K.K.
Wagh College of Agriculture, Nashik
Course No.: FST- 362 (New) Course Credits: 2+0=2
Course Title: Principles of Food Science and Nutrition
Course Teacher – Dr. P. R. Chaudhary
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Carbohydrates containing 3-10 mono-saccharides linked together by glycosidic bond are called
a) Polysaccharides c) Oligosaccharides
b) Monosaccharides d) Disaccharides
2. Which is sweetest of all sugars
a) Glucose c) Sucrose
b) Galactose d)Fructose
3. Each gram of carbohydrate, as starch or sugar, provides
a) 5 kcal/g c) 9 kcal/g
b) 4 kcal/g d) 1 kcal/g
4. Each gram of fat provides
a) 5 kcal/g c) 9 kcal/g
b) 4 kcal/g d) 1 kcal/g
5. The best temperature range for flavor evaluation is
a) 10-20°C c) 20-30°C
b) 0-10°C d) 15-25°C
6. Carbohydrates act also as reserve fuel supply in the form of
a) Glycogen c) Cholesterol
b) Starch d) Glucose
7. The average nitrogen content of proteins is about……...
a) 28 % c) 16%
b) 53 % d) 75%
8. Proteins which on complete hydrolysis yield only amino acids as an end product are
a) Conjugated Proteins c) Derived Proteins
b) Simple Proteins d) Complex Proteins
9. Proteins which are attached to non- protein substances or prosthetic group are
a) Conjugated Proteins c) Derived Proteins
b) Simple Proteins d) Complex Proteins
10. Which of the following is not fat soluble vitamin
a) A c) E
b) B d) K
FST 362 MCQ – Dr. P. R. Chaudhary
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11. Which of the following is not an active form of vitamin A in the body
a) Retinol c) Retinal
b) Retinoic acid d) β-carotene
12. Deficiency of Niacin causes
a) Xerophthalmia c) Pellagra
b) Beriberi d) Osteomalacia
13. Fatty acids which contain no double bonds between carbon atoms are
a) Polyunsaturated c) Monounsaturated
b) Saturated d) Triglycerides
14. Which of the following is not a derived lipid
a) Wax c) Terpenes
b) Steroids d) Carotenoids
15. Extra-nutritional constituents that typically occur in small quantities in foods
a) Vitamins c) Bioactive compounds
b) Flavours d) Minerals
16. Which of the following is non- perishable food
a) Fruits c) Potato
b) Meat d) Sugar
17. Which micro-organism is known as Brewer’s yeast
a) Salmonela c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
b) Aspergillus d) E. coli
18. Sugar concentration of ……….. and above is required to inhibit mould growth
a) 50% c) 40%
b) 65% d) 25%
19. Non-acidic foods are spoiled mainly by
a) Yeast c) Moulds
b) Enzymes d) Bacteria
20. Which of the following method doesn’t prevent or delay microbial decomposition
a) Antioxidants c) Asepsis
b) Filtration d) Radiation
21. Which of the following method of preservation does not involve lowering aw
a) Salt c) Canning
b) Sugar d) Freeze drying
22. Which preservation method is known as “cold sterilization”
a) Freeze drying c) Sharp freezing
b) Radiation d) Cold storage
23. Sensory testing designed to determine whether detectable differences exist between samples is
a) Discrimination testing c) Preference testing
b) Descriptive testing d) Hedonic test
FST 362 MCQ – Dr. P. R. Chaudhary
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24. Sensory testing designed to determine the acceptability between products is
a) Discrimination testing c) Preference testing
b) Descriptive testing d) Triangle test
25. Sensory testing which provides information on selected characteristics of food samples and
determining the sensory profile of the products is
a) Discrimination testing c) Preference testing
b) Descriptive testing d) Hedonic test
26. The cellular imbalance between the supply of nutrients and energy and the body’s demand for
them to ensure growth, maintainance and specific functions is called
a) Undernutrition c) Overnutrition
b) PEM d) Malnutrition
27. Range of pathological conditions arising from coincident lack of dietary protein and/or energy in
varying proportions.
a) Undernutrition c) Overnutrition
b) PEM d) Malnutrition
28. Any diet altered to include certain components such as calories, fat, vitamins and minerals.
a) Modified diet c) Balanced diet
b) Fortified diet d) Menu planning
29. Full form of FSSAI is
a) Food Standards and Safety Agency of India
b) Food Safety and Standards Agency of India
c) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
d) Food Standards and Safety Authority of India
30. Full form of ICDS is
a) International Child Development Services
b) Indian Child Development Services
c) Integrated Child Development System
d) Integrated Child Development Services
31. Full form of PEM is
a) Protein Energy Metabolism c) Pulsed Electric Method
b) Protein Energy Malnutrition d) Pulsed Electrical Method
32. Nutritional anemia is caused mainly due to deficiency of
a) Iron c) Protein
b) Carbohydrate d) Iodine
33. Oedema is observed in
a) Marasmus c) Kwashiorkor
b) Goiter d)Xerophthalmia
34. Saliva contains ……… enzyme
a) Lactase c) Maltase
b) Sucrase d) Amylase
FST 362 MCQ – Dr. P. R. Chaudhary
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35. High Protein diet is not recommended for
a) Burns c) Fever
b) Kidney disorders d) Hyper thyroidism
36. In balanced diet the ratio of energy distribution from Carbohydrates, proteins and Fats should be
a) [Link] c) [Link]
b) [Link] d) [Link]
37. Full form of RDA
a) Recommended Daily Allowances c) Recommended Dietary Allowances
b) Required Daily Allowances d) Required Dietary Allowances
38. Golden Rice variety of rice is genetically engineered to biosynthesize ……..
a) α-carotene c) γ-carotene
b) β-carotene d) Lycopene
39. Which of the following nutrient is not used for fortification
a) Vitamin A c) Folic acid
b) Calcium d) Protein
40. Yellow revolution includes
a) Oilseed Production c) Coffee Production
b) Milk Production d) Fish Production
41. Brown revolution includes
c) Oilseed Production c) Coffee Production
d) Milk Production d) Fish Production
42. Full Form of NFSM is
a) National Food Security Mission c) Nutritional Food Security Mission
b) Nutritional Food Supply Management d) National Food Supply Management
43. Headquarters of WHO is in
a) New York c) Paris
b) Rome d) Geneva
44. Headquarters of FAO is in
a) New York c) Paris
b) Rome d) Geneva
45. Vernier caliper is used for measuring
a) Shape c) Size
b) Volume d) Porosity
46. No microbes can multiply below water activity of
a) 0.6 c) 1.0
b) 0.7 d) 0.7
47. Penetrometer is used to measure
a) Colour c) Sphericity
b) Firmness d) Density
FST 362 MCQ – Dr. P. R. Chaudhary
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48. Process of keeping out micro-organisms is called as
a) Filteration c) Blanching
b) Oxidation d) Asepsis
49. Father of Canning is
a) Louis Pasteur c) Nicholas Appert
b) Napolean Bonaparte d) Peter Durand
50. Foods rich in ……….. are called body building foods
a) Carbohydrates c) Fats
b) Proteins d) Vitamins
51. …………… is known as Sunshine vitamin
a) Vitamin C c) Vitamin E
b) Vitamin K d) Vitamin D
52. Which vitamin is required for blood clotting
a) Vitamin K c) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B1 d) Vitamin C
53. The addition of one or more essential nutrients to a food, whether or not it is normally contained
in the food, for the purpose of preventing or correcting a demonstrated nutrient deficiency in the
population or specific population groups is
a) Enrichment c) Substitution
b) Fortification d) Restoration
54. Iodized salt is example of
a) Enrichment c) Substitution
b) Fortification d) Restoration
55. Addition of nutrients to replace the ones that were lost during processing is
a) Enrichment c) Substitution
b) Fortification d) none of the above
56. Foods aimed at specific subgroups of the population are fortified, thereby increasing the intake of
that particular group rather than that of the population as a whole
a) Mass fortification c) Targeted fortification
b) Biofortification d) Market driven fortification
57. Addition of one or more micro-nutrients to foods commonly consumed by the general public is
a) Mass fortification c) Targeted fortification
b) Biofortification d) Market driven fortification
58. Process of breeding crops to increase their nutritional value is
a) Mass fortification c) Targeted fortification
b) Biofortification d) Market driven fortification
59. Which of the following is true for fortification
a) There should be a demonstrated need for increasing the intake of the nutrient
b) Nutrient added should be sufficient to correct or prevent deficiency
c) The food selected for fortification should be consumed by the population at risk.
FST 362 MCQ – Dr. P. R. Chaudhary
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d) All of the above
60. Golden rice is example of
a) Mass fortification c) Targeted fortification
b) Biofortification d) Market driven fortification
61. High pressure processing is also known as cold pasteurization
a) True
b) False
62. Full form of HPP is
a) High Pulsed Processing c) High Pressure Processing
b) High Pulsed Pasteurization d) None of the above
63. Which of the following is thermal processing method
a) HPP c) PEF
b) Cold Plasma d) Ohmic processing
64) Cavitation bubbles are formed in which processing method
a) HPP c) PEF
b) Ultrasound processing d) Ohmic processing
65. Technique by which the sensitive ingredients are packed within a coating or protective wall
material to preserve organoleptic and physico-chemical properties of the original products is
a) Encapsulation technology c) PEF
b) Ultrasound processing d) Ohmic processing
66. ………….. is a quasi-neutral ionized gas comprising of positive ions, negative ions, free radicals,
electrons, excited or non-excited molecules and photons at or near room temperature.
a) HPP c) PEF
b) Cold Plasma d) Ohmic processing
67. …………… technology involves the application of microsecond pulses of high voltage to liquid
or semi-solid foods placed between two electrodes.
a) Encapsulation technology c) PEF
b) Ultrasound processing d) Ohmic processing
68. The Mid-day Meal Scheme first started in …….
a) Bihar c) West Bengal
c) Rajasthan d) Tamil Nadu
69. Balwadi nutrition program is for children of age ………….
a) 1-3 years c) 5-8 years
b) 3-5 years d) > 8 years
70. Integrated Child Development Services
a) Children >6 years c) Pregnant ladies
b) Lactating mothers d) All of the above
FST 362 MCQ – Dr. P. R. Chaudhary
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Answer Key
1. C 51. D
2. D 52. A
3. B 53. B
4. C 54. B
5. C 55. A
6. A 56. C
7. C 57. A
8. B 58. B
9. A 59. D
10. B 60. B
11. D 61. A
12. C 62. C
13. B 63. D
14. A 64. B
15. C 65. A
16. D 66. B
17. C 67. C
18. B 68. D
19. D 69. B
20. A 70. D
21. C
22. B
23. A
24. C
25. B
26. D
27. B
28. A
29. C
30. D
31. B
32. A
33. C
34. D
35. B
36. A
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. A
41. C
42. A
43. D
44. B
45. C
46. A
47. B
48. D
49. C
50. B
FST 362 MCQ – Dr. P. R. Chaudhary
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