full erection control to the pitch switch during a
turn.
C. to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due
to centrifugal effects during a turn.

78. The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon

must not be used for a set period after switching on
because.
A. excessive hunting will take place.
B. overheating of the gyro rotor windings will occur.
C. the normal erection switch contact will burn out.

79. Apparent drift of a directional gyro is due to.

A. the effect of the earth's rotation.
B. unbalance of the gimbals.
C. bearing friction.

80. The erection system on a directional gyroscope has.

A. a switch on the outer gimbal controlling a motor on the
inner gimbal.
B. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the
inner gimbal.
C. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the
outer gimbal.

81. In a rate gyro used to detect movements about a

vertical axis, the amount the gimbal ring moves would be
increased if the.
A. angle through which the gyro moves in azimuth
increases.
B. rotor speed decreases.
C. spring tension was increased

82. The Turn and Slip indicator employs.

A. a vertical gyro. B. a rate gyro. C. an azimuth gyro.

83. In a Turn and Slip indicator, the effect of increasing

the rotor speed would be.
A. it would have no effect.
B. it would under read.
C. it would over read.

84. How is the information on a directional gyro outer

gimbal taken off?.
A. By a switch on the outer gimbal.
B. By a switch on the inner gimbal.
C. By a flux take-off device.

85. Why is a directional gyro inner gimbal restricted to

+/- 85º?.
A. To ensure outer gimbal erection system works
correctly.
B. To prevent outer gimbal rotating.
C. To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock.

86. The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is

approximately.
A. 2,400 rpm. B. 4,200 rpm. C. 22,500 rpm.
87. In a directional gyro, the inner/outer gimbal is
corrected to.
A. 15 sine latitude. B. 15 cosine latitude. C. 15 sine
longitude.

88. The electrolyte switches used in gyro systems rely

upon.
A. change in inductance to operate.
B. change in resistance to operate.
C. change in voltage applied to operate.

89. Precession of a gyro depends on.

A. both answers (a) and (b).
B. angular velocity of the rotor only.
C. moment of inertia of the rotor only.
90. Angular momentum of a gyro rotor depends on.
A. angular velocity of the rotor.
B. moment of inertia of the rotor.
C. moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor.

91. Air driven gyros, compared to electric gyros,

generally rotate.
A. faster.B. the same speed. C. slower.

92. Gyro rigidity is proportional to.

A. mass and speed.
B. mass, and radius of mass from spin axis.
C. mass, speed and radius of mass from spin axis.

93. Gyro precessional force is.

A. inversely proportional to the applied force.
B. directly proportional to applied force.
C. proportional to the square of the applied force.

94. The speed of a vacuum driven gyro horizon rotor is

approximately.
A. 22,000 rpm. B. 15,000 rpm. C. 4,200 rpm.

95. A V.S.I. is connected to.

A. vacuum.
B. static pressure.
C. pitot pressure.

96. With a V.S.I. pointer at position 1 on the upper half of

the scale it indicates.
A. 1,000 ft/minute rate of descent.
B. 1,000 ft/minute rate of climb.
C. 100 ft/minute rate of climb.

97. After disconnecting the supply to an electrically

operated gyro instrument it is recommended that, to
allow the gyro rotor to stop, before moving the
instrument.
A. seven minutes should elapse.
B. three minutes should elapse.
C. fifteen minutes should elapse.
98. The Port and Starboard static vents on an aircraft are
inter-connected to.
A. reduce compressibility error.
B. minimize errors caused by leaks in the system.
C. cancel errors caused in the static system when the
aircraft yaws.
99. Which of the following would cause a displacement
gyro to topple?.
A. Inverting the gyro.
B. Running gyro at low speed.
C. Running gyro at high speed.

100. In level flight, a V.S.I. will indicate.

A. horizontal to left.
B. vertically down.
C. vertically up.

101. On descent, the pressure in a V.S.I. capsule.

A. leads the case pressure.
B. lags the case pressure.
C. is the same as case pressure.
102. A small constant leak in the case of V.S.I. fitted in a
pressurized aircraft would, during level flight, cause the
instrument to indicate.
A. a rate of climb.
B. zero.
C. a rate of descent.

103. When a force is applied to a horizontal gyro, the

precession of the rotor will continue until.
A. as long as the force is applied.
B. plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied
force.
C. plane of rotation is in line with the precessional force.

104. An artificial horizon has.

A. the inner gimbal pivoted laterally.
B. the inner gimbal pivoted vertically.
C. the inner gimbal pivoted longitudinally.

105. A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to.

A. 14.7 PSI. B. 100 millibar. C. 1 inch Hg.
106. In the directional gyro.
A. the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically.
B. the outer gimbal is pivoted longitudinally.
C. the outer gimbal is pivoted laterally.
107. The millibar is a unit of.
A. barometric pressure.
B. pressure altitude.
C. atmospheric temperature.
108. In the Turn and Slip indicator.
A. the spin axis is longitudinal.
B. the spin axis is lateral.
C. the spin axis is vertical.

109. In an altimeter, the.

A. inside of the capsule is connected to static pressure.
B. capsule is evacuated and sealed.
C. capsule and case are connected via a calibrated choke.

110. The units on calibrated scale of a V.S.I. are

expressed in.
A. hundreds of feet per minute.
B. knots (kts).
C. miles per hour (mph).

111. A standby air supply for gyro operation could be

obtained from.
A. a tapping from the induction manifold.
B. a venturi.
C. a pitot head.

112. At the lowest point of each vent line you would

normally find a.
A. float valve.
B. NACA duct.
C. self draining non-return valve.

113. A rate two turn is.

A. 90 degrees per minute.
B. 360 degrees per minute.
C. 180 degrees per minute.
114. The rate of turn information from a turn coordinator
(compared to a Turn and Slip) is.
A. more instantaneous.
B. less accurate.
C. more accurate.

115. Temperature correction in a sensitive altimeter

mechanism is provided by a.
A. bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule.
B. balance weight.
C. U-spring acting on the capsule.

116. The capsule in a vertical speed indicator will be

expanded when the aircraft is.
A. climbing. B. descending.C. in level flight.

117. After replacing an instrument of the pitot-static

group, it is necessary to.
A. calibrate the instrument concerned.
B. carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s).
C. blow through the lines with a clean low pressure air
supply.

118. If the pitot and static pipe lines were cross

connected at the instrument panel connection,
application of pressure to the pitot head would cause the.
A. altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator
to indicate climb.
B. altimeter reading to increase, vertical speed indicator
to indicate descent.
C. altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator
to indicate descent.

119. A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a

vertical gyro would cause.
A. a continual precession in roll.
B. a roll error and gyro topple.
C. a pitch error and gyro topple.
120. A rate of turn indicator dial marked '2 minutes'
refers to a.
A. rate 3 turn. B. rate 2 turn. C. rate 1 turn.

121. A pitot or static leak check is carried out.

A. only when an instrument is changed.
B. only when a leak is suspected.
C. whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed.

122. The temperature of boiling water at standard

pressure on the Fahrenheit and Centigrade scale is.
A. 100 deg. and 32 deg. Respectively.
B. 180 deg. and 100 deg. Respectively.
C. 212 deg. and 100 deg. Respectively.

123. A temperature of 59°F is equivalent to.

A. 14.69°C. B. 32°CC. 15°C.

124. Aircraft heading (HDG) is.

A. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis
of the aircraft.
B. the angle between True North and the desired track.
C. the angle between True North and the actual track.
125. Wind angle is the direction of the wind measured.
A. in degrees from the desired track.
B. in degrees from True North.
C. in degrees from the aircraft's heading.

126. Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to.

A. limit the outer gimbal movement.
B. reduce gimbal nutation.
C. prevent gimbal lock.

127. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an

attitude director indicator is.
A. by a control synchro.
B. by a differential synchro.
C. by a torque synchro.

128. Agonic lines link places of.

A. zero variation.
B. different variation.
C. equal variation.

129. Position error is caused by.

A. pitot head position.
B. instrument location in the instrument panel.
C. mechanical imperfections in an instrument.

130. To convert degrees Centigrade to degrees Kelvin.

A. add 112 degrees.
B. use the formula (deg C x 9/5) + 32.
C. add 273 degrees

131. Damping on a RATE GYRO can be either.

A. viscous, eddy current or air dash pot.
B. eddy current, variable spring or moving iron.
C. viscous, eddy current or variable spring.

132. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an

attitude director indicator is.
A. by a control synchro.
B. by a differential synchro.
C. by a torque synchro.

133. Electrical driven gyros are.

A. rotated at the same speed as air driven gyros.

C. rotated faster than air driven gyros.

134. In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit, there

is a break in the circuit to the bulb. This will give.
A. mid scale deflection.
B. full scale deflection.
C. no scale deflection.

135. With the gyro at normal running speed, a torque

applied to the inner gimbal ring of a vertical gyro will
cause the.
A. outer and inner ring to move.
B. inner ring to move.
C. outer ring to move.

136. When an aircraft is descending, the pressure in the

altimeter case.
A. will cause the aneroid capsule to contract.
B. will cause the aneroid capsule to expand.
C. will not affect the aneroid capsule.
137. The supply of Desynn indicating system.
A. is direct current.
B. is alternating current at 400 c/s.
C. is alternating current at 50 c/s.

138. A sensitive altimeter reading 100 ft. when the

millibar scale is set to the atmospheric pressure at airfield
level (QFE).
A. indicates that the airfield is 100 ft. above sea level.
B. indicates that the instrument is unserviceable.
C. indicates that the aircraft is in a region of high
pressure and the reading must be corrected to I.S.A.
standards.

139. After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in the

aircraft static system should be released to the
atmosphere by.
A. removing the static connector from its static vent.
B. venting the static system via an internal bleed in the
test set.
C. removing the static connector from its static vent after
waiting for a period of three minutes.
140. An altimeter is operated.
A. by the vacuum system. B. by the pitot system.
C. by the static system.
141. What is the purpose of the bimetallic strip in the
altimeter?.
A. Compensates for non-linear tension in the hairspring.
B. Corrects for capsule elasticity.
C. Compensates for change in density.

142. Which axis does the directional gyro spin on?.

A. Vertical.
B. Horizontal.
C. Both vertical and horizontal.

143. The capsule in an altimeter responds to.

A. absolute pressure.
B. gauge pressure.
C. differential pressure.
144. The aeroplane monitor on the artificial horizon is
fitted to the.
A. inner gimbal.
B. rotor.
C. instrument case.

145. True airspeed in an Air Data Computer is a function

of.
A. airspeed and altitude.
B. mach number and temperature
C. airspeed and temperature.

146. The advantage of an instantaneous V.S.I. over a

conventional one is.
A. it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a
conventional one.
B. it does not require warming up.
C. it does not require pitot/static pressure.

147. For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with

altitude, the T.A.S.
A. decreases.
B. remains the same.
C. increases.

148. The type of gyro used in a gyro compass is a.

A. directional gyro.
B. vertical gyro.
C. rate gyro.

149. A desiccant used in the storage of instruments.

A. is sodium-bicarbonate.
B. is silica-gel.
C. is anti-freeze oil.

150. What effect on the rate of precession will a change

of gyro rotor speed have?.
A. No effect.
B. Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of
precession.
C. Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of
precession.
151. Bourdon Tubes have.
A. toroidal cross section.
B. oval cross section.
C. circular cross section.

152. In a Bourdon tube.

A. one end is sealed and the other end open to the
pressure source.
B. one end is sealed and the other end open to
atmosphere.
C. both ends sealed.

153. Pressure gauge calibrators (Dead Weight Testers)

use the.
A. Brahm's press principle.
B. Boyle's Law.
C. Charle's Law.

154. The fluid suitable for use in a Dead Weight Tester is.
A. anti-freeze oil.
B. castor-oil.
C. kerosene.

155. The distance readout on an HSI is.

A. from the aircraft DME system.
B. dialled in by the pilot.
C. from the aircraft ATC system.

156. A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right

angles to the plane of rotation, and its gimbal restrained
either electrically or by a spring, is known as.
A. a rate gyro.
B. an earth gyro.
C. a tied gyro.

157. Pressure may be expressed in.

A. force per unit area.
B. weight or mass.
C. force per unit volume.
158. What is the purpose of the hair spring in a Bourdon
tube pressure gauge?.
A. To reduce 'backlash'.
B. To return the pointer to zero.
C. To act a controlling force.

159. The ADIs attitude information is normally obtained

from the aircraft's.
A. attitude rate gyros.
B. directional gyros.
C. vertical gyros.

160. One dot VOR deviation represents.

A. 5°.
B. 2 miles.
C. 1¼°.

161. An instrument used for measuring negative

pressures.
A. cannot be of the Bourdon tube type.
B. has anti-clockwise pointer movement if Bourdon tube
operated.
C. has the Bourdon tube reversed within the case.

162. An absolute pressure gauge measures.

A. the applied pressure referred to atmospheric pressure.
B. pressures extremely accurately.
C. the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum.

163. Gauge pressure as indicated on a direct reading

Bourdon Tube pressure gauge is equal to.
A. absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure.
B. atmospheric pressure minus absolute pressure.
C. absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure.

164. The to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of

which direction he is tracking relative to.
A. an ILS station.
B. an ADF station.
C. a VOR station.
165. A pressure gauge, such as a hydraulic brake
pressure gauge, indicates 1,000 p.s.i. In terms of absolute
pressure, this represents.
A. 985.3 p.s.i.
B. 1,014.7 p.s.i.
C. 1,000 p.s.i.

166. To fill a Dead Weight Tester.

A. remove platform and fill cylinder.
B. screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir.
C. screw in hand wheel and fill reservoir.

167. With an aircraft on the ground and QNH set on the

millibar scale of the altimeter, the altimeter will read.
A. the airfield height.B. off scale. C. zero.

168. When checking a sensitive altimeter on a pre-flight

inspection.
A. the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale.
B. the standard sea level barometric pressure is always
set on the millibar scale.
C. the ambient air pressure corrected for temperature is
set on the millibar scale.

169. The HSI compass card is positioned by the.

A. compass system.
B. aircraft ADF system.
C. heading select knob.

170. The applied pressure to an A.S.I. varies with the.

A. square of the speed.
B. square root of the speed.
C. cube root of the speed.

171. The supply to an A.S.I.

A. is pitot pressure only.
B. are pitot and static pressure.
C. is static pressure only.

172. The capsule for an A.S.I. will be expanding when the

aircraft is.
A. climbing.
B. accelerating.
C. decelerating.

173. The deflection of the ADI command bars when flying

a localiser approach is proportional to.
A. the difference between the amplitudes on the two
modulations.
B. the sum of the amplitude of the two modulations.
C. the difference in amplitude of the two r.f. carriers.

174. If an aircraft is flying straight and level in still air,

airspeed will be.
A. less than the ground speed.
B. equal to the ground speed.
C. greater than the ground speed.

175. If an aircraft flying in still air at 400 knots,

encounters a head wind of 50 knots, its ground speed is.
A. 450 knots.B. 350 knots.C. 400 knots.

176. To provide a linear scale on an A.S.I., a.

A. 10 to 1 gearing is used.
B. ranging bar and screws are fitted.
C. bi-metal corrector is employed.

177. A machmeter is an instrument which indicates the

speed of.
A. sound relative to the aircraft's altitude.
B. the aircraft relative to the speed of sound at ground
level.
C. the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed.

178. The moving element of a ratiometer has.

A. three coils. B. one coil. C. two coils.

179. When carrying out a pressure leak test on an

altimeter, you are checking for leaks in the.
A. instrument case. B. pressure chamber. C. capsule
stack.
180. If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1013.25 and
the barometric pressure at that time was 1020, the
altimeter should read.
A. zero feet.
B. positive altitude.
C. below zero feet (negative altitude).

181. An aircraft flying towards a VOR station shows

indications of 120° and 'TO'. After passing over the
station, on the same course, the indications will be.
A. 120° and FROM. B. 300° and FROM. C. 300° and TO.
182. The command bars in a flight director system
indicate.
A. the actual path with respect to required path.
B. the required path with respect to actual path.
C. true horizon.

183. When changing a windscreen panel which has a

standby magnetic compass located in the vicinity.
A. precautions should be taken that the bonding tag is
attached to the correct attachment bolt.
B. precautions must be taken to ensure that the
attachment bolts are of the specified type.
C. The attachment bolts should be tightened in an anti-
clockwise direction around the window.

184. On a conventional RMI the angle between the

compass datum and the radio pointer arrow is.
A. the relative bearing.
B. the magnetic bearing.
C. the complimentary bearing.

185. A compass is made aperiodic by.

A. locking.
B. tying it to the case.
C. using fluid.
186. Isogonal lines link places of.
A. different variation.
B. equal variation.
C. zero variation.

187. In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused by.

A. bottom lightness of inner gimbals.
B. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals.
C. displacement of erection control device.

188. If True Airspeed is 470 knots, what is the Equivalent

Air speed?.
A. 278 knots.B. 662 knots.C. 550 knots.

189. If the Airspeed Indicator reading is 300 Knots, what

is the Calibrated Airspeed?.
A. 296 knots.B. 304 knots.C. 293 knots.

190. In an Artificial Horizon, Erection Error is caused by.

A. displacement of erection control device.
B. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals.
C. bottom lightness of inner gimbals.

191. A Vertical Speed indicator Metering Unit Consist of.

A. both a) & b).
B. an orifice.
C. a capillary.
192. Flux Valve senses angle of horizontal component
with respect to the aircraft's.
A. lateral axis. B. longitudinal axis.
C. both lateral and longitudinal axis.

193. The manual VOR input is for.

A. the radio magnetic indicator.
B. the ADI.
C. the course deviation bar.

194. After correction of the north-south heading reading

on a compass swing, the resultant correction is known as.
A. magnetic heading. B. residual deviation.
C. correct heading.

195. Apparent drift on directional gyro is corrected by.

A. series of balance holes drilled in gyro rotor.
B. mercury switch on outer ring.
C. an adjustment nut on inner ring.
196. If a micro adjuster is replaced in a compass system,
you would.
A. carry out a new compass swing.
B. set it to zero datum.
C. set it up the same as the one removed.

197. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South

error + 2 degrees. The coefficient C is.
A. +2 degrees. B. 0 degrees. C. -2 degrees.

198. Purpose of Altitude Alerting is to warn the pilot of.

A. approach to or deviation from selected altitude.
B. selection of altitude.
C. altitude information.
199. Aircraft certified before 1997 with RVSM, maximum
tolerance for the system is.
A. +/- 500ft system tolerance.
B. +/- 200ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error.
C. +/- 300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error.
200. Machmeters work on.
A. static.
B. pitot and static.
C. pitot.
201. An aircraft with Mach warning will warn.
A. when Mach 1 is exceeded.
B. when Mcrit is reached.
C. when envelope limit is reached.

202. An HSI provides what information?.

A. VOR, map, attitude, ILS.
B. VOR, plan, ILS, map, radar.
C. VOR, ILS, plan, attitude.

203. Compressibility error in a pitot head is caused by.

A. compression of air in the tube at high speed.
B. blockage in the pitot tube.
C. misalignment of pitot head.

204. The earth's magnetic field is.

A. vertical at the poles, horizontal at the magnetic
equator.
B. vertical across the earth.
C. horizontal across the earth.
205. There is an air bubble in the compass:.
A. The fluid is not aerated properly.
B. It is due to high altitude.
C. It is required, to compensate for expansion of the fluid.

206. A flux detector output is a.

A. rectified D.C. voltage.
B. A.C. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation
voltage.
C. A.C. voltage at the same frequency as the excitation
voltage.