MINISTRY OF PUBLIC HEALTH OF UKRAINE
Zaporozhye State Medical University
Department of propedeutics of internal diseases
COLLECTION
of final tests for the students of the thirds course of the medical faculty
on model 2: “Basic symptoms and syndromes of internal organs' diseases”
(for complex examination)
Speciality: General medicine
7.110101
Zaporozhye, 2011
2
UDK 616.1 / 4-07(075.8)
Authors: Doctor of medical science, professor - Sivolap V.V.; assistant-professor - Oleynik A.I.;
assistant c.m.s. Avramenko N.F.; assistant c.m.s. Likhasenko I.V.
Collection of final tests for the students of the third course of the medical faculty on model 1:
“Basic symptoms and syndromes of internal organs' diseases” (for complex examination) -
Zaporozhye, 2011.
The Collection is devoted to the preparation of students of the third course for complex
examination
Reviewers:
Sivolap V.D. - Doctor of medical science, professor, the Head of department of internal
medicine 1 ZSMU
Visir V.A. - Doctor of medical science, professor, the Head of department of internal medicine 2
ZSMU
3
Contens
Respyratory system………………………………………………………………..4
Cardiovascular system…………………………………………………………….11
Dygestive system…………………………………………………………………20
Nephrology………………………………………………………………………..30
Blood system……………………………………………………………………...38
Endocrine system………………………………………………………………….49
Literature……………………………………………………………………….....59
4
Respyratory system
What clinical attribute is not characteristic for spontaneous pneumothorax?
1. Knife-like chest pain
2. Mixed dyspnea
3. Diffuse cyanosis
4. Dull sound over affected side
5. Forced posture of the patient
What clinical sing is the most typical for spontaneous pneumothorax?
1. Not sudden dyspnea
2. Sharp stabbing chest pain
3. Productive cough
4. Hemoptysis
5. Headache
The main etiologic factor of the acute bronchitis:
1. Genetic factors
2. Smoking
3. Viral infections
4. Abusing alcohol
5. Overeating
The acute obstructive bronchitis is characterized:
1. Moist rals
2. Glass-like sputum
3. Sibilant and sonorous dry rales
4. Lengthening a phase of inspiration
5. Paralytic chest
Duration of the acute bronchitis promotes except:
1. Infringement of bronchial passage
2. Irrational application of antibiotic
3. Decrease in resistency of the organism
4. Old age patients
5. Absence in diet of enough of carbohydrates
What are diagnostic criteria of the acute bronchitis?
1. Clinical sings
2. Clinical blood analysis
3. X-ray
4. Sputum analysis
5. All is higher listed
What is characterized for obstructive bronchitis?
1. Expiratory dyspnea
2. Inspiratory dyspnea
3. Chest pain
4. Bloody sputum
5. Test of ventilatory function is normal
5
Occurrence of the dyspnea at the chronic obstructive bronchitis is caused by lesions of:
1. Trachea
2. Large bronchial tubes
3. Bronchial tubes of average caliber
4. Fine bronchial tubes
5. Bronchioles
What sputum is characterized at the chronic bronchitis?
1. Change rheological properties of sputum
2. Increased viscosity
3. Decreased elasticity
4. Increased cryoproteines
5. Increased quantity
Diagnostics of a degree of the chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases is based on:
1. Clinical sings
2. Clinical blood analysis
3. X-ray
4. Test of ventilatory function
5. Angiography of the lungs
Primary emphysema (type А) characterized
1. Increase in volume of a thorax
2. Decrease respiratory abilities of the lungs
3. Increase of the residual lung capacity
4. Increase of the transparencyсy lungs
A secondary emphysema with a chronic obstructive bronchitis characterized except
1. Clinical attributes of the pulmonary heart
2. Decrease diffusive abilities of the lungs
3. Increase of the residual lung capacity
4. Hypoxemia. and hypercapnia in the rest
5. Pneumosclerosis on the roentgenogram
Located emphysema is not
1. Vicarious emphysema
2. Senile emphysema
3. Periscar emphysema
4. Congenital lobe emphysema
5. Congenital unilateral emphysema
Vicarious emphysema develops from
1. A chronic bronchitis
2. The main bronchial tube
3. Narrowing trachea
4. Atelectasis of the lung
5. A bronchiectasis
What is caused of lobar pneumonias?
1. Inhalation of toxic substances
2. Stresses
3. Hyperthyroidism
6
4. Streptococcus pneumonia
5. Liver diseases
What is often clinical symptom of the pleuropneumonia?
1. Ecchymosis
2. Nonsonorous fine moist rales
3. Pleural friction rub
4. Coarse moist rales
5. Completely absent of voice resonance
What is often extrapulmonary complication of the acute lobar pneumonia?
1. Hyperthyroidism
2. Hyperglycemia
3. Septic shock
4. Acute hepatitis
5. Meningitis
Changes, present always at bronchial asthma:
1. Changes hematopoietic systems
2. The changed reactance of bronchial tubes
3. Changes of function of vegetative nervous system
4. Changes of function endocrine systems
5. A sensitization of an organism respiratory allergens
What is often inflammatory factor at the acute lobar pneumonia?
1. Carbohydrates consumption
2. Fats consumption
3. Flu
4. Overheating on the Sun
5. Hypodynamic
What is often clinical symptom of the acute lobar pneumonia?
1. Fine sonorous rales
2. Echimoses
3. Erythema
4. Skin itch
5. Coarse rales
What is often complication of Staphylococcal pneumonia?
1. Diabetes
2. Formation of lung abscess
3. Pericarditis
4. Nephritis
5. Hypothyroidism
What is reason of upward displacement of the upper border of the lungs?
1. Abscess of the lung
2. Bronchopneumonia
3. Lung emphysema
4. Atelectasis of the lung
5. Chronic bronchitis
7
What is symptom of pleural effusion?
1. Damuaso’s line
2. Increased voice resonance
3. Dry rales
4. Crepitation
5. Pressing pain behind sternum
What pulmonary disease is characterized eosinophilia in clinical blood analysis?
1. Chronic bronchitis
2. Tuberculosis of the lung
3. Acute pneumonia
4. Bronchial asthma
5. Abscess of the lung
What is the most typical clinical symptom at massive pleural effusion?
1. High temperature
2. Cough
3. A pain in chest
4. Severe dyspnea
5. Hemoptysis
What is the most important factor development of the lung emphysema?
1. Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases
2. Acute pneumonia
3. Acute bronchitis
4. Repeated overcooling
5. Pneumoconiosis
What is often complaint at acute lobar pneumonia?
1. Polyphagia
2. Sternalgia
3. Polydypsia
4. Hemoptysis
5. Cough
What can you hear over large cavity with liquid secretion (abscess) in pulmonary tissue?
1. Dry rales
2. Fine sonorous rales
3. Fine nonsonorous rales
4. Coarse rales
5. Crepitation
What type of respiration can you hear over empty lung abscess communicated with large
bronchus?
1. Vesicular respiration
2. Increased of vesicular respiration
3. Harsh respiration
4. Bronchial respiration
5. Weakened of vesicular respiration
What are different between attacks of Bronchial asthma and Cardiac asthma?
1. Sudden development of attack
8
2. Forced position of the patient
3. Duration of attack
4. Difficulty inspiration
5. Difficulty expiration
What is heard during attack of bronchial asthma?
1. Fine rales
2. Wheeze
3. Coarse rales
4. Moist rales
5. Crepitation
What is the main symptom of dry pleurisy?
1. Compressing pain in precardial area
2. Increased voice resonance
3. Chest pain in affected side
4. Amphoric respiration
5. Dyspnea
Pain at dry pleurisy is increased:
1. Lie on the affected side
2. During deep inspiration or coughing
3. In the morning
4. In the afternoon
5. At reduction in temperature
What pathology is characterized with harsh respiration?
1. Lungs emphysema
2. Bronchitis
3. Lobar pneumonia
4. Dry pleurisy
5. Pleural effusion
What respiration type is heard during attack of bronchial asthma?
1. Pathological bronchial respiration
2. Weakened vesicular respiration with long expiration
3. Amphoric respiration
4. Harsh respiration
5. Puerile respiration
What percussion sound is heard in second stage of acute lobar pneumonia?
1. Dull sound
2. Tympanic sound
3. Bell sound
4. Bandbox sound
5. Metallic sound
What is heard at bronchopneumonia?
1. Crepitation
2. Fine sonorous rales
3. Dry rales
4. Harsh respiration
9
5. All is higher listed
What is change of the chest at lobar pneumonia?
1. Enlargement of affected side
2. Diminution of affected side
3. The affected side delays in the act of respiration
4. Emphysemic chest
5. Supraclavicular fossae are not seen
What is heard in second stage of acute lobar pneumonia?
1. Crepitation
2. Bronchial respiration
3. Harsh respiration
4. Weakening of vesicular respiration
5. Harsh respiration
What is heard over small and medium bronchiectasis (bronchial tubes which are filled with
liquid pus)?
1. Weakened vesicular respiration
2. Bronchial breath
3. Different moist rales
4. Amphoric breath sound
5. Harsh respiration
What disease is characterized with Charcot-Leyden crystals found in sputum?
1. Lobar pneumonia
2. Bronhiectasis
3. Bronchitis
4. Bronchial asthma
5. Lung abscess
Which Lung functional test is characterized obstructive type of respiratory disorder?
1. Forced expiratory volume in 1 second
2. Vital capacity
3. Residual volume
4. Total lung capacity
5. Functional residual capacity
What character does sputum have at tumors of the lung?
1. Mucous
2. Purulent
3. Putrefactive
4. Bloody
5. Serous
Which factors are developments of tumors of the lung?
1. Chronic bronchitis
2. Smoking and a dust content of the atmosphere
3. The ionized radiation
4. Hereditary predisposition
5. All is higher listed
10
What is main diagnostic method of tumor of the lung?
1. Bronchoscopy
2. The general blood analysis
3. X-ray
4. Fluorography
5. Sputum analysis
Occurrence of pain during deep breath and cough at patients with lobar pneumonia the most
frequently testifies about:
1. Involving mediastinum lymph nodes in pathological process
2. Involving paratracheal and parabronchial lymph nodes in process
3. Involving pleura in process
4. Connection of the obstructive bronchitis
5. Development of the accompanying bronchitis
What is observed at lobar pneumonia, which is located in the lower lobe of the lung?
1. Mobility of the lower border is increased
2. Mobility of the lower border is reduced
3. Displacement of the upper border
4. Tympanic sound appears
5. Dry rales
What is the basic symptom of dry pleurisy?
1. Chest pain, cough with sputum
2. Dry cough, chest pain which is increased during deep breath and cough
3. Cough with sputum, high temperature
4. Chest pain with irradiation in the left hand
5. Stupid pain in the chest
What data of auscultation is typical for dry pleurisy?
1. Increased vesicular respiration
2. Bronchial respiration
3. Moist rales
4. Pleural friction sound
5. Crepitation
What is different between chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and bronchial asthma?
1. Long exhalation phase
2. Lung emphysema
3. Wheeze during forced exhalation
4. Dry rales
5. Absence of bronchial attacks
What is heard at chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
1. Harsh respiration and dry rales
2. Absence of respiratory noise
3. Crepitation
4. Pleural friction sound
5. Pericardium friction sound
11
Cardiovascular system
What is the best recommendation of diet for patient with cardiac insufficiency?
1. Don’t change any food habits
2. Extend the level of carbohydrates
3. Reduce the level of potassium, extend the level of natrium
4. Extend the level of potassium, reduce the level of natrium
5. Extend the level of calcium, reduce the level of potassium
Aortic stenosis accompanies all diseases, except:
1. Chronic rheumatic disease
2. Syphilis
3. Myocarditis
4. Bacterial endocarditis
5. Atherosclerosis
“Cor pulmonale” isn’t complication of:
1. Emphysema
2. Bronchial asthma
3. Pulmonary tuberculosis
4. Kyphoscoliatic chest
5. Atherosclerosis
What is not typical for stable angina?
1. Pain appears during physical activity
2. Pain can be reducted by nitroglycerine
3. Pain can not be reducted by validol
4. Pain may radiate in the arm to the wrist and fingers
5. Pain is not more than 15min
Pathognomonic and the most typical skin changes during acute rheumatic fever are:
1. Nettle-rash
2. Roseola
3. Annular erythema
4. Hemorrhages
5. Petechias
What sign is not characteristic for acute rheumatic fever?
1. Starts at children and youths
2. Chronological connection with non-streptococcic infection
3. Acute beginning
4. Polyartritis
5. Carditis
What is carditis during acute rheumatic fever?
1. Infectious disease induced with streptococcus
2. Slow hyperergic reaction on streptococcus antigen
3. Disease induced with virus
4. Disease induced with protozoa
5. Disease induced with fungi
Symptoms of what desease are carditis, polyarthritis, and erythema:
12
1. Bacterial endocarditis
2. Acute rheumatic fever
3. Pericarditis
4. Cardiomyopathy
5. Myocarditis
Man, 48 years old. Suffers from stable angina pectoris appeared during walking one or two
blocks on the level, sometimes at rest. What method of examination is the most important?
1. Scintigraphy of myocardium
2. Echocardiography
3. Holter’s monitoring
4. Bicycle ergometer
5. Coronary angiography
What is the main clinical symptom of acute rheumatic fever?
1. Weakness
2. Osteoporosis
3. Pain in right hypochondria
4. Leg edema
5. Carditis
What is clinical symptom of diffuse myocarditis?
1. Heart failure
2. Hemorrhages
3. Splenomegaly
4. Diastolic murmur
5. Accentuated S II over aorta
What kind of pain happens at cardiac region in the presence of myocarditis?
1. Ache
2. Shooting-pain
3. Pressing
4. Constricting pain
5. Pinching
What is the main diagnostic criterion of acute rheumatic fever?
1. Hemarthrosis
2. Low grade fever
3. Chorea
4. Nasal hemorrhages
5. Heart pain
Direct symptom of mitral stenosis is:
1. Weakening S1 at the heart apex
2. Intensification S1 at the heart apex
3. Systolic murmur at the heart apex
4. Systolic murmur over aorta
5. Accentuated S2 over pulmonary artery
What is complication of mitral stenosis?
1. Pneumonia
2. Atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter
13
3. Pleurisy
4. Bronchitis
5. Hepatitis
What is direct symptom of mitral regurgitation?
1. Decreased S2 over aorta
2. Accentuated S2 over pulmonary artery
3. Systolic murmur at the xiphoid process
4. Systolic murmur at the heart apex transmitted in the left axillary region
5. Diastolic murmur at the Botkin’s point
What is physical symptom of mitral regurgitation?
1. Displacement of the relative cardiac dullness upward and to the left
2. Increased S I at the heart apex
3. Diastolic murmur at the heart apex
4. Systolic thrill
5. Displacement of the relative cardiac dullness upward and to the right
There are vascular symptoms of aortic regurgitation, except:
1. Decreased systolic pressure
2. Pulsation of the peripheral arteries
3. Traube’s tone
4. Duroziez’s murmur
5. Quincke’s pulse
Direct symptom of aortic stenosis is:
1. Systolic murmur at II intercostal space to the left from sternum
2. Diastolic murmur at the heart apex
3. Intensification S1 at the heart apex
4. Systolic murmur at the xiphoid process
5. Rough systolic murmur at II intercostal space to the right from sternum
Symptom of tricuspid regurgitation is:
1. Diastolic murmur
2. Systolic thrill
3. Systolic murmur over xiphoid process
4. Accentuated S2 over aorta
5. Accentuated S2 over pulmonary artery
Upper border of normal blood pressure at adults is:
1. 120/70 mm Hg
2. 130/80 mm Hg
3. 135/85 mm Hg
4. 139/89 mm Hg
5. 140/95 mm Hg
The S1 intensifies in presence of:
1. Thyrotoxicosis
2. Mitral stenosis
3. Stable angina
4. Myocarditis
5. Aortic stenosis
14
Pericardial friction rub is auscultated during:
1. Systole
2. Diastole
3. Systole and diastole
4. Presystole
5. Middiastole
What kind of pain is characteristic for stable angina?
1. Ache
2. Knife-like pain
3. Pressing
4. Shooting-pain
5. Pinching
What is the most typical variant of myocardial infarction?
1. Asymptomatic (painless)
2. Anemic
3. Cerebral
4. Status anginous
5. Hemorrhagic
Postinfarction period after myocardial infarction lasts:
1. From 30 min till 2 h from the beginning of the pain
2. From 1 till 10 days
3. From 10 days till 5th week
4. From 1 till 2 months
5. From 2 till 6 months from myocardial scarring
What foodstuff has to be limited at nutrition of myocardial infarction patient?
1. Water
2. Sugar
3. Salt
4. Spices
5. All correct
What is the main diagnostic criterion of essential hypertension of І stage?
1. Focal narrowing of retinal arteries
2. Large pulse pressure
3. Blood pressure to 160/99
4. Left ventricle hypertrophy
5. Abdominal vascular murmur
What is the basic pressor humoral factor of pathogenesis of early stages of essential
hypertension?
1. Angiotensin II
2. Aldosterone
3. Vasopressin
4. Catecholamines
5. Natrium delay
The most frequent complaint of patient with diffusive myocarditis:
15
1. Arthralgia
2. Headache
3. Pain at cardiac region
4. Breathlessness
5. Low diuresis
Atrial fibrillation waves are characterized with:
1. Irregularity
2. Variety of forms
3. Variety of amplitudes
4. All features
5. During fibrillation atrial waves are lacking
Morgany-Adams-Stocks’es attack can be registered at:
1. III degree of AV block
2. Atrial flutter
3. Ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
4. Atrial fibrillation
5. All abnormalities
What clinical symptom is less characteristic for aortic stenosis?
1. Stable angina
2. Giddiness
3. Sudden death
4. Pulsation of the carotid arteries
5. Left ventricle heart failure
What is ethyologyc factor of aortic regurgitation?
1. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
2. Atherosclerosis
3. Bacterial endocarditis
4. Essential hypertension
5. All causes
The most frequent reason of heart failure at aged people (after 75) is:
1. IHD, cardiosclerosis
2. Amyloidosis
3. Aortic stenosis
4. Arterial hypertension
5. Calcification of mitral valve
What is the first symptom of mitral stenosis?
1. Peripheral edema
2. Heaviness in right hypohondrium
3. Palpitation
4. Dyspnea
5. Orthopnea
The most frequent arrhythmia at patients with mitral stenosis is:
1. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
2. Atrial flutter
3. Atrial fibrillation
16
4. Ventricular premature beats
5. Supraventricular premature beats
Patient, 19 years old, complaints of exceptional dyspnea. He has suffered for two weeks. After
quinsy appeared pain in joints, temperature rised to 37,8 0С. Provisional diagnosis:
1. Acute rheumatic fever
2. Myocarditis
3. Acute myocardial infarction
4. Bacterial endocarditis
5. Atherosclerosis
Patient, 68 years old, has suffered from constricting pain in mid part of sternum by walking one
block on the level during 3 years. Attack usually lasts 10 min. He had a treatment on account of
IHD. Systolic murmur can be auscultated over aorta. ECG: ST – segment and T – wave
depressed in leads III, aVF. Provisional diagnosis:
1. Acute myocardial infarction
2. Stable angina, class III
3. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
4. Unstable angina
5. Atherosclerosis of aorta
Woman, 37 years old, complaints of palpitation, giddiness, breathlessness, ache at cardiac
region. She has been ill during 3 months. At first attacks appeared 1-2 times per month, stopped
after breath-holding. Latest time they become more frequent. Objective data: skin is moist, tones
are clear, rhythmic. Heart rate 80/min., blood pressure - 140/90 mm Hg. ECG: during attack -
heart rate 160/min., QRS without changes, T is combened with P. What type of tachycardia does
she have:
1. Atrial flutter
2. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation
3. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
4. Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia
5. Sinus tachycardia
Woman, 30 years old, suffers from breathlessness after the slightest physical activity, cough with
blood streaks. Anamnes morbid: frequent quinsies, an episode of fever with pain in joints.
Objective data: pulsation in the epigastric region, S I is loud and diastolic murmur at the heart
apex. Heart rate 120/min., rhytm is irregular, the lungs are determined moist rales. Liver is 3 cm
below the costal margin, moderately painful. Probable heart trouble:
1. Mitral stenosis
2. Mitral regurgitation
3. Tricuspid stenosis
4. Aortic regurgitation
5. Interventricular septum defect
Man, 59 years old, has chronic obstructive lung desease, emphysema, respiratory failure II st.
Complaints of recurring pain at cardiac region. Objective data: pulsation in the epigastric region,
decreased loudness of heart sounds, rhythmic, accentuated S 2 over pulmonary artery. Liver is 5 cm
below the costal margin, edema of the legs. What complication has he got?
1. IHD
2. Cor pulmonale
3. Myocarditis
4. Pneumosclerosis
17
5. Dry pleurisy
Patient, 28 years old, had adenovirus infection two weeks ago. He has pain at cardiac region,
breathlessness, palpitation. Patient is pale, acrocyanosis, heart rate 92/min., filiform, blood
pressure - 90/60 mm Hg. Heart borders are displaced to the left and to the right for 2 cm. Heart
sounds are diminished, tachycardia, gallops rhythm. ECG: complete left bundle-branch block,
low voltage. What desease characterized by such symptoms?
1. Exudative pericarditis
2. Myocarditis
3. Acute rheumatic fever
4. Bacterial endocarditis
5. Dilated cardiomyopathy
Man, 67 years old, complaints of headache, giddiness, image flicker. It happens periodically
once in 4 years. At the same time blood pressure - 200/100 mm Hg. Heart borders are diminished
to the left for 1 cm. increased of S1 loudness at the heart apex, rhythmic, accentuated S II over
aorta, lungs and liver without features. Provisional diagnosis:
1. Atherosclerosis
2. Myocarditis
3. Dilated cardiomyopathy
4. Heart failure
5. Essential hypertension
Woman, 53 years old, complaints of headache, giddiness, constricting pain at cardiac region
during rest. She has suffered for 5 years. Blood pressure - 180/100 mm Hg. Objective data: heart
borders are diminished to the left for 1,5 cm, increased of S I loudness at the heart apex,
rhythmic, accentuated S2 Iover aorta.
Provisional diagnosis:
1. Essential hypertension
2. Myocardial infarction
3. Myocarditis
4. IHD, stable angina
5. Cushing's syndrome
Man, 57 years old, complaints of breathlessness, dry cough, pain at left half of chest with
irradiation to left scapula heaviness in right hypochondrium. Objective data: the patients
condition is grave, fine moist rales in lower lobes of lungs, decreased loudness of S I at the heart
apex, systolic murmur over the heart apex, heart rate 100/min., arrhythmic, blood pressure -
115/75 mm Hg. Liver is enlarged, painful. What degree of heart failure is it?
1. І degree
2. ІІА degree
3. ІІB degree
4. ІІІ degree
5. Lack
Man, 72 years old, had three times short loss of consciousness. Objective data: heart rate
42/min., blood pressure - 140/70 mm Hg. ECG: P-P – 80/min., R-R - 40/min, rhytm is regular.
What disorder of conduction does he have?
1. Sinoauricular block I degree
2. III degree AV-block
3. II degree AV-block
4. I degree AV-block
18
5. Stroke
Woman, 57 years old, admitted to cardiology department. She suffers from pressing pain behind
the sternum, which irradiates to the left hand. Pain appeared 8 hours ago, its strength slowly
increased. Objective data: the patients condition is grave, cyanosis, decreased loudness of S I at
the heart apex. Heart rate 88/min, blood pressure - 110/60 mm Hg. ECG: abnormal Q wave, ST
segment elevation, positive T at I, aVL, V4-V6. What is localization of myocardial infarction?
1. Anterior wall infarction
2. Inferior wall infarction
3. Lateral wall infarction
4. Anterior lateral wall infarction
5. Inferior lateral wall infarction
Man, 62 years old, complains of severe squeezing pain behind the sternum. Has essential
hypertension for 7 years. Objective data: the patient’s condition is grave. Heart borders are
diminished to the left, decreased loudness of S1 at the heart apex. Heart rate 72/min., blood
pressure - 150/90 mm Hg. ECG ST segment is depressed; T wave is negative at V2–V6.
Provisional diagnosis:
1. Acute Q-wave myocardial infarction
2. Acute non Q-wave myocardial infarction
3. Stable angina
4. Essential hypertension
5. Myocarditis
Man, 48 years old, has constricting pain in the low part of the sternum during walking on 150-
200m and climbing 1 flight of stairs. Pain disappears during rest. Heart rate 62/min., blood
pressure - 120/70 mm Hg. ECG: regular sinus rhythm. What is the class of stable angina?
1. IHD, unstable angina
2. IHD, stable angina, class II
3. IHD, stable angina, class III
4. IHD, stable angina, class IV
5. IHD, vasospastic angina
Man, 56 years old, scientist, has constricting pain in the low part of the sternum several times a
day during walking uphill for 10min. Relive pain by nitroglycerine. Objective data: heart borders
is normal, heart rate 78/min., rhythmical, blood pressure - 130/80 mm Hg. ECG - T wave
elevated in V4-V5. Provisional diagnosis:
1. IHD, unstable angina
2. IHD, stable angina, class I
3. IHD, stable angina, class II
4. IHD, stable angina, class III
5. IHD, stable angina, class IV
Female patient, 25 years, suffers from ache at cardiac region, palpitation, breathlessness.
Chronic rheumatic heart disease, mitral regurgitation in anamnesis. Objective data: joints
unchanged, acrocyanosis. Heart rate 96/min., blood pressure - 105/70 mm Hg. Heart borders
dilated. S1 on the heart apex is weak, long systolic murmur transmitted to the left axillary region.
Accentuated S2 over the pulmonary artery. What changes of echocardiogram are typical for this
condition?
1. Dilatation of the left atrium and left ventricle
2. Dilatation of the right ventricle
3. Dilatation of the left and right atriums
19
4. Dilatation of the right atrium
5. Dilatation of the left atrium and right ventricle
Man, 52 years old, suffers from pain at cardiac region during physical activity, giddiness.
Frequent cases of tonsillitis. Objective data: paleness, blood pressure - 120/90 mm Hg, heart rate
60/min., rhythmic, pulse small, slow and rare. Apical thrust strong, localized in 6 intercostal
space 1cm left from midclavicular line. S1 on the heart apex is weak, accentuated S2 over
pulmonary artery. In the 2 right intercostal space auscultated rough systolic murmur, conducted
on the a. carotis. Choose heart desease:
1. Coarctation of aorta
2. Atherosclerosis of aorta
3. Aortic stenosis
4. Tricuspid stenosis
5. Atrial septal defect
Female patient, 16 years, suffers from pain in large joints. Recovered from tonsillitis 2 weeks
ago. Objective data: heart borders are normal, S I at the heart apex is weak, systolic murmur at
the heart apex, heart rate 100/min., blood pressure 120/70 mm Hg, ESR 30 mm/h. Provisional
diagnosis:
1. Cardiomyopathy
2. Pericarditis
3. Viral myocarditis
4. Bacterial endocarditis
5. Acute rheumatic fever
20
Dygestive system
For what kind of the chronic gastritis is typically: localization mainly in the body of the stomach,
prevalence of atrophic changes in mucous membrane, reduced acidity of gastric juice and
presence of antibodies to parietal cells?
1. Gastritis of type A
2. Gastritis of type B
3. Chemical gastritis
4. Radiating gastritis
5. Lymphocytary gastritis
For what kind of the chronic gastritis is typically: localization mainly in pyloric part of the
stomach, prevalence inflammation in mucous membrane, increased acidity of gastric juice and
presence Helicobacter pylori in stomach mucous membrane?
1. Gastritis of type A
2. Gastritis of type B
3. Chemical gastritis
4. Radiating gastritis
5. Lymphocytary gastritis
High figures of acidity are the most typical for localization of ulcer:
1. Gastric ulcer
2. Duodenal ulcer
3. Chemical gastritis
4. Radiating gastritis
5. Lymphocytary gastritis
Presence of the portal hypertension is the most typical for:
1. Acute hepatitis
2. Chronic hepatitis
3. Liver cirrhosis
4. Stomach ulcer
5. Duodenal ulcer
What called symptom not typical for distal colitis?
1. Blood in a stool
2. Watery diarrhea
3. Tenesmus
4. Spasmodic sigmoid gut
5. Pain syndrome
The main cause of development of the acute pancreatitis is:
1. Trauma of abdomen
2. Smoking
3. Cholelithiasis
4. Abusing sweet food
5. Duodenal ulcer
The main cause of development of the chronic pancreatitis is:
1. Trauma of abdomen
2. Smoking
21
3. Alcohol abuse
4. Sweet stuff abuse
5. Duodenal ulcer
What is typical for hemolytic jaundice?
1. Pain syndrome
2. Excessive hemolysis of erythrocytes
3. Infringement of intestinal digestion
4. Portal hypertension syndrome
5. Liver impairment
What ulcers localization is characterized late and night pains?
1. Ulcerative esophagitis
2. Ulcer of small curvature of stomach
3. Ulcer of a bottom of stomach
4. Ulcer of the big curvature
5. Ulcer of a bulb of duodenum
What symptom is basic of gastric ulcer?
1. Nausea
2. Pain
3. Vomiting
4. Diarrhea
5. Weight loss
Where is the pain mostly felt at patients with duodenal ulcer?
1. In a zone of xiphoid process
2. In paraumbilical area
3. In right hypochondrium
4. In pyloroduodenal area
5. In left hypochondrium
What method of diagnostics is the most informative for gastric ulcer?
1. The general blood analysis
2. The analysis stool on the latent blood
3. Radiological
4. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
5. Research of gastric secretion
Presence of melena is typical for:
1. Bleeding hemorrhoids
2. Ulcerative colitis
3. Gastric bleeding
4. Cracks of the anus
5. Cancer of sigma particle
What basic etiological factor is recognized in development of the chronic hepatitis?
1. Alcohol
2. Illnesses of metabolism and accumulation
3. Chemical influences
4. Viral hepatitis
5. Medicines
22
What method of diagnostics is the most reliable for the chronic gastritis?
1. Laparoscopy
2. Ultrasound (US)
3. Biopsy the mucous membrane of the stomach
4. Cholangiography
5. X-ray of the stomach
Syndrome hypersplenism is contain:
1. Presence of anemia
2. Enlargement of the spleen
3. Presence of anemia, leukocytopenia, thrombocytopenia
4. Presence of thrombocytopenia
5. Presence of leukocytopenia
The portal hypertension is characterized by all symptoms, except one:
1. Varicous expanded veins of an esophagus and stomach
2. Varicous expanded of the veins on the forward abdomen wall
3. Enlargement of the spleen
4. Hypertension crisis (attack)
5. Ascites
What is the principal cause of bleedings from varicous veins of the esophagus in patients with
liver cirrhosis?
1. Decrease of prothrombin
2. Decrease of proconvertin
3. The portal hypertension
4. Reduction of thrombocytes
5. Reduction of fibrinolysis
One of the following groups covers “early” symptoms of cancer of the stomach:
1. Causeless weakness, decrease in work capacity, apathy
2. Absence of appetite, disgust for food
3. The phenomena of gastric discomfort
4. Unmotivated weight loss
5. All mentioned above symptoms
Which disease is characterized unacidic reaction pH?
1. Chronic superficial gastritis
2. Chronic atrophic gastritis
3. Chronic colitis
4. Duodenal ulcer
5. Stenosis of the pylorus
The most often cancer of stomach is situated:
1. Antral part of stomach
2. Small curvature of stomach
3. Big curvature of stomach
4. Cardiac part of stomach
5. Body of stomach
The most often histological form of stomach cancer is:
23
1. Adenocarcinoma
2. Scirrhous carcinoma
3. Solid cancer
4. Epidermoid cancer
5. Not differentiated cancer
To precancer diseases of the stomach concerns:
1. Ulcer of a bulb of a duodenal gut
2. Retrobulb ulcer of a duodenal gut
3. Stomach ulcer
4. Chronic atrophic gastritis
5. Acute gastritis
Choose symptom that doesn’t characterize for portal hypertension:
1. Bleeding from the expanded veins of esophagus
2. Varicous expanded of the veins on the forward abdomen wall
3. Enlargement of spleen
4. Rise in temperature
5. Ascites
Complaints: pain in the right hypochondrium is intensive, colic like, provoked after improper
feeding, alcohol, nausea, bitterness in the mouth, etc. What form of the dysfunctional bile tract
disorders has patient?
1. Hyperkinetic form of the gall bladder or/and bile ducts dysfunction
2. Hypokinetic form of the gall bladder or/and bile ducts dysfunction
3. Insufficiency of function of a pancreas
4. Hypochlorhydria
5. Hyperchlorhydria
Complaints: on long, constant, dull holding pains or heavy feeling in the right hypochondrium;
nausea, bitterness in the mouth, etc. What form of the dysfunctional bile tract disorders has
patient?
1. Hyperkinetic form of the gall bladder or/and bile ducts dysfunction
2. Hypokinetic form of the gall bladder or/and bile ducts dysfunction
3. Insufficiency of function of a pancreas
4. Hypochlorhydria
5. Hyperchlorhydria
The attribute of bleeding from gastric ulcer is:
1. Strengthening of a previous pain
2. Vomiting by "coffee grounds"
3. Irradiating (eccentric) pain in a back
4. Heartburn and sour smack in a mouth
5. Constipation
Its following forms concern to 1-st clinical stage of the stomach cancer:
1. The growth of tumor limited to the muscular membrane
2. The growth of tumor limited mucous and submucous membranes
3. The growth of tumor limited to serous layer
4. Growth, within the limits of all wall of the stomach without metastasizes
5. Growth, within the limits of all wall of the stomach with metastasizes
24
Its following forms concern to 4-th clinical stage of a cancer of a stomach:
1. The growth of tumor limited mucous and submucous membranes
2. Growth within the limits of all wall of stomach with metastasizes in regional nodes
3. Growth within the limits of all wall of stomach without metastasizes in regional nodes
4. Growth of tumor with germination in the next organs
5. The tumor of any sizes with the remote metastasis
What disease is complicated as pyloric stenosis?
1. Chronic superficial gastritis
2. Duodenal ulcer
3. Stomach cancer
4. Gastric ulcer
5. Chronic atrophic gastritis
What attributes of disease are characterized for stenosis of the pylorus?
1. Black stool
2. Bloody vomiting
3. Profuse morning vomiting with food that was ingested several days ago
4. Vomiting by "coffee grounds "
5. Suddenly developed sharp epigastric pain
Duodenal ulcer is characterized the following symptoms, except one:
1. Heartburn
2. Pain
3. Increase of acidity of gastric juice
4. Decrease of acidity of gastric juice
5. Constipation
Obstructive (subhepatic) jaundice is characterized:
1. Increase of total bilirubin due to the indirect one
2. Increase of total bilirubin due to the direct one
3. Increase of the thymol test
4. Increase scale of globulins
5. Enlargement of spleen
Attributes of the chronic pancreatitis are below-mentioned, except for one:
1. Localization of the in epigastric areas at the left
2. Diarrhea
3. Amplification (strengthening) of the pain after meal
4. Portal hypertension
5. Vomiting
What is the basic radiological attribute of the gastric ulcer?
1. Presence of ulcer "niche"
2. Presence of deformation of a stomach
3. Hypersecretion
4. Cicatricial deformation of a bulb
5. Convergence plications of stomach
For type B of gastritis all below-mentioned symptoms are characterized, except for one:
1. Presence Helicobacter pylori in a mucous membrane of a stomach
2. Localization mainly in antral part
25
3. Hyperacid condition
4. Prevalence of inflammatory changes
5. Progressive atrophies of the secretory epithelium
What type of gastritis is precede gastric ulcer:
1. Rigid
2. Polypous
3. Atrophic
4. Antral
5. Radiating
Where is the pain localization in patient with ulcer of cardial part of the stomach?
1. Under xiphoid process
2. In periumbilical areas
3. In epigastric areas at the left
4. In piloroduodenal areas
5. In epigastric areas on the right
What is contributing factor in development of the chronic cholecystitis?
1. Sensitization
2. Gall bladder or/and bile ducts dysfunction
3. Insufficiency of function of a pancreas
4. Hypochlorhydria
5. Hyperchlorhydria
What virus is caused by chronic hepatitis?
1. Virus hepatitis A
2. Virus hepatitis B
3. Virus hepatitis E
4. Virus hepatitis D
5. Anyone
What complex of biochemical tests are specific for cholestatic syndrome?
1. Increasing of transferases, sorbitol dehydrogenase
2. Increasing of alkaline phosphatase, cholesterol, direct bilirubin
3. Decreasing of albumin, cholinesterase
4. Occurrence of rheumatoid factor
5. Decreasing in the blood of amount of erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes
Precancer disease of the stomach is not:
1. Chronic gastritis type A
2. Lymphocytary gastritis
3. Gastric ulcer
4. Duodenal ulcer
Occurrence of disgust for meat food the most typical complaint of the patient:
1. Аtrophic gastritis
2. Gastric ulcer
3. Duodenal ulcer
4. Cancer of a stomach
5. Chronic gastritis type B
26
Early pain in epigastrium at the gastric ulcer arise:
1. 1,5 hours after meals
2. Occurring 30 - 40 minutes after meals
3. Early in the morning on an empty stomach
4. Nocturnal pain
5. Hunger pain
Palpation of ascending and descending colons are spent:
1. One right hand
2. One left hand
3. Bimanual palpation
4. Double hand
5. Slanting palpation
The most typical features of a pain at the chronic gastritis type A:
1. Sharp
2. Colicky pain
3. Painful symptom is not characterized
4. Nocturnal pain
5. Hunger pain
What part of the stomach is mainly struck at the chronic gastritis type B?
1. Fundus
2. Antral
3. Diffuse
4. Isolation
5. Cardiac part
What is main symptom at the chronic cholangitis?
1. Vomiting
2. Sialorrhea
3. Colicky pain in right upper quadrant
4. Diarrheas
5. Hectic fever
What is main clinical symptom of the cancer of cardial part of the stomach?
1. Gastric discomfort
2. Absence of appetite
3. Weight loss
4. Heaviness in abdomen after the meal
5. Dysphagia
Which disease of digestive system is more typical for the seasonal pain?
1. Cholecystitis
2. Cholelithiasis
3. Duodenal ulcer
4. Colitis
5. Hepatitis
Which disease of digestive system is characterized nocturnal, hunger pain?
1. Cholecystitis
2. Cholelithiasis
27
3. Duodenal ulcer
4. Colitis
5. Hepatitis
What disorder of appetite is characterized for patients with not complicated duodenal
ulcer?
1. Perverted
2. Reduced
3. Increased
4. Disgust for meat food
5. Normal
Regurgitation with odor of rotten eggs is characterized for:
1. Not complicated gastric ulcer
2. Liver cirrhosis
3. Chronic pancreatitis
4. Pyloric stenosis
5. Chronic hepatitis
What is the character of vomit in patients with pyloric stenosis?
1. Vomiting with bile
2. Vomiting with blood
3. Vomiting by "coffee grounds "
4. Vomiting occurs 10-15 minutes after meals
5. Profuse morning vomiting with food that was ingested several days ago with odor of rotten
eggs
Heartburn is based on:
1. An atrophy of the mucous membrane of the stomach
2. Hypochlorhydria
3. Achlorhydria
4. Gastroduodenal reflux
5. Gastroesophageal reflux
Vomiting by “coffee grounds “ is characterized for:
1. Pylorostenosis
2. Jaundice
3. Gastric bleeding
4. Achlorhydria
5. Colitis
Melena is characterized for:
1. Nasal bleeding
2. Bleeding from sigmoid colon
3. Gastrointestinal bleeding
4. Bleeding from hemorrhoid veins
5. Haemoptysis
What is the character of feces in patients with gastric bleeding?
1. The blood is in feces of pink color
2. Feces of green color
3. Feces of black color
28
4. Colorless
5. Normal
What kind of stool do patients have with the increased acidity of the gastric juice?
1. Constipation
2. Diarrhea
3. Alternation of locks with diarrheas
4. Feces with an impurity of not digested food
5. Normal
What attribute is the most typical for pyloric stenosis?
1. Retraction of the stomach in epigastric part
2. Swelling of the abdomen
3. Asymmetry of the abdomen
4. Visible peristalsis of the stomach
5. Resistance of the anterior abdominal wall
What is main reason of ascites at patients with liver cirrhosis?
1. Increase of bilirubin content in the blood
2. Increased of the spleen
3. Increased of the liver
4. Portal hypertension
5. Increased of arterial pressure
What is typical symptom for portal hypertension?
1. Constipations
2. Diarrheas
3. Ascites
4. Jaundice
5. Skin itch
What is Kurvuazje sign?
1. Tenderness in the point of projection of sigmoid colon
2. Tenderness in pyloroduodenal region
3. Tenderness in epigastric region
4. Palpation increased and painful gall-bladder
5. Palpation of pylorus of the stomach
What symptom is typical for the chronic cholecystitis?
1. Shchetkin-Blumberg symptom
2. Kerras’ symptom
3. Pasternatsky’s symptom
4. Mendel’s symptom
5. Fluctuation symptom
Which jaundice is typical elevation of total bilirubin?
1. Mechanical jaundice
2. Hemolytic jaundice
3. Parenchymatous jaundice
4. All kinds of jaundices
29
Increasing of bound bilirubin can be caused by:
1. Hemolytic jaundice
2. Iron-deficiency anemia
3. Subhepatic jaundice
4. Aplastic anemia
5. Pernicious anemia
Increasing of unbound bilirubin can be caused by:
1. Hemolytic jaundice
2. Iron-deficiency anemia
3. Mechanical jaundice
4. Aplastic anemia
5. Chronic gastritis
What viruses are caused chronic hepatitis?
1. A, Е
2. B, C, D
3. A, B, C, D, Е
4. A, D
5. A, C
30
Nephrology
What is normal specific gravity of the urine?
1. 11,001 – 1,048
2. 1,010 – 1,028
3. 1,001 – 1,010
4. 1,025 – 1,048
5. 1,010 – 1,048
Leucocyturia is characterized for:
1. Pyelonephritis
2. Nephrotic syndrome
3. Acute nephritis
4. Renal amyloidosis
5. Cancer of the bladder
What is normal urine volume?
1. 0 – 200 ml
2. 500 – 1000 ml
3. 1000 – 1800 ml
4. 2000 – 3000 ml
5. 3000 – 4000 ml
What is nocturia?
1. Less than 500 ml of urine/24 h
2. 1000 – 1800 ml of urine/24 h
3. Exceed volume of urine at night than at day
4. Exceed volume of urine at day than at night
5. Exceed 2000 ml of urine/24 h
Albuminuria is:
1. Increased glucose level of urine
2. Absence of protein of urine
3. Presence of protein of urine
4. Presence of setting of urine
5. Presence of urobilin of urine
Glucosuria is characterized for:
Abuse of spicy food
Emotional distress
Diabetes mellitus
Glomerulonephritis
Ulcer disease
What test does determin erythrocytes' presence in the urine?
1. Zimnitsky’s test
2. Rehberg’s test
3. Nechiporenko’s metod
4. Three - glasses test
5. Gregersen’s test
What results of Zimnitsky’s test show decreased of renal concentrating ability?
31
1. The exceed volume of urine at day than at night
2. The volume of urine - 1000-2000 ml/24 h
3. Big difference of the urine specific gravity in individual servings
4. Low specific gravity of urine in all portions
5. The high specific gravity of urine
What substances are increased the specific gravity of the urine?
Urate
Proteins
Bile pigments
Glucose
Uric acid
Expressed urobilinogenuria is characteristic for:
1. Obstructive jaundice
2. Hemolytic jaundice
3. Nephrolithiasis
4. Renal Infarction
5. Chronic glomerulonephritis
Expressed bilirubinuria is characteristic for:
1. Obstructive jaundice
2. Hemolytic jaundice
3. Nephrolithiasis
4. Renal infarction
5. Chronic glomerulonephritis
Cylinders of urine characterized:
1. Slime changes its consistency in acidic urine
2. Protein copies of tubules of the kidneys
3. Accumulation of bacteria
4. Pressed bars of platelets
5. Salt stoppers
What urine pH makes the predominance of vegetable diet?
1. Acid
2. Slightly acid
3. Alkaline
4. Neutral
5. Strong acid
The altered erythrocytes in urine appear in:
1. Acute nephritis
2. Urolithiasis
3. Acute cystitis
4. Tuberculosis of urinary bladder
5. Hypertrophy of prostate
What protein level in urine syndrome?
1. To 3,5 g / 24 h
2. To 4,5 g / 24 h
3. To 5,5 g / 24 h
32
4. To 6,5 g / 24 h
5. To 9,5 g / 24 h
Leucocyturia is presence in urine of large quantities of:
1. Cylinders
2. Urate
3. Leukocytes
4. Erythrocytes
5. Phosphates
Uraturia is presence in the urine:
1. Oxalic acid
2. Uric acid
3. Phosphoric acid
4. Hippuric acid
5. Nitric Acid
The unmodified erythrocytes in the urine are characterized:
1. Pyelonephritis
2. Nephrotic syndrome
3. Glomerulonephritis
4. Renal amyloidosis
5. Urolithiasis
What normal content of leukocytes in the sediment of urine (in sight)?
1. 40-50
2. 30-40
3. 20-30
4. To 2-4
5. 100 and more
Crystals in urine sediment, painted in pink, are:
1. Carbonates
2. Phosphates
3. Oxalates
4. Urates
5. Uric acid
Leached erythrocytes in urine sediment appear at:
1. Urolithiasis
2. Cystitis
3. Pyelonephritis
4. Glomerulonephritis
5. Renal amyloidosis
What is ketonuria?
1. Acetoacetic acid in the urine
2. Glucose in the urine
3. Acetone in the urine
4. Protein in the urine
5. Bile pigments in the urine
33
The concentration of creatinine in the blood is:
1. 1,107 – 2,096 mmol/l
2. 0,176 – 0,297 mmol/l
3. 0,088 – 0,176 mmol/l
4. 0,044 – 0,088 mmol/l
5. More than 2,096 mmol/l
What is Nechiporenko’s method?
1. Counting number of leucocytes, erythrocytes, cylinders in urine in 24 h
2. Counting number of leucocytes, erythrocytes, cylinders in urine in 1 h
3. Counting number of leucocytes, erythrocytes, cylinders in urine in 1 minute
4. Counting number of leucocytes, erythrocytes, cylinders in 1 ml of the urine
5. Counting quantity of urine in 1 minute
What is Addis – Kakovsky’s method?
1. Counting number of leucocytes, erythrocytes, cylinders in urine in 24 h
2. Counting number of leucocytes, erythrocytes, cylinders in urine in 1 h
3. Counting number of leucocytes, erythrocytes, cylinders in 1l of urine
4. Counting number of leucocytes, erythrocytes, cylinders in urine in 1 minute
5. Counting number of leucocytes, erythrocytes, cylinders in 1 ml of urine
The normal maximum number of leukocytes in 1 ml of urine is:
1. 1000
2. 2000
3. 3000
4. 4000
5. 5000
The normal number of erythrocytes in Nechiporenko’s method is:
1. 10
2. 100
3. 1000
4. 1500
5. 2000
What is normal glomerular filtration rate?
1. 50-75 ml/min
2. 80-120 ml/min
3. 125-145 ml/min
4. 150-170 ml/min
5. 180-200 ml/min
What symptom is not characterized for chronic renal disease?
1. Arterial hypertension
2. Pain in the lumbar region
3. Delay of the urine (oliguria)
4. Arterial hypotension
5. Edema
What symptom is characterized for edema in acute nephritis?
1. Arises at evening
34
2. At first arises on lower extremities
3. At first arises on upper extremities
4. Arises at morning on the face
5. Immediately appears an anasarca
Urine changes in acute nephritis are characterized:
1. Proteinuria, hematuria, cylinduria
2. Leucocyturia, hematuria
3. Leucocyturia, cylinduria
4. Leucocyturia, hematuria, cylinduria
5. Proteinuria, leucocyturia
What is the mechanism of kidney swelling?
1. Decreased glomerular filtration and increased reabsorption of sodium
2. Increased secretion of aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone
3. Increased permeability of vascular wall
4. Decreased oncotic pressure of plasma
5. All the above listed
What is direction of irradiation of pain in renal colic?
1. Up and left
2. Up and right
3. Lower abdomen
4. On the back of the thigh
5. Substernal
What are pathological changes determine nephrotic syndrome?
1. Increased blood pressure
2. The presence of red blood cells and cylinders in urine
3. Proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, hyperlipidemia, and edema
4. Edema of the lower extremities
5. Hyperbilirubinemia and hepatomegaly
Proteinuria, leucocyturia and bacteriuria are characteristics for?
1. Nephrotic syndrome
2. Acute glomerulonephritis
3. Acute pyelonephritis
4. Bladder Cancer
5. Renal amyloidosis
What changes in chronic pyelonephritis urine are characterized of?
1. Hematuria, cylindruria
2. Leucocyturia, cylindruria, proteinuria
3. Bacteriuria, cylindruria
4. Hematuria, bacteriuria
5. Hematuria, cylindruria, proteinuria
What is characterized in the urine in diabetic coma?
1. Albuminuria
2. Acetonuria
3. Hypostenuria
4. Hyperstenuria
35
5. Leucocyturia
What syndrome is characterized by massive albuminuria?
1. Cystitis
2. Pyelonephritis
3. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Glomerulonephritis
5. Urolithiasis
What levels of the specific gravity of urine are characteristic for the uremia syndrome?
1. 1,030 – 1,040
2. 1,009 – 1,011
3. 1,015 – 1,020
4. 1,020 – 1,030
5. 1,040 and more
Glomerulonephritis is characterized by:
1. Proteinuria
2. Leucocyturia
3. Bacteriuria
4. Glucosuria
5. Acetonuria
Renal amyloidosis is characterized by:
1. Proteinuria 1g / 24h
2. Proteinuria more than 3-5g / 24h
3. Hematuria
4. Gipoproteinuria
5. Leucocyturia
What is the most reliable sign of chronic renal failure?
1. Hypercholesterolemia
2. Hyperpotassemia
3. Increased creatinine level in blood
4. Oliguria
5. Proteinuria
What renal pathology is characterized in diabetes mellitus?
1. Glomerulonephritis
2. Glomerulosclerosis
3. Pyelonephritis
4. Renal amyloidosis
5. Renal abscesses
What is necessary to restrict the diet in chronic renal failure?
1. Liquid
2. Proteins
3. Carbohydrates
4. Fats
5. Salt
What heart pathology is characterized in chronic renal failure?
36
1. Cardiac asthma
2. Myocarditis
3. Dry pericarditis
4. Endocarditis
5. Myocardial infarction
What is the reason for anemia in uremia?
1. Bleeding
2. Iron deficiency
3. Hemolysis
4. B12 Deficiency
5. Deficiency of erythropoietin
Hemorrhagic syndrome in uremia is characterized by:
1. Thrombocytopenia
2. Increased permeability of vascular wall
3. Prothrombin deficiency
4. Coagulation factor - VIII deficiency
5. Coagulation factor - IX deficiency
Gastritis in uremia is:
1. Endogenous toxic
2. Exogenous toxic
3. Bacterial
4. H. Pylori
5. Atrophic
Aphonia in uremia is characterized:
1. Paresis of the vocal cords
2. Dehydratation
3. Hyperuricemia
4. Ketoacidosis
5. Creatininemia
What is caused pleural frictions rub in uremia?
1. Dehydratation
2. Pleural tuberculosis
3. Dry pleurisy
4. Mezoepitelioma of the pleura
5. Hyperuricemia
What level of hyperketonemia dangerous to the patient's life?
1. 3,8-5,2 mmol/L
2. 6,5 mmol/L
3. 7,0 mmol/L
4. 9,0-10,0 mmol/l
5. 3,8 and less mg/dL
What is caused the chronic renal failure?
1. Chronic pyelonephritis
2. Chronic glomerulonephritis
3. Arterial hypertension
37
4. Koch’s disease
5. Diabetes mellitus
What kind of complaints is observed in the second stage of chronic renal failure?
1. Loss of appetite
2. Fatigue
3. Unpleasant taste in the mouth
4. Dyspeptic syndrome
5. Cough
38
Blood system
What face is in patients with Addison-Biermer’s anemia?
1. Facies anemic
2. Face of “wax doll”
3. Facies leontina
4. Facies Hyppocratica
5. Facies ammimi
What skin color is in patients with erythremia?
1. Icteric
2. Pale
3. Purple-red
4. Cyanotic
5. Earth-like
What skin color is in patients with chronic leukemia?
1. Pale
2. Pink
3. Purple
4. Earth-like
5. Icteric
Cutis icterica is characteristic of:
1. Iron deficiency anemia
2. Acute leukemia
3. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
4. Hemolytic anemia
5. Multiple myeloma
Itchy skin is characteristic of:
1. Limfogranulomatosis (Hodgkin’s disease)
2. Hemophilia
3. Iron-deficiency anemia
4. Werlhoff’s disease
5. Splenomegaly
Itching after bathing is typical for:
1. Hemophilia
2. Erythremia
3. Werlhoff’s disease
4. Iron deficiency anemia
5. Acute leukemia
Increased bleeding is characteristic of:
1. Limfogranulomatosis (Hodgkin’s disease)
2. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
3. Iron deficiency anemia
4. Werlhoff’s disease
5. Multiple myeloma
39
Burning the patient’s tongue is characteristic of:
1. Addison-Biermer’s anemia
2. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
3. Limfogranulomatosis (Hodgkin’s disease)
4. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
5. Thrombocytopenia
What kind of tongue a patient with Addison-Biermer’s anemia is characterized?
1. Papillae expressed pale
2. Papillae flattened, pink
3. Papillae expressed, covered with gray fur
4. Papillae flattened, covered with white fur
5. Dry tongue
Glassy tongue is characteristic of:
1. Iron deficiency anemia
2. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
3. Werlhoff’s disease
4. Hemophilia
5. Thrombocytopenia
Periodically elevation of temperature is characteristic of:
1. Iron deficiency anemia
2. Acute leukemia
3. Limfogranulomatosis (Hodgkin’s disease)
4. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
5. Hemophilia
Pain in right upper quadrant of abdomen is characteristic of:
1. Hemolytic anemia
2. Iron deficiency anemia
3. Hemophilia
4. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
5. Thrombocytopenia
Sternalgia and osalgia is characteristic:
1. Limfogranulomatosis (Hodgkin’s disease)
2. Hemophilia
3. Acute leukemia
4. Iron deficiency anemia
5. Thrombocytopenia
What factors are the most important in blood disorders?
1. Infections
2. Violation of diet
3. Emotional stress
4. Radiation effects
5. Seasonal effects
Pain in bones during tapping occurs in patients with:
1. Tuberculosis
40
2. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
3. Erythremia
4. Anemia
5. Thrombocytopenia
What kinds of lymph nodes are enlarged in blood disease?
1. Only axillaries
2. Axillaries and mandibular
3 Occipital
4. Inguinal
5. All sites are available for palpation
What disease is characterized by enlarged, enormous, of lymph nodes?
1. Tuberculosis of lymph nodes
2. Acute leukemia
3. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
4. Hemophilia
5. Hemolytic anemia.
Enlarged lymph nodes (3-5 cm in diameter) firm consistency is characteristic of:
1. Lymph node tuberculosis
2. Limfogranulomatosis (Hodgkin’s disease)
3. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
4. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
5. Anemia
Pyosis of lymph nodes and the formation of fistula occur in patients with:
1. Limfogranulomatosis (Hodgkin’s disease)
2. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
3. Lymph node tuberculosis
4. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
5. Anemia
What organ of the abdominal cavity is often increased in the case of diseases of blood system?
1. Pancreas
2. Spleen
3. Stomach
4. The left kidney
5. The right kidney
What method is determined size of the spleen in the healthy person?
1. Palpation
2. Auscultation
3. Inspection
4. Percussion
5. X-ray
Where is normal location of the spleen?
1. At the level of the left costal
2. 2 cm below the costal
3. Not palpable
4. At the level of the umbilicus
41
5. At the level of the right costal
What rib by is determined the length of spleen by the percussion?
1. VIII
2. IX
3. X
4. XI
5. XII
What normal length of the spleen?
1. 6-8cm
2. 4-6 cm
3. 2-3 cm
4. 10 cm
5. 12 cm
What is normal width of the spleen?
1. 6-4 cm
2. 2-3 cm
3. 10 cm
4. 6-8 cm
5. 10-12 cm
What is splenomegaly?
1. Increasing the number of leukocytes
2. Liver enlargement
3. Spleen enlargement
4. Lymph nodes enlargement
5. Increasing spleen function
Splenomegaly is characteristic for:
1. Iron deficiency anemia
2. Chronic myelcytes leukemia
3. Hemophilia
4. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
5. Tuberculosis
What is hypersplenism?
1. Spleen enlargement
2. Lymph nodes enlargement
3. Increasing spleen function
4 Spleen reducing
5. Decreasing spleen function
What is hepatomegaly?
1. Spleen enlargement
2. Liver enlargement
3. Spleen reducing
4. Liver reducing
5. Increasing liver function
42
Hepatolienal syndrome is characterized by:
1. Liver enlargement
2. Enlarged spleen and reduced liver
3. Enlarged liver and reduced spleen
4. Enlarged both liver and spleen
5. Reduced both liver and spleen
What bones are puncture to obtain bone marrow?
1. Frontal
2. Tibia
3. IV thoracic vertebrae
4. Sternum
5. Ribs
What is named of value of the cellular elements in bone marrow?
1. Leucogram
2. Myelogram
3. Normogram
4. Lymphogram
5. Spyrogram
Where erythrocytes are produced?
1. Bone marrow
2. Liver
3. Spleen
4. Lymph nodes
5. Stomach
Where are platelets produced?
1. Bone marrow
2. Liver
3. Spleen
4. Lymph nodes
5. Kidneys
Where are leucocytes produced?
1. Bone marrow
2. Liver
3. Spleen
4. Lymph nodes
5. Kidneys
Prothrombin and fibrinogen are produced in:
1. Bone marrow
2. Spleen
3. Lymph nodes
4. Liver
5. Kidneys
Normal values of hemoglobin:
1. 120-160 g/l
2. 100-120 g/l
43
3. 160-190 g/l
4. 80-100 g/l
5. 200 g/l.
Normal values of erythrocytes:
1. 2,0-3,0 ×1012/l
2. 3,9-5,0 × 1012/l
3. 5,0-6,0 ×1012/l
4. 3,0-3,9 × 1012/l
5. 1,5-2,0 ×1012/l
Normal values of leukocytes:
1. 2,0-4,0 × 109/l
2. 4,0-5,0 ×109/ l
3. 4,0-9,0 ×109/l
4. 4,0-9,0 × 10І2/l
5. 3,0-4,0 × 109/l
What is leukocyte formula:
1. Increased of leukocytes number
2. Increased of lymphocytes number
3. Increased of band neutrophils and appearance of young neutrophils
4. Percentage of separate forms of leucocytes
5. Decreased of leukocytes number
Shift of the leukocyte formula to the left is charactrized:
1. Increased of leukocytes number in the peripheral blood
2. Increased of lymphocytes number in the peripheral blood
3. Decreased of leukocytes number in the peripheral blood
4. Increased of band neutrophils and appearance of young neutrophils (in percentage) in
peripheral blood
Normal value of lymphocytes:
1. 10-15%
2. 5-10%
3. 25-35%
4. 35-60%
5. 80%
Normal value of color index:
1. 0,5-0,6
2. 0,9-1,0
3. 1,2-1,5
4. 0,7-0,8
5. 1,1 – 1,2
Normal value of osmotic fragility:
1. 0,16-0,30
2. 0,34-0,48
3. 0,10-0,20
4. 0,55-0,70
44
5. 0,28-0,34
How is color index change in iron-deficiency anemia?
1. Hypochromia
2. Hyperchromia
3. Normochromia
4. Polychromasia
5. Dischromia
What is hemolysis indicator?
1. Increased of leukocytes number in peripheral blood
2. Increased plasma unconjugated bilirubin
3. Reduced of leukocytes number in peripheral blood
4. Accelerated ESR
5. Increasing the number of basophils
What is typical for hemolytic anemia?
1. Increased plasma unconjugated bilirubin
2. Increased plasma conjugated bilirubin
3. Leukocytosis
4. Accelerated ESR
5. Decreased plasma unconjugated bilirubin
What is specific sign of hemolytic anemia?
1. Increased plasma conjugated bilirubin
2. Accelerated ESR
3. Liver enlargement
4. Spleen enlargement
5. Decreased plasma unconjugated bilirubin
What is hemolysis indicator?
1. Leukocytosis
2. Leukopenia
3. Accelerated ESR
4. Reticulocytosis
5. Eosinophilia
Reticulocytosis in the peripheral blood may indicate:
1. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
2. Hemophilia
3. Hemolytic anemia
4. Werlhoff’s disease
5. Multiple myeloma
What are leucocytes number in patients with acute leukemia?
1. Decreased
2. Increased
3. Normal
4. Increased the band neutrophils number
5. Decreased the band neutrophils number
45
Acute leukemia is characterized all, except:
1. Leukocytosis
2. Accelerated ESR
3. Presence of blast cells
4. Hemoglobin concentration decreased
5. Increased count of eosinophils and basophils
Leukemoid reaction in the analysis of peripheral blood is characterized:
1. Infections
2. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
3. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
4. Acute leukemia
5. Thrombocytopenia
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) in patients with leukemia:
1. Sharp increased
2. Decreased
3. A slight increased
4. Not change
5. Normal
What cells are involved in hemostatic plug?
1. Erythrocytes
2. Lymphocytes
3. Eosinophils
4. Platelets
5. Basophils
What is measure the Duke test?
1. Leukocytes number
2. Platelet number
3. Erythrocytes number
4. ESR
5. Bleeding time test
Duration of normal times for theDuke test:
1. 1-3 min
2. 5-6 min
3. 20 sec
4. 10-14 min
5. 1 h
What analysis is specific for iron deficiency anemia?
1. ESR
2. Serum protein
3. Reticulocyte count
4. Osmotic fragility of erythrocytes
5. Serum iron level
What cells of the granulocytic series are mature and normally leave the bloodstream?
1. Blast cells
2. Myelocytes
46
3. Metamyelocytes
4. Band cells
5. Polymorphonuclear neutrophils
What cell of 4 class is the parent of neutrophils?
1. Plazmoblast
2. Lymphoblast
3. Myeloblast
4. Megakarioblast
5. Monoblast
Symptoms of chronic myelocytic leukemia, except:
1. Liver enlargement
2. Hemorrhagic syndrome
3. Lymphadenopathy
4. Spleen enlargement
5. Anemia
At what disease occurs hemarthrosises?
1. Hemorrhagic vasculitis
2. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
3. Hemophilia
4. Cirrhosis
5. Diabetes mellitus
What leukogram in chronic myelocytic leukemia?
1. Lymphocytopenia
2. Basophilic-eosinophilic association
3. Shift to the left to myelocytes
4. Lymphocytosis
5. Monocytosis
What disease is characterized by increased count of basophils and eosinophils?
1. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
2. Congenital anemia
3. Serum sickness
4. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
5. Melanosarcoma
Where leucocytes are formed?
1. In the liver
2. In the spleen
3. In the bone marrow
4. In the lymph nodes
5. In the thymus
Increased count of basophils and eosinophils is characteristic for:
1. Acute leukemia
2. Erythremia
3. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
4. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
47
5. Polycythemia vera
The most common clinical syndrome of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura:
1. Hemarthrosis
2. Ecchymosis
3. Necrosis
4. Angiopathy
5. Bleeding from mucosa
Which factor is absence in hemophilia A?
1. Hageman’s factor
2. Proaccelerin
3. Proconvertin (Kappa’s factor)
4. Prothrombin
5. Factor VIII
What method is the best for leukemia diagnostic?
1. General blood test
2. Myelogram
3. Biopsy of spleen
4. Biopsy of lymph nodes
5. Cytochemical methods
Where blood cells are formed?
1. In the liver
2. In the spleen
3. In the bone marrow
4. In the lymph nodes
5. In the thymus
Botkin-Gympreht shadowsare spesific for:
1. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
2. Chronic erythromyelosis
3. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
4. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
5. Erythremia
What symptom is typical for chronic lymphocytic leukemia?
1. Hepatomegaly
2. Fever
3. Anemia
4. Lymphadenopathy
5. Splenomegaly
Phyladelphia chromosome is characteristic for:
1. Acute leukemia
2. Erythremia
3. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
4. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
5. Myeloma
48
Folic acid deficiency (megaloblastic) anemia is characterized:
1. Neurological syndrome
2. Reduced vision
3. Anemia
4. Stomatitis
5. Headache
The most common clinical form of hemorrhagic vasculitis:
1. Cardiac
2. Cerebral
3. Simple
4. Articular
5. Abdominal
What anemia is more typical in pregnant women?
1. Hypoplastic
2. Hemolytic
3. Iron deficiency
4. Megaloblastic
5. Thalassemia
49
Endocrine system
What is normal fasting plasma glucose?
1. 8,3-10,1 mmol/l
2. 6,2-9,3 mmol/l
3. 2,7-5,5 mmol/l
4. 3,8-6,7 mmol/l
5. 3,3-5,5 mmol/l
What is the resalt of OGTT 2h post-load plasma glucose in normal?
1. 8,43 mmol/l
2. 7,22 mmol/l
3. 9,6 mmol/l
4. Less 11,1 mmol/l
5. Less 7,8 mmol/l
What is basic criteria of diabetes mellitus?
1. Fasting plasma glucose ≥ 7,0 mmol/l
2. Glucocorticoid test
3. OGTT
4. Albuminuria
5. All enumerated
Severe forms of diabetes mellitus are characterized by all enumerated signs, except:
1. Ketoacidosis
2. Eruptive xanthomas
3. Presence of vascular complications (retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy)
4. Metabolic cataract
5. High doses of insulin
What is involvement of vision in diabetes?
1. Retinopathy
2. Blepharitis
3. Sty
4. Dystrophic cornea changes
5. All enumerated
First type diabetes mellitus is characterized by all enumerated signs, except:
1. Gradually onset of the disease
2. Young age
3. Acute form of clinical symptoms
4. Insulin dependence, B-cells affect
5. Obesity absence
Ketoacidotic coma is clinically manifested by all enumerated signs, except:
1. Pallor and dryness of skin
2. Normal temperature of body
3. Arterial hypotension
4. Arterial hypertension
5. Kussmaul’s breathing, acetone smell in the air breathed out
Hypoglycemic coma clinically manifested by all enumerated signs, except:
50
1. Pallor and moistures of skin
2. Hyper tonus of muscles, convulsions
3. Blood pressure decreasing
4. Crepitation in lungs
5. Sudden onset
All enumerated alimentary factors contribute to obesity development, except:
1. Frequent high-caloric meals in small doses
2. Surplus use of vegetable food
3. Surplus use of carbohydrates
4. Surplus use of fats
5. Overeating
What symptoms of the following ones are characterized for hyperthyroidism?
1. Loos of weight
2. Constant palpitation
3. Increasd sweating
4. Trembling of extremities, muscle weakness
5. All enumerated
Hypothyroidism is characterized all enumerated, except:
1. Dryness of the skin
2. Constipation
3. Sleepiness
4. Bradicardia
5. Loss of body mass
What is important factor of insulin secretion regulation?
1. Lipids level in blood
2. Lactate level in blood
3. Pyruvate level in blood
4. Glycerin level in blood
5. Glucose level in blood
What is indication of insulin independent diabetes mellitus?
1. Acute disease onset
2. Diabetes frequency in relatives
3. Age older than 40 years at the onset of the disease
4. Decreased of insulin in blood
5. Severe course, inclination to ketoacidosis
What is the main symptom of diabetes mellitus?
1. Bradicardia
2. Exophtalmos
3. Polyuria
4. Pollakiuria
5. Loos of weight
What patients is the most frequently develop hyperosmolar coma?
1. Suffering from insulin dependent diabetes
2. Suffering from insulin independent diabetes
3. Suffering from diseases of pancreas (tumor)
51
4. Suffering from congenital genetic syndromes
5. Suffering from pheohromocytoma
What is the cause of hyperglycemic coma?
1. Low dose of insulin
2. Overdose of insulin
3. Absence of meal after insulin injection
4. Introduction of excess liquid into the organism
5. Overeating
What is pathogenic factor of ketoacidosis development?
1. Insulin surplus
2. Insulin insufficiency
3. Insufficient of contrinsular hormones
4. Surplus of contrinsular hormones
5. Cellular dehydratation
What is the most dangerous thyrotoxic crisis complication?
Anemia
Hemorrhages
Acute disorder of brain circulation
Acute cardiovascular insufficiency
Acute hepatic insufficiency
What symptom occurs both in hypoglycemic coma and hypothyroid coma?
1. Slow onset
2. Slow soft pulse
3. Dilated pupils
4. Tendon reflexes are diminished
5. Abdominal pain
What is affected in diabetic retinopathy?
1. Cornea
2. Conjunctiva
3. Iris
4. Vitreous body
5. Blood vessels of retina
What organ is affected in diabetes mellitus?
1. Adrenal glands
2. Thyroid gland
3. Kidney
4. Stomach
5. Intestine
What is symptom of diabetes mellitus?
1. Polyarthralgias
2. Asphyxia
3. Skin and genital itch
4. Periodical thirst
5. Teeth loosening and dedentition
52
What age diabetes mellitus type II is the most frequent?
1. Since 10 till 20 years
2. Since 20 till 30 years
3. Since 30 till 40 years
4. Since 40 till 50 years
5. Older than 50 years
What kind of coma is in diabetes mellitus?
1. Uremic
2. Hepatic
3. Anemic
4. Ketoacidotic
5. Thyrotoxic
What is characterized hyperosmolar coma?
1. Presence of ketoacidosis
2. Absence of ketoacidosis
3. Dehydration
4. Frequent oliguria
5. Frequent azotemia
What is the sign of hypoglycemic coma?
1. Flaccidity of muscles, absence of tendon reflexes
2. Rigidity of muscles, tremor of extremities, convulsions
3. Absence of appetite
4. Increased appetite
5. Proteinuria, cylindruria, glycosuria
What is Kocher’s symptom?
1. Rare blinking
2. Abnormally sparkling eyes
3. Pigmentation of eyelids
4. Some sclera is visible
5. Sensation of sand in the eyes
What is Ellinec' sign?
1. Rare blinking
2. Abnormally sparkling eyes
3. Pigmentation of eyelids
4. Some sclera is visible
5. Sensation of sand in the eyes
What is pretibial myxedema?
1. Eyelids edema
2. Face edema
3. Feet edema
4. Crus anterior surface skin lesion
5. Face skin lesion
What cardiac rhythm disturbance is in hyperthyroidism?
1. Sinus bradycardia
2. Extrasystole
53
3. Atrial fibrilation
4. Sinus tachycardia
5. Paroxysmal tachycardia
What scanning of thyroid gland do you know?
1. Scanning with gold preparations
2. Scanning with caesium
3. Scanning with strontium
4. Scanning with technetium
5. Scanning with radioactive iodine
Diabetes mellitus is characterized with:
1. Hyperglycemia
2. Albuminuria
3. Tachycardia
4. Cough
5. Jaundice
What is the cause of diabetes mellitus?
1. Psychic and physical injury
2. Infection
3. Heredity
4. Obesity
5. Hypothermia
What pancreatic cells are producing insulin?
1. Cells of excretory ducts
2. Acinus cells of pancreas
3. Alpha-cells of Langerhans’s islets
4. Beta-cells of Langerhans’s islets
5. Pancreas vessels and capillaries endothelium
What is Grefe’s symptom?
1. Rare blinking
2. Abnormally sparkling eyes
3. Pigmentation of eyelids
4. Some sclera is visible
5. Lid lag during fixing of slowly downward moving object
What is Shtelvag’s symptom?
1. Eyelid skin pigmentation
2. Abnormally sparkling eyes
3. Some sclera is visible
4. Rare blinking
5. Lid lag during fixing of slowly downward moving object
What is exophthalmos?
1. Eyeball pain
2. Sensation of sand in the eyes
3. Expelling of eyeball from the eye-socket
4. Sclera vessels injection
5. Eyelids edema
54
What are the main complaints of patients with hyperthyroidism?
1. Excitability, anxiety
2. Loss of libido
3. Increased sweating, heat intolerancy
4. Palpitation, weight loss
5. All enumerated
What can be revealed on examination of patient with hyperthyroidism?
1. Anxious conduct, lots of unnecessary movements
2. Incompleteness of thoughts, quick distractibility
3. Eyelids, lips, tongue, head trembling, sometimes trembling of the whole body
4. Subcutaneous fatty tissue thinning, exophthalmos
5. All enumerated
What ophthalmic symptoms can be revealed in patient with hyperthyroidism?
1. Mebius's sign
2. Greffe' sign
3. Stelvag’ sign
4. Kraus' sign
5. All enumerated
What changes are typical during heart auscultation for hyperthyroidism?
1. The heart sounds are loud
2. Functional systolic murmur over the heart apex
3. Tachycardia
4. Pulse is high and fast
5. All enumerated
What ECG changes can be revealed in patient with hyperthyroidism?
1. Depresses ST-segment and inverted T wave
2. Sinus tachycardia
3. Extrasystole
4. Atrial fibrillation
5. All enumerated
What kind of pulse is typical for hyperthyroidism?
1. Pulse is high and fast
2. Bradycardia
3. Irregular
4. Deficient
5. All enumerated
What basic clinical manifestations are typical for thyrotoxical crisis?
1. Acute onset and lightning-fast course, coma in severe cases
2. Progressive rise of body temperature, uncontrollable vomiting, diarrhea
3. Abrupt excitement with delirium and hallucinations
4. Tachycardia 150-200 per minute, atrial fibrillation.
5. All enumerated
What kind of laboratory-instrumental methods of thyroid gland diagnoses are known?
1. Clinical blood analysis
55
2. Serum total and free T4 and T3 concentration
3. Thyroid radioiodine
4. Ultrasound examination
5. All enumerated
What are the main complaints in patients with hypothyroidism?
1. General weakness, tiredness
2. General edema
3. Disoders of mental abilities, somnolence
4. Low-pitched hoarse voice, constipation
5. All enumerated
What skin changes are typical for hypothyroidism patient?
1. Dry skin, cold, scaly and thickened
2. Fragility and loss of hairs
3. Nails are thin and brittle
4. The periorbital edema
5. All enumerated
What neuropsychic sphere changes are observed in patients with hypothyroidism?
1. Acute psychologic slowing down, flaccid psychic functions, emotional poorness, apathy,
indifference to surroundings
2. Memory impairment
3. Hypersomnia
4. Mental deficiency right up to the development of dementia oligophrenia type
5. All enumerated
What cardiovascular system changes can be revealed in patient with hypothyroidism?
1. The apex beat is displaced to the left
2. Normal or slightly reduced blood pressure
3. Slow, weak pulse
4. Decreased loudness of both sounds
5. All enumerated
What electrocardiogram changes can reveal in patient with hypothyroidism?
1. Sinus bradycardia
2. Low amplitude P wave
3. Depressed ST-segment
4. P-Q interval is prolonged
5. All enumerated
What are the clinical manifestations of diabetes mellitus?
1. Thirst, expressed polyuria, polyphagia
2. Loosing weight, increasing weakness, dry mouth
3. Polyneuritis, furunculosis, parodontosis
4. Skin itch
5. All enumerated
What symptoms are characterized for diabetic nephropathy?
1. Low specific urine gravity
2. Albuminuria
3. Arterial hypertension
56
4. Glucosuria
5. All enumerated
The characteristics of type I diabetes mellitus (insulin-dependent) are all enumerated, except:
1. Absolute insulin dependence may be observed
2. Severe course, susceptibility to ketoacidosis
3. Insulin level is abruptly reducted
4. Genetic defect of antiviral immunity
5. There are expressed morphological changes B-cells of islet of Langerhans
The characteristics of type II diabetes mellitus (insulin-independent) are all enumerated, except:
1. Gradually onset, usually at the age older than 40 years, often occurs in overweight
patient
2. Stable mild course, no susceptibility to ketoacidosis
3. At the onset there is no expressed damage of B-cells, in this connection sulfanilamide
glucose-reducing preparations are effective
4. Insulin blood level is slightly lowered, normal, or increased at the expense of combined
insulin
5. Insulin level is abruptly reduced
What clinical sign is observed in diabetic coma?
1. Gradual onset, deep, noisy breathing (Kussmaul's respiration), smell of acetone from
one's mouth
2. Rapid pulse, decreasing of arterial pressure
3. Glucose and acetone revealing in urine
4. Xeroderma, hypotonia of eyeballs
5. All enumerated
What clinical sign is observed in hypoglycemic coma?
1. Sudden development, usual respiration, no smell of acetone
2. Possible clonic and tonic convulsions
3. Blood pressure is normal or elevated, pulse is not rapid
4. Sweating is sharply expressed
5. All enumerated
What time blood glucose level is maximally elevated after carbohydrate load?
1. In 10-20 minutes
2. In 30-60 minutes
3. In 90 minutes
4. In 120 minutes
5. In 180 minutes
What arrhythmia is characteristic for thyroid heart?
1. Respiratory arrhythmia
2. Sinus bradycardia
3. Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia
4. Atrial fibrillation
5. Ventricular flutter
What kind of respiration is observed in hypoglycemic coma?
1. Normal respiration
2. Chane-Stock’s respiration
57
3. Biott’s respiration
4. Expiratory dyspnea
5. Kussmaul’s respiration
The symptoms of cardiovascular system damage in hypothyroidism are the following, except:
1. Bradycardia
2. Arterial hypotension
3. Pericarditis
4. Atrial fibrillation
5. Decreased waves amplitude on electrocardiogram
All of the following changes of cardiovascular system are characteristics for the hyperthyroidism,
except:
1. Systolic bloodl pressure is increased
2. Pulse pressure is increased
3. Tachycardia
4. Pulse is high and fast
5. Decreased loudness of both sounds
Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus is characterized by the following signs, except:
1. Disease occurs at young age
2. Acute onset
3. Decreased body mass
4. Stable course
5. Necessity insulin therapy
Insulin independent diabetes mellitus is characterized by the following signs, except:
1. Onset of disease at an elderly age
2. Gradual development of disease
3. Labile course
4. Obesity
5. Absence of susceptibility to ketoacidosis
What coma develops violently, beginning from anxiety, fear, hallucinations, headache and
locomotive excitation?
1. Hyperosmolar
2. Ketoacidotic
3. Hyperlactacidemic
4. Hypoglycemic
5. Any of the enumerated
The following factors promote to the development of ketoacidotic coma, except:
1. Unwarranted decrease of insulin dose
2. Physical and psychic traumas
3. Increased of food caloric value
4. Concomitant infectious diseases
5. All enumerated
Red-brown papulae is characteristic for:
1. Hypothyroidism
2. Obesity
3. Diabetes mellitus
58
4. Hyperthyroidism
5. Acromegalia
Atrial fibrillation is characteristic for:
1. Diabetes mellitus
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Obesity
4. Acromegalia
5. Hyperthyroidism
At the 1-st degree obesity body mass exceeds the norm for:
1. 5-10℅
2. 20-30℅
3. 30-50℅
4. 50-100℅
5. More than for 100℅
In the 4 degree obesity body mass exceeds norm for:
1. 50-100℅
2. 5-10℅
3. More than for 100℅
4. 20-30℅
5. 30-50℅
59
Literature
1. Vasilenko V., Grebenev A. Internal diseases an introductory course. - M.: Mir
Publishers, 1990. - 647 p.
2. Zh.D. Semidotskaya, O.S. Bilchenko, et al. Introduction to the course of internal
diseases. Book 1. Diagnosis: [Textbook/.].-Kharkiv: KSMU, 2005. -312p.
3. Kovalyova O.M., Shapovalova S.O., Nizhegorodtseva O.O. Propedeutic to internal
medicine. Part 2.– Vinnytsya: Nova knyha, 2007. – 264 p.
4. Syvolap V., Olejnik A., Lihkasenko I., Avramenko N. Electrocardiography for II-III
years students of the medical faculty: Manual for II-III-year students of the medical
universities (Zaporozhye State Medical University). Zaporozhye, 2006.- 45 c.
5. Syvolap V., Olejnik A., Lihkasenko I., Avramenko N. Clinical tasks in the propedeutics
of internal diseases for II-III years students of the medical faculty: Manual for II-III -
year students of the medical universities (Zaporozhye State Medical University).
Zaporozhye, 2006.-15c.
6.
Syvolap V., Olejnik A., Lihkasenko I., Avramenko N., Gerasko M. Methodical
recommendations on propedeutics of internal diseases (Book 2) (Zaporozhye State
Medical University). Zaporozhye, 2008.-164 p.
7. Harrison΄s principles off internal medicine / Fauci, Braunwald, Isselbacher and al.-XIV
edition. - Vol. 1 and 2. - International edition, 1998.