Engineering Materials and Metallurgy
1)
The crystal structure of Austenite is (Gate 2011)
a) BCC
b) FCC
c) HCP
d) None f the above
2)
In grey Cast iron, Carbon is present in the form of
a) Cementite
b) Free carbon
c) Flakes
d) Spheroids
3)
Connecting rod is usually made up of
a) Al
b) Low Carbon steel
c) Medium Carbon Steel
d) High Carbon Steel
4)
The hardness of steel increases if it contains
a) Austenite
b) Martensite
c) Pearlite
d) Cementite
5)
Ball of ball bearings are made of
a) Cast Iron
b) Mild steel
c) Stainless steel
d) Caron Chrome steel
6)
The temperature at which new grains are formed in metal I scalled
a) recrystallation temperature
b) lower critical temperature
c) upper critical temperature
d) eutectitic temperature
7)
Cast iron contains carbon
a) Greater than 6.3%
b) Less than 0.8%
c) Less than 2%
d) Greater than 2%
8)
High Speed Steel (H.S.S) belongs to the category of
a) low carbon steel
b) Medium Carbon Steel
c) High Carbon Steel
d) Alloy steel
9)
Stainless steel contains
a) Cr, Fe & Ni
b) Cr & Ni
c) Fe & C
d) Cr, Ni, Fe & C
10)
Which of the following has the least % of C
a) Malleable Iron
b) Pig Iron
c) Stainless Steel
d) Wrought iron
11)
Pearlite is the combination of
a) Ferrite & Cementite
b) Cementite & Gamma Iron
c) Ferrite & Graphite
d) Ferrite & Iron graphite
12)
Gun Metal contains
a) 70% Cu & 30% Zn
b) 90% Cu & 10% Pb
c) 85-92% of Cu & rest with Tin, Pb and Ni
d) 70-78% of Cu & rest Tin
13)
Melting Point of Fe is
a) 1539oC
b) 1601 oC
c) 1489 oC
d) 1712 oC
14)
Blast furnace produces following by reduction of iron ore
a) Cast iron
b) Pig iron
c) Wrought iron
d) Malleable iron
15)
Carbon in Fe is an example of
a) substitutional solution
b) interstitial solid solution
c) intermetallic compound
d) all the above
16)
An example of amorphous material is
a) Zinc
b) Lead
c) Brass
d) Glass
17)
Mangenese in steel increases
a) Tensile strength
b) Hardness
c) Ductility
d) Malleability
18)
Tungsten in HSS provides
a) Hot hardness
b) Toughness
c) Wear resistance
d) Sharp cutting edge
19)
To form basic slag, the following is added
a) lime
b) coke
c) scrap
d) Al
20)
Machinability of metal depends on
a)
hardness
b)
malleability
c)
brittleness
d)
hardness & tensile strength
21)
The imperfection in crystal structure of metal is called
a) dislocation
b) slip
c) fracture
d) cleavage
22)
Normalizing operation is carried out in
a) furnace
b) Air
c) Water
d) Oil
23)
pick up wrong statement
a)
refining grain structure
b)
relieving internal stresses
c)
improving wear resistance
d)
improving machinability
24)
Case hardening is the only method suitable for hardening
a) high alloy steel
b) high carbon steel
c) low carbon steel
d) high speed steel
25)
Gibbs phase rule is given by the expression F is equal to
a) C + P
b) C P
c) C P -2
d) C P + 2
Where F = no of degree of freedom
C= no of components
P = no of Phases
26)
Babbit metal is a
a)lead base alloy
b) tin based alloy
c) both a & b
d) none of the above
27 ) Weld decay phenomenon found with
a) Cast iron
b) mild steel
c) non ferrous material
d) stainless steel
28) Killed steels are those steels
a) which are destroyed by burning
b) which after their destruction are recycled to produce fresh metal
c) which are deoxidized in the ladle with silicon & aluminium
d) in which carbon is completely burnt
29) An allotropic material has
a) fixed structure at all temperature
b) b) atoms distributed in random pattern
c) different crystal structure at different temperature
d) d) none of the above
30) Steel may be manufactured by
a) Bessemer process
b) duplex process
c) open hearth process
d) all the above
31) Case hardening is
a) Done to get a soft ductile interior with a very hard surface
b) Done to get hard ductile interior with a very hard surface
c) Followed by tempering
d) None of the above
32) Heat treatment process used for casting
a) Normalizing
b) annealing
c) tempering
d) hardening
33) Heat treatment
a) is effectively only with certain alloys
b) Depends upon cooling rate
c) Both a & b
d) none of the above
34) Recrystallisation temperature is
a) 723 oC
b) 910 oC
c) 1400 oC
d) 1539 oC
35 ) Recrystallisation temperature depends on
a) type and purity of metal
b) grain size
c) annealing time
d) all the above
36) If steel is quenched in water, the structure obtained is known as
a) pearlite
b) sorbite
c) martensite
d) troosite
37) Iron Carbon alloy containing carbon more than 4.3% is known as
a) eutectic cast iron
b) hyper - eutectic cast iron
c) hypo - eutectic cast iron
d) none of the above
38 ) Percentage of Carbon in high carbon steels is
a) 0.1% to 0.15%
b) 0.15 to 0.8%
c) 0.8% to 1.5%
d) more than 1.5%
39) Grey cast iron as compared to white cast iron is
a) harder
b) softer
c) same
d) none of the above
40) Wrought iron is
a) is ductile
b) can be easily forged or welded
c) cannot resist sudden & excessive shocks
d) all the above
41) When 0.8% of Carbon eutectoid steel is slowly cooled from 750 oC to
room temperature ( Gate 08)
a) austenite transforms to pearlite
b) pearlite transforms to austenite
c) austenite transforms to martensite
d) pearlite transforms to martensite
42) Which of the following cooling methods is best suited for converting
Austenite steel into very fine pearlite steel? (Gate 07)
a) Oil Quenching
b) Water Quenching
c) air cooling
d) furnace cooling
43) Ability of the material to resist penetration by another material, is known
as
a) Stifness
b) b) ductility
c) c) hardness
d) d) plasticity
44 ) Strength of material is the ability to resist
a) deformation due to stress
b) b) fracture due to high load
c) c) external forces applied with yielding or break down
d) d) none of the above
45)
a)
b)
c)
d)
If a material is heated, its toughness
increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) none of the above
46) Age hardening is generally applied to
a) cast iron
b) duralumin
c) stainless steel
d) brass
47)
a)
b)
c)
d)
In flame hardening, the flame used is of
oil burner
gas burner
oxy-acetylene
none of the above
48)
a)
b)
c)
Iron Carbon equilibrium diagram
Correlates the microstructure and properties of steel and CI
Indicates the phase change occurring during heating and cooloing
Is made by plotting carbon % along X axis and temperature along Yaxis
d) All the above
49) Brinell hardness number is equal to
a) P/ D - ( D2 d2)
b) P/D( D - ( D2 d2) )
c) 2P/ D - ( D2 d2)
d) 2P/D( D - ( D2 d2) )
Where d = dia of impression
50 ) Heavy duty leaf & coil springs contain Carbon of the order of
a) 0.2%
b) 0.5%
c) 0.8%
d) 1.0%
Welding Technology
1)
Oxygen to acetylene ratio in case of neutral flame is
a) 1:1
b) 2:1
c) 1:2
d) 0.8:1
2)
Carburising flame has
a) 3 Zones
b) 2 Zones
c) 4 Zones
d) 1 Zone
3)
Projection Welding is
a) continuous spot welding process
b) multi spot welding process
c) used t form rectangle
d) something else
4)
Arc length in arc welding should be equal to
a) Half of the electrode rod
b) Rod diameter
c) 2.5 times the dia of rod
d) 3times the dia of rod
5)
For constructing a tank or bucket, welding used is,
a) seam welding
b) Forge welding
c) cold welding
d) pressure gas welding
6)
For welding materials like Cu and Brass, the flame used to be
a) Oxidizing flame
b) Neutral flame
c) Carburizing flame
d) Arc welding
7)
80% of industrial welding is done by
a) D.C
b)A.C
c)A.C & D.C
d)Transformer
8)
Seam welding is
a) an arc welding process
b) a continuous spot welding process
c) a multi spot welding process
d) a process used for joining round bars
9)
A flux is used in welding to
a) Remove the oxides of the metals formed at high T
b) Permit perfect cohesion of the metals
c) Cools and metals
d) Both a & b
10)
In case of arc welding, the flux
a) is used from outside in the form of powder
b) is coated on the electrodes
c) is not used
d) none of the above
11)
Which of the following metals has the least weld ability?
a) Carbon steel
b) Iron
c) Stainless steel
d) Cast iron
12)
In resistance welding, the heat generated is given by
a) H = (I2 * R ) / T
b) H = (I2 * T) / R
c) H = I2 * R * T
d) H = (R* T) / I2
13)
For cutting operation, the most suitable flame is
a) neutral
b) oxidizing
c) carburizing
d) none of the above
14)
Weld splatter refers to
a) Flux
b) Welding defect
c) Filler material
d) Shield
15)
In brazing, the melting point of the filler metal should be
a) above 1000oC
b) above 800oC
c) above 420oC
d) above 300oc
16)
In neutral flame, temperature of the inner luminous cone is around
a) 1500 oC
b) 4500 oC
c) 3500 oC
d) None of the above
17)
Advantage of electron beam welding is
a) Joining without the fusion of the metal
b) Overall efficiency in energy utilization
c) Capacity of joining thick sections
d) Capacity of joining precision parts
18)
Dye penetrant test is suitable for testing weld defect such as
a) Over lap
b) Slag inclusion
c) Incomplete penetration
d) Surface cracks
19)
Choose the Odd process out
a) TIG welding
b) Thermit welding
c) Resistance welding
d) Submerged arc welding
20)
In which type of welding, a pool of molten metal is used?
a)Electroslag
b) Submerged Arc
c) MIG
d) TIG
21)
Copper is
a) Easily spot welded
b) Very difficult to be spot welded
c) As good for spot welding as any other material
d) Preferred to be welded by spot welding
22)
Forge welding is best suited for
a) Stainless steel
b) High carbon steel
c) Cast iron
d) Wrought iron
23)
Which of the carbon steels is most wieldable
a) 0.15% Carbon steel
b) 0.30% Carbon steel
c) 0.50% Carbon steel
d) 0.75% Carbon steel
24)
In arc welding process the intense heat is developed between the work
and the electrode largely due to
a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Electrical energy
d) Constant resistance
25)
Arc stability is better with
a) AC welding
b) DC welding
c) Both AC & DC
d) Specially designed wave form
26)
In arc welding, eyes need to be protected against
a) Intense glare
b) Sparks
c) Infra red rays
d) Ultra violet rays
e) Both C & D
27)
Which of the following welding process uses non-consumable
electrode
a) LASER welding
b) MIG welding
c) TIG welding
d) Ion beam welding
28)
Laser welding finds widest application in
a) Heavy industry
b) Structural industry
c) Process industry
d) Electronic industry
29)
Cross wire welding is
a) Multi spot welding process
b) Continuous spot welding process
c) Used to form mesh
d) Used where additional strength is required
30)
Low hydrogen electrodes are baked prior to use in order that
a) Proper strength is obtained
b) Welding is free from arc blow
c) Welding is free from moisture pick up
d) Current required is minimum
31)
In straight polarity
a) Electrode holder is connected to negative and work is positive
b) Electrode holder is connected to positive and work is negative
c) Work is positive and holder is earthed
d) Holder is positive and work is earthed
32)
The maximum temperature occurs at
a) Neutral
b) Oxidizing
c) Carburizing
d) All the above
33)
If t is the thickness of sheet to be spot welded, then electrode tip dia
is equal to
a) t
b) t
c) 1.5 t
d) 2.5 t
34)
In the following welding technique, the flame of the torch is directed
against the completed weld
a) Overhead welding
b) Horizontal welding
c) Forehand welding
d) Back hand welding
35)
Solder is essentially a
a) Tin-silver base
b) Tin-bismuth base
c) Tin-lead base
d) Silver-lead base
36)
The flux in Brazing process is used in the form of
a) Powder
b) Liquid
c) Paste
d) Any of the above
37)
Post cleaning is necessary at brazes joint in order to avoid
a) Scaling
b) Slagging
c) Oxidation
d) Corrosion
38)
Spleter is same as
a) Tin
b) Zinc
c) Lead
d) Silver
39)
Acetylene is stored in the gas cylinders in
a) Gaseous form
b) Liquid form
c) Solid form
d) Under high pressure
40)
Undercuts in weldments are caused due to
a) Low welding current
b) Excessive welding current
c) Wrong flux
d) Greasy and dirty surfaces
41)
Electron beam welding is best carried out in
a) Inert gas
b) Vacuum
c) CO2
d) None of the above
42)
Pre-Heating is essential for welding
a) Low carbon steel
b) Al
c) High carbon steel
d) None of the above
43)
Flux is not required for welding
a) Cast iron
b) Brass
c) Bronze
d) Carbon steel
44)
Arc welding include
a) Metal arc welding
b) Carbon arc welding
c) Atomic hydrogen welding
d) All the above
45)
The DC m/cs as compared to AC m/cs require
a) Less maintenance
b) More maintenance
c) Equal maintenance
d) Something else
46)
In case of gas welding, the flux
a) Is used from outside in the form of powder
b) Is coated on the electrodes
c) Is not used
d) None of the above
47)
Resistance welding include
a) Butt welding
b) Spot welding
c) Seam welding
d) All the above
48)
For welding steel by MIG process, the gas used is
a) Pure argon gas
b) CO2
c) Argon oxygen mixture
d) Nitrogen
49)
Ultrasonic welding is a
a) High Temperature joining process
b) Pressureless arc welding process
c) Cold-joining process
d) None of the above
50)
Magnetic arc blow is
a) A recent welding technique
b) Used to weld hard materials
c) Occurs when welding near equator
d) Phenomenon of occurrence of splatter because of magnetic
fields created in DC arc welding
Metal Casting
1)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Investment casting uses pattern made of
wax
clay
metal
wood
2)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Casting process used for ornaments and toys of non-ferrous alloys is
Slush casting
Die casting
Pressed casting
Investment casting
3) Process of making hollow castings of desired thickness by permanent
mould without the use of cores, is known as
a) Permanent mould casting
b) Die casting
c) Slush casting
d) Centrifugal casting
4)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Misrun is a casting defect which occurs when
The pouring temperature is very high
Gases have been absorbed by the liquid metal
Sufficient superheat has not been provided to the liquid metal
The alignment is improper
5)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The additional of coal dust to the green moulding sand is to improve
Permeability
Surface finish
Mouldability
Green strength
6)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Surface finish of casting depends upon
Mould dressings
Pattern finish
Fineness of sand
All of the above
7) A Jolt m/c is used to
a) Ram the sand harder at the back of the mould and softer on the pattern
face
b) Ram the sand harder at the pattern face with decreasing hardness
towards the back of the mould
c) Produce uniform packing of sand in the mould
d) Give uniform sand hardness throughout the mould
8)
a)
b)
c)
d)
In a cold chamber die casting m/c
Melting pot is separate from the m/c
Only non-ferrous alloys with high melting temperature are casted
Al, Mg,Cu base alloys and other high melting alloys are casted
All the above
9) A sand slinger is used to
a) Ram the sand harder at the back of the mould and softer on the pattern
face
b) Ram the sand harder at the pattern face with decreasing hardness
towards the back of the mould
c) Produce uniform packing of sand in the mould
d) Give uniform sand hardness throughout the mould
10)
In the foundry sand Bentonit is used as
a) Plasticier
b) Surface finish improver
c) Binder
d) Refractory powder
11)
Shift is a casting defect which
a) Results in mismatching of the top & bottom parts of a casting
b) Is due to enlargement of the mould cavity by metal pressure causing
partial or overall enlargement of the casting
c) Occurs near the ingates as rough lumps on the surface of the casting
d) Is due to a thin projection of metal not intended as part of the casting
12)
Slag inclusion in casting is a
a)
b)
c)
d)
Surface defect
Internal defect
Superficial defect
None of the above
13)
The most suitable material for die casting is
a) Steel
b) Cast iron
c) Nickel
d) Copper
14)
Draft on pattern for casting id
a) Shrinkage allowance
b) Identification number marked on it
c) Taper to facilitate its removal from mould
d) For machining allowance
15)
Casting process is preferred for parts having
a) A few details
b) Many details
c) No details
d) Non-symmetrical shape
16)
Loose piece patterns are
a) A sort of split pattern
b) Used when the pattern cannot be drawn from the mould
c) Similar to core prints
d) Never used in foundry work
17)
Cores are used to
a) Making desired recess in casting
b) Strengthen moulding sand
c) Support loose pieces
d) Remove pattern easily
18)
Shrinkage allowance is made up by
a) Adding to external and internal dimensions
b) Subtracting from external and internal dimensions
c) Subtracting from external and adding to internal dimensions
d) adding to external and Subtracting from internal dimensions
19)
The purpose of gate is
a) Feed the casting at the rate consistent with the rate of
solidification
b) Act as reservoir for molten metal
c) Help feed the casting until all solidification takes place
d) Feed molten metal from pouring basin to gate
20)
Lifter is a
a) Round sleeve
b) A long, flat metal plate fitted with an offset handle
c) Used to make or repair corners in the mould
d) Used to scoop sand deep in the mould
21)
The purpose of sprue is to
a) Feed the casting at the rate consistent with the rate of solidification
b) Act as reservoir for molten metal
c) Help feed the casting until all solidification takes place
d) Feed molten metal from pouring basin to gate
22)
As the size of casting increases, it is often better to use
increasingly
a) Fine grain
b) Medium grain
c) Coarser grain
d) Any of the above
23)
The purpose of raiser is to
a) Feed the casting at the rate consistent with the rate of solidification
b) Act as reservoir for molten metal
c) Help feed the casting until all solidification takes place
d) Feed molten metal from pouring basin to gate
24)
The ratio between the pattern shrinkage allowance of steel and
cast iron is about
a) 1:1
b) 2:1
c) 1:2
d) 1:1.5
25)
Large and heavy castings are made by
a) Green sand moulding
b) Pit moulding
c) Dry sand moulding
d) Pressure moulding
26)
Molten iron is desulphurised by adding which of the following
to the ladle
a) Carbon
b) Ferro-manganese
c) Ferro-silicon
d) Soda ash
27)
Cold ducts are
a) Forging defects due to insufficient filling
b) Pores in weld
c) Casting defects due to two streams not able to fuse due to being
cool
d) Casting defects due to moisture
28)
Core prints are used to
a) Strengthen core
b) Form seat to support and hold the core in place
c) Fabricate core
d) All the above
29)
The internal hot tear defects in castings can be inspected by the
following method:
a) Radiography
b) Visual inspection
c) Damping test
d) Fluorescent penetrant test
30)
Flogging in foundry practice refers to
a) A type of moulding method
b) Removal of sprues and risers
c) A non-destructive testing method
d) Removal of slag during pouring
31)
Felting is an operation performed
a) Before casting
b) After casting
c) During casting
d) After heat treatment
32)
The surface & sub-surface cracks in non-magnetic alloys can be
easily located and detected by the following inspection method
a) X-ray testing
b) Ultrasonic testing
c) Magnetic particle inspection testing
d) Dye penetrant testing
33)
Drossing in foundry practice refers to
a) A method of cleaning the castings
b) An inspection method for casting
c) A method of deoxidation of molten metal
d) Improving finish of castings.
34)
Sweep pattern is used for moulding parts having
a) Rectangular shape
b) Elliptical shape
c) Uniform Symmetrical shape
d) None of the above
35)
In Carthias process
a) Molten metal if fed into the cavity in metallic mould by gravity
b) Metal is proud into die cavity, and after a pre-determined time the
mould is inverted to permit a part of metal still in molten state to flow
out of cavity
c) Cavity is filled with a precalculated quantity of metal and a core
or plunger is inserted to force the metal into cavity
d) None of the above
36)
The pouring temperature for grey cast iron is
o
a) 1000 C
b) 1400 oC
c) 1550 oC
d) 1650 oC
37)
Honey combing / sponginess refers to
a) Presence of impurities in molten metal
b) Molten metal at low temperature
c) Formation of a number of cavities in close proximity in casting
d) Defects due to poor heat treatment
38)
Colour scheme is employed on patterns in order to identify the
a) Pattern allowances
b) Cope & drag
c) Material of pattern
d) None of the above
39)
Semi-centrifugal casting
a) Is used to ensure purity and density at extremities of a casting
b) Is used to cast symmetrical objects
c) Is used to obtain high density and pure castings
d) Is not used for any purpose
40)
Antioch process is a
a) Continuous casting process
b) Welding process
c) Process of making porous mould
d) There is nothing like Antioch process
41)
Water pipes of large length & dia are made by
a) Semi centrifugal casting
b) Continuous casting
c) Sand casting
d) Forging
42)
Dilatometer is used to find out the following property of
moulding sand
a) Permeability
b) Moisture content
c) Hot strength
d) Compactness
43)
Which of the following process is not a casting process
a) Carthias process
b) Extrusion
c) Slush process
d) Shell moulding
44)
Trowel is a
a) A round sleeve
b) A long, flat metal plate fitted with an offset handle
c) Used to make or repair corners in a mould
d) Used to scoop and deep in the mould
45)
Cope in foundry practice refers to
a) Bottom half of the moulding box
b) Top half of the moulding box
c) Middle portion half of the moulding box
d) Coating on the mould face
46)
The purpose of Chaplets is
a) Just like chills to ensure directional solidification
b) To provide efficient venting
c) To support the cores
d) Compress moulding sand
47)
Which of the following is not a casting defect
a) Hot tear
b) Blow hole
c) Scab
d) Decarburization
48)
Chills are metal inserts of steel that are placed at appropriate
locations in the mould walls to
a)
b)
c)
d)
Decrease the freezing rate
Increase the freezing rate
Help directional solidification
Prevent directional solidification
49)
Strength & Permeability of served sand related to
a) Grain size
b) Clay-content
c) Hardness
d) Moisture content
50)
Which of the following material h as more shrinkage
allowances
a) Cast iron
b) Brass
c) Lead
d) Steel
Thermodynamics
1)
Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a
perfect gas
a. Boyles law
b. Charles law
c. Joules law
d. All the above
2)
An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure
occupies
a. More volume
b. Less volume
c. Same volume
d. No such correlation
3)
According to the Daltons law, the total pressure of the mixture of
gases is equal to
a. Greater of the partial pressures of all
b. Average of the partial pressure of all
c. Sum of the partial pressure of all
d. Atmospheric pressure
4)
Characteristic gas constant of a gas is equal to
a. Cp/Cv
b. Cp-Cv
c. Cv/Cp
d. Cp+Cv
5)
Specific heat of air at constant pressure
a. 0.17
b. 0.21
c. 0.24
d. 1.0
6)
The behavior of gases can be fully determined by
a. 1 law
b. 2 laws
c. 3 laws
d. 4 laws
No liquid can exist as liquid at
a. -273K
b. Vacuum
c. Zero pressure
d. Centre of earth
7)
8)
Absolute Zero pressure will occur
a. At sea level
b. When molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
c. At center of the earth
d. Under vacuum conditions
9)
Intensive property of a system is one whose value
a. Depends on the mass of the system, like volume
b. Does not depend on the same of the system, like
temperature & pressure
c. Is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
d. Is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
10)
Boyles law pv=constant is applicable to gases under
a. All ranges of pressures
b. Only small range of pressures
c. High range of pressures
d. Steady range of pressures
11)
The same volume of all gases would represent their
a. Densities
b. Molecular weight
c. Specific weights
d. Specific gravities
12)
Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of
temperature
a. Charles law
b. Joules law
c. Boyles law
d. There is no such law
13)
The equation ( P + a / v2) 9v-b) = R is known as
a. Real gas equation
b. Maxwells equation
c. Van der Walls equation
d. Avogadro s equation
14)
Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system
a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Heat
d. Density
15)
Work done is Zero for the following process
a. Constant volume
b. Free expansion
c. Throttling
d. All the above
16)
strictly speaking all Engineering processes are
a. quasi-static
b. thermodynamically in equilibrium
c. reversible
d. irreversible
17)
When a gas flows through a very long pipe of uniform c/s, the flow
is approximately
a. Isentropic
b. Isobaric
c. Isothermal
d. Isochoric
18)
Measurement of temperature is based on
a. Thermodynamic process
b. 0th law of Thermodynamics
c. 1st law of Thermodynamics
d. 2nd law of Thermodynamics
19)
In a carnot cycle, heat is transferred at
a. Constant volume
b. Constant pressure
c. Constant temperature
d. Constant enthalphy
20)
A perpetual motion m/c is a
a. A thermodynamic m/c
b. A hypothetical m/c
c. A hypothetical m/c whose operation would violate the laws
of thermodynamics
d. An inefficient m/c
21)
Kelvin Planks deals with
a. Conversion of heat
b. Conversion of work
c. Conversion of heat into work
d. Conversion of work into heat
22)
During throttling process
a. Heat exchange does not takes place
b. No work is done by expanding steams
c. There is no change of internal energy of steam
d. All the above
23)
Maxwells thermodynamic relation are applicable to
a. Reversible process
b. Irreversible process
c. Thermodynamic process
d. Chemical system in equilibrium
24)
Thermal power plant works on
a. Carnot cycle
b. Joule cycle
c. Rankine cycle
d. Otto cycle
25)
The working substance for carnot cycle is
a. Atmospheric air
b. Air fuel mixture
c. Ideal gas
d. Steam
26)
Expansion in nozzle is a
a. Isobaric process
b. Isothermal process
c. Adiabatic process
d. Isochoric process
27)
Air std efficiency of a diesel cycle is dependent upon
a. Ratio of specific heats
b. Cut off ratio
c. Adiabatic compression ratio
d. All the above
28)
A system will be in thermodynamic equilibrium only if it is
a. Thermal equilibrium
b. Mechanical equilibrium
c. Chemical equilibrium
d. All the above
29)
An isentropic process on T-S diagram is represented by a
a. Horizontal line
b. Vertical line
c. Inclined line
d. Curved line
30)
Which of the following is extensive property
a. Entropy
b. Internal energy
c. Kinetic energy
d. All the above
31)
Triple point of a pure substance is a point at which
a. Liquid and vapour exist together
b. Solid and liquid exist together
c. Solid, liquid & vapour phases exist together
d. Undefined
32)
All gases behave ideally under
a. Vacuum condition
b. Low pressure conditions
c. High pressure conditions
d. Super critical pressure
33)
The process of sublimation is found to occur in the case of
a. Liquid N2
b. Solid CO2
c. Solid O2
d. Steel
34)
A steam nozzle converts
a. Heat energy into useful energy
b. Heat energy into kinetic energy
c. Potential energy into heat
d. Kinetic energy into heat
35)
The constant pressure gas turbine works on
a. Rankine cycle
b. Brayton cycle
c. Carnot cycle
d. Dual cycle
36)
Barometric pressure is equal to
a. 760 mm Hg
b. 0 mm Hg
c. 735.6 mm hg
d. 100 mm Hg
37)
In a refrigeration m/c, COP will be equal to
a. Q2 / (Q1 Q2)
b. Q1 / (Q1 Q2)
c. (Q1 Q2) / Q1
d. (Q2 Q1) / Q1
38)
The value of entropy at 0 oC is taken as
a. 1
b. 0
c. -1
d. Any value
39)
Temperature of a gas is produced due to
a. Kinetic energy of molecules
b. Repulsion of molecules
c. Attraction of molecules
d. Surface tension of molecules
40)
Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions b/w the
molecules are
a. Perfectly elastic
b. Perfectly inelastic
c. Partly elastic
d. Partly inelastic
41)
The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to
a. 0.17
b. 0.24
c. 1.41
d. 2.71
42)
On weight basis, air contains following parts of Oxygen
a. 21
b. 23
c. 25
d. 73
43)
Isochoric process is one in which
a.
b.
c.
d.
Free expansion takes place
No mechanical work is done by the system
All parameters remains constant
Mass &energy transfer do not take place
44)
An actual engine is to be designed having same efficiency as the
carnot cycle. Such proportion is
a. Feasible
b. Impossible
c. Possible
d. Desierable
45)
The constant volume cycle is also called
a. Otto Cycle
b. Carnot cycle
c. Diesel cycle
d. Rankine cycle
46)
For same compression ratio and for heat added
a. Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
b. Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
c. Efficiency depends on the factors
d. None of the above.
47)
Second law of thermodynamics defines
a. Entropy
b. Enthalpy
c. Heat
d. Internal energy
48)
Expansion in nozzle is a
a. Adiabatic process
b. Isothermal process
c. Isobaric process
d. Isochoric process
49)
work done during process can be determined by p dV when the
process is
a. static
b. isothermal
c. adiabatic
d. quasi static
50)
Some times ice is white in color, its due to
a. Cooling rapidly
b. Sub-cooling
c. Presence of dissolved air / gases and impurities
d. Blowing air during freezing process
