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English Exam for Grade 7 Students

The document is an English exam for grade 7 students in Vietnam. It consists of 4 parts testing listening comprehension, phonetic skills, grammar/vocabulary, and reading comprehension. The listening section includes tasks where students must choose the best answer or complete notes based on passages. The other sections contain multiple choice and fill-in-the-blank questions testing a variety of English language skills.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
567 views8 pages

English Exam for Grade 7 Students

The document is an English exam for grade 7 students in Vietnam. It consists of 4 parts testing listening comprehension, phonetic skills, grammar/vocabulary, and reading comprehension. The listening section includes tasks where students must choose the best answer or complete notes based on passages. The other sections contain multiple choice and fill-in-the-blank questions testing a variety of English language skills.

Uploaded by

giang
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOC, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

PHÒNG GD&ĐT LỆ THỦY ĐỀ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 7 CẤP TRƯỜNG – ĐỢT 3

TRƯỜNG THCS LỆ NINH Năm học: 2022 - 2023


MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Họ và tên: ...................................................... Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể giao đề)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Đề thi gồm có 08 trang

PART 1: LISTENING (20 pts)


* Bài nghe gồm 4 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 10 giây, mở đầu và kết
thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
Task 1. Listen and choose the best answer(5 pts)

1
Task 2. Listen and complete the notes. (5 pts)
End-of-term dinner
Date 28th March
Start time (6)………………………………………………………………
Finish time (7)………………………………………………………….
Place (8)…………………………………………………………restaurant
Menu Fish, chicken or vegetable (9) ………………………………..
Phone nunber (10) …………………………………………………………….

Task 3: You will hear Luis talking to his friend Charlotte about a computer and choose the best answer A,B,C
or D (5 pts)
11. Where did Luis first out about the game?
A. from a game website B. from a school friend C. from a magazine advertisement
12. Charlotte likes the game because
A. it’s funny B. it’s hard C. it’s new
13. Who does Luis want to play the game with?
A. his brother B. his granddad C. his cousin
14. How long did Charlotte play the game for last Saturday?
A. forty-five minutes B. one hour C. one hour and thirty minutes
15. Which part of the game does Luis like best?
A. finding food B. building a hut C. crossing the river

Task 4: You will hear Lucas talking to his mum about the jobs his friends want to do. What job
does each friend want to do?(5 pts)

Friends Jobs
0. Lucas A. actor
16. Tyler B. coach
17. Ava C. dentist
18. Mark D. journalist
19. Victoria E. mechanic
20. Bobby F. pilot
G. receptionist
H. tour guide

Your answer: 0.–F 16. – 17. – 18. - 19. - 20. -

2
PART 2: PHONETIC AND GRAMMAR
I. Phonetic: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (5pts)
21. A. wood B. food C. look D. foot
22. A. scholarship B. chaos C. cherish D. chorus
23. A. sun B. sure C. success D. sort
24. A. candy B. sandy C. many D. handy
25. A. grew B. threw C. sew D. flew
II. Vocabulary and grammar
Task 1: Choose the best answer from the four options (A or B, C, D) to complete each of the following
sentences. (10 pts)
26. Nowadays people .................. hours sitting in front of computers.
A. take B. last C. set D. spend
27. Jack: “Whose phone is that”
Maria: “……………….. .”
A. It's not there B. Wasn't it? C. I'm not sure D. My mother does
28. Ivan often ................... his friends there after school.
A. waits B. meets C. goes D. makes
29. The driver told everyone to get ……………………….. the bus when we arrived.
A. off B. up C. down D. on
30. Rob eats a lot of fast food and he ............................. on a lot of weight
A. takes B. puts C. spends D. brings
31. The movie on TV last night made me ..............
A. bore B. boring C. bored D. boredom
32. Our school has a programme to ............... children from poor families in Ho Chi Minh city
A. ask B. offer C. tutor D. volunteer
33. He made the soup by mixing ………….. meat with some rice.
A. little B. few C. a little D. a few
34. I never watch ballet, and my sister doesn't ..............
A. too B. neither C. either D. like that
35. ............. having a happy ending, the film stars with a terrible accident.
A. However B. Despite C. Nevertheless D. Although
Task 2: Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence (10pts)
36. A …….......... is a play or film in which part of the story is sung to music MUSIC
37. I like being in the kitchen and .................................... food for my family PREPARE
38. Reykjavik in Iceland is one of the world's .................................... cities HEALTH
39. Chaplin spent his .............................................. in poverty and hardship. CHILD
40. He used all his ...................................................... to force the door open. STRONG
41. Tom rode his bike ………………………………..... and had an accident CARE
42. There is an ……............. match between Vietnam and Lebanon on VTV3 NATION
43. The problem of ............................. among young people is hard to solve EMPLOY

3
44. You have to be aware of the damage humans are doing to quicken
EXTINCT
the ............................................. of wildlife
45. There will be a ............................................. in this street MEET

Task 3: Find, underline and correct the mistakes (10pts)


0. He had a very interested summer holiday.
-> interesting
46. I have to go to a business dinner tomorrow night so I will
……………………
be able to come to the party.
47. There are differences and similarities between Vietnamese and ……………………
American culture.
48. There used to be less unemployed people in this city 5 years ago ……………………
49. My father used to giving me some good advice. ……………………
50. George hasn't completed the assignment yet, and Maria hasn't too. ……………………
51. Today was such beautiful day that I couldn't bring myself to ……………………
complete all my chores
52. Traffic jam is one of the most common problem in big cities ……………………
53. Because of refraction, the water in a tank ever looks ……………………
as deep as it actually is.
54. Next week, new glass will be installing in the windows to stop the ……………………
heat escaping.
55. My brother hates to do the same things day after day. ……………………
Task 4: Give the correct form of the verbs given in the brackets (5 pts)
56. All of NASA's manned spacecraft projects (headquarter)……….…………………. at the
Space Center.
57. Jane is pregnant now and she (have) ……………… a baby in the summer..
58. It is healthy (eat) ........................ a lot of sweetened food and drinks
59. Sit down and watch TV. I (finish) ............................. my work soon before I join you.
60. Look! The trees and flowers (take) ………………….. care of by the gardeners of the
Temple of Literature.
PART 3: READING (20 pts)
Task 1: Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space.(5pts)
The world's first film was (0) _____ in 1895 by two French brothers, Louis and Auguste
Lumiere. Although it only (61)_____ of short, simple scenes, people loved it and films have
(62)_____ popular ever since. The first films were silent, with titles on the screen to (63)_____
the story.
Soon the public had (64)_____ favourite actors and actresses and, in this (65)_____, the first
film stars appeared. In 1927, the first “talkie”, a film with sound, was shown and from
then on, the public (66)_____ only accept this kind of film.
Further improvements continued, particularly in America, (67)______ produced 95% of all
films. With the arrival of television in the 1950s, (68)_____ people went to see films, but in
(69)_____ years cinema audiences have grown again. More countries have started to produce
films that influence film-making and there are currently (70)_____ national film industries.
(0) A. show B. shown C. showed D. showing
61. A. consisted B. contained C. belonged D. held
62. A. gone B. been C. made D. kept
63. A. join B. read C. explain D. perform
64. A. your B. his C. our D. their
65. A. reason B. way C. method D. result
66. A. should B. would C. might D. will
67. A. who B. where C. when D. which
68. A. other B. each C. fewer D. any
69. A. recent B. now C. modern D. present
70. A. many B. lots C. much D. plenty

Task 2: Read the following passage, and then tick the correct answers: true (T) false (F), or not
mention (NM). (10 pts)
An Amazing Adventure
Erden Eruẹ is Turkish but now lives in Seattle, USA, with his wife Nancy. In July 2012, he
completed an amazing 5-year journey, becoming the first person ever to travel all the way around the
world with no help from engines or sails. All he used were his own arms and legs, to cycle, row, and
walk around the world.
His plan before beginning the trip was to climb the highest mountain on each of the six
continents that he went through. Unfortunately he was only able to climb three of them because of bad
weather and money problems.
Erden spent a lot of his time on the trip rowing his boat. His journey across the Pacific Ocean
took 312 days. Being alone for that much time was not at all easy, but he kept busy by listening to
music and studying Spanish. He took dried food with him and had a water machine to make fresh water
out of seawater. However, it only worked on sunny days.
Erden is sure he will have more adventures one day. But at the moment all he wants to do is rest, think about his trip and
spend time with Nancy
T F N
M
71. The plan to climb the mountains was made after Erden started the journey
72. It was difficult for Eden to be by himself for so long while he was rowing.
73. Erden already spoke a little Spanish before he began his trip
74. Erden was able to use his water machine every day.
75. As soon as he returned, Erden began planning his next adventure
Task 3: Read the passage and choose the correct answer to each question. (5pts)
The idea of a driverless car is not new. Now there are already cars on the road that can park
themselves. But a truly self-driving car, one that can drive itself, is being tested by scientists and
engineers.
Self-driving cars have already tested on public roads. These cars not only record images of the
road, but their computerised maps view road signs, find alternative routes and see traffic lights even
before they are seen by a person. By using radars and cameras, the cars can analyse information about
their surroundings faster than a human can.
In some of the tests, the car learn the details of a road by driving on it several times, and when it is time
to drive itself, it can identify when there are pedestrians crossing and then stops to let them pass by.
Self-driving cars could make transport safer for all of us by eliminating the cause of most of today's
accidents.
Although self-driving cars may seem far off, some people believe that there will be driverless cars in
showrooms in about 10 years.
76. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Self-driving car: a far off image
B. The prospect of driverless cars
C. Computerised maps in cars
D. Safer transport in the future
77. Now there are already cars on the road that can ___________.
A. park themselves
B. record images of the road
C. learn the details of a road
D. actually drive themselves
78. How can the tested cars analyse information about their surroundings?
A. By viewing road signs
B. By seeing traffic lights quickly
C. By using radars and cameras
D. By driving on it several times
79. The underlined word “them” in the passage refers to ___________
A. tests
B. details
C. times
D. pedestrians

80. In about a decade's time, we may see ___________.


A. self-driving cars being tested
B. driverless cars in a far-off place
C. self-driving cars in showrooms
D. much safer cars
PART 4: WRITING (20 pts)
Task 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly
the same as the sentence printed before it (5 pts)
81. You can't play Jotto unless there are at least two players.
- You can only ..............................................................................................................
82. What about playing the game now?
- Shall ………………………………………………………………………………….?
83. Camping is cheaper than staying in a hotel.
- Camping costs ............................................................................................................
84. Max has never had his own phone before.
- This is the ........................................................................................................................
85. In spite of the high prices, my daughter insists on going to the movies
- Even though ………………………………………………………………………………..

Task 2: Complete each second sentence using the word given, so that it has a similar
meaning to the first sentence. Write between TWO and FIVE words. (5 pts)
(0) She remembered the name of the festival and so did he. forget
She ….. didn’t forget ….. the name of the festival and so did he.
86. I enjoy the game, and my parents enjoy it too. so
I enjoy the game and ........................................................
87. City schools are usually larger than schools in the country as
Schools in the country are ......................................... city schools
88. Children can buy hot lunches at most schools. possible
At most schools, ......................................... for children to buy hot lunches
89. Why don’t they help him? he
Why ………………………………………………………………………..?
90. The museum is closed on Sundays except
The museum ................................................................ Sundays

Task 3: Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first sentence. Use
no more than THREE words. Write only the missing words in the box. (5 pts)
(0) It will rain heavily tomorrow
- Tomorrow, there will be heavy rain.
91. My parents can only go swimming at the weekend.
- On weekdays, my parents aren't go swimming.
92. My sister watches more TV than me
- I don't watch TV my sister does.
93. She gets tired when she has to walk to the supermarket
- When she has to walk to the supermarket she finds
93. They spent two hours watching the film
- The film for two hours.
95. Max’s phone is very similar to his friends and family
- Max’s phone is almost his sister's phone

Task 4: Write a short paragraph (80-100 words) about a film review (5 pts)
You should use the following cues:
- introduce the title of the film and say what kind of film it is
- introduce the main characters
- introduce the plot
- introduce one part of the film that you like
- what you think of the film

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